Chapter 20: Nursing Management of the Pregnancy at Risk: Selected Health Conditions and Vulnerable Populations
A pregnant client is diagnosed with syphilis. Which response would demonstrate respect for the client and therapeutic communication?
"I am sure it is frightening to you to be diagnosed with a disease that can affect your baby." Explanation: The nurse needs to be supportive, empathic and accepting of the client, asking open-ended questions and acting calm and reassuring to her. By acknowledging her fears for her fetus, the nurse is demonstrating respect for her and conveying confidence that the client is trying to take care of her fetus.
A mother is talking to the nurse and is concerned about managing her asthma while she is pregnant. Which response to the nurse's teaching indicates that the woman needs further instruction?
"I need to begin taking allergy shots like my friend to prevent me from having an allergic reaction this spring." Explanation: A pregnant woman with a history of asthma needs to be proactive, taking her inhalers and other asthma medications to prevent an acute asthma attack. She needs to understand that it is far more dangerous to not take the medications and have an asthma attack. She also needs to monitor her peak flow for decreases, be aware of triggers, and avoid them if possible. However, a pregnant woman should never begin allergy shots if she has not been taking them previously, due to the potential of an adverse reaction.
A nurse is teaching a prenatal client with class III heart failure the signs and symptoms that should be reported to the health care provider. The nurse determines the teaching has been effective when the client makes which statement?
"I will call the clinic when I have a cough at night." Explanation: The earliest warning sign of cardiac decompensation in clients with heart failure is persistent rales in the bases of the lungs. The client will probably notice a nocturnal cough as the first sign. A sudden decrease in the ability to perform normal duties, exertional dyspnea, and attacks of coughing are other signs of cardiac decompensation. The dentist should be informed of the client's status and procedures planned accordingly. Antibiotics will not address the decompensation issue; they should only be used when there is an active infection or taken prophylactically with certain procedures to decrease the risk of developing an infection.
A woman's baby is HIV positive at birth. She asks the nurse if this means the baby will develop AIDS. Which statement would be the nurse's best answer?
"The antibodies may be those transferred across the placenta; the baby may not develop AIDS." Explanation: Infants born of HIV-positive women test positive for HIV antibodies at birth because these have crossed the placenta. An accurate disease status cannot be determined until the antibodies fade at about 18 months. Testing positive for HIV antibodies does not mean the infant has AIDS. Having a cesarean birth does decrease the risk of transmitting the virus to the infant at birth; it does not prevent the transmission of the disease. HIV antibodies do cross the placenta, which is why babies born of HIV positive mothers are HIV positive.
A nurse is caring for a 45-year-old pregnant client with a cardiac disorder who has been instructed by her primary care provider to follow class I functional activity recommendations. The nurse correctly instructs the client to follow which limitations?
"You do not need to limit your physical activity unless you experience any problems such as fatigue, chest pain, or shortness of breath." Explanation: Class I recommendations (no physical activity limitations) are suggested for clients who are asymptomatic and exhibit no objective evidence of cardiac disease. The functional classifications system consists of classes I to IV, based on past and present disability and physical signs resulting from cardiac disease.
A pregnant single mom living alone tells the nurse she is considering getting a cat for her 2-year-old daughter. Which is the best response by the nurse?
"You should wait until after you give birth to obtain the cat for your daughter." Explanation: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan that can be transmitted via undercooked meat and through cat litter. Having a cat is not an issue, but cleaning the litter box may expose the mother to the infection and result in fetal anomalies. Exposure to the cat litter will not necessitate a cesarean section, and having a cat will not cut down on any jealousy the 2-year-old might feel when the new baby is born. The nurse would discourage the mother from getting cat until after the baby is born.
A 25-year-old pregnant client comes to the office for the first prenatal visit. During the history, the client tells the nurse she had tuberculosis 5 years ago. What is the nurse's best response?
"You will have to maintain an adequate level of calcium during your pregnancy." Explanation: A client who had tuberculosis earlier in life must be especially careful to maintain an adequate level of calcium during pregnancy to ensure the calcium tuberculosis pockets in her lungs are not broken down and the disease is not reactivated. The tuberculosis may reoccur if the intra-abdominal pressure (from pushing) breaks the calcified pockets open; if the woman is positive for active tuberculosis she will have to take isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), and ethambutol HCL, and if the woman has a positive reaction, a chest X-ray or a sputum culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis.
