Chapter 4 EMT Test
A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is the known as: A. an advance directive. B. a health care proxy. C. a standard of care. D. a termination of resuscitation
A
A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be transported, so you have him sign a refusal of treatment form. This form is intended to release you from: A. liability for not providing care. B. the responsibility to stay on the scene. C. properly informing the patient of the consequences of refusing care. D. the need to provide any care for this patient at any time
A
In a kindergarten, the teachers can give consent for EMT care of their students. Which form of consent applies here? A. In loco parentis B. Expressed consent C. Parental consent D. Informed consent
A
Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are called: A. Good Samaritan laws. B. advance directives. C. immunity proclamations. D. protocols
A
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): A. allows you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so. B. requires you to obtain the patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions. C. allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent. D. allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station.
A
Wheeling a non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency department, placing him in a bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff constitutes: A. abandonment. B. acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to. C. acceptable actions if someone sees you do them. D. acceptable actions if the ED is very busy
A
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Blood spatter B. Time of day C. Mouthwash D. Mail coupons
A
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. The position in which the patient is found B. The homeowner's pet C. The refrigerator icemaker D. Clean napkins in a drawer
A
You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle collision, and the patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You noticed on the patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the patient's wishes by: A. notifying medical direction of the patient's organ donor status. B. transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going. C. withholding CPR until the patient's donor status is confirmed. D. trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive.
A
You have not breached a patient's confidentiality if: A. you only share information specific to that patient when medically necessary. B. you share information specific to that patient with family and friends. C. you share a funny item from a patient's medical history with a colleague. D. you talk about that patient's medical issues when off duty only with your spouse
A
You proceed to treat a patient who has consented to care, but you have NOT explained the risks and benefits of what you are going to do. This is MOST likely a violation of: A. informed consent. B. scope of practice. C. implied consent. D. in loco parentis
A
You are on the scene with a patient who is complaining of chest pain, and you have administered medication. Your partner brings in the stretcher, and the patient tells you that she does not want to be transported to the ED. You should: A. contact medical direction for a consult. B. tell the patient that she can refuse transport, but because you gave her a medication, she has to see a doctor within 24 hours. C. explain to the patient that she cannot refuse because you have already begun treatment. D. leave after telling the patient that it's not appropriate to abuse the EMS system
A Medical direction needs to be in the loop on this refusal, as you have administered a medication. Medical direction can assist the EMS crew in convincing the patient that she needs to go to the ED for further care. If the patient still refuses, consulting with medical direction is another layer of protection for the EMS crew.
Good Samaritan laws were enacted to: A. protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies. B. keep patients from suing ambulance companies for the actions of their employees. C. protect patients from poor health care delivered by health professionals. D. protect EMS services from lawsuits
A Good Samaritan laws are intended to protect individuals who try to help people during an emergency. Every state has its own version of a Good Samaritan law.
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Footprints B. A child's toy C. A paper towel roll D. Movies on DVD
A The condition of the scene, information provided by the patient, fingerprints and footprints, and microscopic findings are all considered evidence.
The concept of res ipsa loquitur would be MOST relevant to a situation involving: A. EMTs providing care to an unconscious patient. B. harm to a patient in the care of EMTs. C. EMTs explaining the consequences of refusing care to a patient. D. EMTs remaining with a patient who had refused care.
B
What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the EMT's job? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Tort
B
Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Medical care by an EMT B. Fingerprints C. Patient advocacy D. Family pictures
B
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a patient's car struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact. However, the patient is now conscious, alert and oriented, and refusing care and transport. You should: A. leave after having the patient sign the refusal form. B. inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment. C. have the law enforcement officer place the patient under arrest, as she is obviously in danger. D. use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse.
B
Ethical considerations: A. are less important than following regulations. B. relate primarily to making patient care and well-being a priority. C. fall outside scope of practice. D. are the sole consideration of scope of practice.
B Falling within your scope of practice are certain ethical responsibilities. The primary ethical consideration is to make patient care and well-being a priority, even if this requires some personal sacrifice.
You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have begun resuscitation as family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You should: A. notify the family that once CPR has been initiated, you are required to transport the patient. B. follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed. C. have your partner contact the communications center to send law enforcement to the scene, as this is now a legal issue and the officer will make the decision. D. complete two more rounds of CPR and then check for a pulse. If there is no pulse, you should stop resuscitation.
