Chemistry MLT Practice

Which of the following is TRUE of a fully compensated metabolic acidosis? A). pH will be decreased without a decrease in pCO2 B). pH will be decreased with a decrease in pCO2 C). pH will be decreased with an increase in pCO2 D). pH will be normal with a decrease in pCO2

pH will be normal with a decrease in pCO2

When three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are received in the laboratory they should be distributed to the various laboratory sections as follows: A). #1 Hematology, #2 Chemistry, #3 Microbiology B). #1 Chemistry, #2 Microbiology, #3 Hematology C). #1 Microbiology, #2 Hematology, #3 Chemistry D). #1 Chemistry, #2 Hematology, #3 Microbiology

#1 Chemistry, #2 Microbiology, #3 Hematology

Which of the following medications is known to cause Reye's Syndrome in children? A). Acetaminophen B). Ibuprofen C). Morphine D). Acetylsalicylic acid

Acetylsalicylic acid

All of the following are considered cutaneous porphyrias, EXCEPT? A). Porphyria cutanea tarda B). Acute intermittent porphyria C). Congenital erythropoietic porphyria D). Erythropoietic protoporphyria

Acute intermittent porphyria

What does a amylase test determine? A). Digestive failure B). Hyperproteinemia C). Acute pancreitis D). Kidney function

Acute pancreitis

Which of the following blood tests is used in the evaluation of hepatic disease? A). Amylase B). Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT) C). Creatinine D). Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT)

Which analyte measurement is used to detect early nephropathy in a diabetic patient? A). Lactic acid B). Albumin C). Ketones D). HbA1c

Albumin

Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? A). Albumin B). Alpha globulins C). Beta globulins D). Gamma globulins

Albumin

Which one of the following usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? A). Fibrinogen B). Albumin C). Alpha-1 Antitrypsin D). Ceruloplasmin

Albumin

Which of the folowing blood test is used to evaluate liver function? A). Amylase B). Creatinine C). Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) D). Uric Acid

Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

Which assay is performed to diagnose congestive heart failure (CHF)? A). Homocysteine B). hs-CRP and Ischemia Modified Albumin C). B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) D). cTnI and cTnT

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

What is currently used to differentiate heart failure from lung disease? A). CK-MB B). TnI C). TnT D). BNP

BNP

Which one of the following is considered to be the most specific marker for adverse ventricular remodeling or volume overload of the heart? A). CKMB B). Troponin C). Myoglobin D). BNP

BNP

All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, EXCEPT: A). Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry. B). Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte. C). Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured. D). Fluorometers typically utilize monochromators or optical filters.

Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured.

A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following: A). Ferrous iron and four globin chains B). Four heme and four globin chains C). Four heme and one globin chains D). One heme and four globin chains

Four heme and four globin chains

All of the following hormones are produced primarily in the pancreatic islets EXCEPT which one? A). Gastrin B). Glucagon C). Insulin D). Pancreatic polypeptide

Gastrin

Which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenomics? A). Genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism with probe drugs. B). Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism. C). Genotyping typically involves measuring only one mutation site or polymorphism. D). Genotyping has no known impact on drug metabolism.

Genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism.

Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic? A). Small dense LDL molecules contain less cholesterol and phospholipid. B). Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of HDL-C in the blood. C). Small dense LDL molecules increase the concentration of adiponectin and inflammatory cytokines. D). Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall.

Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall.

Which of the following contributes most to serum osmolality: A). Magnesium B). Albumin C). Potassium D). Sodium

Sodium

Which cardiac biomarker is a regulator of myocyte contraction? A). Myoglobin B). cTnT C). CK-MB D). CK-MB isoforms

cTnT

All of the folowing are therapeutic drugs used to treat cardiac disease except? A). carbomazepine B). procainamide C). digoxine D). quinidine

carbomazepine

A markedly elevated 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) determination is presumptive evidence for: A). Lead poisoning B). Pheochromocytoma C). Porphyria D). Carcinoid tumor

Carcinoid tumor

Which of the following action describes the MAJOR property of antidiuretic hormone? A). Acts on proximal tubules. B). Changes distal tubule water permeability C). Acts on Na/K/(H') pump D). Cannot be affected by diuretics

