chapter18-20 micro20

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key criteria used for categorizing the gram-positive bacilli into groups. Capsules Acid-fastness Endospores Motility Oxygen requirements

Acid-fastness Endospores Oxygen requirements

Please select the bacterial genus that has similar features to Pseudomonas and a comparable mode of operation. Enterobacter Staphylococcus Bordetella Haemophilus Acinetobacter

Acinetobacter

Please choose the normal biota organism that causes necrotizing lung disease, abdominal infections, and uterine infections. Propionibacterium acnes Mycobacterium avium Lactobacillus fermentans Actinomyces israelii Bacillus cereus

Actinomyces israelii

___________ E. coli, also known as E. coli O157:H7, has been highly publicized because of its role in foodborne illness. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

Enterohemorrhagic

___________ E. coli targets infants, but the pathogenesis of this strain is not well understood. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

Enteropathogenic

______________ E. coli mimics cholera by producing two toxins that increase secretion and fluid loss from the intestine. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

Enterotoxigenic

Please choose the answer that explains how the chemical leukocidin, produced by S. aureus, affects the host. It causes the production of boils all over the body. The skin begins to peel away from underlying tissues. The immune system is not able to make antibodies. Inflammation and phagocytosis are severely compromised.

Inflammation and phagocytosis are severely compromised.

Please select the disease that Haemophilus bacteria do not cause. Conjunctivitis Meningitis Sexually transmitted disease Endocarditis Influenza

Influenza

Please select the possible transmission methods for botulism. Ingestion of contaminated food Aerosols Contaminated soil or dust gets into a wound Bite of insect vector Sexual intercourse

Ingestion of contaminated food Contaminated soil or dust gets into a wound

Most strains are not highly infectious, but some have developed virulence factors and others are _______ causing disease in a compromised host. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

opportunists,

Clostridium botulinum endospores, when ingested by newborns and babies, can germinate and grow within the intestinal tract, whereas in adults, this is not the case. True False

true

It is the exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that is the common cause of death in the infected patient. True False

true

The delivery of a fetus by Caesarian section is the best way to prevent group B Streptococcus from being transmitted from the mother's vagina to the fetus. True False

true

Pulmonary nocardiosis has symptoms that are very similar to ________. tuberculosis diphtheria myonecrosis strep throat

tuberculosis

please choose the feature which allows Brucella to be an exemplary pathogen. The bacterium is transported by blood around the body. The bacterium produces a very potent exotoxin, allowing it to destroy host cells. The bacterium has the ability to spread to adjacent tissues because of enzymes that destroy the integrity of the tissues. The bacterium can live within macrophages, and therefore, it can be carried to locations around the body as the WBCs move.

. The bacterium can live within macrophages, and therefore, it can be carried to locations around the body as the WBCs move.

Please match the staphylococcal disease with its symptom. 1. Organ damage/shutdown 2. Localized abscesses 3. Vomiting 4. Bone infection Food intoxication Toxic shock syndrome Osteomyelitis Boils

1. Organ damage/shutdown Toxic shock syndrome 2. Localized abscesses Boils 3. Vomiting Food intoxication 4. Bone infection Osteomyelitis

Please match the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes to its description. 1. Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme __________ 2. Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host ______ 3. Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots ______ 4. Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis M protein 5. Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host________ 6. Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues_________ Streptokinase Hyaluronidase Streptolysin Capsule C carbohydrate

1. Surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabetical grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme C carbohydrate 2. Toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host Streptolysin 3. Enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots Streptokinase 4. Projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resists phagocytosis M protein 5. Chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host Capsule 6. Enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues Hyaluronidase

Please choose the feature of Pseudomonas that makes it a difficult organism to control in a hospital environment. An endotoxin A capsule The ability to utilize all sorts of nutrients An anaerobic bacterium Antibiotic resistance

Antibiotic resistance

Please choose the correct mechanism of botulinum toxin. Destroys the enzyme cholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction causing constant muscle contraction Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter from the axon foot vesicles so muscle cannot get message to contract Inactivates brain neurotransmitters, such as dopamine and serotonin Damages motor neurons in the spinal cord so messages from brain cannot get to muscles for contraction

Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter from the axon foot vesicles so muscle cannot get message to contract

Please select the explanation for why cancer patients have a higher risk of getting more serious listeriosis infections. When chemotherapeutic medications are given to a patient, there is an increased possibility that those drugs are infected with bacteria. The radiation that cancer patients receive makes them more susceptible to bacterial infections. Cancer patients are immunosuppressed, and this increases the severity of this disease. Since cancer patients have a variety of home health care personnel as well as interaction with clinical professionals, they come in contact with the bacteria more often.

