Chapter 65: Critical Care

LEWIS: End of Chapter Questions Critical Care 1. Certification in critical care nursing (CCRN) by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses indicates that the nurse. a. is an advanced practice nurse who cares for acutely and critically ill patients. b. may practice independently to provide symptom management for the critically ill. c. has earned a master's degree in the field of advanced acute and critical care nursing. d. has practiced in critical care and successfully completed a test of critical care knowledge.

1. Correct answer: d Rationale: Certification in critical care nursing (CCRN) by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses requires registered nurse licensure, practice experience in critical or progressive care nursing, and successful completion of a written test.

2. What are the appropriate nursing interventions for the patient with delirium in the ICU (select all that apply)> a. Use clocks and calendars to maintain orientation. b. Encourage round-the-clock presence of caregivers at the bedside. c. Silence all alarms reduce overhead paging, and avoid conversations around the patient. d. Sedate the patient with appropriate drugs to protect the patient from harmful behaviors. e. Identify physiologic factors that may be contributing to the patient's confusion and irritibility.

2. Correct answers: a, d, e Rationale: The use of clocks and calendars can help orient the patient with delirium in the intensive care unit (ICU). If the patient demonstrates hyperactivity, insomnia, or delusions, management with neuroleptic drugs (e.g., dexmed¬etomidine [Precedex]) may be considered. Physical conditions such as hemodynamic instability, hypoxemia, hypercarbia, electrolyte disturbances, and severe infections can precipitate delirium.

3. The critical care nurse recognizes that an ideal plan for caregiver involvement includes: a. a caregiver at the bedside at all times. b. allowing caregivers at the bedside at preset, brief intervals c. and individually devised plan to involve caregivers with care and comfort measures. d. restriction of visiting in the ICU because the environment is overwhelming to caregivers

3. Correct answer: c Rationale: An individualized plan of care should be developed for each patient and the caregivers. Caregivers should be allowed to assist with care and comfort measures in the ICU if desired.

4. To establish hemodynamic monitoring for a patient, the nurse zeroes the: a. cardiac output monitoring system to the level of the left ventricle. b. pressure monitoring system to the level of the catheter tip located in the patient. c. pressure monitoring system to the level of the atrium, identified as the phlebostatic axis. d. pressure monitoring system to the level of the atrium, identified as the midcavicular line.

4. Correct answer: c Rationale: Referencing means positioning the transducer so that the zero reference point is at the level of the atria of the heart. The stopcock nearest the transducer is usually the zero reference for the transducer. To place this reference level with the atria, use an external landmark: the phlebostatic axis. The phlebostatic axis is the intersection between the fourth intercostal space at the sternum and the midpoint between the anterior and posterior aspects of the chest wall. Position the port of the stopcock nearest the transducer level with the phlebostatic axis.

5. The hemodynamic changes the nurse expects to find after successful initiation of intraaortic balloon pump therapy in a patient with cardiogenic shock include (select all that apply): a. decreased SV b. decreased SVR c. decreased PAWP d. increased diastolic BP. e. decreased myocardial O2 consumption.

5. Correct answers: b, c, d, e Rationale: The hemodynamic effects of intraaortic balloon inflation during diastole include increased diastolic blood pressure (BP), increased pressure in the aortic root, increased coronary artery perfusion pressure, and improved oxygen delivery to the myocardium. The hemodynamic effects of intraaortic balloon inflation during systole include decreased afterload (i.e., systemic vascular resistance [SVR]), decreased peak systolic pressure, decreased myocardial oxygen consumption, increased stroke volume (SV), and decreased preload (i.e., decreased pulmonary artery [PA] pressures), including decreased pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).

6. The purpose of adding PEEP to positive pressure ventilation is to: a. increase functional residual capacity and improve oxygenation. b. increased FiO2 in an attempt to wean the patient and avoid O2 toxicity. c. determine if the patient is in synchrony with the ventilator or needs to be paralyzed. d. determine if the patient is able to be weaned and avoid the risk of pneumomediastium.

6. Correct answer: a Rationale: Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a ventilatory maneuver in which positive pressure is applied to the airway during exhalation. This increases functional residual capacity (FRC) and often improves oxygenation with restoration of lung volume that normally remains at the end of passive exhalation.

7. The nursing management of a patient with an artificial airway includes: a. maintaining ET tube cuff pressure at 30 cm H2O. b. routine suctioning of the tube at least every 2 hours. c. observing for cardiac dysrhythmias during suctioning. d. prevention of tube dislodgement by limiting mouth care to lubrication of the lips.