Changes distal tubule water permeability

In patients with suspected primary hypothyroidism associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, one would expect the following laboratory test results: A). Increased, decreased, increased B). Decreased, increased, increased C). Increased, decreased, decreased D). Increased, increased, decreased

Decreased, increased, increased

Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin? A). Beta-Glucuronidase B). Bilirubin oxidase C). Bilirubin reductase D). Glucuronyl transferase

Glucuronyl transferase

What is a Uric Acid test used to diagnose? A). Liver disease B). Kidney failure C). Prostate disease D). Gout

Gout

In serum protein electrophoresis all of the following proteins reside in the band closest to the anodal end EXCEPT: A). Retinol-binding protein (RBP) B). Transthyretin C). Albumin D). Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin

The most likely cause of an elevated serum potassium level in an apparently normal individual is: A). Contamination B). Hemolysis C). Acute renal failure D). Interfering substances

Hemolysis

An increase is total bilirubin with a normal conjugated bilirubin is most likely indicative of: A). Acute liver disease B). Hemolytic disease C). Post-hepatic jaundice D). Obstruction

Hemolytic disease

The following results were obtained on an SPE scan. What can you infer about the specimen from these results? A). The specimen is of good quality and the results can be given to the patient's nurse B). There is an interfering substance present in the specimen such as hemoglobin due to hemolysis C). There is an interfering substance in the specimen, but the results are fine to release D). The specimen is of good quality, the patient has multiple myeloma

There is an interfering substance present in the specimen such as hemoglobin due to hemolysis

Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be FALSELY elevated on a serum specimen from a non-fasting patient? A). Cholesterol B). Triglyceride C). HDL D). LDL

Triglyceride

What marker remains elevated after an AMI for 8-21 days? A). Myoglobin B). Creatine kinase MB (CK-MB) C). Troponin T D). All of the above

Troponin T

Which of the following GFR (glomerular filtration rate) values is considered to be in renal failure? A). 120 mL/min B). 95 mL/min C). 35 mL/min D). 14 mL/min

14 mL/min

What transferrin saturation level would be indicative to investigate further for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? A). 40% B). 45% C). 35% D). 25%

45%

Approximately how many doses are required to obtain a steady-state oscillation allowing for peak and trough levels to be evaluated? A). 1 to 2 B). 3 to 4 C). 5 to 7 D). > 10

5 to 7

What percentage of iron is normally absorbed daily? A). 5% - 15% B). 15% - 20% C). 25% - 35% D). 50% - 75%

5% - 15%

How long does it take for plasma concentrations to reach a steady state when a patient's dose is given at intervals of the drug's half-life? A). One half-hour B). Two-half lives C). 5-7 half-lives D). 10-12 half-lives

5-7 half-lives

What blood alcohol concentration has been established as the statutory limit for operation of a motor vehicle in the United States? A). 0.8 mg/dL B). 8 mg/dL C). 80 mg/dL D). 800 mg/dL

80 mg/dL

A CSF glucose value is 62mg/dL. What would the serum glucose value be? A). 65mg/dL B). 93mg/dL C). 120mg/dL D). 180mg/dL

93mg/dL

The De Ritis ratio is the calculation of AST/ALT and is used for evaluating liver disease. What should the ratio be when ethanol-related liver disease is expected? A). <1.0 B). 1.0 -2.0 C). >2.0 D). The De Ritis ratio is not used for liver disease

>2.0

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by: A). Adrenal cortex B). Pituitary C). Thyroid D). Adrenal medulla

Pituitary

Which of the following is a true statement about aminoglycoside antibiotics? A). Aminoglycosides have a half-life of 1-2 hours and are metabolized by the liver. B). Aminoglycosides are anitbiotics used to treat only Gram-negative bacterial infections. C). Aminoglycosides are antibiotics used to treat only Gram-positive bacterial infections. D). Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

Aminoglycosides can be toxic antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections when such bacteria are resistant to less-toxic antibiotics.