Cancer patients are immunosuppressed, and this increases the severity of this disease.

Please select the mammal population that receives the greatest percentage of anthrax vaccine because it is at the highest risk of getting the disease Travelers Dogs Cattle Military personnel Veterinarians

Cattle

Please choose the answers that correctly describe the virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus. Coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot. Staphylokinase enzyme destroys red blood cells. Penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin. Hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissues. Lipase enzyme causes a fever in the host.

Coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot. Penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin. Hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissues.

Please select the genera that are considered to be irregular gram-positive bacilli. Corynebacterium Propionibacterium Clostridium Mycobacterium Actinomyces

Corynebacterium Propionibacterium Mycobacterium Actinomyces

lpease select all answers that explain the high incidence of Salmonella foodborne illness. Bagged spinach is often implicated in Salmonella outbreaks because the water used to wash the spinach may be contaminated. Fowl are notorious for harboring Salmonella. Fast-food chains often keep their foods under hot lights to keep the food warm, but this doesn't kill the Salmonella. Eggs are a good growth medium for Salmonella. People using the public toilets, particularly when not washing hands, easily spread Salmonella.

Fowl are notorious for harboring Salmonella. Eggs are a good growth medium for Salmonella.

Please select all of the tests which can be used for the identification of the common enteric bacteria in the Enterobacteriaceae family. Glucose use Salt resistance Nitrate test Endotoxin production Oxidase test

Glucose use Nitrate test Oxidase test

Please select all correct characteristics of Actinomyces israelii. Gram-positive Possesses large flagella Macroscopic appearance similar to molds Produces endospores Filamentous rather than regular-shaped cell

Gram-positive Possesses large flagella Filamentous rather than regular-shaped cell

Please choose the reason why gas gangrene infections can be treated with oxygen therapy successfully. oxygen reacts with water within the cell producing hydrogen peroxide, which kills the bacterial cells. The oxygen, delivered in low concentration, creates an anaerobic environment in which the Clostridium does poorly. Oxygen poisons the clostridial cells. The oxygen delivery produces a radioisotope of oxygen within the tissue, destroying the necrotic tissue. High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium.

High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium.

Please select the pathogen from the genus Streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group. Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes Group B alpha-hemolytic S. pyogenes Group A beta-hemolytic S. pneumoniae Group A beta-hemolytic S. agalactiae

Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes

Please select all of the correct answers to test your understanding of growth patterns of Staphylococcus. Growth on a nutrient agar medium containing 10% salt Growth in a medium incubated at 50 degrees C Requires many growth factors, vitamins, and special nutrients to grow on bacteriological media Grows with or without oxygen

Growth on a nutrient agar medium containing 10% salt Growth in a medium incubated at 50 degrees C Grows with or without oxygen

Please choose all of the correct symptoms which describe meningococcal meningitis. Skin lesions called petechiae Headache Insanity Very high blood pressure Stiff neck

Headache Stiff neck

Please choose the most serious illness associated with E. coli. Hemolytic uremic syndrome Urinary tract infection Toxigenic diarrhea Foodborne illness

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Please select the answer that explains how humans most commonly contract plague. Humans eat contaminated meat after a hunting trip. Humans drink contaminated water when camping. Certain flea species prefer humans to other hosts. Humans are accidental hosts when they get between the flea and its preferred rodent hosts.

Humans are accidental hosts when they get between the flea and its preferred rodent hosts.

Please select the diseases that are often caused by S. pyogenes. Impetigo Pharyngitis Urinary tract infection Necrotizing fasciitis Meningitis

Impetigo Pharyngitis Necrotizing fasciitis

Please choose the answer that indicates the significance of E. coli O157:H7 to test your understanding of this organism. Its role in foodborne illness outbreaks has prompted random testing and required labeling of meat products. It is the most common opportunistic pathogen in the hospital setting. It has been linked to various forms of cancer and autoimmune diseases. It is the only strain of E. coli that produces the toxin that causes endotoxic shock.

Its role in foodborne illness outbreaks has prompted random testing and required labeling of meat products.

Please select all of the correct answers that describe the pathology of N. gonorrhoeae. Males have a high rate of symptomatic cases, whereas females have a high rate of asymptomatic cases. Blindness can occur in babies born to women with gonorrhea infection. The major effect of untreated gonorrhea, in all populations, is pelvic inflammatory disease. N. gonorrhoeae can stay in a patient's blood for years even after treatment.

Males have a high rate of symptomatic cases, whereas females have a high rate of asymptomatic cases. Blindness can occur in babies born to women with gonorrhea infection.