7. Correct answer: c Rationale: Potential complications associated with suctioning include hypoxemia, bronchospasm, increased intracranial pressure, dysrhythmias, hypertension, hypotension, mucosal damage, pulmonary bleeding, pain, and infection. Closely assess the patient before, during, and after the suctioning procedure. If the patient does not tolerate suctioning (e.g., decreased arterial oxygenation, increased or decreased blood pressure, sustained coughing, development of dysrhythmias), stop the procedure, and manually hyperventilate the patient with a bag valve mask and 100% oxygen.

8. The nurse monitors the patient with positive pressure mechanical ventilation for: a. paralytic ileus because pressure on the abdominal contents affects bowel motility. b. diuresis and sodium depletion because of increased release of atrial natriuretic peptide. c. signs of cardiovascular insufficiency because pressure in the chest impedes venous return. d. respiratory acidosis in a patient with COPD because of alveolar hyperventilation and increased PaO2 levels.

8. Correct answer: c Rationale: Positive pressure ventilation affects circulation by transmission of increased mean airway pressure to the thoracic cavity. With increased intrathoracic pressure, thoracic vessels are compressed. Such compression results in decreased venous return to the heart, decreased left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload), decreased cardiac output, and hypotension.

Question 3 of 14 The nurse in collaboration with respiratory therapy is determining a patient's readiness to wean from the ventilator. Which finding indicates the patient is not a candidate for weaning (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Minute volume of 8 L/min Patient follow commands Serum hemoglobin of 6 g/dL Respirations of 28 breaths/min Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 45 mm Hg Negative inspiratory force (NIF) of -15 cm H2O

ANS: Serum hemoglobin of 6 g/dL, Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 45 mm Hg, Negative inspiratory force (NIF) of -15 cm H2O Findings that support readiness for weaning are minute volume of 8 L/min, patient is alert and follow commands, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. Findings that indicate the patient is not ready for weaning include serum hemoglobin of 6 g/dL, mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 45 mm Hg, and negative inspiratory force (NIF) of -15 cm H2O. Extubating a patient with severe anemia, poor perfusion, and weakened breathing effort will likely result in poor outcomes such as worsening of condition and reintubation.

COMPLETION 1. A patient's vital signs are pulse 90, respirations 24, and BP 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 4.7 L/min. The patient's stroke volume is _____ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)

ANS: 52 Stroke volume = Cardiac output/heart rate 52 mL = (4.7 L x 1000 mL/L)/90 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1559 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) after a massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Confirm that the IABP console has turned off. b. Assess the patient's vital signs and orientation. c. Obtain supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter. d. Notify the health care provider of the IABP malfunction.

ANS: A, B, D, C Blood in the IABP catheter indicates a possible tear in the balloon. The console should shut off automatically to prevent complications such as air embolism. Next, the nurse will assess the patient and communicate with the health care provider about the patient's assessment and the IABP problem. Finally, supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter may be needed based on the patient assessment and the decision of the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1568 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

OTHER 1. When assisting with oral intubation of a patient who is having respiratory distress, in which order will the nurse take these actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Obtain a portable chest-x-ray. b. Position the patient in the supine position. c. Inflate the cuff of the endotracheal tube after insertion. d. Attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the endotracheal tube. e. Oxygenate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device for several minutes.

ANS: E, B, C, D, A The patient is pre-oxygenated with a bag-valve-mask system for 3 to 5 minutes before intubation and then placed in a supine position. After the intubation, the cuff on the endotracheal tube is inflated to occlude and protect the airway. Tube placement is assessed first with an end-tidal CO2 sensor and then with chest x-ray examination. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1570 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. A patient who is receiving positive pressure ventilation is scheduled for a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT). Which finding by the nurse is most likely to result in postponing the SBT? a. New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor. b. Enteral feedings are being given through an orogastric tube. c. Scattered rhonchi are heard when auscultating breath sounds. d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is being used to treat postoperative pain.

ANS: A Myocardial ischemia is a contraindication for ventilator weaning. The ST segment elevation is an indication that weaning should be postponed until further investigation and/or treatment for myocardial ischemia can be done. Ventilator weaning can proceed when opioids are used for pain management, abnormal lung sounds are present, or enteral feedings are being used. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1582 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a right radial arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take action? a. The right hand feels cooler than the left hand. b. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 77 mm Hg. c. The system is delivering 3 mL of flush solution per hour. d. The flush bag and tubing were last changed 2 days previously.

ANS: A The change in temperature of the right hand suggests that blood flow to the right hand is impaired. The flush system needs to be changed every 96 hours. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 75 mm Hg is normal. Flush systems for hemodynamic monitoring are set up to deliver 3 to 6 mL/hr of flush solution. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1565 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be required? a. The arterial pressure is 90/46. b. The stroke volume is increased. c. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute. d. The stroke volume variation is 12%.