B DNR protocols vary by state. It is essential you know and follow your local protocols. Contact medical direction if you are unsure how to proceed
You explain a risky procedure to a patient. He says, "As long as it's guaranteed to work, you can do it." You should: A. consult medical direction. B. explain that a risky procedure is not guaranteed. C. begin the procedure. D. decide not to use the procedure
B Expressed consent must be informed consent. That is, patients must understand the risks associated with the care they will receive. It is not only a legal requirement but also sound emotional care to explain all procedures to the patient. In this case, the patient's response shows a lack of understanding that there is no guarantee with a risky procedure.
You are at the dinner table with your crew and mention to everyone that a coworker on the opposite shift is moving up the administration chain quickly, probably because she's sleeping with the company CEO. This comment could be considered: A. a HIPAA violation. B. slander. C. res ipsa loquitur. D. libel.
B In the spoken context, this comment can be described as slander
The person who is legally designated to make health care decisions for the patient if the patient is unable to do so is called: A. a patient advocate. B. a health care proxy. C. the attorney of record. D. the executor of the estate.
B Patients may wish to designate a health care proxy who can legally make decisions for them in the event that they are unable to do so themselves
You have just returned to the station after completing a call in which you transported an elderly female patient to the hospital for nausea and vomiting. Upon exiting the ambulance, you are approached by an adult male who indicates that the patient you just transported was his mother and he wants to know the details of the run. You should: A. tell him that you can pass his contact information along to the privacy officer at your department. B. ask to see his driver's license to verify last names and, if they match, give him the information. C. allow him to read the patient care report, as that is public information. D. give the patient the information he is requesting, as he is the patient's son
B The EMT has the duty to protect the rights of the patients they transport, which includes protecting their health information. Your agency's privacy officer should be the primary contact here.
Quality improvement relates primarily to: A. state-by-state regulations. B. standard of care. C. scope of practice. D. the limits of the EMT job
B The process of quality improvement relates to maintaining standards of care.
Why does the EMT's scope of practice vary from state to state? A. Company insurance B. Local legislation C. EMT preference D. National standards
B The skills and medical interventions that the EMT may perform are defined by legislation that varies from state to state. Sometimes different regions within the same state may have different rules and guidelines for their EMTs.
A photo of a pair of EMTs on a call shows them laughing and looking casual and relaxed a few feet away from a patient in apparent distress. This would most likely be used to demonstrate: A. res ipsa loquitur. B. abandonment. C. proximate causation. D. a patient refusal situation
B The term res ipsa loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself," and in this case, knowing nothing but what is shown in the photo, it would appear that the EMTs were neglecting the patient in distress. It isn't clearly a patient refusal situation because there is nothing to indicate that the patient has refused treatment or transport. It's not abandonment because the EMTs have not actually left the patient. It isn't necessarily proximate causation because the patient's distress isn't clearly the result of the EMTs' actions or inaction.
A 42-year-old patient who is mentally competent has refused care but appears to be experiencing respiratory difficulty. He demands you get into your ambulance and go. You should: A. plead with the patient to sign a release form. B. restrain the patient to provide emergency care. C. remain on the scene and try to persuade the patient to consent to care. D. immediately leave the scene.
C
Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishes regarding medical care are called: A. automated care orders. B. extended patient directives. C. advance directives. D. physician orders
C
Even if the Good Samaritan laws in a particular state cover the actions of EMTs as rescuers, they can still be held liable and are NOT protected by these laws if: A. their actions cause embarrassment for the patient. B. the patient dies from the injuries. C. their actions demonstrate gross negligence. D. their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning.
C
If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking site, this could be considered: A. breach of faith. B. slander. C. libel. D. battery
C
If emergency care providers discover that a seriously injured patient is an organ donor, they should: A. ignore a DNR order and perform CPR. B. confirm with the family that this was the patient's decision. C. treat the patient the same as a nondonor. D. treat the patient as having given prior expressed consent for all emergency care
C
The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called the: A. standing orders. B. Good Samaritan law. C. scope of practice. D. standard of care
C
The care that would be expected to be provided to the same patient under the same circumstances by another EMT who had received the same training is called the: A. scope of practice. B. duty to act. C. standard of care. D. protocol.