Please select the pathogenic species of Neisseria. N. sicca N. macacae N. pneumoniae N. meningitidis N. gonorrhoeae

N. meningitidis N. gonorrhoeae

Please choose the correct statement that differentiates N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae. N. meningitidis is often a normal flora organism that causes no symptoms, whereas N. gonorrhoeae is not a member of the normal flora. N. meningitidis is gram-negative, whereas N. gonorrhoeae is gram-positive. N. meningitidis is difficult to grow on media, whereas N. gonorrhoeae is easy to grow. N. meningitidis is aerobic, whereas N. gonorrhoeae is anaerobic. N. meningitidis causes a chronic infection, whereas N. gonorrhoeae causes an acute infection.

N. meningitidis is often a normal flora organism that causes no symptoms, whereas N. gonorrhoeae is not a member of the normal flora

The presence of Corynebacterium bacteria in the nasal passages and throat is not necessarily an indicator of diphtheria. Please choose all answers that relate to this statement. Nonpathogenic Corynebacterium species are commonly found in these areas in all people. It depends on the health of the person carrying the bacteria; healthy people do not get diphtheria. A person can harbor C. diphtheriae without actually having diphtheria. A person having less than 100 cells of C. diphtheria will not have the disease, whereas more than 100 cells will cause the disease.

Nonpathogenic Corynebacterium species are commonly found in these areas in all people. A person can harbor C. diphtheriae without actually having diphtheria.

Please choose the correct statement about pneumococcal pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a rare bacteria, not commonly found in healthy individuals. Streptococcus pneumonia is commonly found within the vagina, but when it gets into the lungs, it causes pneumonia. Pneumonia is not bacterial; it occurs when an object or fluids are aspirated into the lungs. Pneumonia is a common secondary infection, occurring after a person's defenses are depleted.

Pneumonia is a common secondary infection, occurring after a person's defenses are depleted.

Please select the genus which represents an opportunistic noncoliform. Shigella Salmonella Bordetella Yersinia Proteus

Proteus

Please choose the answer that describes why serological testing is very commonly done on streptococcal bacteria. Serological testing, using antigen-antibody testing, is a fast way to identify bacterial species. Streptococcus cannot be cultured on regular bacteriological media. The most accurate way to definitively identify an organism is by molecular biology. Anyone can do serological testing, and the materials are easy to get and quite cheap.

Serological testing, using antigen-antibody testing, is a fast way to identify bacterial species

Enteroinvasive E. coli invades and causes ulceration of the large intestine similar to that seen with _______infection. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

Shigella

Please choose the statement that explains why patient specimens have to be plated and cultured using differential and selective media for laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infections. The population of staphylococcal cells in the patient's tissues is so small that highly enriched media has to be used to increase the growth of Staphylococcus. Staphylococcus grows in areas of the body that are highly populated with normal flora, so these media inhibit other microorganisms so that it is easier to find the staphylococci. These media are very high in nutrients, so Staphylococcus grows well. These media have antibiotics which inhibit Staphylococcus, and therefore, assist in the treatment of the patient's infection.

Staphylococcus grows in areas of the body that are highly populated with normal flora, so these media inhibit other microorganisms so that it is easier to find the staphylococci.

Please choose the species of Staphylococcus that is not a human pathogen. Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus hominis Staphylococcus capitis Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus pyogenes

What bacterial species has become a high profile pathogen associated with drug-resistant infections in military personnel with combat injuries? Acinetobacter baumannii Branhamella catarrhalis Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

Why is antibiotic use a common cause of Clostridium difficile infections? The antibiotic wipes out the normal bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow. C. difficile requires antibiotics for its own metabolism, and therefore grows best in its presence. Antibiotics are perishable drugs that are easily contaminated with C. difficile spores. Antibiotics are usually given to immunocompromised patients ,and their low T cell count is favorable for C. difficile infection.

The antibiotic wipes out the normal bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow.

Please select the statement that best explains why leprosy is mainly a skin disease. The bacterium M. leprae grows best at the cooler temperature of 30 degrees C. The bacterium is too large to enter the bloodstream, so it cannot be carried throughout the body. The bacterium uses keratin, found in the epidermis, as a nutrient source. The bacterium grows best in stratified squamous epithelial tissues.

The bacterium M. leprae grows best at the cooler temperature of 30 degrees C.

Please select the answer which describes why pulmonary anthrax is more deadly than cutaneous anthrax. The toxins from the bacteria destroy vital organs of the body. The destruction of macrophages reduces host resistance. The capsules around the bacterial cells reduce the effectiveness of phagocytosis. The bacterial cells attach permanently to host cells, making them immobile.

