Chapter 44: Care of Patients With Problems of the Peripheral Nervous System

The nurse teaches a client who has autonomic dysfunction about injury prevention. Which statement indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching? a. "I will change positions slowly." b. "I will avoid wearing cotton socks." c. "I will use an electric razor." d. "I will use a heating pad on my feet."

ANS: A Autonomic dysfunction causes orthostatic hypotension. The client should change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Autonomic dysfunction can cause peripheral polyneuropathy, so the client should be taught to wear socks and shoes at all times and not to use a heating pad. The disorder does not cause bleeding; therefore the client can use any type of razor.

he nurse is assessing a client with trigeminal neuralgia. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to observe? a. Excruciating pain b. Decreased mobility c. Controllable facial twitching d. Increased talkativeness

ANS: A Signs of trigeminal neuralgia are excruciating pain and uncontrollable facial twitching which causes the client to avoid talking, smiling, eating, or attending to hygienic needs. Sensory and mobility deficits are not associated with trigeminal neuralgia.

A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed pyridostigmine (Mestinon). What teaching should the nurse plan regarding this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do not eat a full meal for 45 minutes after taking the drug." b. "Seek immediate care if you develop trouble swallowing." c. "Take this drug on an empty stomach for best absorption." d. "The dose may change frequently depending on symptoms." e. "Your urine may turn a reddish-orange color while on this drug."

ANS: A, B, D Pyridostigmine should be given with a small amount of food to prevent GI upset, but the client should wait to eat a full meal due to the potential for aspiration. If difficulty with swallowing occurs, the client should seek immediate attention. The dose can change on a day-to-day basis depending on the client's manifestations. Taking the drug on an empty stomach is not related although the client needs to eat within 45 to 60 minutes afterwards. The client's urine will not turn reddish-orange while on this drug.

A client has just undergone surgery for peripheral nerve trauma. Which interventions does the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Immobilization of the affected area with a splint b. Rotation of cold and heat therapy c. Occupational therapy d. Skin care, including hygiene and ointments e. High-fat, low-protein diet

ANS: A, C, D Care for the client with peripheral nerve trauma includes immobilization before and after surgery, and skin care to prevent skin breakdown and promote healing. The client may likely require physical or occupations therapy during the recovery process. The client will have decreased sensation, so cold and heat therapy should not be used. The client will require a diet high in protein to promote healing.

The nurse is preparing to send a cerebrospinal fluid sample to the laboratory. Which actions does the nurse implement during this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Use Standard Precautions. b. Wear sterile gloves when handling the specimen. c. Place the specimen on ice. d. Send the specimen in a sealed bag displaying a biohazard symbol. e. Confirm the specimen label with the client's identification band.

ANS: A, D, E The Standard Precautions approach is based on the premise that a medical history and a physical examination cannot reliably identify all those infected by pathogens. Consequently, health care workers should consider all human blood and body fluids as potentially infectious and must use appropriate protective measures to prevent possible exposure. Specimens should be labeled appropriately and transported in a sealed bag displaying the biohazard symbol. The nurse should use Standard Precautions when handling the specimen. The nurse should also confirm the identification of the client and the specimen. The nurse does not need sterile gloves, and the specimen should not be iced.

The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) for chronic trigeminal neuralgia. Which statement indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching? a. "This drug will prevent seizures, which can occur because of trigeminal disease." b. "I expect to have surgery soon, so I can stop taking this drug now." c. "This medication is very successful in relieving pain. I am glad to be taking it." d. "I will avoid drinking alcohol because it can add to the side effects of this medicine."

ANS: D Carbamazepine is thought to interfere with the transmission of pain through slow fibers. It may decrease the paroxysmal afferent impulse that causes trigeminal pain. Trigeminal disease does not cause seizures. Drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, and risk for falls are adverse effects of this medication. Alcohol consumption increases these risks; therefore the client should not drink alcohol when taking this medication. Seizure disorders may occur in clients who stop taking this medication. The dose should be decreased gradually. Pain relief varies with the person; some people find that this medication provides at least some relief.

A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving cholinesterase inhibitor drugs to improve muscle strength. The nurse is educating the family about this therapy. Which statement by a family member indicates a correct understanding of the nurse's instruction?

