Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications
The nurse is caring for a client with hydramnios. What will the nurse watch for? 1. Possible intrauterine growth restriction 2. Newborn congenital anomalies 3. Newborn postmaturity and renal malformations 4. Fetal adhesions
2 Explanation: 2. Newborn congenital anomalies occur with hydramnios.
When counseling a newly pregnant client at 8 weeks gestation of twins, the nurse teaches the woman about the need for increased caloric intake. What would the nurse tell the woman that the minimum recommended intake should be? 1. 2500 kcal and 120 grams protein 2. 3000 kcal and 150 grams protein 3. 4000 kcal and 135 grams protein 4. 5000 kcal and 190 grams protein
3 Explanation: 3. 4000 kcal and 135 grams protein is the recommended caloric and protein intake in a twin-gestation pregnancy.
A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with a history of ruptured membranes for 2 hours. This is her sixth delivery; she is 40 years old, and smells of alcohol and cigarettes. What is this client at risk for? 1. Gestational diabetes 2. Placenta previa 3. Abruptio placentae 4. Placenta accreta
3 Explanation: 3. Abruptio placentae is more frequent in pregnancies complicated by smoking, premature rupture of membranes, multiple gestation, advanced maternal age, cocaine use, chorioamnionitis, and hypertension
The client at 30 weeks gestation is admitted with painless late vaginal bleeding. The nurse understands that expectant management includes which of the following? 1. Limiting vaginal exams to only one per 24-hour period. 2. Evaluating the fetal heart rate with an internal monitor. 3. Monitoring for blood loss, pain, and uterine contractibility. 4. Assessing blood pressure every 2 hours.
3 Explanation: 3. Blood loss, pain, and uterine contractibility need to be assessed for client comfort and safety.
A client in her second trimester is complaining of spotting. Causes for spotting in the second trimester are diagnosed primarily through the use of which of the following? 1. A nonstress test 2. A vibroacoustic stimulation test 3. An ultrasound 4. A contraction stress test
3 Explanation: 3. Indirect diagnosis is made by localizing the placenta via tests that require no vaginal examination. The most commonly employed diagnostic test is the transabdominal ultrasound scan.
What is the most significant cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality? 1. Amenorrhea 2. Posttraumatic stress disorder 3. Prematurity 4. Endometriosis
3 Explanation: 3. The most significant cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality is prematurity and its associated complications such as respiratory distress syndrome, necrotizing enterocolitis, and intraventricular hemorrhage.
The nurse educator is describing the different kinds of abruptio placentae to a group of students, explaining that in a complete abruptio placentae, which of the following occurs? 1. Separation begins at the periphery of the placenta. 2. The placenta separates centrally and blood is trapped between the placenta and the uterine wall. 3. There is massive vaginal bleeding in the presence of almost total separation. 4. Blood passes between the fetal membranes and the uterine wall, and escapes vaginally.
3 Explanation: 3. There is massive vaginal bleeding in the presence of almost total separation describes a complete separation of the placenta.
The nurse is caring for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). Which statement indicates that the client needs additional teaching? 1. If I were having a singleton pregnancy instead of twins, my membranes would probably not have ruptured. 2. If I develop a urinary tract infection in my next pregnancy, I might rupture membranes early again. 3. If I want to become pregnant again, I will have to plan on being on bed rest for the whole pregnancy. 4. If I have aminocentesis, I might rupture the membranes again.
3 Explanation: 3. There is no evidence that bed rest in a subsequent pregnancy decreases the risk for PPROM.
A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
D Cervical changes such as shortened endocervical length, effacement, and dilation are predictors of imminent preterm labor. Changes in the cervix accompanied by regular contractions indicate labor at any gestation. Estriol is a form of estrogen produced by the fetus that is present in plasma at 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been shown to increase before preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions that do not cause cervical change are not considered a threat. The presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation could predict preterm labor, but it has only a 20% to 40% positive predictive value. Of more importance are other physiologic clues of preterm labor such as cervical changes.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who thinks she may be experiencing preterm labor. Which information is the most important for the nurse to understand and share with the client? a. Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so variable, teaching pregnant women the symptoms of preterm labor probably causes more harm through false alarms. b. Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c. Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d. Diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.