The destruction of macrophages reduces host resistance.

A patient in emergency has been in a car accident, and the doctors are worried about pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents. The ER staff inserts an endotracheal tube into the trachea and sends him off to the floor to a hospital room. Now, four days later, he has an infection, and the culprit has been identified by the microbiology lab as Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Please select the answer which best explains why he now has this pulmonary infection. The invasive intubation procedure allowed the entry of the bacterium into the relatively microbial free environment of the lung. The patient had a wound by which the Pseudomonas entered the body, probably from the car seat belt. The bacterium moved from the stomach where it normally resides up into the trachea as the patient started to vomit. The patient has contracted the bacterium from a nurse who carried it from the patient in the bed next to him.

The invasive intubation procedure allowed the entry of the bacterium into the relatively microbial free environment of the lung.

Please select the statement that best explains why leprosy patients have deformed extremities. The nerves, damaged by the bacterium, cannot send sensory information to the brain, so the person does not even know when tissue damage has been done. The bacterium eats away the tissues in the extremities first, leaving stumps where fingers and toes once were. The person's immune system, attacking the tissues containing the bacterium, actually damages the host's tissues. The drugs used to treat leprosy are extremely toxic and damage host tissues. This bacterium is a thermophile, meaning that it thrives best in the colder extremities and damages these tissues.

The nerves, damaged by the bacterium, cannot send sensory information to the brain, so the person does not even know when tissue damage has been done.

Please select the statement which explains why it is important to be able to differentiate between the coliform and noncoliform members of the Enterobacteriaceae family. The coliforms and noncoliforms are treated with completely different antibiotics. The coliforms are transmitted human-to-human, while the noncoliforms are not. Coliforms are found in humans, while the noncoliforms are associated with animals. Coliforms are gram-negative while noncoliforms are gram-positive. The noncoliform bacteria are the true pathogens of this family, while the coliforms are opportunistic pathogens.

The noncoliform bacteria are the true pathogens of this family, while the coliforms are opportunistic pathogens.

The patient is a 34 year-old man, who is complaining of night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, and fatigue. He is diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex. Please select the explanation that describes why this patient might have this disease. The patient picked up the organisms in large numbers from someone who had the disease. The patient has handled animals carrying the bacterium. The patient has just recovered from the flu and now has a secondary infection. The patient has AIDS.

The patient has AIDS.

John has been diagnosed with gonorrhea and he is worried about his ex-girlfriend, with whom he had been having sex. But she hasn't said anything about it to him, so he just decides to not say anything. Please choose the statement that best explains why his girlfriend does not have symptoms. It is very difficult to transmit gonorrhea, so he is correct in figuring that she never got it. She had been taking an antibiotic ointment for her acne, and this must have protected her also from gonorrhea. The rate of symptoms, particularly in women, can be very low. N. gonorrhoeae becomes dormant in the body, without symptoms for years, so she won't know that she has it for a long time.

The rate of symptoms, particularly in women, can be very low.

Please choose all features which allow Francisella tularensis to be an exemplary pathogen. The symptomology can include relapses of the infection. Very few bacterial cells can produce the disease. The bacterium has the ability to spread to adjacent tissues because of enzymes that destroy the integrity of the tissues. The bacterium can live within macrophages, and therefore be carried to locations around the body as the WBCs move.

The symptomology can include relapses of the infection. Very few bacterial cells can produce the disease. The bacterium can live within macrophages, and therefore be carried to locations around the body as the WBCs move.

Please select the answer that explains how the E. coli O157:H7 strain can have a large systemic effect. The bacterium replicates within blood. It attacks the central nervous system, which controls all parts of the body. The toxin produced by the bacteria is spread by blood, disrupting protein synthesis within cells of the body. The bacterium replicates within lymph nodes, located all over the body.

The toxin produced by the bacteria is spread by blood, disrupting protein synthesis within cells of the body.

Please select the explanation for why the members of the bacterial family Enterobacteriaceae are commonly pathogenic to humans. Humans contact these bacteria easily from soil. This family of bacteria commonly inhabits the human body as normal flora. As air contaminants, these bacteria easily are transmitted by respiratory route. Humans have no inherited resistance to these bacteria. Animals have these bacteria as normal flora, and since humans and animals are in close contact, the bacteria are easily transmitted to humans.

This family of bacteria commonly inhabits the human body as normal flora

Please select the explanation for why the E. coli 0157:H7 is such a potent pathogen. This strain of E. coli is very drug resistant. This strain of E. coli makes an extra toxin in addition to its endotoxin. This strain of E. coli is encapsulated, making it impossible to destroy by phagocytosis. This strain of E. coli is infectious in very small numbers of cells.