I will call 911 if a sudden increase in weakness occurs." The statement about cholinesterase inhibitors that shows a correct understanding of the nurse's instructions is that the family member will call 911 if there is a sudden increase in weakness. A potential adverse effect of cholinesterase inhibitors is cholinergic crisis. Sudden increases in weakness and the inability to clear secretions, swallow, or breathe adequately indicate that the client is experiencing crisis. The family member must call 911 for emergency assistance.The dose of cholinesterase inhibitors would never be increased without provider supervision. The client needs to eat meals 45-60 minutes after taking cholinesterase inhibitors to avoid aspiration. Cholinesterase inhibitors must be taken with a small amount of food to help alleviate GI side effects.

A client with myasthenia gravis is preparing for discharge. Which instructions does the nurse include when educating the client's family members or caregiver? a. Technique for therapeutic massage to the lower extremities b. Administration of morphine sulfate via an IV pump c. Instructions for preparing thin, puréed foods d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

ANS: D Respiratory compromise is a common occurrence with myasthenia gravis. The client's family members are encouraged to learn CPR and to have resuscitation equipment available in the home. The other interventions are not a priority.

The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors of restless legs syndrome. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nurse's instruction?

Cigarettes and alcohol must be avoided." The correct statement about the risks of restless legs syndrome is cigarettes and alcohol must be avoided. Clients with restless legs syndrome need to avoid as many risk factors as possible or make lifestyle modifications. Examples include avoiding caffeine and alcohol, quitting smoking, and losing weight.Clients with RLS need to be encouraged to exercise but not engage in strenuous activity within 2-3 hours before bedtime. Use of over-the-counter drugs is not contraindicated for clients with restless legs syndrome.

The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (MG) who has been prescribed a cholinesterase (ChE) inhibitor. The nurse contacts the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the client is taking which medication?

Diazepam (Valium) The nurse contacts the PHCP if the client with MG who has been prescribed a ChE is also taking diazepam. Diazepam (Valium) would be avoided because it may increase the client's weakness.Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic and antipyretic. It does not interact with ChE inhibitors. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic and does not interact with ChE inhibitors. Ibuprofen (Motrin) is a nonsteroidal analgesic and does not interact with ChE inhibitors.

A client will be receiving plasmapheresis for treatment of Guillain-Barre'syndrome (GBS). Which posttreatment test will the nurse anticipate to be ordered?

Electrolyte panel For the client receiving plasmapheresis for treatment of GBS, the nurse expects that an electrolyte panel will be ordered. Electrolytes will be checked since citrate-induced hypocalcemia is a complication of plasmapheresis.An electroencephalogram evaluates brain waves and is useful in detecting seizure activity. It would not be beneficial in this situation. A lumbar puncture might have been performed as part of the diagnostic process initially but not as part of posttreatment. There is no role for a urinalysis after plasmapheresis.

The nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) who is receiving intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). Which assessment finding warrants immediate evaluation?

Headache with stiff neck Immediate evaluation is needed when a client with GBS receiving IVIG complains of a headache with stiff neck. This may be a sign of aseptic meningitis, a possible serious complication of IVIG therapy.Chills, generalized malaise, and a low-grade fever are minor adverse effects of IVIG therapy and do not indicate that the therapy must be stopped.

A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with generalized fatigue, a weak voice, and dysphagia. Which client problem has the highest priority?

Potential for aspiration related to difficulty with swallowing The client problem that has the highest priority for a client with MG is the risk for aspiration due to difficulty swallowing. The potential for aspiration is the highest priority client problem because the client's ability to maintain airway patency is compromised.Although important, an inability to tolerate everyday activities, an inability to communicate verbally related to vocal weakness, and an inability to care for oneself related to muscle weakness are not the nurse's highest priority.

The nurse is obtaining a health history for a 45-year-old woman with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). Which statement by the client does the nurse correlate with the client's diagnosis? a. "My neighbor also had Guillain-Barré syndrome." b. "I had a viral infection about 2 weeks ago." c. "I am an artist and work with oil paints." d. "I have a history of a cardiac dysrhythmia."

The client with GBS often relates a history of acute illness, trauma, surgery, or immunization 1 to 3 weeks before the onset of neurologic symptoms. The other statements do not correlate with GBS.

A client with trigeminal neuralgia is admitted for a percutaneous stereotactic rhizotomy in the morning. The client currently reports pain. What does the nurse do next?

dministers pain medication as requested The next action the nurse needs to do is to give pain medication to the preoperative client with trigeminal neuralgia who is complaining of pain. Addressing the client's pain is the priority nursing intervention because pain is the main symptom of trigeminal neuralgia.After the client's pain has been addressed, the preoperative assessment can be completed, questions and concerns can be addressed, and any further testing can be completed. This client is not required to be NPO until after midnight.

