Chapter 66: Management of Patients With Neurologic Dysfunction

A client with newly diagnosed seizures asks about stigma associated with epilepsy. The nurse will respond with which of the following statements?

"Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy." Explanation: Many people who have developmental disabilities because of serious neurologic damage also have epilepsy. Epilepsy is not associated with intellectual level. It is not synonymous with intellectual disability or mental illness.

Cerebral edema peaks at which time point after intracranial surgery?

24 hours Explanation: Cerebral edema tends to peak 24 to 36 hours after surgery.

A client with a traumatic brain injury is showing early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). While planning care for this client, what would be the priority expected outcome?

Maintains a patent airway Explanation: Maintenance of a patent airway is always a first priority. Loss of airway is a possible complication of increasing ICP, as well as aspiration from vomiting.

A client is exhibiting signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intravenous solution (IV) would the nurse anticipate hanging?

Mannitol Explanation: With increasing ICP, hypertonic solutions, like mannitol, are used to decrease swelling in the brain cells. D5W, 0.45% NSS, and 0.33% NSS are all hypotonic solutions that will move more fluid into the cells, worsening the ICP.

When educating a patient about the use of antiseizure medication, what should the nurse inform the patient is a result of long-term use of the medication in women?

Osteoporosis Explanation: Because of bone loss associated with the long-term use of antiseizure medications, patients receiving antiseizure agents should be assessed for low bone mass and osteoporosis. They should be instructed about strategies to reduce their risks of osteoporosis (AANN, 2009).

After striking his head on a tree while falling from a ladder, a client is admitted to the emergency department. He's unconscious and his pupils are nonreactive. Which intervention should the nurse question?

Performing a lumbar puncture Explanation: The client's history and assessment suggest that he may have increased intracranial pressure (ICP). If this is the case, lumbar puncture shouldn't be done because it can quickly decompress the central nervous system, causing additional damage. After a head injury, barbiturates may be given to prevent seizures; mechanical ventilation may be required if breathing deteriorates; and elevating the head of the bed may be used to reduce ICP.

Which of the following drugs may be used after a seizure to maintain a seizure-free state?

Phenobarbital Explanation: IV diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), or fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) are administered slowly in an attempt to halt seizures immediately. Other medications (phenytoin, phenobarbital) are administered later to maintain a seizure-free state. In general, a single drug is used to control the seizures.

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?

Pituitary carcinoma Explanation: Pituitary carcinoma most commonly arises in the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) and must be removed by way of a transsphenoidal approach, using a bivalve speculum and rongeur. Surgery to treat esophageal carcinoma usually is palliative and involves esophagogastrectomy with jejunostomy. Laryngeal carcinoma may necessitate a laryngectomy. To treat colorectal cancer, the surgeon removes the tumor and any adjacent tissues and lymph nodes that contain cancer cells.

A client with increased intracranial pressure has a cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) of 40 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret the CPP value?

The CPP is low. Explanation: The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg. Therefore, a CPP of 40 mm Hg is low. Changes in intracranial pressure (ICP) are closely linked with cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The CPP is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). Patients with a CPP of less than 50 mm Hg experience irreversible neurologic damage.

What is one of the earliest signs of increased ICP?

decreased level of consciousness (LOC) Explanation: Headache is a symptom of increased ICP, but decreasing LOC is one of the earliest signs of increased ICP. Cushing's triad occurs late in increased ICP. If untreated, increasing ICP will lead to coma.

A nurse is working on a neurological unit with a nursing student who asks the difference between primary and secondary headaches. The nurse's correct response will include which of the following statements?

"A secondary headache is associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor." Explanation: A secondary headache is a symptom associated with an organic cause, such as a brain tumor or an aneurysm. A primary headache is one for which no organic cause can be identified. These types include migraine, tension, and cluster headaches. Secondary headaches can be located in all areas of the head.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with a severe exacerbation of myasthenia gravis. When administering medications to this client, what is a priority nursing action?

Administer medications at exact intervals ordered. Explanation: The nurse must administer medications at the exact intervals ordered to maintain therapeutic blood levels and prevent symptoms from returning. Assessing the client's reaction, documenting medication and dose, and giving the client plenty of fluids are not the priority nursing action for this client

Which is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Altered respiratory patterns Explanation: Altered respiratory patterns are late signs of increased ICP and may indicate pressure or damage to the brainstem. Headache, irritability, and any change in LOC are early signs of increased ICP. Speech changes, such as slowed speech or slurring, are also early signs of increased ICP.