A nurse in the hospital is caring for a client at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) more than 24 hours prior to coming to the hospital. The client presents with a fever of 100.4°F (38°C). Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of options. Due to the client's PROM more than 24 hours prior to arriving to the hospital, the nurse determines the client is at risk for contracting __________________________________________ and should plan to implement ___________________________________________ to prevent complications.
-group B streptococcus -administer intravenous antibiotics Explanation: Group B streptococcus infection is a bacterial infection that can be transmitted to the fetus during labor. This can have cause serious complications to the newborn, including respiratory distress and sepsis. Group B streptococcus infection can be transmitted to the fetus during labor. The client is at risk for contracting group B streptococcus due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) more than 24 hours prior to arriving at the hospital. The nurse will plan to administer intravenous antibiotics to the client prior to birth of the fetus. Chlamydia, trichomoniasis, and bacterial vaginosis are sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike group B streptococcus infection, these infections are not transmitted to the fetus during labor. As STIs, the client is not at risk for contracting these infections because of PROM. Metronidazole is an anti-infective that is used to treat bacterial vaginosis, not group B streptococcus. Probiotics are used to maintain natural flora in the gastrointestinal (GI) system, not to treat group B streptococcus. Fluconazole is used to treat vaginal candidiasis, not group B streptococcus infections.
A pregnant client with type 1 diabetes is in labor. The client's blood glucose levels are being monitored every hour and she has a prescription for an infusion of regular insulin as needed based on the client's blood glucose levels. Her levels are as follows: 1300: 105 mg/dL (5.83 mmol/L) 1400: 100 mg/dL (5.55 mmol/L) 1500: 120 mg/dL (6.66 mmol/L) 1600: 106 mg/dl (5.88 mmol/L) Based on the recorded blood glucose levels, at which time would the nurse likely administer the regular insulin infusion?
1500 Explanation: For the laboring woman with diabetes, intravenous (IV) saline or lactated Ringer's is given, and blood glucose levels are monitored every 1 to 2 hours. Glucose levels are maintained below 110 mg/dL (6.11 mmol/L) throughout labor to reduce the likelihood of neonatal hypoglycemia. If necessary, an infusion of regular insulin may be given to maintain this level. The insulin infusion would be given at 1500, based on the blood glucose level being higher than 110 mg/dL (6.11 mmol/L).
A woman comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. As part of the assessment, the woman is screened for rubella antibodies. The nurse determines that a client has immunity against rubella based on which rubella titer?
1:8 Explanation: A rubella antibody titer of 1:8 or greater proves evidence of immunity. Women with titers of less than 1:8 should be immunized.
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old primigravida client who is obese and near the end of their second trimester. The client has a history of prepregnancy obesity, hypertension, and smoking. Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of options. The client is at highest risk for developing gestational diabetes_________________. The nurse provides discharge teaching to reduce the risks of developing this condition. Teaching should include _____________________ 1. Gestational diabetes 2. ectopic pregnancy 3. gestational trophoblastic diabetes 4. spontaneous abortion 1.change in life style 2. limit smoking 3. limit exercise during pregnancy 4. refrain from having intercourse during pregnancy
1. gestational diabetes 1. change in lifestyle Explanation: Gestational diabetes occurs in pregnant clients who do not have a history of diabetes. Blood glucose and urine are monitored closely for changes in blood glucose levels and glucose or ketones in the urine. Gestational diabetes usually resolves a few weeks after childbirth. Obesity places the client at high risk for gestational diabetes. Pregnant clients with class III obesity (BMI ≥40.0) are more than five and one-half more times likely to develop gestational diabetes. The nurse should educate the client about positive lifestyle changes such as diet, exercise, and cessation of smoking. The client is too far into pregnancy to have an ectopic pregnancy. Gestational trophoblastic disease would have been detected before the end of the second trimester. Spontaneous abortion usually occurs in the first trimester. The nurse should encourage cessation of smoking, not to limit smoking. The nurse should encourage the client to maintain activity or increase it, depending on current activity level, during pregnancy, which will help with weight and blood pressure. The nurse would not recommend the client limit exercise during pregnancy; this would place the client at risk for conditions associated with limited mobility such as deep vein thrombosis. There is no reason the client should refrain from having intercourse during pregnancy.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman determined to be at high risk for gestational diabetes. The nurse prepares to rescreen this client at which time frame?