A client has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which interdisciplinary health care team members does the nurse plan to collaborate with to help prevent pressure ulcers related to immobility in this client?

Family members,Dietitian,Occupational therapist (OT), Social worker The nurse plans to collaborate with family members, the dietician, and OT to help prevent pressure ulcers in the client with GBS. Family members would help to develop interventions to prevent these ulcers, because the family will mostly likely be directly involved in the client's care. Malnutrition puts the client at greater risk for pressure ulcers, so the dietitian must be included as well. The OT can provide assistive devices that will help prevent ulcers.The certified hospital chaplain and the social worker can assist with providing additional psychosocial support but would not be involved with direct prevention of ulcers. The social worker would also assist with the discharge plan and reintegration into the community.

he nurse reviews laboratory data for a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). Which result does the nurse correlate with this disease process? a. Increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein level b. Decreased serum protein electrophoresis results c. Increased antinuclear antibodies d. Decreased immune globulin G (IgG) levels

ANS: A A lumbar puncture is performed to evaluate the CSF. An increased CSF protein level without increased cell count is a distinguishing feature of GBS. The other results are not associated with GBS.

A client has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. About what drugs should the nurse anticipate possibly teaching the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) b. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) c. Famciclovir (Famvir) d. Prednisone (Deltasone) e. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)

ANS: A, C, D, E Possible pharmacologic treatment for Bell's palsy includes acyclovir, famciclovir, prednisone, and valacyclovir. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug and is not used for Bell's palsy.

A client suspected to have myasthenia gravis is scheduled for the Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) test. Which prescribed medication does the nurse prepare to administer if complications of this test occur? a. Epinephrine b. Atropine sulfate c. Diphenhydramine d. Neostigmine bromide

ANS: B Tensilon increases cholinergic responses and can slow the heart rate down so that ectopic beats dominate, causing cardiac fibrillation or arrest. Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic drug. The other medications are not appropriate for complications of this test.

A client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome is scheduled for plasmapheresis. Before the procedure, which clinical manifestation does the nurse use to determine patency of the client's arteriovenous shunt? a. Palpable distal pulses b. A pink, warm extremity c. The presence of a bruit d. Shunt pressure higher than 25 mm Hg

ANS: C Nursing care of the client undergoing plasmapheresis includes care of the shunt. The nurse checks for bruits every 2 to 4 hours for patency. Pulse and extremity assessments do not provide information related to shunt patency. Pressure within the shunt is not tested before treatment to determine patency.

A client is receiving plasmapheresis. What action by the nurse best prevents infection in this client? a. Giving antibiotics prior to treatments b. Monitoring the client's vital signs c. Performing appropriate hand hygiene d. Placing the client in protective isolation

ANS: C Plasmapheresis is an invasive procedure, and the nurse uses good hand hygiene before and after client contact to prevent infection. Antibiotics are not necessary. Monitoring vital signs does not prevent infection but could alert the nurse to its possibility. The client does not need isolation.

A client has undergone a percutaneous stereotactic rhizotomy. What instruction by the nurse is most important on discharge from the ambulatory surgical center? a. "Avoid having teeth pulled for 1 year." b. "Brush your teeth with a soft toothbrush." c. "Do not use harsh chemicals on your face." d. "Inform your dentist of this procedure."

ANS: C The affected side is left without sensation after this procedure. The client should avoid putting harsh chemicals on the face because he or she will not feel burning or stinging on that side. This will help avoid injury. The other instructions are not necessary.

A client who has myasthenia gravis is recovering after a thymectomy. Which complication does the nurse monitor for in this client? a. Sudden onset of shortness of breath b. Swelling of the lower extremities c. Lower abdominal tenderness d. Decreased urinary output

ANS: A The complication to be alert for is pneumothorax or hemothorax. The nurse monitors the client for chest pain, sudden onset of shortness of breath, diminished chest wall expansion, decreased breath sounds, restlessness, and changes in vital signs. The other symptoms are not likely to occur or are not related to removal of the thymus.

An older client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. A family member tells the nurse the client is restless and seems confused. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Check the medication list for interactions. c. Place the client on a bed alarm. d. Put the client on safety precautions.