ANS: A The hypotension suggests that the high intrathoracic pressure caused by the PEEP may be decreasing venous return and (potentially) cardiac output. The other assessment data would not be a direct result of PEEP and mechanical ventilation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. When evaluating a patient with a central venous catheter, the nurse observes that the insertion site is red and tender to touch and the patient's temperature is 101.8° F. What should the nurse plan to do? a. Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip. b. Use the catheter only for fluid administration. c. Change the flush system and monitor the site. d. Check the site more frequently for any swelling.

ANS: A The information indicates that the patient has a local and systemic infection caused by the catheter, and the catheter should be discontinued to avoid further complications such as endocarditis. Changing the flush system, continued monitoring, or using the line for fluids will not help prevent or treat the infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1562 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

32. A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is "fighting" the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator. b. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan). c. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device. d. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

ANS: A The initial response by the nurse should be to try to decrease the patient's anxiety by coaching the patient about how to coordinate respirations with the ventilator. The other actions may also be helpful if the verbal coaching is ineffective in reducing the patient's anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1579 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Question 7 of 14 Which factor indicates that tracheostomy placement would be preferable to endotracheal intubation? The patient is unable to clear secretions. The patient is at high risk for aspiration. A long-term airway is probably necessary. An upper airway obstruction is impairing the patient's ventilation.

ANS: A long-term airway is probably necessary. A tracheostomy is indicated when the need for an artificial airway is expected to be long term. Aspiration risk, an inability to clear secretions, and upper airway obstruction are indications for an artificial airway, but these are not specific indications for tracheostomy. INCORRECT-->An upper airway obstruction is impairing the patient's ventilation.

4. After surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patient's central venous pressure (CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer IV diuretic medications. b. Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol. c. Increase the infusion rate of IV vasodilators. d. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees.

ANS: B A low CVP indicates hypovolemia and a need for an increase in the infusion rate. Diuretic administration will contribute to hypovolemia and elevation of the head or increasing vasodilators may decrease cerebral perfusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1564 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days has disturbed sensory perception from sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Administer prescribed sedatives or opioids at bedtime to promote sleep. b. Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods. c. Silence the alarms on the cardiac monitors to allow 30- to 40-minute naps. d. Eliminate assessments between 2200 and 0600 to allow uninterrupted sleep.

ANS: B Clustering nursing activities and providing uninterrupted rest periods will minimize sleep-cycle disruption. Sedative and opioid medications tend to decrease the amount of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and can contribute to sleep disturbance and disturbed sensory perception. Silencing the alarms on the cardiac monitors would be unsafe in a critically ill patient, as would discontinuing all assessments during the night. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1556 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

12. The central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) is decreasing in a patient who has severe pancreatitis. To determine the possible cause of the decreased ScvO2, the nurse assesses the patient's a. lipase level. b. temperature. c. urinary output. d. body mass index.

ANS: B Elevated temperature increases metabolic demands and O2 use by tissues, resulting in a drop in O2 saturation of central venous blood. Information about the patient's body mass index, urinary output, and lipase will not help in determining the cause of the patient's drop in ScvO2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1565 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to a. obtain a portable chest x-ray. b. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor. c. auscultate for bilateral breath sounds. d. observe for symmetrical chest movement.

ANS: B End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement. Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion are also used, but they are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is done after the tube is secured. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1570 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. While close family members are visiting, a patient has a respiratory arrest, and resuscitation is started. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Tell the family members that watching the resuscitation will be very stressful. b. Ask family members if they wish to remain in the room during the resuscitation. c. Take the family members quickly out of the patient room and remain with them. d. Assign a staff member to wait with family members just outside the patient room.

ANS: B Evidence indicates that many family members want the option of remaining in the room during procedures such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and that this decreases anxiety and facilitates grieving. The other options may be appropriate if the family decides not to remain with the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1558 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

6. The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator determines that teaching a new staff nurse about arterial pressure monitoring has been effective when the nurse a. balances and calibrates the monitoring equipment every 2 hours. b. positions the zero-reference stopcock line level with the phlebostatic axis. c. ensures that the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat for all readings. d. rechecks the location of the phlebostatic axis with changes in the patient's position.