This strain of E. coli makes an extra toxin in addition to its endotoxin

Clostridium perfringens infection is a leading cause of myonecrosis. True False

True

Please choose the high-risk population for contracting brucellosis. Farmer Nurse Veterinarian Day care teacher Plumber

Veterinarian

Please select the correct explanation for why Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is considered to be an occupational pathogen. Workers handling animals or their wastes are at risk for transmission. Workers in office cubicles, in close proximity to each other, can transmit the bacterium via aerosols. Healthcare workers are at the greatest risk of contracting this organism from their patients. Flight attendants are at the highest risk of contracting the organisms because of recycled air in the planes.

Workers handling animals or their wastes are at risk for transmission.

Your hospital has been swabbing nasal passages of employees for screening of S. aureus. You have tested positive, and the infection control people want to start you on antibiotics. Please select the correct statements concerning why they want to treat you. You are a carrier for S. aureus. The staff is worried that S. aureus strains from patients will recombine with your strain, creating a pathogenic superbug. All strains of S. aureus are antibiotic resistant, so it is better to just eliminate the possibility. They worry that you might transmit your S. aureus to patients.

You are a carrier for S. aureus. They worry that you might transmit your S. aureus to patients.

Please select the age group that is predominantly affected by both cutaneous and pharyngeal S. pyogenes infection. Young children and pre-adolescents College students Premature neonates Persons over the age of 60 Middle-aged adults

Young children and pre-adolescents

E. coli is the most common ______ commensal in the human intestine, and it is easily cultured in the laboratory setting. Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

aerobic

Please choose the correct statement comparing Bacillus cereus to Clostridium perfringens. Both bacteria are gram-positive rods. Both bacterial infections are mediated by ingested endospores. Similar foods can be the carrier material for the endospores of both organisms. The symptoms of the two diseases are similar. All of these are correct statements.

all

Please select possible transmission method(s) for Legionella pneumophila. Whirlpool spas Humidifiers Water droplets or aerosol, released by air-conditioning units Respiratory therapy equipment All of these

all

Please select the answer that describes the state of diagnostics for tuberculosis infections. Culturing and identifying the bacterium is very tedious and time-consuming. Genetic tests such as PCR and gene probes give accurate, fast molecular identification of the organism. The X-ray may not show small tubercles. The skin test is not a definitive test because it does not identify if the person has a present infection. All of these statements are true.

all

Please select the explanation for why daycare centers are often associated with foodborne illnesses caused by Shigella. The daycare staff may not use adequate hygiene, particularly when changing diapers. Children often do not practice good hygiene. Children have no inhibitions about touching each other, exchanging objects, etc. All are valid explanations.

all

The flea is the vector that carries the Yersinia bacterium from animal to animal, causing _______ plague. bubonic pneumonic drug resistant septicemic

bubonic

A patient has a deep wound infection, and the specimen taken for microbial identification in the lab is a tissue sample from within the wound. Please choose the most likely organism causing the infection. Clostridium Bacillus E. coli Mycobacterium tuberculosis Poliovirus

clostriu]dium

The O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae cell walls consists of lipopolysaccharide, which has a lipid portion referred to as _________. endotoxin exotoxin hemolysin leukocidin

endotoxin

The worse-case scenario for chronic, untreated gonorrhea is neurological and psychological impairment. True False

falae

A person with an active tuberculosis infection is placed on a single antibiotic because tuberculosis can be treated as well as any other respiratory infection. True False

false

The best treatment for botulism is the botox vaccine given along with the other infant vaccines. True False

false

The common virulence factor for all gram-negative bacteria is the exotoxin, lipopolysaccharide, which forms the outer layer of the cell wall. True False

false

The only difference between MRSA, VRE, MRSE, DRSP, VRSA, and VISA is the antibiotic to which the S. aureus is resistant. True False

false

The various toxins produced by S. aureus are invasive factors that allow the bacteria to spread, thereby avoiding host defenses. True False

false

This strain can progress into a severe blood and kidney infection known as________ Salmonella Shigella Vibrio Enterohemorrhagic Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic aerobic anaerobic elderly hemolytic uremic syndrome infants opportunists true pathogens

hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Please select the answer that differentiates between typhoidal and non-typhoidal salmonelloses. If the organism moves into the blood and replicates Which host cells the bacterium parasitizes The immune status of the host The age of the host The sex of the host

if the organism moves into the blood and replicates

The main distinction between the coliforms and noncoliforms is the ability to utilize _______ as a nutrient. lactose citrate glucose eosin

lactose


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