24 to 28 weeks Explanation: A woman identified as high risk for gestational diabetes would undergo rescreening between 24 and 28 weeks; however, some health care providers can choose to conduct this screening earlier.
The nurse is assessing a pregnant client who has a history of heart disease. The nurse will prioritize assessments focusing on the heart during which time frame?
28 to 32 weeks' gestation Explanation: A pregnant woman with heart disease is most vulnerable for cardiac decompensation from 28 to 32 weeks' gestation, just after the blood volume peaks. It would be important to assess the client's heart at each visit; however, the client's heart would be more stressed at this time due to the increased blood volume and identifying a serious situation early provides the best opportunity for treatment and preventing complications
A client with systemic lupus erythematosus is attending preconception counseling regarding their desire to get pregnant. The nurse explains that it would be best if the client is symptom-free or in remission for how long before getting pregnant?
6 months Explanation: If the client with systemic lupus erythematosus is considering pregnancy, it is recommended that the client postpone conception until the disease has been stable or in remission for 6 months. Active disease at the time of conception and a history of kidney disease increase the likelihood of a poor pregnancy outcome.
A pregnant woman with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a laboratory test of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C). What does the nurse tell the client is a normal level for this test?
6% Explanation: The upper normal level of HbA1C is 6% of total hemoglobin.
A pregnant woman with diabetes is having her hemoglobin (glycosylated) level evaluated. The nurse determines that the woman's glucose is under control and continues the woman's plan of care based on which result?
6.5% Explanation: A hemoglobin (glycosylated) level of less than 7% indicates good control; a value of more than 8% indicates poor control and warrants intervention. A glycosylated hemoglobin level less than 7% indicates that the plan is working and should be continued.
A pregnant woman with diabetes is having a glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1C) level drawn. Which result would require the nurse to revise the client's plan of care?
8.5% Explanation: A glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7% indicates good control; a value of more than 8% indicates poor control and warrants intervention. Therefore, the nurse would need to revise the plan of care.
A G4P3 client with a history of controlled asthma is upset her initial prenatal appointment is taking too long, making her late for another appointment. What is the nurse's best response when the client insists she knows how to handle her asthma and needs to leave?
Acknowledge her need to leave but ask her to demonstrate the use of inhaler and peak flow meter before she goes; remind her to take regular medications. Explanation: Management of asthma during pregnancy is very important; the nurse must document that the client has the proper ability to manage her asthma for her health and the health of the fetus. Reminding the client to continue taking her prescribed medication and to monitor her peak flow daily is not enough. It is the nurse's responsibility to know that the client knows how to take her medications. Monitoring the baby's kicks in the second and third trimester is an appropriate action. Scheduling a return appointment to discuss asthma management is not appropriate. She could have an asthma attack between the time the nurse sees her and the time of the return appointment. Noting in the chart that the woman was not counseled does not relieve the nurse of his/her obligation to ensure that the woman knows how to use her inhaler and her peak flow meter.
A postpartum mother has the following lab data recorded: a negative rubella titer. What is the appropriate nursing intervention?
Administer rubella vaccine before discharge. Explanation: Rubella is a virus, which when contracted during pregnancy has significant complications for the fetus. The illness is mild to the adult but can result in the infant being born deaf and blind. There is no cure; the CDC recommends all individuals be vaccinated against rubella. If the titer is negative, the mother does not have protection against rubella, and the next pregnancy would be at risk. She should receive the vaccination prior to discharge from the hospital. Assessing the rubella titer of the baby would not mean anything. The baby has not had rubella and has not received antibodies against rubella from the mother. Notifying the health care provider is not a priority, as most institutions have standing orders to administer the rubella vaccine if the mother's rubella titer is negative.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is in week 38 of her pregnancy. Which intervention should the nurse make with this client?