D Gestational age of 20 to 37 weeks, uterine contractions, and a cervix that is 80% effaced or dilated 2 cm indicates preterm labor. It is essential that nurses teach women how to detect the early symptoms of preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions resemble preterm labor contractions, but they are not true labor. Waiting too long to see a health care provider could result in essential medications failing to be administered. Preterm labor is not necessarily long-term labor.
Which statement related to the induction of labor is most accurate? a. Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques b. Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL) c. Is almost always performed for medical reasons d. Is rated for viability by a Bishop score
D Induction of labor is likely to be more successful with a Bishop score of 9 or higher for first-time mothers or 5 or higher for veterans. Version is the turning of the fetus to a better position by a physician for an easier or safer birth. A TOL is the observance of a woman and her fetus for several hours of active labor to assess the safety of vaginal birth. Two thirds of cases of induced labor are elective and not done for medical reasons.
When would an internal version be indicated to manipulate the fetus into a vertex position? a. Fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins b. Fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before a cesarean birth c. Second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins d. Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during a vaginal birth
D Internal version is used only during a vaginal birth to manipulate the second twin into a presentation that allows it to be vaginally born. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be completely dilated.
Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b. Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c. Preterm labor and birth d. Postterm gestation
D Postterm gestation is not likely to occur with a breech presentation. The presence of meconium in a breech presentation may be a result of pressure on the fetal wall as it traverses the birth canal. Fetal heart tones heard at the level of the umbilical level of the mother are a typical finding in a breech presentation because the fetal back would be located in the upper abdominal area. Breech presentations often occur in preterm births.
The obstetric provider has informed the nurse that she will be performing an amniotomy on the client to induce labor. What is the nurses highest priority intervention after the amniotomy is performed? a. Applying clean linens under the woman b. Taking the clients vital signs c. Performing a vaginal examination d. Assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR)
D The FHR is assessed before and immediately after the amniotomy to detect any changes that might indicate cord compression or prolapse. Providing comfort measures, such as clean linens, for the client is important but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The womans temperature should be checked every 2 hours after the rupture of membranes but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The woman would have had a vaginal examination during the procedure. Unless cord prolapse is suspected, another vaginal examination is not warranted. Additionally, FHR assessment provides clinical cues to a prolapsed cord.
In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, which finding alerts the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours b. DTRs 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate (RR) of 16 breaths per minute d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl
D The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 4 to 7.5 mg/dl. A serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl could lead to signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity, including oliguria and respiratory distress. Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours, DTRs of 2+, and a RR of 16 breaths per minute are all normal findings.
The home health nurse is admitting a client at 18 weeks who is pregnant with twins. Which nursing action is most important? 1. Teach the client about foods that are good sources of protein. 2. Assess the clients blood pressure in her upper right arm. 3. Determine whether the pregnancy is the result of infertility treatment. 4. Collect a cervicovaginal fetal fibronectin (fFN) specimen.
1 Explanation: 1. A daily intake of 4000 kcal (minimum) and 135 g protein is recommended for a woman with normal-weight twins.
A pregnant client is admitted to the emergency department with bleeding. The nurse realizes that the client might have placenta previa. Which signs would be suggestive of placenta previa? 1. Bright red vaginal bleeding 2. Sudden onset of vaginal bleeding 3. Firm and hard uterus 4. Change in the size of abdomen
1 Explanation: 1. As the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates, the placental villi are torn from the uterine wall, causing bright red bleeding.
The nurse has received end-of-shift reports in the high-risk maternity unit. Which client should the nurse see first? 1. The client at 26 weeks gestation with placenta previa experiencing blood on toilet tissue after a bowel movement 2. The client at 30 weeks gestation with placenta previa whose fetal monitor strip shows late decelerations 3. The client at 35 weeks gestation with grade I abruptio placentae in labor who has a strong urge to push 4. The client at 37 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension whose membranes ruptured spontaneously
1 Explanation: 1. Assessment of the woman with placenta previa must be ongoing to prevent or treat complications that are potentially lethal to the mother and fetus. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding is the best diagnostic sign of placenta previa. This client is the highest priority.
The nurse knows that a baby born to a mother who had oligohydramnios could show signs of which of the following? 1. Respiratory difficulty 2. Hypertension 3. Heart murmur 4. Decreased temperature
1 Explanation: 1. Because there is less fluid available for the fetus to use during fetal breathing movements, pulmonary hypoplasia may develop.