ANS: A In the older adult, an early sign of hypoxia is often confusion and restlessness. The nurse should first assess the client's oxygen saturation. The other actions are appropriate, but only after this assessment occurs.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Guillain Barre syndrome. Which assessment findings require nursing action? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 80/42 b. A respiratory rate of 24 c. Shallow breathing pattern d. A peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 85% e. Diminished breath sounds in all lung fields

ANS: A, C, D, E All choices except B are abnormal assessment findings that can occur in clients with this disease. A respiratory rate of 24 is slightly elevated but does not require nursing action.

The nurse is assessing a client who had a dissection of all branches of the right trigeminal nerve. When asked to wrinkle his forehead, the client wrinkles only the left side. Which is the nurse's best action? a. Place the client in high Fowler's position. b. Document the finding. c. Assess the corneal reflex. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: B Loss of motor and sensory function after complete trigeminal nerve dissection is normal. No intervention is necessary.

The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a myasthenia crisis. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate being ordered? a. Babinski reflex test b. Tensilon test c. Cholinesterase challenge test d. Caloric reflex test

ANS: B The Tensilon test in an important procedure for a client in myasthenic crisis. Cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs should be withheld because they increase respiratory secretions, which enhance the manifestations of a myasthenic crisis. A Babinski reflex and caloric reflex test would not be appropriate for this client.

An older adult client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client is given amitriptyline (Elavil). After receiving the hand-off report, what actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering the medication as ordered b. Advising the client to have help getting up c. Consulting the provider about the drug d. Cutting the dose of the drug in half e. Placing the client on safety precautions

ANS: B, C, E Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant and is considered inappropriate for use in older clients due to concerns of anticholinergic effects, confusion, and safety risks. The nurse should tell the client to have help getting up, place the client on safety precautions, and consult the provider. Since this drug is not appropriate for older clients, cutting the dose in half is not warranted.

A client with new-onset Bell's palsy is being dismissed from the hospital. Which statement made by the client demonstrates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

Narcotics will be needed for pain relief." Mild analgesics, not narcotics, are used for pain associated with Bell's palsy.Further teaching about Bell's palsy is needed when the client says that narcotics are needed for pain. Artificial tears need to be taken at least 4 times a day and taping the affected eye at night protects the cornea from drying out and potentially ulcerating. Drying out of the eyes occurs because of the eye's inability to close. Mastication is often impaired with Bell's palsy, so soft foods are indicated.

he nurse recognizes which pathophysiologic feature as a hallmark of Guillain-Barré syndrome? a. Nerve impulses are not transmitted to skeletal muscle. b. The immune system destroys the myelin sheath. c. The distal nerves degenerate and retract. d. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptor sites develop.

ANS: B In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the immune system destroys the myelin sheath, causing segmental demyelination. Nerve impulses are transmitted more slowly but remain in place. Antibodies are not developed. The nerves do not degenerate and retract.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone peripheral nerve repair. Which priority assessment does the nurse perform postoperatively? a. Evaluate extremity mobility. b. Assess the skin surrounding the cast. c. Test distal extremities for sensation. d. Auscultate bowel sounds.

ANS: B The nurse assesses the skin surrounding the cast hourly for tightness, warmth, and color. If the cast is too tight, the nurse notifies the provider immediately. The other assessments should be completed after a circulatory assessment.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is admitted to the hospital. The nurse plans caregiving priority to interventions that address which priority client problem? a. Anxiety b. Low fluid volume c. Inadequate airway d. Potential for skin breakdown

ANS: C Airway takes priority. Anxiety is probably present, but a physical diagnosis takes priority over a psychosocial one. The client has no reason to have low fluid volume unless he or she has been unable to drink for some time. If present, airway problems take priority over a circulation problem. An actual problem takes precedence over a risk for a problem.

A client is admitted with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). What assessment takes priority? a. Bladder control b. Cognitive perception c. Respiratory system d. Sensory functions

ANS: C Clients with GBS have muscle weakness, possibly to the point of paralysis. If respiratory muscles are paralyzed, the client may need mechanical ventilation, so the respiratory system is the priority. The nurse will complete urinary, cognitive, and sensory assessments as part of a thorough evaluation.

The nursing instructor asks a nursing student to compare Bell's palsy and trigeminal neuralgia. Which statement by the nursing student is correct?