C
What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene? A. The patient has multiple injuries. B. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration. C. The police want to interview the patient. D. The police have secured the scene
C
You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. When police later arrive and secure the scene, one of the police tells you to file a complete report describing what you saw when you arrived on scene, as required by law in your area. You should: A. file a report that leaves out any detail you consider confidential for that patient. B. refuse to file any report, citing patient confidentiality. C. file the report and leave out no details. D. file a report in which you explain in detail why you believe a crime was committed
C
You are transporting a patient from a doctor's office and see that the patient has not been well cared for. On your documentation, you write that the doctor seemed to be "a quack." This comment could be viewed as: A. res ipsa loquitur. B. proximate causation. C. libelous. D. slanderous
C
You have been under a lot of family stress lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this morning, you realized that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your well-being. After hearing this, you know that your duty as an EMT is to: A. inform your partner that your well-being is not his concern. B. tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work. C. take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work. D. recognize that talking about your problems at work is unprofessional and distracts your fellow EMTs.
C
You have just arrived at the station to start your shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is to: A. tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance. B. tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call. C. notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you. D. see whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up
C
You observe what appears to be elder abuse in a call to a nursing home. You have a clear: A. legal obligation to report the abuse. B. implied consent to provide care to any patients at the home. C. moral obligation to report the abuse. D. release from liability for negligence in your care
C
Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA violation? A. Your agency receives a subpoena authorizing the release of a copy of a patient care report to a plaintiff's attorney. B. You provide certain health information on the billing copy of the patient care report. C. You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report. D. You provide a copy of the patient care report to a paramedic who is assuming care of your patient at the scene.
C HIPAA specifies circumstances in which protected health information can be released. This is generally on a "need to know" basis, when the patient consents in writing, or when the provider or organization is compelled by a court to do so. Providing a patient care report to a personal injury attorney is a breach of confidentiality under HIPAA.
At a crime scene, which of the following is the first priority of the EMT? A. Evidence preservation B. Working with police C. Patient care and transport D. Critiquing the scene
C After the police have ensured scene safety, your first priority is patient care.
You are caring for a patient who was stabbed. During your assessment, you find a small knife impaled in one of the stab wounds. You determine that removing the weapon now would be dangerous for the patient. You should: A. remove the knife and place it in an evidence bag. B. ask the police officer whether it is acceptable for you to leave the knife in place for transport. C. treat the wound as usual, but notify police that you must transport the weapon with the patient. D. have a police officer remove the knife before you transport
C Disturb as little as possible at crime scenes, and do not take items or leave behind items that you brought. However, if you must transport a potential piece of evidence, such as clothing on the patient or an impaled object, notify police. You, not law enforcement, are the medical authority on scene. Patient care decisions are your responsibility.
You suspect that a pediatric patient is being abused. You decide not to report this to the appropriate authorities because the parent is very upset and remorseful. This is: A. an ethical violation but definitely not a crime. B. a violation of professional ethics and possibly a crime. C. a reasonable judgment call. D. a violation of policy but not an ethical violation.
C Failure to report suspected abuse is a violation of the EMT code of ethics. In addition, most states have laws mandating that EMS providers report suspected abuse. Failure to do so could be considered a crime.
Good Samaritan laws are based on: A. having no formal training. B. the patient having no serious injuries. C. providing care in good faith. D. being a volunteer EMT.
C Good Samaritan laws provide limited legal protection for individuals who provide care in good faith and to the level of their training.
As you enter a hectic possible crime scene, you find that a coffee table is blocking your access to the patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage this situation? A. Move the table and get on with your work of caring for the patient. B. Use the table as a place to set your equipment as you are working on the patient. C. Move the table as little as possible, wearing gloves; notify police on the scene; and document your actions precisely in your patient care report. D. Wait until one of the police officers can move the table for you.
C If you must disturb any items at a crime scene to access a patient, move them as little as possible, wear gloves to avoid leaving additional fingerprints, make a note of the original location of the item, and state exactly how you moved the item
Which is concerned generally with what you can do, as opposed to what you should do and how you should do it? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice and standard of care C. D. Quality improvement
C In general, scope of practice refers to what you should be able to do, while standard of care refers to what you should do in a particular situation and how you should do it. Quality improvement is involved with maintaining standards of care
Leaving a patient after initiating care and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is known as: A. in loco parentis. B. res ipsa loquitur. C. abandonment. D. negligence.
C Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is abandonment.
A patient who called 911 is now refusing transport. You should: A. make sure there is a law enforcement officer to act as a witness on the scene of every patient refusal. B. make sure that there is an immediate family member on scene who can sign as a witness to the refusal. C. assess the patient, advise the patient of the risks of refusal, and clearly document everything in the patient care report. D. direct the patient to contact his or her primary care physician for instructions on whether or not to go to the hospital.
C There is a potential for a lot of liability on the EMT's part when a patient refuses transport. EMTs must make sure to fully explain to the patient the risks of refusal and to clearly document their actions to protect themselves and the rest of the crew.
patient on the basis of: A. expressed consent. B. involuntary transportation. C. implied consent. D. informed consent.
C When the patient is not able to make decisions for himself or herself, the EMT can use implied consent, meaning that the EMT operates under the assumption is that if the patient were of sound mind, the patient would request help for the issue.
EMS is on the scene of the cardiac arrest of a terminally ill cancer patient. The family states that the patient has a valid DNR but they are unable to locate it. The family is upset and adamant that the patient does not want resuscitation. The EMS crew should: A. verify that the family on scene is related to the patient by asking for identification. If a family member is immediate family, that person can make health care decisions for the patient. B. begin resuscitation and consider establishing on-line medical direction. C. provide the family with a blank DNR and have them fill it out. D. withhold resuscitation. It is clear the patient is terminally ill, and the family is on scene instructing the crew to withhold care.
C Without a valid document, EMS has the moral and legal obligation to begin full resuscitative efforts and follow all protocols for such events
An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty of: A. child endangerment. B. psychological abuse. C. domestic abuse. D. negligence.
D
A 13-year-old patient involved in a collision who appears to be under the influence of drugs refuses care. Regarding the issue of providing care to this patient, you must consider that this patient: A. has legally refused care. B. should sign a release form. C. should be reported to the police. D. can't legally refuse care.
D
What is an EMT's primary ethical consideration? A. Making the company bottom line a priority B. Making partner relations a priority C. Making efficiency a priority D. Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority
D
What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily harm? A. Libel B. Slander C. Battery D. AssaulT
D
While providing patient care at a secured crime scene, you should: A. use the telephone to call in a report to medical control. B. pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer. C. cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance. D. not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing
D
You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is "just another drunk." This would likely be considered: A. slander. B. negligence. C. a HIPAA violation. D. libel
D
Which of the following could be a source of information to let the EMT know that a patient is an organ donor? A. The on-line physician B. The statement of a bystander who is the patient's neighbor C. A piece of notepaper stating that fact D. The patient's driver's license
D You may find that the patient is an organ donor when told so by a family member, or a patient may carry an organ donor card. The back of the patient's driver's license may also contain an indication that the patient wishes to donate organs upon his or her death.
Which of the following is likely to be inscribed on a medical identification device worn as a bracelet? A. Date of birth B. Hospital preference C. Emergency contact D. Allergies
D A medical alert device may be a necklace, bracelet, or card and may indicate any of a number of conditions, including heart conditions, allergies, diabetes, and epilepsy.
You are at the scene of a patient with obvious signs of traumatic death. You are required by law in your state to report violent deaths. Your duty as an EMT is to notify: A. your EMS chief. B. medical direction. C. the district attorney's office. D. law enforcement.
D Because this is a potential crime scene, law enforcement must be notified
A suicidal 14-year-old who has critically injured herself is trying to get you to withhold care. She is screaming that she wants to die and that you should not touch her or come near her. You should: A. inform medical direction that you will withhold care. B. call her parents. C. wait for the girl to change her mind or lose consciousness. D. provide the care she needs.
D Children and mentally incompetent adults are not legally allowed to provide consent or refuse medical care and transportation. In cases of life-threatening illness or injury when a parent or guardian is not present, care may be given based on implied consent.
When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and procedures, this is respecting the legal principle of: A. proximate cause. B. implied consent. C. in loco parentis. D. expressed consent
D Expressed consent must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before treatment is started
The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known as: A. the standard of practice. B. the standard of care. C. medical direction. D. the scope of practice
D The scope of practice is set by the state and outlines what procedures and skills the EMT is allowed to perform.