A client is admitted to the birth setting in early labor. She is 3 cm dilated, -2 station, with intact membranes, and FHR of 150 bpm. Her membranes rupture spontaneously, and the FHR drops to 90 bpm with variable decelerations. What would the nurses initial response be? 1. Perform a vaginal exam 2. Notify the physician 3. Place the client in a left lateral position 4. Administer oxygen at 2 L per nasal cannula
1 Explanation: 1. Prolapsed umbilical cord can occur when the membranes rupture. The fetus is more likely to experience variable decelerations because the amniotic fluid is insufficient to keep pressure off the umbilical cord. A vaginal exam is the best way to confirm.
What is the most significant maternal risk factor for preterm birth? 1. Previous preterm birth 2. Smoking 3. Stress 4. Substance abuse
1 Explanation: 1. The most significant maternal risk factor for preterm birth is a previous preterm birth.
The nurse is admitting a client for a cerclage procedure. The client asks for information about the procedure. What is the nurses most accurate response? 1. A stitch is placed in the cervix to prevent a spontaneous abortion or premature birth. 2. The procedure is done during the third trimester. 3. Cerclage is always placed after the cervix has dilated and effaced. 4. An uncomplicated elective cerclage may is done on inpatient basis.
1 Explanation: 1. This is the correct description of cerclage.
The labor nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with symptomatic placenta previa. Which physician order should the nurse question? 1. Begin oxytocin drip rate at 0.5 milliunits/min. 2. Assess fetal heart rate every 10 minutes. 3. Weigh all vaginal pads. 4. Assess hematocrit and hemoglobin.
1 Explanation: 1. This order should be questioned, as this client is not a good candidate for labor induction.
A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. What nursing diagnoses might apply to the client with suspected abruptio placentae? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Fluid Volume, Deficient, Risk for, related to hypovolemia secondary to excessive blood loss 2. Tissue Perfusion: Peripheral, Ineffective, related to blood loss secondary to uterine atony following birth 3. Anxiety related to concern for own personal status and the babys safety 4. Knowledge, Deficient related to lack of information about inherited genetic defects 5. Alteration in Respiratory Function related to blood loss
1, 2, 3 Explanation: 1. Maternal and perinatal fetal mortality are concerns due to hypoxia. 2. Maternal and perinatal fetal mortality are concerns due to blood loss. 3. This mother would be anxious for herself and her baby.
What fetal factors require a cesarean birth? 1. Severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) 2. Fetal anomalies 3. Unfavorable fetal position or presentation 4. Preterm birth 5. Lack of maternal attachment
1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. Fetal factors such as severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), preterm birth, fetal anomalies, nonreassuring fetal status, or unfavorable fetal position or presentation require cesarean birth. 2. Fetal factors such as severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), preterm birth, fetal anomalies, nonreassuring fetal status, or unfavorable fetal position or presentation require cesarean birth. 3. Fetal factors such as severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), preterm birth, fetal anomalies, nonreassuring fetal status, or unfavorable fetal position or presentation require cesarean birth. 4. Fetal factors such as severe intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), preterm birth, fetal anomalies, nonreassuring fetal status, or unfavorable fetal position or presentation require cesarean birth.
The nurse is presenting a class on preterm labor, its causes, and treatments to a group of newly pregnant couples. Which statements regarding preterm labor are true? Note: Credit will be given only of all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Antepartum hemorrhage can cause preterm labor. 2. Trauma can cause preterm labor. 3. Infection can cause preterm labor. 4. Magnesium sulfate is a drug used to stop contractions. 5. Sedatives and narcotics may be given to stop labor.
1, 2, 3, 4 Explanation: 1. Hemorrhage from placenta previa or abruption can cause preterm labor. 2. Trauma to the abdomen or uterus can cause preterm labor. 3. Infections such as urinary tract infections can cause preterm labor. 4. Magnesium sulfate acts as a CNS depressant by decreasing the quantity of acetylcholine released by motor nerve impulses and thereby blocking neuromuscular transmission.
The nurse is presenting a class for nursing students on multiple-gestation pregnancy. Which statements about multiple-gestation pregnancies are accurate? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Hypertension is a major maternal complication. 2. Gestational diabetes occurs more often. 3. Maternal anemia occurs. 4. Pulmonary embolism is 12 times more likely to develop during pregnancy with multiple gestations. 5. Multiple gestations are more likely to acquire HELLP.