ANS: B For accurate measurement of pressures, the zero-reference level should be at the phlebostatic axis. There is no need to rebalance and recalibrate monitoring equipment every 2 hours. Accurate hemodynamic readings are possible with the patient's head raised to 45 degrees or in the prone position. The anatomic position of the phlebostatic axis does not change when patients are repositioned. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

14. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraaortic balloon pump in place. Which action should be included in the plan of care? a. Avoid the use of anticoagulant medications. b. Measure the patient's urinary output every hour. c. Provide passive range of motion for all extremities. d. Position the patient supine with head flat at all times.

ANS: B Monitoring urine output will help determine whether the patient's cardiac output has improved and also help monitor for balloon displacement blocking the renal arteries. The head of the bed can be elevated up to 30 degrees. Heparin is used to prevent thrombus formation. Limited movement is allowed for the extremity with the balloon insertion site to prevent displacement of the balloon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1569 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an arterial catheter in the left radial artery for arterial pressure-based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring. Which information obtained by the nurse requires a report to the health care provider? a. The patient has a positive Allen test result. b. There is redness at the catheter insertion site. c. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 86 mm Hg. d. The dicrotic notch is visible in the arterial waveform.

ANS: B Redness at the catheter insertion site indicates possible infection. The Allen test is performed before arterial line insertion, and a positive test result indicates normal ulnar artery perfusion. A MAP of 86 mm Hg is normal, and the dicrotic notch is normally present on the arterial waveform. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1562 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects the effectiveness of drugs that the nurse gives to reduce a patient's left ventricular afterload? a. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

ANS: B SVR reflects the resistance to ventricular ejection, or afterload. The other parameters may be monitored but do not reflect afterload as directly. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

33. The nurse educator is evaluating the performance of a new registered nurse (RN) who is providing care to a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation with 15 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which action indicates that the new RN is safe? a. The RN plans to suction the patient every 1 to 2 hours. b. The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient. c. The RN tapes the connection between the ventilator tubing and the ET. d. The RN changes the ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 48 hours.

ANS: B The closed-suction technique is used when patients require high levels of PEEP (>10 cm H2O) to prevent the loss of PEEP that occurs when disconnecting the patient from the ventilator. Suctioning should not be scheduled routinely, but it should be done only when patient assessment data indicate the need for suctioning. Taping connections between the ET and ventilator tubing would restrict the ability of the tubing to swivel in response to patient repositioning. Ventilator tubing changes increase the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia and are not indicated routinely. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

26. An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion. The nurse will plan to a. give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer. b. inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient. c. notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer. d. obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.

ANS: B The patient's history and symptoms most likely indicate delirium associated with the sleep deprivation and sensory overload in the ICU environment. Informing the receiving nurse and transferring the patient is appropriate. Postponing the transfer is likely to prolong the delirium. Benzodiazepines and restraints contribute to delirium and agitation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1557 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

13. An intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met? a. Urine output of 25 mL/hr b. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute c. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min d. Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat

ANS: C A CO of 5 L/min is normal and indicates that the IABP has been successful in treating the shock. The low SV signifies continued cardiogenic shock. The tachycardia and low urine output also suggest continued cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1569 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. The nurse notes thick, white secretions in the endotracheal tube (ET) of a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which intervention will most directly treat this finding? a. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours. b. Increase suctioning frequency to every hour. c. Add additional water to the patient's enteral feedings. d. Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning.

ANS: C Because the patient's secretions are thick, better hydration is indicated. Suctioning every hour without any specific evidence for the need will increase the incidence of mucosal trauma and would not address the etiology of the ineffective airway clearance. Instillation of saline does not liquefy secretions and may decrease the SpO2. Repositioning the patient is appropriate but will not decrease the thickness of secretions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1572 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. The family members of a patient who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Explain ICU visitation policies and encourage family visits. b. Escort the family from the waiting room to the patient's bedside. c. Describe the patient's injuries and the care that is being provided. d. Invite the family to participate in an interprofessional care conference.

ANS: C Lack of information is a major source of anxiety for family members and should be addressed first. Family members should be prepared for the patient's appearance and the ICU environment before visiting the patient for the first time. ICU visiting should be individualized to each patient and family rather than being dictated by rigid visitation policies. Inviting the family to participate in a multidisciplinary conference is appropriate but should not be the initial action by the nurse. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1558 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

5. When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter will the nurse use to directly evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment? a. Central venous pressure (CVP) b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

ANS: C PVR is a major contributor to pulmonary hypertension, and a decrease would indicate that pulmonary hypertension was improving. The other parameters may also be monitored but do not directly assess for pulmonary hypertension. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. A nurse is weaning a 68-kg patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) from mechanical ventilation. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the weaning protocol should be stopped? a. The patient's heart rate is 97 beats/min. b. The patient's oxygen saturation is 93%. c. The patient respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. d. The patient's spontaneous tidal volume is 450 mL.