Difficulty chewing may occur in both disorders." The correct statement about Bell's palsy and trigeminal neuralgia is that problems with chewing can happen in both disorders. Both Bell's palsy and trigeminal neuralgia can affect cranial nerve V, which affects facial expressions and chewing.Both Bell's Palsy and trigeminal neuralgia are disorders of the cranial nerves. Facial twitching can be a sign of trigeminal neuralgia, whereas Bell's palsy causes a unilateral facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is caused by the herpes simplex virus, unlike trigeminal neuralgia, which is thought to be caused by excessive firing of irritated nerve fibers in the trigeminal nerve.

A client had a nerve laceration repair to the forearm and is being discharged in a cast. What statement by the client indicates a poor understanding of discharge instructions relating to cast care? a. "I can scratch with a coat hanger." b. "I should feel my fingers for warmth." c. "I will keep the cast clean and dry." d. "I will return to have the cast removed."

Nothing should be placed under the cast to use for scratching. The other statements show good indication that the client has understood the discharge instructions.

The nurse admits a client with suspected myasthenia gravis (MG). The nurse anticipates that the primary health care provider (PHCP) will request which medication to aid in the diagnosis of MG?

edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) The nurse expects the PHCP to request edrophonium chloride for a newly admitted client suspected of having MG. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) and neostigmine bromide (Prostigmin) may be used for testing for MG. Tensilon is used most often because of its rapid onset and brief duration of action. This drug inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine (ACh) at the postsynaptic membrane, which increases the availability of ACh for excitation of postsynaptic receptors.Atropine has parasympatholytic effects and is the antidote for edrophonium chloride. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is a glucocorticoid that is used to treat inflammatory disorders. Ropinirole (Requip) is a dopamine agonist used in the treatment of restless leg syndrome (RLS).

A client's spouse expresses concern that the client, who has Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), is becoming very depressed and will not leave the house. What is the nurse's best response?

Contact the Guillain-Barré Syndrome Foundation International for resources. Here is their contact information." The nurse's best response to a client's spouse about the client with GBS being depressed is referring the client to the GBS Foundation for resources. The Guillain-Barré Syndrome Foundation International (www.gbs-cidp.org) provides resources and information for clients and their families. The Foundation may be able to help the spouse and family find local support groups to assist the family with the transition.Inviting one close friend over is appropriate, but more than one might overwhelm the client. Telling the spouse to let the client say alone and that the behavior is normal is not helpful and inappropriate. Although depression is expected initially, some action does need to be taken to prevent further deterioration.

A client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis (MG) is being discharged, and the nurse is teaching about proper medication administration. Which statement by the client demonstrates a need for further teaching?

I can continue to take over-the-counter drugs like before." Further teaching about medication administration is indicated when the client with MG says that he/she can still take over-the-counter drugs. Clients with MG must not take any over-the-counter medications without checking with their primary health care provider first.The client's medication schedule may be posted in the home for the benefit of family members. An extra supply of medication should be kept in the client's car or workplace to maintain therapeutic levels in case a dose was missed. The client may wear a watch with an alarm as a medication reminder to maintain therapeutic levels.

A client who has myasthenia gravis is receiving atropine for a cholinergic crisis. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Suction the client to remove secretions. b. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. c. Measure urinary output every 30 minutes. d. Administer prescribed anticholinergic drugs as needed.

ANS: A Atropine can cause thickening of secretions and formation of mucous plugs. The client is maintained on a ventilator during the crisis. Measures to remove secretions to prevent the buildup of secretions and the possibility of pneumonia are most important. The other interventions do not relate to the administration of atropine.

A client is taking long-term corticosteroids for myasthenia gravis. What teaching is most important? a. Avoid large crowds and people who are ill. b. Check blood sugars four times a day. c. Use two forms of contraception. d. Wear properly fitting socks and shoes.

ANS: A Corticosteroids reduce immune function, so clients taking these medications must avoid being exposed to illness. Long-term use can lead to secondary diabetes, but the client would not need to start checking blood glucose unless diabetes had been detected. Corticosteroids do not affect the effectiveness of contraception. Wearing well-fitting shoes would be important to avoid injury, but not just because the client takes corticosteroids.

A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) asks the nurse to explain the disease. What response by the nurse is best? a. "MG is an autoimmune problem in which nerves do not cause muscles to contract." b. "MG is an inherited destruction of peripheral nerve endings and junctions." c. "MG consists of trauma-induced paralysis of specific cranial nerves." d. "MG is a viral infection of the dorsal root of sensory nerve fibers."

ANS: A MG is an autoimmune disorder in which nerve fibers are damaged and their impulses do not lead to muscle contraction. MG is not an inherited or viral disorder and does not paralyze specific cranial nerves.