Ask the client to decrease her intake of salicylates. Explanation: Although women with RA should continue to take their medications during pregnancy to prevent joint damage, large amounts of salicylates have the potential to lead to increased bleeding at birth or prolonged pregnancy. The infant may be born with a bleeding defect and may also experience premature closure of the ductus arteriosus because of the drug's effects. For this reason, a woman is asked to decrease her intake of salicylates approximately 2 weeks before term. A number of women also take low-dose methotrexate, a carcinogen. As a rule, they should stop taking this prepregnancy because of the danger of head and neck defects in the fetus. There is no need for the client to be on bed rest or to perform the Snellen eye test.
Between her regularly scheduled visits, a woman in her first trimester of pregnancy who is taking iron supplements for anemia calls the nurse at her obstetrician's office reporting constipation. She reports that she has never had this problem before and asks for some advice about how to get relief. What is the best advice the nurse can give her?
Continue taking iron supplements but increase fluids and high-fiber foods; exercise more. Explanation: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplementation. The diagnosis of anemia indicates a true need for the iron supplementation; she needs to increase fluid and fiber to relieve the constipation associated with the iron preparations. The nurse should not advise this client to stop taking her iron supplements, even for a few days. The nurse should not advise the client to increase her iron supplementation, nor take the supplements on an every other day basis. These supplements are ordered by the primary care provider based on the client's hematologic status.
A G2P1 woman with type 1 diabetes is determined to be at 8 weeks' gestation by her health care provider. The nurse should point out which factor will help the client maintain glycemic control?
Exercise Explanation: The three main facets to glycemic control for the woman with pregestational diabetes are diet, exercise, and insulin. An individual with type 1 diabetes uses insulin and not oral hypoglycemic agents. Vitamin supplements may assist with helping to keep the woman healthy but not necessarily through glycemic control. It will be important for the woman to get enough rest throughout the pregnancy but this will not assist with glycemic control.
The nurse encourages a woman with gestational diabetes to maintain an active exercise period during pregnancy. Prior to this exercise period, the nurse would advise her to take which action?
Eat a sustaining-carbohydrate snack. Explanation: Because exercise uses up glucose, women with diabetes should take a sustaining-carbohydrate snack before hard exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
The nurse is appraising the laboratory results of a pregnant client who is in her second trimester and notes the following: thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) slightly elevated, glucose in the urine, complete blood count (CBC) low normal, and normal electrolytes. The nurse prioritizes further testing to rule out which condition?
Gestational diabetes Explanation: Glycosuria, glucose in the urine, may occur normally during pregnancy; however, if it appears in the urine, the client should be sent for testing to rule out gestational diabetes. Preeclampsia, anemia, and hyperthyroidism are not related to glucose nor to renal function. A slightly elevated TSH would indicate possible hypothyroidism instead of hyperthyroidism. Anemia would be indicated by below normal hematocrit. If the client's CBC is low normal than the nurse should monitor future results to ensure the client's counts are not dropping. It would also be appropriate for the nurse to investigate possible dietary issues. Preeclampsia would be best monitored by the blood pressure readings.
A nurse is documenting a dietary plan for a pregnant client with pregestational diabetes. What instruction should the nurse include in the dietary plan for this client?
Include complex carbohydrates in the diet. Explanation: The nurse should stress the inclusion of complex carbohydrates in the dietary plan for a pregnant woman with pregestational diabetes. The pregnant client with pregestational diabetes need not include more dairy products in the diet, eat only two meals per day, or eat at least one egg per day; these have no impact on the client's condition.
The nurse is providing care to a neonate. Review of the maternal history reveals that the mother is suspected of having a heroin use disorder. The nurse would be alert for which finding when assessing the neonate?
hypertonicity Explanation: Newborns of mothers with heroin or other opioid use disorder display irritability, hypertonicity, a high-pitched cry, vomiting, diarrhea, respiratory distress, disturbed sleeping, sneezing, diaphoresis, fever, poor sucking, tremors, and seizures.
A woman with class II heart disease is experiencing an uneventful pregnancy and is now prescribed bed rest at 36 weeks' gestation by her health care provider. The nurse should point out that this is best accomplished with which position?
Lie in a semi-recumbent position. Explanation: Semi-recumbent position is the best position for circulation of the mother and fetus. Lying flat on the back can induce supine hypotensive syndrome and fully recumbent impedes other circulation. The high Fowler position would not be comfortable for sleeping, as well as possibly impede the blood flow through the hips and lower abdomen.
A pregnant woman diagnosed with diabetes should be instructed to perform which action?