ANS: C Tachypnea is a sign that the patient's work of breathing is too high to allow weaning to proceed. The patient's heart rate is within normal limits, but the nurse should continue to monitor it. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable for a patient with COPD. A spontaneous tidal volume of 450 mL is within the acceptable range. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1582 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. After change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who failed a spontaneous breathing trial and has been placed in a rest mode on the ventilator b. Patient who is intubated and has continuous partial pressure end-tidal CO2 (PETCO2) monitoring c. Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and has no urine output for the last 6 hours d. Patient with a central venous O2 saturation (ScvO2) of 69% while on bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP)

ANS: C The decreased urine output may indicate acute kidney injury or that the patient's cardiac output and perfusion of vital organs have decreased. Any of these causes would require rapid action. The data about the other patients indicate that their conditions are stable and do not require immediate assessment or changes in their care. Continuous PETCO2 monitoring is frequently used when patients are intubated. The rest mode should be used to allow patient recovery after a failed SBT, and an ScvO2 of 69% is within normal limits. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1582 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

19. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation indicates the need for suctioning? a. The patient was last suctioned 6 hours ago. b. The patient's oxygen saturation drops to 93%. c. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. d. The patient has occasional audible expiratory wheezes.

ANS: C The increase in respiratory rate indicates that the patient may have decreased airway clearance and requires suctioning. Suctioning is done when patient assessment data indicate that it is needed and not on a scheduled basis. Occasional expiratory wheezes do not indicate poor airway clearance, and suctioning the patient may induce bronchospasm and increase wheezing. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable and does not suggest that immediate suctioning is needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. Which action should the nurse take when the low pressure alarm sounds for a patient who has an arterial line in the left radial artery? a. Fast flush the arterial line. b. Check the left hand for pallor. c. Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias. d. Re-zero the monitoring equipment.

ANS: C The low pressure alarm indicates a drop in the patient's blood pressure, which may be caused by cardiac dysrhythmias. There is no indication to re-zero the equipment. Pallor of the left hand would be caused by occlusion of the radial artery by the arterial catheter, not by low pressure. There is no indication of a need for flushing the line. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1564 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. The nurse notes that a patient's endotracheal tube (ET), which was at the 22-cm mark, is now at the 25-cm mark, and the patient is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Check the O2 saturation. b. Offer reassurance to the patient. c. Listen to the patient's breath sounds. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: C The nurse should first determine whether the ET tube has been displaced into the right mainstem bronchus by listening for unilateral breath sounds. If so, assistance will be needed to reposition the tube immediately. The other actions are also appropriate, but detection and correction of tube malposition are the most critical actions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1573 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted? a. Heart rate is slow at 58 beats/min. b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg. c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated. d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.

ANS: C Vasoconstrictors such as norepinephrine will increase SVR, and this will increase the work of the heart and decrease peripheral perfusion. The infusion rate may need to be decreased. Bradycardia, hypotension (MAP of 56 mm Hg), and low PAWP are not associated with norepinephrine infusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Question 6 of 14 The nurse is caring for a 55-yr-old man who has a catheter in the right radial artery for invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring after abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery. Which observation by the nurse would require an emergency intervention? Arterial pressure bag is inflated to 250 mm Hg. Calculated mean arterial pressure is 74 mm Hg. Patient's head of bed elevation is at 30 degrees. Capillary refill time in the right hand is 5 seconds.

ANS: Capillary refill time in the right hand is 5 seconds. Neurovascular status distal to the arterial insertion site is monitored hourly. If arterial flow is compromised, the limb will be cool and pale, with capillary refill time longer than 3 seconds. Symptoms of neurologic impairment include paresthesia, pain, or paralysis. Neurovascular impairment can result in loss of a limb and is an emergency. The pressure bag should be inflated to 300 mm Hg. Normal range for mean arterial pressure is 70 to 105 mm Hg. The backrest elevation may be up to 45 degrees unless the patient has orthostatic changes.

Question 11 of 14 The postanesthesia care unit (PACU) has several patients with endotracheal tubes. Which patient should receive the least amount of endotracheal suctioning? Transplantation of a kidney Replacement of aortic valve Cerebral aneurysm resection Formation of an ileal conduit

ANS: Cerebral aneurysm resection The nurse should avoid suctioning the patient after a craniotomy until it is necessary because suctioning will increase this patient's intracranial pressure. The patients with a kidney transplantation, aortic valve replacement, or formation of an ileal conduit will not be negatively affected by suctioning, although it should only be done when needed, not routinely.