A nurse is preparing to administer an antiseizure medication to a client. Which of the following is an appropriate antiseizure medication?

Lamictal Explanation: Lamictal is an antiseizure medication. Its packaging was recently changed in an attempt to reduce medication errors, because this medication has been confused with Lamisil (an antifungal), labetalol (an antihypertensive), and Lomotil (an antidiarrheal).

A 30-year-old was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which statement by the client would indicate a need for more teaching from the nurse?

"My children are at greater risk to develop this disease." Explanation: There is no known cause for ALS, and no reason to suspect genetic inheritance. ALS usually begins with muscle weakness of the arms and progresses. The client is encouraged to remain active for as long as possible to prevent respiratory complications.

A nurse assesses the patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale. What score indicates severe impairment of neurologic function?

3 Explanation: Each criterion in the Glasgow Coma Scale (eye opening, verbal response, and motor response) is rated on a scale from 3 to 15. A total score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response. A score of 15 indicates that the patient is fully responsive.

The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client with an altered level of consciousness (LOC). Which is the nurse's priority concern?

Airway clearance Explanation: The most important consideration in managing the patient with altered LOC is to establish an adequate airway and ensure ventilation.

The nurse is aware that burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures. Which of the following is a reason why a neurosurgeon may choose to create a burr hole in a patient?

Aspiration of a brain abscess Explanation: Burr holes may be used in neurosurgical procedures to make a bone flap in the skull, to aspirate a brain abscess, or to evacuate a hematoma.

A client is admitted to an acute care facility after an episode of status epilepticus. After the client is stabilized, which factor is most beneficial in determining the potential cause of the episode?

Compliance with the prescribed medication regimen Explanation: The most common cause of status epilepticus is sudden withdraw of anticonvulsant therapy. The type of medication prescribed, the client's stress level, and weight change don't contribute to this condition.

A nurse is working in the neurologic intensive care unit and admits from the emergency department a patient with a severe head injury. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like part A of the accompanying image. Which posturing is the patient exhibiting?

Decorticate Explanation: An inappropriate or nonpurposeful response is random and aimless. Posturing may be decorticate or decerebrate. Decorticate posture is the flexion and internal rotation of forearms and hands. Decerebrate posture is extension and external rotation. Flaccidity is the absence of motor response; tonic clonic movements are seen with seizures.

A patient 3 days postoperative from a craniotomy informs the nurse, "I feel something trickling down the back of my throat and I taste something salty." What priority intervention does the nurse initiate?

Notify the physician of a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak. Explanation: Any sudden discharge of fluid from a cranial incision is reported at once, because a large leak requires surgical repair. Attention should be paid to the patient who complains of a salty taste or "postnasal drip," because this can be caused by cerebrospinal fluid trickling down the throat.

A client experiences a seizure while hospitalized for appendicitis. During the postictal phase, the client is yelling and swings a closed fist at the nurse. Which is the appropriate action by the nurse?

Reorient the client while gently holding their arms. Explanation: Some clients during the postictal phase will become confused and agitated. This reaction is not intentional, and most clients do not later remember becoming agitated. The nurse should attempt to calm and reorient the client, while also gently holding the arms to prevent the client from hitting, thereby preventing the client from doing injury to self or others. The nurse should always use restraints as a last resort; therefore, the nurse should try to reorient the client before applying wrist restraints. Lorazepam is not indicated for postictal agitation. It may be administered to prevent future seizures. Oxygen is not indicated for this client.

A client with meningitis has a history of seizures. Which should the nurse do to safely manage the client during a seizure? Select all that apply.

Turn the client to the side. Provide verbal reassurance. Explanation: Turning client to the side will allow accumulated saliva to drain from the mouth. The person may not be able to hear you while unconscious, but verbal assurances will help as the person is regaining consciousness. Physically restraining a client during a seizure increases the potential for injuries. Inspection of oral cavity occurs after a generalized seizure and not during a seizure.

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client diagnosed with cranial arteritis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Administer corticosteroids as ordered. Explanation: Cranial arteritis is caused by inflammation, which can lead to visual impairment or rupture of the vessel. Administering the corticosteroid as ordered can decrease the chance of losing vision or vessel rupture. The client should receive an analgesic (acetaminophen) for the pain, but the corticosteroid should help decrease the pain and prevent complications. The nurse should assess for weight loss, but that can be determined after the medication is administered. Signs and symptoms of inflammation should be documented by the nurse after measures have been taken to decrease complications.