An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction is called: A). Amperiometric-coulometric titration B). Potentiometry C). Chromatography D). Polarography

Amperiometric-coulometric titration

All of the following laboratory tests are used to determine kidney function, EXCEPT? A). Creatinine B). Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C). Amylase D). Phosphorus

Amylase

Which of the following blood tests is used to determine acute pancreatitis? A). Acid phosphatase B). Uric acid C). Amylase D). Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

Amylase

What is the term used to describe chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygen to heart myocardium? A). Acute Myocardial infarction (AMI) B). Angina C). Congestive heart failure (CHF) D). Myocardial ischemia

Angina

Which of the following apolipoproteins contributes the greatest mass to the structure of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)? A). Apo A B). Apo B C). Apo C D). Apo G

Apo A

A key structural component of chylomicrons, VLDL, and LDL? A). Apo A B). Apo B C). Apo C D) Apo G

Apo B

In post-hepatic jaundice, why is urobilinogen decreased? A). Because there is a decrease in bilirubin being metabolized B). Because there is an increase in bilirubin being metabolized C). Because the liver is not conjugating bilirubin D). Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine

Because there is a blockage of conjugated bilirubin being excreted from the liver to intestine

Blood lactate concentration is an indicator of impaired circulation and tissue oxygenation in critically ill patients. If circulation and tissue oxygenation are impaired: A). Blood lactate concentration will decrease below the lower end of the established reference range. B). Blood lactate concentration will increase. C). Blood lactate will not be affected. D). Blood lactate will be slightly decreased.

Blood lactate concentration will increase.

8-Hydroxyquinoline and Ortho-Cresolphthalein complexone (CPC) reagent is commonly used in the determination of: A). Phosphorus B). Magnesium C). Chloride D). Calcium

Calcium

Elevated levels of what hormone inhibts the secretion of ACTH from the pituitary gland? A). Aldosterone B). Testosterone C). Progesterone D). Cortisol

Cortisol

Which one of the following cardiac biomarkers could detect a recent reinfarction? A). Troponin I (TnI) B). Troponin T (TnT) C). Lactate dehydrogenase (LD) D). Creatine kinase MB (CK-MB)

Creatine kinase MB (CK-MB)

The measurement of sodium and chloride in sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? A). Steatorrhea B). Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas. C). Cystic fibrosis D). Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Cystic fibrosis

Which nitrogen base would bind with a guanine nucleotide in forming double-stranded DNA? A). Cytosine B). Uracil C). Thymine D). Adenine

Cytosine

A patient in renal failure is seen for blood work. What would you expect the serum calcium and phosphorus levels to be in this patient? A). Increased calcium and phosphorus levels B). Decreased calcium and phosphorus levels C). Increased calcium but decreased phosphorus levels D). Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels

Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels

Maltose, lactose and sucrose are all: A). Reducing substances B). Oligosaccharides C). Disaccharides D). Monosaccharides

Disaccharides

Which condition is caused by deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile canaliculi? A). Gilbert's disease B). Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia C). Dubin-Johnson syndrome D). Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes? A). Silver B). Glass C). Platinum D). Platinum-lactate

Glass

Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with which of the following substances to become water soluble? A). Glycogen B). Glucose oxidase C). Glucuronic acid D). Glycine

Glucuronic acid

Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? A). Lipoproteins B). Microglobulins C). Glycoproteins D). Immunoglobulins

Glycoproteins

Which of these blood levels will decrease during intravascular hemolysis? A). Serum (plasma) LDH B). Serum (plasma) bilirubin C). Reticulocytes D). Haptoglobin

Haptoglobin

Along with routine FPG's which of the following tests would most likely be used to monitor glycemic control? A). HbA1C B). Insulin C). C-peptide D). Urine glucose

HbA1C

Select the equation which is used to determine the pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its salt. A). Van Deemter equation B). Van Slyke equation C). Nernst equation D). Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

Where are most acute phase proteins synthesized? A). Bone Marrow B). Hepatocytes C). Intestines D). Spleen

Hepatocytes

The most common testing method for vitamin E determination is by: A). Protein binding radioimmunoassay (RIA) B). High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) C). 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine D). Not assayed - prothrombin time is used as a functional indicator of vitamin D status.