9. Which nursing action is needed when preparing to assist with the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter? a. Determine if the cardiac troponin level is elevated. b. Auscultate heart sounds before and during insertion. c. Place the patient on NPO status before the procedure. d. Attach cardiac monitoring leads before the procedure.

ANS: D Dysrhythmias can occur as the catheter is floated through the right atrium and ventricle, and it is important for the nurse to monitor for these during insertion. Pulmonary artery catheter insertion does not require anesthesia, and the patient will not need to be NPO. Changes in cardiac troponin or heart and breath sounds are not expected during pulmonary artery catheter insertion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1564 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. The nurse notes premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) while suctioning a patient's endotracheal tube. Which next action by the nurse is indicated? a. Plan to suction the patient more frequently. b. Decrease the suction pressure to 80 mm Hg. c. Give antidysrhythmic medications per protocol. d. Stop and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.

ANS: D Dysrhythmias during suctioning may indicate hypoxemia or sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The nurse should stop suctioning and ventilate the patient with 100% O2. There is no indication that more frequent suctioning is needed. Lowering the suction pressure will decrease the effectiveness of suctioning without improving the hypoxemia. Because the PVCs occurred during suctioning, there is no need for antidysrhythmic medications (which may have adverse effects) unless they recur when the suctioning is stopped and patient is well oxygenated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

34. The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the health care provider immediately if the patient develops a. O2 saturation of 93%. b. green nasogastric tube drainage. c. respirations of 20 breaths/minute. d. increased jugular venous distention.

ANS: D Increases in jugular venous distention in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) and that the PEEP setting is too high for this patient. A respiratory rate of 20, O2 saturation of 93%, and green nasogastric tube drainage are within normal limits. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1579 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, the most pertinent measurement for the nurse to obtain is a. central venous pressure (CVP). b. systemic vascular resistance (SVR). c. pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR). d. pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).

ANS: D PAWP reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure (or left ventricular preload) and is a sensitive indicator of cardiac function. Because the patient is high risk for left ventricular failure, the PAWP must be monitored. An increase will indicate left ventricular failure. The other values would also provide useful information, but the most definitive measurement of changes in cardiac function is the PAWP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1563 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

37. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first? a. Patient who was extubated this morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C) b. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for obstructive sleep apnea and a respiratory rate of 16 c. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post-percutaneous coronary intervention and needs to void d. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for a venous thromboembolism and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 101 sec

ANS: D The findings for this patient indicate high risk for bleeding from an elevated (nontherapeutic) PTT. The nurse needs to adjust the rate of the infusion (dose) per the health care provider's parameters. The patient with BiPAP for sleep apnea has a normal respiratory rate. The patient recovering from the percutaneous coronary intervention will need to be assisted with voiding and this task could be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel. The patient with a fever may be developing ventilator-associated pneumonia, but addressing the bleeding risk is a higher priority. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1556 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

31. The nurse educator is evaluating the care that a new registered nurse (RN) provides to a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which action by the new RN indicates the need for more education? a. The RN increases the FIO2 to 100% before suctioning. b. The RN secures a bite block in place using adhesive tape. c. The RN asks for assistance to resecure the endotracheal tube. d. The RN positions the patient with the head of bed at 10 degrees.

ANS: D The head of the patient's bed should be positioned at 30 to 45 degrees to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1579 OBJ: Special Questions: Supervision TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

15. While waiting for heart transplantation, a patient with severe cardiomyopathy has a ventricular assist device (VAD) implanted. When planning care for this patient, the nurse should anticipate a. preparing the patient for a permanent VAD. b. administering immunosuppressive medications. c. teaching the patient the reason for complete bed rest. d. monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection.

ANS: D The insertion site for the VAD provides a source for transmission of infection to the circulatory system and requires frequent monitoring. Patients with VADs are able to have some mobility and may not be on bed rest. The VAD is a bridge to transplantation, not a permanent device. Immunosuppression is not necessary for nonbiologic devices such as the VAD. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1569 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse should a. inflate the cuff with a minimum of 10 mL of air. b. inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon is firm on palpation. c. inject air into the cuff until a manometer shows 15 mm Hg pressure. d. inject air into the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation.

ANS: D The minimal occluding volume technique involves injecting air into the cuff until an air leak is present only at peak inflation. The volume to inflate the cuff varies with the ET and the patient's size. Cuff pressure should be maintained at 20 to 25 mm Hg. An accurate assessment of cuff pressure cannot be obtained by palpating the pilot balloon. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1571 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

29. The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed gasping and holding the endotracheal tube (ET) in her hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Activate the rapid response team. b. Provide reassurance to the patient. c. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube. d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.