A nurse caring for a patient with head trauma will be monitoring the patient for Cushing's triad. What will the nurse recognize as the symptoms associated with Cushing's triad? Select all that apply.

Bradycardia Bradypnea Hypertension Explanation: At a certain point as intracranial pressure increases due to an injury, the brain's ability to autoregulate becomes ineffective and decompensation (ischemia and infarction) begins. When this occurs, the patient exhibits significant changes in mental status and vital signs. The bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea associated with this deterioration are known as Cushing's triad, which is a grave sign.

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia. Which activity is altered as a result of this diagnosis?

chewing Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition that involves the fifth (V) cranial nerve (the trigeminal nerve) and is important to chewing.

A nurse is monitoring a client for increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Early signs of increased ICP include:

diminished responsiveness. Explanation: Usually, diminished responsiveness is the first sign of increasing ICP. Pupillary changes occur later. Increased ICP causes systolic blood pressure to rise. Temperature changes vary and may not occur even with a severe decrease in responsiveness.

A nurse is assessing a client who has been in a motor vehicle collision. The client directly and accurately answers questions. The nurse notes a contusion to the client's forehead; the client reports a headache. Assessing the client's pupils, what reaction would confirm increasing intracranial pressure?

unequal response Explanation: In increased ICP, the pupil response is unequal. One pupil responds more sluggishly than the other or becomes fixed and dilated.

The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury and experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The nurse has administered mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, as ordered. This medication promotes the shift of fluid from the intracellular to the intravascular compartment. Therefore, it is necessary for the nurse to continually assess for which of the following?

Heart failure Explanation: It is possible for the client to have a fluid overload that creates such an increased workload for the heart that it fails.

When the nurse observes that the client has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and plantar flexion of the feet, the nurse records the client's posture as

decerebrate. Explanation: Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing. The client's head and neck arch backward, and the muscles are rigid. In decorticate posturing, which results from damage to the nerve pathway between the brain and spinal cord and is also very serious, the client has flexion and internal rotation of the arms and wrists, as well as extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

A nurse working in the neurologic intensive care unit admits from the emergency department a patient with an inoperable brain tumor. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like part B of the accompanying image. Based on this initial observation, what would the nurse predict about this patient's prognosis?

poor Explanation: An inappropriate or nonpurposeful response is random and aimless. Posturing may be decorticate or decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing indicates deeper and more severe dysfunction than does decorticate posturing; it implies brain pathology, which is a poor prognostic sign. Decorticate posture is the flexion and internal rotation of forearms and hands. Decerebrate posture is extension and external rotation. Flaccidity is the absence of motor response and the most severe neurologic impairment.

A client is treated for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). It is important for the client to avoid hypothermia because

shivering in hypothermia can increase ICP. Explanation: The nurse should avoid hypothermia in a client with increased ICP because hypothermia causes shivering. Shivering, in turn, can increase intracranial pressure. Hypothermia in a client with ICP does not indicate malaria or meningitis and is not likely to cause death.

A nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce ICP?

Administer stool softeners. Explanation: Stool softeners reduce the risk of straining during a bowel movement, which can increase ICP by raising intrathoracic pressure and interfering with venous return. Coughing also increases ICP. Keeping the head in a midline position and avoiding extreme neck flexion prevents obstruction of venous outflow from the brain. Sensory stimulation and noxious stimuli can increase ICP.

A client is transferred to the intensive care unit after evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which nursing intervention reduces the client's risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Administering a stool softener as ordered Explanation: To prevent the client from straining at stool, which may cause a Valsalva maneuver that increases ICP, the nurse should institute a regular bowel program that includes use of a stool softener. For a client at risk for increased ICP, the nurse should prevent, not encourage, oral fluid intake and should elevate the head of the bed only 30 degrees. Suctioning, indicated for a client with lung congestion, isn't necessary for this client.

A client is admitted for scheduled gamma-knife radiosurgery, in the treatment of a brain tumor. Which nursing measure is primary in the postsurgical care of this client?

Assess neurological findings. Explanation: Gamma-knife radiosurgery is a non-invasive alternative for treating tumors within the brain. The nurse would be responsible for completing a neurological assessment on the client and providing comfort measures as needed. There is no incision on the skull, and no risk for radiation exposure to the nurse. The procedure eliminates surgical and anesthesia complications and does not result in use of a ventilator or artificial airway maintenance.