The nurse is teaching a client about taking a new prescription for pyridostigmine. Which statements by the nurse indicate correct information about this drug? (Select all that apply.) a. "Avoid opioids and other sedating drugs when taking this medication." b. "Report increased mucous secretions and sweating immediately to the primary health care provider." c. "Take the prescribed medication after meals to increase intestinal absorption." d. "Avoid taking antibiotics, especially neomycin, while on this medication" e. "Maintain the exact same dose of this medication every day."

ANS: A, B, D Choice A and D are correct due to potential drug-drug interactions with pyridostigmine. Choice B suggests possible cholinergic crisis which can occur if the dose of the medication is too high. The drug should be taken before meals to increase muscle tone needed to chew, swallow, and digest food. The drug dosing may vary depending on how the client is performing each day.

The nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has identified the priority client problem of decreased mobility for the client. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask occupational therapy to help the client with activities of daily living. b. Consult with the provider about a physical therapy consult. c. Provide the client with information on support groups. d. Refer the client to a medical social worker or chaplain. e. Work with speech therapy to design a high-protein diet.

ANS: A, B, E Improving mobility and strength involves the collaborative assistance of occupational therapy, physical therapy, and speech therapy. While support groups, social work, or chaplain referrals may be needed, they do not help with mobility.

The intensive care nurse is caring for a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse notes that the client's vital capacity has declined to 12 mL/kg, and the client is having difficulty clearing secretions. Which is the nurse's priority action? a. Place the client in a high Fowler's position. b. Prepare the client for elective intubation. c. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula. d. Auscultate for breath sounds.

ANS: B Deterioration in vital capacity to less than 15 mL/kg and an inability to clear secretions are indications for elective intubation. The other interventions may assist with breathing and oxygenation but would not reverse the deterioration in vital capacity or help clear secretions.

The nurse teaches a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) about the recovery rate of this disorder. Which statement indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching? a. "I need to see a lawyer because I do not expect to recover from this disease." b. "I will have to take things slowly for several months after I leave the hospital." c. "I expect to be able to return to work in construction soon after I get discharged." d. "I wonder if my family will be able to manage my care now that I am paralyzed."

ANS: B Most clients make a full recovery from GBS. Recovery can take as long as 6 months to 2 years. Fatigue is a major lingering symptom for most of those diagnosed with this disorder. Clients are not permanently paralyzed. They are in an acute care environment during the acute phase of the disorder.

he nurse assesses a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome during plasmapheresis. Which complication does the nurse monitor for during this procedure? a. Tachycardia b. Hypovolemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hemorrhage

ANS: B The client undergoing plasmapheresis is at risk for hypovolemia. The nurse monitors fluid status, assesses vital signs, and administers replacement fluid, as indicated. The other manifestations are not complications of plasmapheresis.

A client with myasthenia gravis is malnourished. What actions to improve nutrition may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the client's gag reflex b. Cutting foods up into small bites c. Monitoring prealbumin levels d. Thickening liquids prior to drinking e. Weighing the client daily

ANS: B, D Cutting food up into smaller bites makes it easier for the client to chew and swallow. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration. The UAP can weigh the client, but this does not help improve nutrition. The nurse assesses the gag reflex and monitors laboratory values.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has peripheral neuropathy of the lower extremities. Which instruction does the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. "Cut all calluses and corns from your feet as soon as you notice them." b. "Your balance will be steadier if you go barefoot while at home." c. "Use a thermometer to check the temperature of bath water." d. "Avoid using lotion on the feet and legs."

ANS: C The client with neuropathy has loss of sensation in the lower extremities, which can predispose the client to thermal injury. The client should be instructed to use a thermometer to check the temperature of the bath water to avoid a burn. Checking the water with the hands is not recommended because neuropathy may have a stocking and glove distribution that could also affect the hands. The client should be taught to wear shoes at all times, to assess feet and legs daily, to keep skin moist and clean, and not to cut calluses or corns from the feet.

The nurse assesses a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find in this client? a. Ophthalmoplegia and diplopia b. Progressive weakness without sensory involvement c. Progressive, ascending weakness and paresthesia d. Weakness of the face, jaw, and sternocleidomastoid muscles

ANS: C The most common clinical pattern of Guillain-Barré syndrome is the ascending variety. Weakness and paresthesia begin in the lower extremities and progress upward. The other manifestations are not associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome.