1, 2, 3, 5 Explanation: 1. Hypertension is a complication in multiple-gestation pregnancies. 2. Gestational diabetes occurs more often in multiple gestations. 3. Maternal anemia occurs because of demands of the multiple gestations. 5. Multiple gestations are more likely to acquire HELLP (hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count) syndrome, a complication resulting from eclampsia or preeclampsia.
Slowly removing some amniotic fluid is a treatment for hydramnios. What consequence can occur with the withdrawal of fluid? 1. Preterm labor 2. Prolapsed cord 3. Preeclampsia 4. Placenta previa
2 Explanation: 2. A needle or a fetal scalp electrode is used to make a small puncture in the amniotic sac. There is a risk that the force of the fluid could make a larger hole in the amniotic sac, thus increasing the risk of a prolapsed cord.
What can be determined based on ultrasound visualization or the lack of visualization of an intertwin membrane? 1. Toxicity 2. Amnionicity 3. Variability 4. Prematurity
2 Explanation: 2. Evidence supports the use of ultrasound for accurately determining chorionicity and amnionicity in multiple pregnancies. Determination of amnionicity is based on ultrasound visualization or the lack of visualization of an intertwin membrane.
The nurse is admitting a client with possible hydramnios. When is hydramnios most likely suspected? 1. Hydramnios is most likely suspected when there is less amniotic fluid than normal for gestation. 2. Hydramnios is most likely suspected when the fundal height increases disproportionately to the gestation. 3. Hydramnios is most likely suspected when the woman has a twin gestation. 4. Hydramnios is most likely suspected when the quadruple screen comes back positive.
2 Explanation: 2. Hydramnios should be suspected when the fundal height increases out of proportion to the gestational age.
If oligohydramnios occurs in the first part of pregnancy, the nurse knows that there is a danger of which of the following? 1. Major congenital anomalies 2. Fetal adhesions 3. Maternal diabetes 4. Rh sensitization
2 Explanation: 2. If oligohydramnios occurs in the first part of pregnancy, there is a danger of fetal adhesions (one part of the fetus may adhere to another part).
A client was admitted to the labor area at 5 cm with ruptured membranes about 14 hours ago. What assessment data would be most beneficial for the nurse to collect? 1. Blood pressure 2. Temperature 3. Pulse 4. Respiration
2 Explanation: 2. Rupture of membranes places the mother at risk for infection. The temperature is the primary and often the first indication of a problem.
The client at 38 weeks gestation has been diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Which statement indicates that teaching about the condition has been effective? 1. My gestational diabetes might have caused this problem to develop. 2. When I go into labor, I should come to the hospital right away. 3. This problem was diagnosed with blood and urine tests. 4. Women with this condition usually do not have a cesarean birth.
2 Explanation: 2. The incidence of cord compression and resulting fetal distress is high when there is an inadequate amount of amniotic fluid. The client with oligohydramnios should come to the hospital in early labor.
During the nursing assessment of a woman with ruptured membranes, the nurse suspects a prolapsed umbilical cord. What would the nurses priority action be? 1. To help the fetal head descend faster 2. To use gravity and manipulation to relieve compression on the cord 3. To facilitate dilation of the cervix with prostaglandin gel 4. To prevent head compression
2 Explanation: 2. The top priority is to relieve compression on the umbilical cord to allow blood flow to reach the fetus. It is because some obstetric maneuvers to relieve cord compression are complicated that cesarean birth is sometimes necessary.
What is the primary purpose for the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity? a. Drugs can be efficaciously administered up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks gestation. b. Tocolytic therapy has no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c. The most important function of tocolytic therapy is to provide the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d. If the client develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytic therapy, then intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.
C Buying time for antenatal glucocorticoids to accelerate fetal lung development may be the best reason to use tocolytic therapy. Once the pregnancy has reached 34 weeks, however, the risks of tocolytic therapy outweigh the benefits. Important maternal contraindications to tocolytic therapy exist. Tocolytic-induced edema can be caused by IV fluids.
Prostaglandin gel has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. What is the primary purpose of prostaglandin administration? a. To enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta b. To increase amniotic fluid volume c. To ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction d. To stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture
C Preparations of prostaglandin E1 and E2 are effective when used before labor induction to ripen (i.e., soften and thin) the cervix. Uteroplacental perfusion is not altered by the use of prostaglandins. The insertion of prostaglandin gel has no effect on the level of amniotic fluid. In some cases, women will spontaneously begin laboring after the administration of prostaglandins, thereby eliminating the need for oxytocin. It is not common for a womans membranes to rupture as a result of prostaglandin use.