An older client complains of a constant headache. A physical examination shows papilledema. What may the symptoms indicate in this client?

Brain tumor Explanation: The incidence of brain tumor increases with age. Headache and papilledema are less common symptoms of a brain tumor in the older adult. Symptoms of epilepsy include fits and spasms, while symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia would be pain in the jaws or facial muscles. Hypostatic pneumonia develops due to immobility or prolonged bed rest in older clients.

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with bacterial meningitis. The client has developed cerebral vasculitis and increased ICP. What neurologic sequelae might this client develop?

Damage to the optic nerve Explanation: Neurologic sequelae in survivors include damage to the cranial nerves that facilitate vision and hearing. Sequelae to meningitis do not include damage to the vagal nerve, the olfactory nerve or the facial nerve.

A nurse is working in the neurologic intensive care unit and admits from the emergency department a patient with an inoperable brain tumor. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like the person in part B of the accompanying image. Which posturing is the patient exhibiting?

Decerebrate Explanation: An inappropriate or nonpurposeful response is random and aimless. Posturing may be decorticate or decerebrate. Decorticate posture is the flexion and internal rotation of forearms and hands. Decerebrate posture is extension and external rotation. Flaccidity is the absence of motor response; tonic clonic movements are seen with seizures.

A client with a traumatic brain injury has already displayed early signs of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be considered late signs of increasing ICP?

Decerebrate posturing and loss of corneal reflex Explanation: Early indications of increasing ICP include disorientation, restlessness, increased respiratory effort, mental confusion, pupillary changes, weakness on onside of the body or in one extremity, and constant, worsening headache. Later indications of increasing ICP include decreasing level of consciousness until client is comatose, decreased or erratic pulse and respiratory rate, increased blood pressure and temperature, widened pulse pressure, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, projectile vomiting, hemiplegia or decorticate or decerebrate posturing, and loss of brain stem reflexes (pupillary, corneal, gag, and swallowing).

The nurse is educating a patient with a seizure disorder. What nutritional approach for seizure management would be beneficial for this patient?

High in protein and low in carbohydrate Explanation: A dietary intervention, referred to as the ketogenic diet, may be helpful for control of seizures in some patients. This high-protein, low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet is most effective in children whose seizures have not been controlled with two antiseizure medications, but it is sometimes used for adults who have had poor seizure control (Mosek, Natour, Neufeld, et al., 2009).

A nurse is assessing a patient's urinary output as an indicator of diabetes insipidus. The nurse knows that an hourly output of what volume over 2 hours may be a positive indicator?

More than 200 mL/h Explanation: For patients undergoing dehydrating procedures, vital signs, including blood pressure, must be monitored to assess fluid volume status. An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted to permit assessment of renal function and fluid status. During the acute phase, urine output is monitored hourly. An output greater than 200 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours may indicate the onset of diabetes insipidus (Hickey, 2009).

A client with neurologic infection develops cerebral edema from syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which is an important nursing action for this client?

Restricting fluid intake and hydration Explanation: Fluid restriction may be necessary if the client develops cerebral edema and hypervolemia from SIADH. Antipyretics are administered to clients who develop hyperthermia. In addition, it is important to maintain adequate hydration in such clients. A client with neurologic infection should be given tracheal suctioning and hyperoxygenation only when the respiratory distress develops.

A nurse is providing care to a client with a brain tumor. The client has experienced seizures as a result of the tumor. Which area would be a priority for this client?

Safety Explanation: Clients who have seizures are carefully monitored and protected from injury. Therefore, safety is the priority.

Following a generalized seizure in a client, which nursing assessment is a priority for detailing the event?

Seizure was 1 minute in duration including tonic-clonic activity. Explanation: Describing the length and the progression of the seizure is a priority nursing responsibility. During this time, the client will experience respiratory spasms, and their skin will appear cyanotic, indicating a period of lack of tissue oxygenation. Noting when the seizure began and presence of an aura are also valuable pieces of information. Postictal behavior should be documented along with vital signs, oxygen saturation, and assessment of tongue and oral cavity.

A client is receiving hypothermic treatment for uncontrolled fever related to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Shivering Explanation: Shivering can increase intracranial pressure by increasing vasoconstriction and circulating catecholamines. Shivering also increases oxygen consumption. A capillary refill of 2 seconds, urine output of 100mL/hr, and cool, dry skin are expected findings.