24. The nurse teaches a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) about pain management. Which statement indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching? a. "I can use the button on the pump as often as I want to get more pain medication." b. "Aspirin will provide the best relief from my pain associated with this disease." c. "A combination of morphine and distraction helps bring me relief right now." d. "I should not have any pain as a result of impaired motor and sensory neurons."

ANS: C Typical pain from GBS often is not relieved by medication other than opiates. Distraction, repositioning, massage, heat, cold, and guided imagery may enhance the opiate effects. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pumps should be set with appropriate doses and limits.

The nurse is preparing a client for a Tensilon (edrophonium chloride) test. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Administering anxiolytics b. Having a ventilator nearby c. Obtaining atropine sulfate d. Sedating the client

ANS: C Atropine is the antidote to edrophonium chloride and should be readily available when a client is having a Tensilon test. The nurse would not want to give medications that might cause increased weakness or sedation. A ventilator is not necessary to have nearby, although emergency equipment should be available.

A client with trigeminal neuralgia is about to undergo surgery for pain relief. The client asks, "How will this surgery relieve my pain?" How does the nurse respond? a. "The surgeon will cut the connection between the cranial nerves." b. "The surgeon will use an electrode to bypass the trigeminal nerve conduction." c. "An incision is made into the nerve itself, and an anesthetic is applied to the area." d. "A small artery compressing the nerve will be relocated."

ANS: D In some clients, a small artery compresses the nerve as it enters the pons. By relocating this nerve, pain relief is obtained and sensation is spared. The other responses do not answer the client's question appropriately.

he nurse is assessing laboratory results for a client with myasthenia gravis (MG). Which results does the nurse correlate with this disease process? a. Elevated serum calcium level b. Decreased thyroid hormone level c. Decreased complete blood count d. Elevated acetylcholine receptor antibody levels

ANS: D Testing for acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies is important because 80% to 90% of clients with the disease have elevated AChR antibody levels. The other laboratory results are not associated with myasthenia gravis.

The nurse is caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia. Which patient problem is the priority for the nurse? a. Facial twitching b. Problems with communication c. Ptosis and diplopia d. Severe facial pain

ANS: D The client with trigeminal neuralgia (TN) has severe burning or sharp pain that is worsened by facial movement or eating. While the client may also experience facial twitching, managing pain is the priority problem. The client with TN usually does not have problems with communication or facial paralysis.

The nurse learns that the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome includes segmental demyelination. The nurse should understand that this causes what? a. Delayed afferent nerve impulses b. Paralysis of affected muscles c. Paresthesia in upper extremities d. Slowed nerve impulse transmission

ANS: D Demyelination leads to slowed nerve impulse transmission. The other options are not correct.

client with myasthenia gravis has the priority client problem of inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding indicates that the priority goal for this client problem has been met? a. Ability to chew and swallow without aspiration b. Eating 75% of meals and between-meal snacks c. Intake greater than output 3 days in a row d. Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 month

ANS: D Weight gain is the best indicator that the client is receiving enough nutrition. Being able to chew and swallow is important for eating, but adequate nutrition can be accomplished through enteral means if needed. Swallowing without difficulty indicates an intact airway. Since the question does not indicate what the client's meals and snacks consist of, eating 75% may or may not be adequate. Intake and output refers to fluid balance.

A client is being evaluated for signs associated with myasthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis. Which symptoms lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing a cholinergic crisis?

Abdominal cramps, blurred vision, facial muscle twitching The nurse suspects a cholinergic crisis when the client experiences abdominal cramps, blurred vision, and facial muscle twitching. These are signs of an acute exacerbation of muscle weakness symptoms of cholinergic crisis caused by overmedication with cholinergic (anticholinesterase) drugs.Bowel and bladder incontinence, pallor, cyanosis, increased pulse, anoxia, and decreased urine output are symptoms indicating a myasthenic crisis. Restlessness, increased salivation and tearing, and dyspnea are symptoms indicating a mixed myasthenic-cholinergic crisis.

The nurse encourages a ventilated client with advanced Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) to communicate by which simple technique?

Blinking for "yes" or "no" To communicate, a ventilated client with advanced GBS needs to blink for "yes" or "no." A simple technique involving eye blinking or moving a finger to indicate "yes" and "no" is the best way for the ventilated client with GBS to communicate.Moving the lips is difficult to do around an endotracheal tube and is exhausting for the client. Sign language is very time-consuming to learn, unless the client and family already know it. Use of a laptop may prove too challenging for the client in advanced stages of GBS.