In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor, which concern should the nurse need to address? a. Nursing assessments are different from those performed in the hospital setting. b. Restricted activity and medications are necessary to prevent a recurrence of preterm labor. c. Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects. d. Home health care providers are necessary.
C Prolonged bed rest may cause adverse effects such as weight loss, loss of appetite, muscle wasting, weakness, bone demineralization, decreased cardiac output, risk for thrombophlebitis, alteration in bowel functions, sleep disturbance, and prolonged postpartum recovery. Nursing assessments differ somewhat from those performed in the acute care setting, but this concern does not need to be addressed. Restricted activity and medications may prevent preterm labor but not in all women. In addition, the plan of care is individualized to meet the needs of each client. Many women receive home health nurse visits, but care is individualized for each woman.
The nurse is teaching a client with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) regarding self-care activities. Which activities should the nurse include in her teaching? a. Report a temperature higher than 40 C. b. Tampons are safe to use to absorb the leaking amniotic fluid. c. Do not engage in sexual activity. d. Taking frequent tub baths is safe.
C Sexual activity should be avoided because it may induce preterm labor. A temperature higher than 38 C should be reported. To prevent the risk of infection, tub baths should be avoided and nothing should be inserted into the vagina. Further, foul-smelling vaginal fluid, which may be a sign of infection, should be reported.
A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this womans labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing precipitous labor.
C The contraction pattern observed in this woman signifies hypertonic uterine activity. Typically, uterine activity in this phase occurs at 4- to 5-minute intervals lasting 30 to 45 seconds. Women who experience hypertonic uterine dysfunction, or primary dysfunctional labor, are often anxious first-time mothers who are having painful and frequent contractions that are ineffective at causing cervical dilation or effacement to progress. With hypotonic uterine dysfunction, the woman initially makes normal progress into the active stage of labor; then the contractions become weak and inefficient or stop altogether. Precipitous labor is one that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions until time of birth.
Which statement related to cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is the least accurate? a. CPD can be related to either fetal size or fetal position. b. The fetus cannot be born vaginally. c. CPD can be accurately predicted. d. Causes of CPD may have maternal or fetal origins.
C Unfortunately, accurately predicting CPD is not possible. Although CPD is often related to excessive fetal size (macrosomia), malposition of the fetal presenting part is the problem in many cases, not true CPD. When CPD is present, the fetus cannot fit through the maternal pelvis to be born vaginally. CPD may be related to either fetal origins such as macrosomia or malposition or maternal origins such as a too small or malformed pelvis.
The nurse is planning an in-service educational program to talk about disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse should identify which conditions as risk factors for developing DIC? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Abruptio placentae 3. Fetal demise 4. Multiparity 5. Preterm labor
2, 3 Explanation: 2. As a result of the damage to the uterine wall and the retroplacental clotting with covert abruption, large amounts of thromboplastin are released into the maternal blood supply, which in turn triggers the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and the resultant hypofibrinogenemia. 3. Perinatal mortality associated with abruptio placentae is approximately 25%. If fetal hypoxia progresses unchecked, irreversible brain damage or fetal demise may result.
The nurse admits into the labor area a client who is in preterm labor. What assessment finding would constitute a diagnosis of preterm labor? 1. Cervical effacement of 30% or more 2. Cervical change of 0.5 cm per hour 3. 2 contractions in 30 minutes 4. 8 contractions in 1 hour
4 Explanation: 4. 8 contractions in a 60 minute period does define a diagnosis of preterm labor.
The client is carrying monochorionic-monoamniotic twins. The nurse teaches the client what this is, and the implications of this finding. The nurse knows that teaching is successful when the client states which of the following? 1. My babies came from two eggs. 2. About two thirds of twins have this amniotic sac formation. 3. My use of a fertility drug led to this issue. 4. My babies have a lower chance of surviving to term than fraternal twins do.
4 Explanation: 4. Monochorionic-monoamniotic twins are both in one amniotic sac. There is an increased risk of umbilical cords becoming tangled or knotted and a higher incidence of fetal demise.