Which method is used to help reduce intracranial pressure?

Using a cervical collar Explanation: Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion, which can increase ICP. Slight elevation of the head is maintained to aid in venous drainage unless otherwise prescribed. Extreme rotation of the neck is avoided because compression or distortion of the jugular veins increases ICP. Extreme hip flexion is avoided because this position causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.

In planning care for a patient with an extrapyramidal disorder, the nurse recognizes that a major difference between Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease is the development of ________ in clients with advanced Huntington's disease.

hallucinations and delusions Explanation: As Huntington's disease progresses, hallucinations, delusions, and impaired judgment develop due to degeneration of the cerebral cortex. Depression is a likely symptom for clients with both Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease. Bradykinesia, slowness in performing spontaneous movement, is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease. Muscle fasciculations, or twitching, are commonly associated with ALS.

The school nurse notes a 6-year-old running across the playground with friends. The child stops in mid-stride, freezing for a few seconds. Then the child resumes his progress across the playground. The school nurse suspects what in this child?

An absence seizure Explanation: Absence seizures, formerly referred to as petit mal seizures, are more common in children. They are characterized by a brief loss of consciousness, during which physical activity ceases. The person stares blankly; the eyelids flutter; the lips move; and slight movement of the head, arms, and legs occurs. These seizures typically last for a few seconds, and the person seldom falls to the ground. Because of their brief duration and relative lack of prominent movements, these seizures often go unnoticed. People with absence seizures can have them many times a day. Partial, or focal, seizures begin in a specific area of the cerebral cortex. A generalized seizure involves the whole brain.

A client with a traumatic brain injury has developed increased intracranial pressure resulting in diabetes insipidus. While assessing the client, the nurse expects which of the following findings?

Excessive urine output and decreased urine osmolality Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is the result of decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). The client has excessive urine output, decreased urine osmolality, and serum hyperosmolarity.

A nurse is continually monitoring a client with a traumatic brain injury for signs of increasing intracranial pressure. The cranial vault contains brain tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid; an increase in any of the components causes a change in the volume of the others. This hypothesis is called which of the following?

Monro-Kellie Explanation: The Monro-Kellie hypothesis states that, because of the limited space for expansion in the skull, an increase in any one of its components causes a change in the volume of the others. Cushing's response is seen when cerebral blood flow decreases significantly. Systolic blood pressure increases, pulse pressure widens, and heart rate slows. The Dawn phenomenon is related to high blood glucose levels in the morning in clients with diabetes. Hashimoto's disease is related to the thyroid gland.

A client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, the nurse reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

"You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose." Explanation: After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client must refrain from coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose for several days to avoid disturbing the surgical graft used to close the wound. The head of the bed must be elevated, not kept flat, to prevent tension or pressure on the suture line. Within 24 hours after a hypophysectomy, transient diabetes insipidus commonly occurs; this calls for increased, not restricted, fluid intake. Visual, not auditory, changes are a potential complication of hypophysectomy.

The nurse is completing an assessment on a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following historical recounting provides the most significant evidence regarding when the disorder began?

Drooping eyelids Explanation: Ptosis (eyelid drooping) is the most common manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Muscle weakness varies depending on the muscles affected. Shortness of breath and respiratory distress occurs later as the disease progresses. Muscle spasms are more likely in multiple sclerosis. Photophobia is not significant in myasthenia gravis.

What does the nurse recognize as the earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP?

Lethargy and stupor Explanation: As ICP increases, the patient becomes stuporous, reacting only to loud or painful stimuli. At this stage, serious impairment of brain circulation is probably taking place, and immediate intervention is required.

Which nursing interventions might need to be considered in a care plan for a client with advanced multiple sclerosis? Select all that apply.

Ensure access to a language board when communicating with the client. Establish a voiding time schedule. Encourage the client to walk with feet wide apart. Explanation: Language assistive devices may be needed if communication is severely affected. Occasional bladder incontinence may lead to total incontinence. A voiding time schedule will allow the client greater independence. If motor dysfunction causes problems of incoordination and clumsiness, the patient is at risk for falling. As the disease progresses, nutritional deficiencies may develop. Weight should be assessed to ensure that there is no significant weight loss. Weight gain should not be an issue.

The nurse is taking care of a client with a history of headaches. The nurse takes measures to reduce headaches and administer medications. Which appropriate nursing interventions may be provided by the nurse to such a client?