A client arrives in the emergency department with new-onset ptosis, diplopia, and dysphagia. The nurse anticipates that the client will be tested for which neurologic disease?

Myasthenia gravis (MG) The nurse expects the client with these signs/symptoms will be tested for MG. Sudden-onset ptosis, diplopia, and dysphagia are classic signs/symptoms of MG. Laboratory studies and a cholinesterase inhibitor test (e.g., Tensilon challenge test) most likely will be done to confirm the diagnosis.Signs/symptoms of Bell's palsy include facial paralysis; the face appears masklike and sags. Signs/symptoms of GBS typically begin in the legs and spread to the arms and upper body. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sharp, intense facial pain that is usually not associated with sensory or motor deficits.

A client is admitted with an exacerbation of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), presenting with dyspnea. Which intervention does the nurse perform first?

Raises the head of the bed to 45 degrees The nurse's first action for a client with an exacerbation of GBS who now has dyspnea is to raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees. The head of the client's bed must be elevated to allow for increased lung expansion. This action helps improve the client's ability to breathe.Calling the RRT for intubation may be necessary if dyspnea is severe or oxygen saturation does not respond to oxygen therapy. Close monitoring of respiratory status is indicated because of the acute stages of GBS. Instructing the client on how to cough effectively is not the priority in this case. The client would be suctioned as needed but cautiously to avoid vagal stimulation.

Which statement correctly illustrates the commonality between Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) and myasthenia gravis (MG)?

the client's respiratory status and muscle function are affected by both diseases. The correct statement about the commonality between GBS and MG is that both diseases affect the respiratory and muscular system. Both GBS and MG affect clients' respiratory status and muscle function.Only MG is an autoimmune disease with ocular symptoms and is characterized by exacerbations and remissions, whereas GBS has three acute stages. GBS causes demyelination of the peripheral neurons.

A client has trigeminal neuralgia and has begun skipping meals and not brushing his teeth, and his family believes he has become depressed. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client to explain his feelings related to this disorder. b. Explain how dental hygiene is related to overall health. c. Refer the client to a medical social worker for assessment. d. Tell the client that he will become malnourished in time.

ANS: A Clients with trigeminal neuralgia are often afraid of causing pain, so they may limit eating, talking, dental hygiene, and socializing. The nurse first assesses the client for feelings related to having the disorder to determine if a psychosocial link is involved. The other options may be needed depending on the outcome of the initial assessment.

The nurse is caring for a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which nursing intervention does the nurse implement to reduce muscle weakness in this client? a. Administer a therapeutic massage. b. Collaborate with the physical therapist. c. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises. d. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

ANS: B The hallmark of myasthenia gravis is muscle weakness that increases with fatigue. The nurse provides assistance with ADLs to prevent fatigue. The nurse collaborates with the physical therapist in teaching the client energy conservation techniques. Therapeutic massage, passive range of motion, and repositioning will not reduce muscle weakness.

The nurse instructs a client who has myasthenia gravis to take prescribed medications on time and to eat meals 45 to 60 minutes after taking anticholinesterase drugs. The client asks why the timing of meals is so important. Which is the nurse's best response? a. "This timing allows the drug to have maximum effect, so it is easier for you to chew, swallow, and not choke." b. "This timing prevents your blood sugar level from dropping too low and causing you to be at risk for falling." c. "These drugs are very irritating to your stomach and could cause ulcers if taken too long before meals." d. "These drugs cause nausea and vomiting. By waiting a while after you take the medication, you are less likely to vomit."

ANS: A Skeletal muscle weakness extends to the ability to chew and swallow. Clients who have myasthenia gravis are at risk for aspiration during meals. Timing the medication so that most of the meal is eaten when the drugs have produced their peak effect enables the client to chew and swallow more easily. The medication has no effect on blood glucose levels, ulcers, or nausea.

The nurse assesses a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to observe in this client? a. Inability to perform the six cardinal positions of gaze b. Lateralization to the affected side during the Weber test c. Absent deep tendon reflexes d. Impaired stereognosis

ANS: A The most common assessment finding in more than 90% of clients with myasthenia gravis is involvement of the extraocular muscles. The nurse observes for inability or difficulty with tests of extraocular function, such as the cardinal positions of gaze. Ptosis and incomplete eye closure also may be observed. Altered hearing and absent reflexes are not common in myasthenia gravis.