Intervention to reduce preterm birth can be divided into primary prevention and secondary prevention. What does secondary prevention include? 1. Diagnosis and treatment of infections 2. Cervical cerclage 3. Progesterone administration 4. Antibiotic treatment and tocolysis
4 Explanation: 4. Secondary prevention strategies are antibiotic treatment and tocolysis.
A client at 39 weeks of gestation has been admitted for an external version. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate the provider to order? a. Tocolytic drug b. Contraction stress test (CST) c. Local anesthetic d. Foley catheter
A A tocolytic drug will relax the uterus before and during the version, thus making manipulation easier. CST is used to determine the fetal response to stress. A local anesthetic is not used with external version. Although the bladder should be emptied, catheterization is not necessary.
A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg intramuscular (IM) doses of betamethasone. What is the purpose of this pharmacologic intervention? a. To stimulate fetal surfactant production b. To reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration c. To suppress uterine contractions d. To maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy
A Antenatal glucocorticoids administered as IM injections to the mother accelerate fetal lung maturity. Propranolol (Inderal) is given to reduce the effects of ritodrine administration. Betamethasone has no effect on uterine contractions. Calcium gluconate is given to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of magnesium sulfate therapy.
Which description most accurately describes the augmentation of labor? a. Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory b. Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed c. Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth d. Uses vacuum cups
A Augmentation is part of the active management of labor that stimulates uterine contractions after labor has started but is not progressing satisfactorily. Augmentation uses amniotomy and oxytocin infusion, as well as some more gentle, noninvasive methods. Forceps-assisted births are less common than in the past and not considered a method of augmentation. A vacuum-assisted delivery occurs during childbirth if the mother is too exhausted to push. Vacuum extraction is not considered an augmentation methodology.
The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown but believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Which type of infection has not been linked to preterm birth? a. Viral b. Periodontal c. Cervical d. Urinary tract
A Infections that increase the risk of preterm labor and birth are bacterial and include cervical, urinary tract, periodontal, and other bacterial infections. Therefore, early, continual, and comprehensive participation by the client in her prenatal care is important. Recent evidence has shown a link between periodontal infections and preterm labor. Researchers recommend regular dental care before and during pregnancy, oral assessment as a routine part of prenatal care, and scrupulous oral hygiene to prevent periodontal infections.
Which nursing intervention should be immediately performed after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant? a. Assessing the infant for signs of trauma b. Administering prophylactic antibiotic agents to the infant c. Applying a cold pack to the infants scalp d. Measuring the circumference of the infants head
A The infant should be assessed for bruising or abrasions at the site of application, facial palsy, and subdural hematoma. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary with a forceps delivery. A cold pack would place the infant at risk for cold stress and is contraindicated. Measuring the circumference of the head is part of the initial nursing assessment.
A pregnant womans amniotic membranes have ruptured. A prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the nurses highest priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d. Starting oxygen by face mask
A The woman is assisted into a modified Sims position, Trendelenburg position, or the knee-chest position in which gravity keeps the pressure of the presenting part off the cord. Although covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked saline, preparing the woman for a cesarean, and starting oxygen by face mark are appropriate nursing interventions in the event of a prolapsed cord, the intervention of top priority would be positioning the mother to relieve cord compression.
What are the complications and risks associated with cesarean births? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary edema b. Wound dehiscence c. Hemorrhage d. Urinary tract infections e. Fetal injuries
A, B, C, D, E Pulmonary edema, wound dehiscence, hemorrhage, urinary tract infections, and fetal injuries are possible complications and risks associated with cesarean births.
Women who are obese are at risk for several complications during pregnancy and birth. Which of these would the nurse anticipate with an obese client? (Select all that apply.) a. Thromboembolism b. Cesarean birth c. Wound infection d. Breech presentation e. Hypertension
A, B, C, E A breech presentation is not a complication of pregnancy or birth for the client who is obese. Venous thromboembolism is a known risk for obese women. Therefore, the use of thromboembolism-deterrent (TED) hose and sequential compression devices may help decrease the chance for clot formation. Women should also be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible. In addition to having an increased risk for complications with a cesarean birth, in general, obese women are also more likely to require an emergency cesarean birth. Many obese women have a pannus (i.e., large roll of abdominal fat) that overlies a lower transverse incision made just above the pubic area. The pannus causes the area to remain moist, which encourages the development of infection. Obese women are more likely to begin pregnancy with comorbidities such as hypertension and type 2 diabetes
The induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is in the best interest to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and delivery unit is often asked to schedule clients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction. What are appropriate indications for induction? (Select all that apply?) a. Rupture of membranes at or near term b. Convenience of the woman or her physician c. Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac) d. Postterm pregnancy e. Fetal death
A, C, D, E The conditions listed are all acceptable indications for induction. Other conditions include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, hypertension, and placental abruption. Elective inductions for the convenience of the woman or her provider are not recommended; however, they have become commonplace. Factors such as rapid labors and living a long distance from a health care facility may be valid reasons in such a circumstance. Elective delivery should not occur before 39 weeks of completed gestation.