Apply warm or cool cloths to the forehead or back of the neck Explanation: Applying warm or cool cloths to the forehead or back of the neck and massaging the back relaxes muscles and provides warmth to promote vasodilation. These measures are aimed at reducing the occurrence of headaches in the client. A client with transient ischemic attacks is advised to maintain hydration and drink eight glasses of fluid a day. A Heimlich maneuver is performed to clear the airway if the client cannot speak or breathe after swallowing food. The nurse uses pressure-relieving pads or a similar type of mattress to maintain peripheral circulation in the client's body.

A client is diagnosed with a traumatic brain injury. Which action will the nurse take to reduce this client's risk of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? Select all that apply.

Keep head midline. Avoid rotation of the neck. Elevate the head 30 to 45 degrees. Prevent compression of the jugular veins. Explanation: Proper positioning helps reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). The client's head should be in a neutral or midline position. Rotation of the neck is to be avoided. Elevation of the head is to be maintained at 30 to 45 degrees. Compression of the jugular veins is to be avoided as this increases ICP. Extreme hip flexion is also avoided because this position causes an increase in intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressures, which can produce an increase in ICP.

A client is demonstrating an altered level of consciousness from a traumatic brain injury. Which assessment will the nurse use as a sensitive indicator of neurologic function?

Glasgow Coma Scale Explanation: An altered level of consciousness (LOC) is present when the client is not oriented, does not follow commands, or needs persistent stimuli to achieve a state of alertness. LOC is gauged on a continuum, with a normal state of alertness and full cognition (consciousness) on one end and coma on the other end. LOC, a sensitive indicator of neurologic function, is assessed based on the criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Cerebellar function, cranial nerve function, and mental status evaluation are all elements of the neurologic assessment.

The nurse is called to attend to a patient having a seizure in the waiting area. What nursing care is provided for a patient who is experiencing a convulsive seizure? Select all that apply.

Loosening constrictive clothing Positioning the patient on his or her side with head flexed forward Providing for privacy Explanation: During a patient's seizure, the nurse should do the following. Loosen constrictive clothing. If possible, place the patient on one side with head flexed forward, which allows the tongue to fall forward and facilitates drainage of saliva and mucus. If suction is available, use it if necessary to clear secretions. Provide privacy, and protect the patient from curious onlookers. (The patient who has an aura [warning of an impending seizure] may have time to seek a safe, private place.) The nurse should not attempt to pry open jaws that are clenched in a spasm or attempt to insert anything. Broken teeth and injury to the lips and tongue may result from such an action. No attempt should be made to restrain the patient during the seizure, because muscular contractions are strong and restraint can produce injury.

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of severe migraines. The client has a medical history that includes asthma, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and three pregnancies. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the physician will order for the client's migraines?

Verapamil (Calan) Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, and beta-adrenergic blockers, such as metoprolol, are commonly used to treat migraines because they help control cerebral blood vessel dilation. Calcium channel blockers, however, are ordered for clients who may not be able to tolerate beta-adrenergic blockers, such as those with asthma. Amiodarone and carvedilol aren't used to treat migraines.

A nurse is providing education about migraine headaches to a community group. The cause of migraines has not been clearly demonstrated, but is related to vascular disturbances. A member of the group asks about familial tendencies. The nurse's correct reply will be which of the following?

"There is a strong familial tendency." Explanation: Migraine headaches have a strong familial tendency. Migraines are primary headaches, not secondary headaches.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg and a mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg. What would the nurse calculate the CPP to be?

70 mm Hg Explanation: Changes in ICP are closely linked with cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). The CPP is calculated by subtracting the ICP from the mean arterial pressure (MAP). For example, if the MAP is 100 mm Hg and the ICP is 15 mm Hg, then the CPP is 85 mm Hg. The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg (Hickey, 2009).

A client is receiving intravenous (IV) mannitol to prevent increased intracranial pressure. The order is for mannitol 1.5 grams per kg of body weight IV now. The client weighs 143 lbs (65 kg). How many grams will the nurse administer to the client? Enter the correct number in tenths.

97.5 Explanation: 143 lbs/2.2 = 65 kg. 65 kg x 1.5 = 97.5 grams.

Which interventions are appropriate for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? Select all that apply.