Notify the primary care provider if unable to eat because of nausea and vomiting. Explanation: During pregnancy, the insulin levels change in response to the production of HPL. The client needs to alert her provider if she is not able to eat or hold down appropriate amounts of nutrition. The client is at risk for episodes of hypoglycemia during the first trimester. She should never discontinue insulin therapy without her provider's directions. The increase of carbohydrates needs to be balanced with protein, and smaller meals would result in hypoglycemia rather than hyperglycemia.
The nurse is preparing to teach a pregnant client with iron deficiency anemia about the various iron-rich foods to include in her diet. Which food should the nurse point out will help increase the absorption of her iron supplement?
Orange juice Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells, from an underlying cause. The woman needs to take iron to manufacture enough red blood cells. Taking an iron supplement will help improve her iron levels, and taking iron with foods containing ascorbic acid, such as orange juice, improves the absorption of iron. Dried fruit (such as apples), fortified grains, and dried beans are additional food choices that are rich in iron and should be included in her daily diet.
The nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn whose mother was diagnosed with cytomegalovirus during the first trimester. On which health care provider prescription should the nurse place the priority?
Perform a hearing screen test. Explanation: Symptoms of CMV in the fetus and newborn, known as CMV inclusion disease, include hepatomegaly, thrombocytopenia, IUGR, jaundice, microcephaly, hearing loss, chorioretinitis, and intellectual disability. A hearing screen would be priority over monitoring growth and development because that will have to be done over an extended period of time. Urine and pulse are not important with this diagnosis.
A 17-year-old primigravida with type 1 diabetes is at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the clinic for an evaluation. The nurse notes her blood sugar has been poorly controlled and the health care provider is suspecting the fetus has macrosomia. The nurse predicts which step will be completed next?
Preparing for amniocentesis and fetal lung maturity assessment Explanation: If the infant has macrosomia, is large for gestation age, and the mother has had poor blood-sugar control, the provider will want further information on the fetus and readiness for delivery before making any decisions on delivery. After determining the readiness of the fetus, then plans for delivery can be determined and scheduled.
The maternal health nurse is caring for a group of high-risk pregnant clients. Which client condition will the nurse identify as being the highest risk for pregnancy?
Pulmonary hypertension Explanation: Pulmonary hypertension is considered the greatest risk to a pregnancy because of the hypoxia that is associated with the condition. The remaining conditions represent potential cardiac complications that may increase the client's risk in pregnancy; however, these do not present the greatest risk in pregnancy.
Cytomegalovirus infection can result in different congenital anomalies. It can also be transmitted via different routes. When discussing this infection with a pregnant woman, the nurse integrates understanding that permanent fetal disability can occur with which type of transmission of CMV?
in utero transmission Explanation: There are three time periods during which mother-to-child transmission can occur; however, permanent disability occurs only in association with in utero infection. Such disability can result from maternal infection during any point in the pregnancy, but more severe disabilities are usually associated with maternal infection during the first trimester.
A pregnant woman diagnosed with cardiac disease 4 years ago is told that her pregnancy is a high-risk pregnancy. The nurse then explains that the danger occurs primarily because of the increase in circulatory volume. The nurse informs the client that the most dangerous time for her is when?
in weeks 28 to 32 Explanation: The danger of pregnancy in a woman with cardiac disease occurs primarily because of the increase in circulatory volume. The most dangerous time for a woman is in weeks 28 to 32, just after the blood volume peaks.
The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about how to prevent contracting cytomegalovirus (CMV) during pregnancy. What tips would the nurse share with this client? Select all that apply. Wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water after touching saliva or urine. Do not share food or drinks with young children, especially if they are in day care. If you contract CMV, your practitioner will give you some oral medicine to treat it. If you have CMV, it is suggested that you not breastfeed your infant. If you develop any flu-like symptoms, notify your pratitioner immediately to be evaluated for CMV.
Wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water after touching saliva or urine. Do not share food or drinks with young children, especially if they are in day care. If you develop any flu-like symptoms, notify your pratitioner immediately to be evaluated for CMV. Explanation: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a mild infection and women may not know they have contracted it. The problem arises when a pregnant woman contracts it during the first 20 weeks of gestation. Prevention is the key, so the nurse would reinforce handwashing, not eating or drinking from a container after a small child has done so, and notifying the physician if the client develops mild flu-like symptoms so she can be tested to rule out CMV.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with heart disease in a labor unit. Which intervention is most important in the first 48 hours postpartum?
assessing for cardiac decompensation Explanation: The nurse should assess the client with heart disease for cardiac decompensation, which is most common from 28 to 32 weeks' gestation and in the first 48 hours postpartum. Limiting sodium intake, inspecting the extremities for edema, and ensuring that the client consumes a high-fiber diet are interventions during pregnancy not in the first 48 hours postpartum.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with gestational diabetes. Which meal should the nurse recommend for this client?
baked turkey, brown rice, and strawberries Explanation: The nurse should recommend foods high in whole-grain, lean meats, high fiber, and naturally low in fat and sodium.
A new young mother has tested positive for HIV. When discussing the situation with the client, the nurse should advise the mother that she should avoid which activity?
breastfeeding Explanation: Breastfeeding is a major contributing factor for mother-to-child transmission of HIV. Cesarean birth before the onset of labor and/or rupture of membranes can greatly reduce the chance of transmitting the infection to the infant. Future pregnancies should be discussed and decided on an individual basis. Proper treatment of any open wounds and education should be provided to the mother to ensure she reduces the chance of transmitting HIV to her infant.
A pregnant client with type I diabetes asks the nurse about how to best control her blood sugar while she is pregnant. The best reply would be for the woman to:
check her blood sugars frequently and adjust insulin accordingly. Explanation: The goal for a mother who has type I diabetes mellitus is to keep tight control over her blood sugars throughout the pregnancy. Therefore, she needs to test her blood sugar frequently during the day and make adjustments in the insulin doses she is receiving.
When providing nutritional counseling to a pregnant woman with diabetes, the nurse would urge the client to obtain most of her calories from which source?
complex carbohydrates Explanation: The pregnant woman with diabetes is encouraged to eat three meals a day plus three snacks, with 40% of calories derived from good-quality complex carbohydrates, 35% of calories from protein sources, and 35% of calories from unsaturated fats. The intake of saturated fats should be limited during pregnancy, just as they should be for any person to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A nurse is interviewing a pregnant woman who has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. During the interview, the client tells the nurse that she works in a day care center with 2- and 3-year olds. Based on the client's history, the nurse would be alert for the development of which condition?
cytomegalovirus Explanation: The nurse would be alert for the development of cytomegalovirus infection. Pregnant women acquire active disease primarily from sexual contact, blood transfusions, kissing, and contact with children in day care centers. It can also be spread through vertical transmission from mother to child in utero (causing congenital CMV), during birth, or through breastfeeding. Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and toxoplasmosis are not spread through contact with children in day care centers.
Which changes in pregnancy would the nurse identify as a contributing factor for arterial thrombosis, especially for the woman with atrial fibrillation?
hypercoagulable state Explanation: The nurse should identify that the increased risk of arterial thrombosis in atrial fibrillation is due to the hypercoagulable state of pregnancy. During pregnancy, there is a state of hypercoagulation. This increases the risk of arterial thrombosis in clients having atrial fibrillation and artificial valves. Increased cardiac output and blood volume do not cause arterial thrombosis. Elevation of the diaphragm is due to the uterine distension, and it causes a shift in the QRS axis and is not associated with arterial thrombosis.
A nurse is conducting a class on gestational diabetes for a group of pregnant women who are at risk for the condition. The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the class identifies which complication as affecting the neonate?
hyperglycemia Explanation: Gestational diabetes is associated with either neonatal complications such as macrosomia, hypoglycemia, and birth trauma or maternal complications such as preeclampsia and cesarean birth.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant adolescent client, who is in her first trimester, during a visit to the maternal child clinic. Which important area should the nurse address during assessment of the client?
knowledge of child development Explanation: The nurse should address the client's knowledge of child development during assessment of the pregnant adolescent client. The nurse need not address the sexual development of the client or whether sex was consensual. This would not be an opportune time to discuss birth control methods to be used after the pregnancy.
Which change in insulin is most likely to occur in a woman during pregnancy?
less effective than normal Explanation: Somatotropin released by the placenta makes insulin less effective. This is a safeguard against hypoglycemia.