When caring for a laboring client with oligohydramnios, what should the nurse be aware of? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Increased risk of cord compression 2. Decreased variability 3. Labor progress is often more rapid than average 4. Presence of periodic decelerations 5. During gestation, fetal skin and skeletal abnormalities can occur
1, 2, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. During the labor and birth, the lessened amounts of fluid reduce the cushioning effect for the umbilical cord, and cord compression is more likely to occur. 2. The nurse should evaluate the EFM tracing for the presence of nonperiodic decelerations or other nonreassuring signs (such as increasing or decreasing baseline, decreased variability, or presence of periodic decelerations). 4. The nurse should evaluate the EFM tracing for the presence of nonperiodic decelerations or other nonreassuring signs (such as increasing or decreasing baseline, decreased variability, or presence of periodic decelerations). 5. During the gestational period, fetal skin and skeletal abnormalities may occur because fetal movement is impaired as a result of inadequate amniotic fluid volume.
The nurse is planning care for a client with hydramnios. For which interventions might the nurse need to prepare the client? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Artificial rupture of the membranes 2. Amnioinfusion 3. Amniocentesis 4. Administration of prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor 5. Administration of indomethacin
1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Artificial rupture may be performed to remove the excessive fluid. 3. Amniocentesis may be performed to remove some excess fluid. 4. A prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor is used to treat hydramnios. 5. Indomethacin can decrease amniotic fluid by decreasing fetal urine output.
The nurse has admitted a woman with cervical insufficiency. The nurse is aware that causes of this condition include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Congenital factors 2. Intercourse during pregnancy 3. Infection 4. Increased uterine volume 5. Past cervical surgeries
1, 3, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Congenitally incompetent cervix may be found in women exposed to diethylstilbestrol (DES) or those with a bicornuate uterus. 3. Infection or trauma can cause acquired cervical incompetence. 4. Cervical insufficiency can occur in multiple-gestation pregnancies. 5. Previous elective abortion or cervical manipulation can lead to cervical insufficiency.
The nurse is admitting a client who was diagnosed with hydramnios. The client asks why she has developed this condition. The nurse should explain that hydramnios is sometimes associated with which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Rh sensitization 2. Postmaturity syndrome 3. Renal malformation or dysfunction 4. Maternal diabetes 5. Large-for-gestational-age infants
1, 4 Explanation: 1. Hydramnios is associated with Rh sensitization. 4. Hydramnios is associated with maternal diabetes.
A client at 32 weeks gestation is admitted with painless vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa has been confirmed by ultrasound. What should be included in the nursing plan? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. No vaginal exams 2. Encouraging activity 3. No intravenous access until labor begins 4. Evaluating fetal heart rate with an external monitor 5. Monitoring blood loss, pain, and uterine contractility
1, 4, 5 Explanation: 1. Expectant management of placenta previa is made by localizing the placenta via tests that require no vaginal examination. 4. Expectant management of placenta previa, when the client is at less than 37 weeks gestation, includes evaluating FHR with an external monitor. 5. Expectant management of placenta previa, when the client is at less than 37 weeks gestation, includes monitoring blood loss, pain, and uterine contractility.
What is a maternal indication for the use of vacuum-assisted birth? a. Wide pelvic outlet b. Maternal exhaustion c. History of rapid deliveries d. Failure to progress past station 0
B A mother who is exhausted may be unable to assist with the expulsion of the fetus. The client with a wide pelvic outlet will likely not require vacuum extraction. With a rapid delivery, vacuum extraction is not necessary. A station of 0 is too high for a vacuum-assisted birth.