Administering prescribed antipyretics Maintaining aseptic technique with an intraventricular catheter Frequent oral care Explanation: Controlling fever is an important intervention for a client with increased ICP because fevers can cause an increase in cerebral metabolism and can lead to cerebral edema. Antipyretics are appropriate to control a fever. It is imperative that the nurse use aseptic technique when caring for the intraventricular catheter because of its risk for infection. Oral care should be provided frequently because the client is likely to be placed on a fluid restriction and will have dry mucous membranes. A nondrying oral rinse may be used. Coughing should be discouraged in a client with increased ICP because it increases intrathoracic pressure, and thus ICP. Unless contraindicated, the head of the bed should be elevated to 30 to 45 degrees and in a neutral position to allow for venous drainage.

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperatively after intracranial surgery for the treatment of a subdural hematoma. The nurse observes an increase in the patient's blood pressure from the baseline and a decrease in the heart rate from 86 to 54. The patient has crackles in the bases of the lungs. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?

Increased ICP Explanation: Increased ICP and bleeding are life threatening to the patient who has undergone intracranial surgery. An increase in blood pressure and decrease in pulse with respiratory failure may indicate increased ICP.

The nurse is caring for a client with a ventriculostomy. Which assessment finding demonstrates effectiveness of the ventriculostomy?

Increased ICP is 12 mm Hg. Explanation: A ventriculostomy is used to continuously measure ICP and allows cerebral spinal fluid to drain, especially during a period of increased ICP. The normal ICP is 0 to 15 mm Hg, so ICP measured at 12 mm Hg would demonstrate the effectiveness of the ventriculostomy. Dilated and fixed pupils are not a normal assessment finding and would not indicate an improvement in the neurologic system. Cerebral circulation ceases if the ICP is equal to the MAP. Normal CPP is 70 to 100. A CPP reading less than 50 is consistent with irreversible neurologic damage.

The nurse is educating a group of people newly diagnosed with migraine headaches. What information should the nurse include in the educational session? Select all that apply.

Keep a food diary. Maintain a headache diary. Explanation: The clients should be encouraged to keep food and headache diaries to identify triggers and to track frequency and characteristics of the migraines. The clients should maintain a routine sleep pattern and avoid fatigue. Limiting sleep to 5 hours may cause fatigue. The associated symptoms of a migraine are nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Being in a dark room may ease the photophobia, but exercise may worsen the headache and associated symptoms. Clients who are taking medications specific for migraines should avoid St. John's Wort due to potential drug interactions.

A client the nurse is caring for experiences a seizure. What would be a priority nursing action?

Protect the client from injury. Explanation: The nursing action for a client experiencing a seizure should be to protect the client from being injured. To ensure this, the nurse should turn the client to one side and not restrain client's movements. Inserting a tongue blade between the teeth is not as important as protecting the client from injury. The mouth and the pharynx of the client should be suctioned only after the seizure.

A patient had a small pituitary adenoma removed by the transsphenoidal approach and has developed diabetes insipidus. What pharmacologic therapy will the nurse be administering to this patient to control symptoms?

Vasopressin Explanation: Manipulation of the posterior pituitary gland during surgery may produce transient diabetes insipidus of several days' duration (Hickey, 2009). It is treated with vasopressin but occasionally persists.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after supratentorial intracranial surgery. The nurse performs the appropriate action by placing the patient in the

supine position with the head slightly elevated. Explanation: After surgery, the nurse should place the client in either a supine position with the head slightly elevated or a side-lying position on the unaffected side. The dorsal recumbent, Trendelenburg, and prone positions can increase intracranial pressure.

Which positions is used to help reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Avoiding flexion of the neck with use of a cervical collar Explanation: Use of a cervical collar promotes venous drainage and prevents jugular vein distortion, which can increase ICP. Slight elevation of the head is maintained to aid in venous drainage unless otherwise prescribed. Extreme rotation of the neck is avoided because compression or distortion of the jugular veins increases ICP. Extreme hip flexion is avoided because this position causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and intrathoracic pressure, which can produce a rise in ICP.

A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head?

Elevated 30 degrees Explanation: After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The nurse would keep the client's head flat after infratentorial, not supratentorial, surgery. However, after supratentorial surgery to remove a chronic subdural hematoma, the neurosurgeon may order the nurse to keep the client's head flat; typically, the client with such a hematoma is older and has a less expandable brain. A client without a bone flap can't be positioned with the head turned onto the operative side because doing so may injure brain tissue. Elevating the head 10 degrees or less wouldn't promote venous outflow through the jugular veins.