A pregnant client has tested positive for cytomegalovirus. What can this cause in the newborn?
microcephaly Explanation: Signs that are likely to be present in the 10% of newborns who are symptomatic at birth include microcephaly, seizures, IUGR, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and rash.
A pregnant client has a history of asthma. After reviewing the possible medications that may be prescribed during her pregnancy to control her asthma, the nurse determines additional teaching is needed when the client identifies which drug as being used?
misoprostol Explanation: Pharmacologic agents used to treat asthma in pregnancy fall into two categories: rescue agents and maintenance agents. Rescue agents provide immediate symptomatic relief by reducing acute bronchospasm. Agents used in this category include albuterol and ipratropium. Maintenance agents, by contrast, reduce the inflammation that leads to bronchospasm. Agents used in this category are inhaled steroids. Common ones prescribed include beclomethasone and salmeterol. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin that is used for treating postpartum hemorrhage but is contraindicated with asthma clients due to the risk of bronchial spasm and bronchoconstriction.
A pregnant client has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which are risk factors for developing gestational diabetes? Select all that apply. maternal age less than 18 years genitourinary tract abnormalities obesity hypertension previous large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant
obesity hypertension previous large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant Explanation: Obesity, hypertension, and a previous infant weighing more than 9 lb (4 kg) are risk factors for developing gestational diabetes. Maternal age less than 18 years and genitourinary tract abnormalities do not increase the risk of developing gestational diabetes.
A woman with an artificial mitral valve develops heart failure at the 20th week of pregnancy. Which measure would the nurse stress with her during the remainder of the pregnancy?
obtaining enough rest Explanation: As the blood volume doubles during pregnancy, heart failure can occur. The pregnant woman needs to obtain adequate rest to prevent overworking the heart. Fluid may need to be restricted.
A pregnant client is reporting of a large amount of malodorous vaginal discharge that is foamy and yellow-green in color, vaginal itching and painful intercourse. When asked, she also reports that urination is somewhat painful. She is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What treatment would the nurse anticipate the client receiving?
oral metronidazole Explanation: Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan infection, which can cause preterm labor, low birth weight, and premature rupture of membranes. Treatment is oral metronidazole because it is more effective in treating the infection than the suppository or creams.
The nurse explains to a pregnant client that she will need to take iron during her pregnancy after being diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. The nurse suggests that absorption of the supplemental iron can be increased by taking it with which substance?
orange juice Explanation: Anemia is a condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells, from an underlying cause. The woman needs to take iron to manufacture enough red blood cells. Taking an iron supplement will help improve her iron levels, and taking iron with foods containing ascorbic acid, such as orange juice, improves the absorption of iron.
The nurse is assessing a woman with class III heart disease who is in for a prenatal visit. What would be the first recognizable sign that this client is in heart failure?
persistent rales in the bases of the lungs Explanation: The earliest warning sign of cardiac decompensation is persistent rales in the bases of the lungs.
During the assessment of a laboring client, the nurse learns that the client has cardiovascular disease (CVD). Which assessment would be priority for the newborn?
respiratory function Explanation: The nurse should identify respiratory distress syndrome as a major risk that can be faced by the offspring of a client with cardiovascular disease. While the other assessments are important, they are not priority.
A client is diagnosed with peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM). Which therapy should the nurse expect to administer to the client?
restricted sodium intake Explanation: The client with peripartum cardiomyopathy should be prescribed a restricted sodium intake to control their blood pressure. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are given to treat depression in pregnancy, not peripartum cardiomyopathy. Methadone is given for the treatment of a substance use disorder during pregnancy. Complementary therapies like ginger therapy help in the alleviation of hyperemesis gravidarum, not peripartum cardiomyopathy.
A nurse is caring for a newborn with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. What characteristic of the fetal alcohol spectrum disorder should the nurse assess for in the newborn?
small head circumference Explanation: The nurse should assess for small head circumference in a newborn being assessed for fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder does not cause decreased blood glucose level, a poor breathing pattern, or wide eyes.