ANS: D The nurse should ensure maximal patient oxygenation by manually ventilating with a bag-valve-mask system. Offering reassurance to the patient, notifying the health care provider about the need to reinsert the tube, and activating the rapid response team are also appropriate after the nurse has stabilized the patient's oxygenation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1573 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated, a patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.51, PaO2 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the FIO2. b. increase the tidal volume. c. increase the respiratory rate. d. decrease the respiratory rate.

ANS: D The patient's PaCO2 and pH indicate respiratory alkalosis caused by too high a respiratory rate. The PaO2 is appropriate for a patient with COPD and increasing the respiratory rate and tidal volume would further lower the PaCO2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1571 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. While assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that the catheter is correctly placed when the balloon is inflated and the monitor shows a a. typical PA pressure waveform. b. tracing of the systemic arterial pressure. c. tracing of the systemic vascular resistance. d. typical PA wedge pressure (PAWP) tracing.

ANS: D The purpose of a PA line is to measure PAWP, so the catheter is floated through the pulmonary artery until the dilated balloon wedges in a distal branch of the pulmonary artery, and the PAWP readings are available. After insertion, the balloon is deflated and the PA waveform will be observed. Systemic arterial pressures are obtained using an arterial line, and the systemic vascular resistance is a calculated value, not a waveform. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1564 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Question 13 of 14 A 68-yr-old male patient diagnosed with sepsis is orally intubated on mechanical ventilation. Which nursing action is most important? Use the open-suctioning technique. Administer morphine for discomfort. Limit noise and cluster care activities. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.

ANS: Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. The two major complications of endotracheal intubation are unplanned extubation and aspiration. To prevent aspiration, all intubated patients and patients receiving enteral feedings must have the head of the bed elevated a minimum of 30 to 45 degrees unless medically contraindicated. Closed-suction technique is preferred over the open-suction technique because oxygenation and ventilation are maintained during suctioning, and exposure to secretions is reduced. The nurse should provide comfort measures such as morphine to relieve anxiety and pain associated with intubation. To promote rest and sleep, the nurse should limit noise and cluster activities.

Question 10 of 14 A 70-yr-old patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) has become agitated and inattentive since his heart surgery. The nurse knows that ICU delirium frequently occurs in individuals with preexisting dementia, history of alcohol abuse, and severe disease. What interventions should the nurse provide to improve the patient's cognition (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Improve oxygenation. Initiate early mobilization. Provide a small amount of beer. Have the family stay with the patient. Enable the patient to sleep on a schedule with dim lights. Encourage conversation in the patient's room to help reorient.

ANS: Improve oxygenation, Initiate early mobilization, Have family stay with the patient, Enable the patient to sleep on a schedule with dim lights, ICU delirium is common in ICU patients. Improving oxygenation, enabling the patient to sleep, early mobilization, and decreasing sensory overload along with orientation is all helpful in improving the patient's cognition. The beer may or may not be allowed for this patient, and the nurse should not assume that it will help. Having a family member stay with the patient to reorient the patient is helpful, but the family group may increase sensory overload with conversations not involving the patient. INCORRECT--> Encourage conversation in the patient's room to help reorient.

Question 12 of 14 The patient has developed cardiogenic shock after a left anterior descending myocardial infection. Which circulatory-assist device should the nurse expect to use for this patient? Cardiopulmonary bypass Impedance cardiography (ICG) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) Central venous pressure (CVP) measurement

ANS: Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) The most commonly used mechanical circulatory assist device is the IABP, and it is used to decrease ventricular workload, increase myocardial perfusion, and augment circulation. Cardiopulmonary bypass provides circulation during open heart surgery. It is not used as an assist device after surgery. ICG is a noninvasive method to obtain cardiac output and assess thoracic fluid status. CVP measurement is an invasive measurement of right ventricular preload and reflects fluid volume problems. INCORRECT-->Central venous pressure (CVP) measurement

Question 14 of 14 The nurse is caring for a patient intubated and on a mechanical ventilator for several days. Which weaning parameter would tell the nurse if the patient has enough muscle strength to breathe without assistance? Tidal volume Minute ventilation Forced vital capacity Negative inspiratory force

ANS: Negative inspiratory force The negative inspiratory force measures inspiratory muscle strength. Tidal volume and minute ventilation assess the patient's respiratory endurance. Forced vital capacity is not used as a measure to determine weaning from a ventilator. INCORRECT-->Forced vital capacity

Question 8 of 14 The nurse is caring for a 65-yr-old man with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is on pressure support ventilation (PSV), fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) at 80%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) at 15 cm H2O. The patient weighs 72 kg. What finding would indicate that treatment is effective? PaO2 of 60 mm Hg Tidal volume of 700 mL Cardiac output of 2.7 L/min Inspiration to expiration ratio of 1:2