A number of methods can be used for inducing labor. Which cervical ripening method falls under the category of mechanical or physical? a. Prostaglandins are used to soften and thin the cervix. b. Labor can sometimes be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents. c. Oxytocin is less expensive and more effective than prostaglandins but creates greater health risks. d. Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.
B Balloon catheters or laminaria tents are mechanical means of ripening the cervix. Ripening the cervix, making it softer and thinner, increases the success rate of induced labor. Prostaglandin E1 is less expensive and more effective than oxytocin but carries a greater risk. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which is used to induce labor only when the cervix is already ripe.
The nurse who elects to work in the specialty of obstetric care must have the ability to distinguish between preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. Which statement regarding this terminology is correct? a. Terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b. Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of gestation. c. Low birth weight is a newborn who weighs below 3.7 pounds. d. Preterm birth rate in the United States continues to increase.
B Before 20 weeks of gestation, the fetus is not viable (miscarriage); after 37 weeks, the fetus can be considered term. Although these terms are used interchangeably, they have different meanings: preterm birth describes the length of gestation (before 37 weeks), regardless of the newborns weight; low birth weight describes only the infants weight at the time of birth (2500 g or less), whenever it occurs. Low birth weight is anything below 2500 g or approximately pounds. In 2011, the preterm birth rate in the United States was 11.7 %; it has dropped every year since 2008.
Which nursing intervention is paramount when providing care to a client with preterm labor who has received terbutaline? a. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs). b. Assess for dyspnea and crackles. c. Assess for bradycardia. d. Assess for hypoglycemia.
B Terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist that affects the mothers cardiopulmonary and metabolic systems. Signs of cardiopulmonary decompensation include adventitious breath sounds and dyspnea. An assessment for dyspnea and crackles is important for the nurse to perform if the woman is taking magnesium sulfate. Assessing DTRs does not address the possible respiratory side effects of using terbutaline. Since terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist, it can lead to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Beta2-adrenergic agonist drugs cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.
A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor. Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications. She asks when she might be able to go home. Which response by the nurse is mostaccurate? a. After the baby is born. b. When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits. c. Whenever your physician says that it is okay. d. It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have.
B This clients preterm labor is being controlled with tocolytics. Once she is stable, home care may be a viable option for this type of client. Care of a client with preterm labor is multidisciplinary and multifactorial; the goal is to prevent delivery. In many cases, this goal may be achieved at home. Managed care may dictate an earlier hospital discharge or a shift from hospital to home care. Insurance coverage may be one factor in client care, but ultimately, client safety remains the most important factor.
Indications for a primary cesarean birth are often nonrecurring. Therefore, a woman who has had a cesarean birth with a low transverse scar may be a candidate for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Which clients would beless likely to have a successful VBAC? (Select all that apply.) a. Lengthy interpregnancy interval b. African-American race c. Delivery at a rural hospital d.Estimated fetal weight <4000 g e. Maternal obesity (BMI >30)
B, C, E Indications for a low success rate for a VBAC delivery include a short interpregnancy interval, non-Caucasian race, gestational age longer than 40 weeks, maternal obesity, preeclampsia, fetal weight greater than 4000 g, and delivery at a rural or private hospital.
The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation? (Select all that apply.) a. Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency b. Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency c. Uterine tone <20 mm Hg d. Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e. Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring FHR and pattern
B, D, E Uterine contractions that occur less frequently than 2 minutes apart and last longer than 90 seconds, a uterine tone over 20 mm Hg, and a nonreassuring FHR and pattern are indications of uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin administration. Uterine contractions that occur more frequently than 2 minutes apart and last less than 90 seconds are the expected goal of oxytocin induction. A uterine tone less than 20 mm Hg is normal.
A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. A vaginal examination performed 2 hours earlier revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part of the fetus was at station 0; however, another vaginal examination performed 5 minutes ago indicated no changes. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a. Prolonged latent phase b. Protracted active phase c. Secondary arrest d. Protracted descent
C With a secondary arrest of the active phase, the progress of labor has stopped. This client has not had any anticipated cervical change, indicating an arrest of labor. In the nulliparous woman, a prolonged latent phase typically lasts longer than 20 hours. A protracted active phase, the first or second stage of labor, is prolonged (slow dilation). With a protracted descent, the fetus fails to descend at an anticipated rate during the deceleration phase and second stage of labor.