Over the past 20 weeks, the following blood pressure readings are documented for a pregnant client with chronic hypertension: week 16 - 130/86 mm Hg; week 20 - 138/88 mm Hg; week 24 - 136/82 mm Hg; and week 28 - 138/88 mm Hg. The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which classification of her blood pressure?
stage 1 Explanation: Chronic hypertension exists when the woman has high blood pressure before pregnancy or before the 20th week of gestation, or when hypertension persists for more than 12 weeks. The Eighth Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure (Joint National Committee [JNC 8], 2018) blood pressure guidelines classify hypertension as follows: elevated: Systolic between 120 and 129 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg; Stage 1: Systolic between 130 and 139 mm Hg or diastolic between 80 and 89 mm Hg; Stage 2: Systolic at least 140 mm Hg or diastolic at least 90 mm Hg; Hypertensive crisis: Systolic over 180 mm Hg and/or diastolic over 120 mm Hg (Alexander, 2019; Bakris, 2019). The client has stage 1 hypertension.
What is the role of the nurse during the preconception counseling of a pregnant client with chronic hypertension?
stressing the positive benefits of a healthy lifestyle Explanation: The nurse should stress the positive benefits of a healthy lifestyle during the preconception counseling of a client with chronic hypertension. The client need not avoid dairy products or increase intake of vitamin D supplements. It may not be advisable for a client with chronic hypertension to exercise without consultation.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has condylomata acuminata (anogenital warts) as a result of HPV infection. The nurse should educate the client about:
the need to discuss surgical options with her care provider. Explanation: Condylomata acuminata (anogenital warts) can be removed surgically; topical treatments are often teratogenic. Antibiotics are ineffective due to the viral etiology. Hygiene will not resolve these lesions.
A primigravida 21-year-old client at 24 weeks' gestation has a 2-year history of HIV. As the nurse explains the various options for delivery, which factor should the nurse point out will influence the decision for a vaginal birth?
the viral load Explanation: A woman who has HIV during pregnancy is at risk for transmitting the infection to the fetus during pregnancy or childbirth and to the newborn while breastfeeding. The type of birth, vaginal or cesarean, depends on several factors, including the woman's viral load, use of ART during pregnancy (not waiting until the birth), length of time membranes have been ruptured, and gestational age (not mother's age). With prenatal ART and prophylactic treatment of the newborn, there is a reduced risk of perinatal HIV transmission. The amniocentesis results would not be a factor in preventing the spread of HIV to the infant and may actually lead to the fetus being infected through the puncture site and bleeding into the amniotic sac.
A nurse is assessing a newborn and suspects that newborn may have been exposed to alcohol during gestation. The nurse suspect this based on which newborn findings? Select all that apply. thin upper lip small head circumference macrocephaly limb abnormality large inset eyes
thin upper lip small head circumference limb abnormality Explanation: Characteristics of a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder include craniofacial dysmorphia (thin upper lip, small head circumference, and small eyes), intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, and congenital anomalies such as limb abnormalities and cardiac defects.
A nurse is performing an assessment on a new client. The woman estimates that she is approximately 16 weeks pregnant. While assessing her, the nurse asks her about apparent scratch marks on her hands, and she tells the nurse that she has three cats at home. What screening would be prescribed for this woman?
toxoplasmosis Explanation: Toxoplasmosis is an infection caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, also referred to as T. gondii. Transmission is via undercooked meat and through cat feces. Toxoplasmosis is a common infection in humans and usually produces no symptoms. However, when the infection passes from the woman through the placenta to the fetus, a condition called congenital toxoplasmosis can occur. Approximately 400 to 4,000 cases of congenital toxoplasmosis occur per year in the United States (Williams, 2007). The classic triad of symptoms for congenital toxoplasmosis is chorioretinitis, intracranial calcification, and hydrocephalus in the newborn.
The nurse is assessing a primigravida woman who reports vaginal itching, a great deal of foamy yellow-green discharge, and pain during intercourse. The nurse suspects the woman has contracted which disorder?
trichomoniasis Explanation: Trichomoniasis is caused by a one-celled protozoa. The symptoms include large amounts of foamy, yellow-green vaginal discharge. Treatment is with metronidazole, and her partner needs to be treated as well. A yeast infection presents with a cottage cheese-like discharge. Chlamydia often has no symptoms. If the woman does experience symptoms, these may include vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and abdominal or pelvic pain. Gonorrhea may have symptoms so mild that they go unnoticed in the woman. The woman who contracts gonorrhea may have vaginal bleeding during sexual intercourse, pain and burning while urinating, and a yellow or bloody vaginal discharge.