ANS: PaO2 of 60 mm Hg Severe hypoxemia (PaO2 less than 40 mm Hg) occurs with ARDS, and PEEP is increased to improve oxygenation and prevent oxygen toxicity by reducing FIO2. A PaO2 level of 60 mm Hg indicates that treatment is effective and oxygenation status has improved. Decreased cardiac output is a complication of PEEP. Normal cardiac output is 4 to 8 L/minute. Normal tidal volume is 6 to 10 mL/kg. PSV delivers a preset pressure but the tidal volume varies with each breath. I:E ratio is usually set at 1:2 to 1:1.5 and does not indicate patient improvement. INCORRECT-->Tidal volume of 700 mL

Question 9 of 14 When planning care for a patient on a mechanical ventilator, the nurse understands that the application of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the ventilator settings has which therapeutic effect? Increased inflation of the lungs Prevention of barotrauma to the lung tissue Prevention of alveolar collapse during expiration Increased fraction of inspired oxygen concentration (FIO2) administration

ANS: Prevention of alveolar collapse during expiration PEEP is positive pressure that is applied to the airway during exhalation. This positive pressure prevents the alveoli from collapsing, improving oxygenation and enabling a reduced FIO2 requirement. PEEP does not cause increased inflation of the lungs or prevent barotrauma. Actually auto-PEEP resulting from inadequate exhalation time may contribute to barotrauma.

Question 5 of 14 The nurse is caring for a 34-yr-old woman with acute decompensated heart failure who has a pulmonary artery catheter. Which assessment indicates the patient's condition is improving? Cardiac output (CO) is 3.5 L/min. Central venous pressure (CVP) is 10 mm Hg. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 10 mm Hg. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is 1500 dynes/sec/cm-5.

ANS: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is 10 mm Hg. PAWP is the most sensitive indicator of cardiac function and fluid volume status. Normal range for PAWP is 6 to 12 mm Hg. PAWP is increased in heart failure. Normal range for CVP is 2 to 8 mm Hg. An elevated CVP indicates right-sided heart failure or volume overload. CO is decreased in heart failure. Normal cardiac output is 4 to 8 L/minute. SVR is increased in left-sided heart failure. Normal SVR is 800 to 1200 dynes/sec/cm-5. INCORRECT-->Cardiac output (CO) is 3.5 L/min.

Question 2 of 14 Which hematologic problem significantly increases the risks associated with pulmonary artery (PA) catheter insertion? Leukocytosis Hypovolemia Hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia

ANS: Thrombocytopenia PA catheter insertion carries a significant risk of bleeding, which is exacerbated when the patient has low levels of platelets. Leukocytosis, hypovolemia, and anemia are less likely to directly increase the risks associated with PA insertion.

Question 4 of 14 Which interventions should the nurse perform before using an open-suctioning technique for a patient with an endotracheal (ET) tube (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. Put on clean gloves. Administer a bronchodilator. Perform a cardiopulmonary assessment. Hyperoxygenate the patient for 30 seconds. Perform hand hygiene before performing the procedure. Insert a few drops of normal saline into the ET to break up secretions.

ANS: a cardiopulmonary assessment, Hyperoxygenate the patient for 30 seconds. Suctioning is preceded by a thorough assessment and hyperoxygenation for 30 seconds. Sterile, not clean, gloves are necessary, and it is not necessary to administer a bronchodilator. Instillation of normal saline into the ET tube is not an accepted standard practice. INCORRECT-->Perform hand hygiene before performing the procedure, Put on clean gloves.

Question 1 of 14 A 64-yr-old male patient admitted to the critical care unit for gastrointestinal hemorrhage complains of feeling tense and nervous. He appears restless with increased blood pressure and pulse. If the physical assessment shows no other changes, it is most important for the critical care nurse to take which action? Administer prescribed IV dose of lorazepam (Ativan). Stay with the patient and encourage expression of concerns. Ask a family member to remain at the bedside with the patient. Teach the patient how to use guided imagery to reduce anxiety.

Stay with the patient and encourage expression of concerns. Anxiety is a common problem for critically ill patients. The nurse should first stay with the patient and encourage the patient to express concerns and needs. After expression of feelings, the nurse should determine the appropriate intervention if needed (e.g., lorazepam, guided imagery, family presence). In addition, staying with the patient will allow the nurse to continue to assess for physiologic changes associated with recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding. INCORRECT-->Administer prescribed IV dose of lorazepam (Ativan).