High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)

When a patient is suspected of intoxication, what would you expect the osmol gap to be? A). Slightly decreased B). Normal C). Increased D). Extremely decreased

Increased

What is the most significant cause of decreased haptoglobin levels? A). Acute infection B). Intravascular hemolysis C). Liver disease D). Myoglobinuria

Intravascular hemolysis

Pernicious anemia refers to cobalamin deficiency that results from a lack of which of the following? A). Vitamin B12 B). Intrinsic Factor C). Folate D). Vitamin C

Intrinsic Factor

Which one of the following statements about thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is true? A). It is decreased in hyperthyroidism B). It is decreased in hypothyroidism C). A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for thyroid function D). Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH levels.

It is decreased in hyperthyroidism

Isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase occur in: A).Bone, brain, liver, pancreas B). Liver, brain, spleen, intestines C). Brain, kidney, intestines, bone D). Kidney, bone, intestines, liver

Kidney, bone, intestines, liver

Isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase occur in? A). Brain,Liver,Spleen,Bone B). Kidney,Bone,Intestine,Liver C). Brain,Kidney,Intestine,Bone D). Pancreas,Brain,Bone,Liver

Kidney,Bone,Intestine,Liver

Which term describes the dose of the drug in which 50% of the individuals will result in mortality? A). ED50 B). LD50 C). TD50 D). MD50

LD50

What organ makes the largest amount of ALP? A). Kidney B). Liver C). Intestine D). Brain

Liver

Which type of lipoprotein transports the MAJORITY of cholesterol to cells for steroid hormone synthesis or cell membrane incorporation? A). Chylomicrons B). Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) C). Low density lipoproteins (LDL) D). High density lipoproteins (HDL)

Low density lipoproteins (LDL)

Which of the following cardiac biomarkers rises within 1 - 3 hours after chest pain, peaks in 2 - 6 hours, and is usually normal within 24 hours. A). TnT B). CK-MB C). Myoglobin D). TnI

Myoglobin

Which of the following tumor markers is associated with the prostate? A). CEA B). PSA C). Alpha-fetoprot ein D). Beta hCG

PSA

Which of the following is considered a cause of hypomagenesemia? A). Hypothyroidism B). Hypoaldosteronism C). Pancreitis D). Bone carcinoma

Pacreitis

There are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods today use a gel - cellulose acetate, agarose, or polyacrylamide gel. Which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels? A). The compounds used to make cellulose acetate gels are carcinogenic B). Polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccahrides and acrylamides C). Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes D). Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels

Polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes

Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP), conjugated bilirubin, and a slight rise in alanine aminotransferase (ALT)? A). Cardiovascular disease B). Hepatitis C). Post-hepatic cholestasis D). Renal failure

Post-hepatic cholestasis

Cholesterol is used by the body for which of the following functions? A). Carrying dietary triglycerides to the cells through the blood B). Maintaining acid-base balance C). Precursor of hormone synthesis D). Major source of fuel for the body

Precursor of hormone synthesis

Which of the following is the prodrug of phenobarbital? A). Primidone B). Fosphenytoin C). Ethosuximide D). Gabapentin

Primidone

Which one of the following is not an acute phase protein? A). Alpha-1 Antitrypsin B). C-Reactive Protein C). Protein S D). Fibrinogen

Protein S

Which of the following is considered the major transport protein for vitamin A? A). Transthyretin B). Retinol-binding protein C). Transferrin D). Haptoglobin

Retinol-binding protein

Which of the following is most likely to interact with arterial walls, leading to deposition of cholesterol, and initiating or worsening atherosclerosis? A). Large buoyant LDL B). Small dense LDL C). LDL phenotype 'A' D). VLDL

Small dense LDL

What test can be used as a confirmatory test for proteinuria? A). Acetest B). Benedict's test C). Fehling's test D). Sulfosalicylic acid test

Sulfosalicylic acid test

What is a drugs trough phase? A). The highest concentration in the bloodstream. B). The lowest concentration in the bloodstream. C). The therapuetic level in the bloodstream. D). Toxic level in the bloodstream.

The lowest concentration in the bloodstream.

What is the trough level? A). The highest level of a drug in a patients body B). The lowest level of a drug in a patients body C). The therapeutic level of a drug D). The toxic level of a drug

The lowest level of a drug in a patients body

The American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines recommend screening all asymptomatic individuals age 45 and older for diabetes. If the screen is negative: A). This patient will never require another screening. B). The screening should be repeated every 3 years. C). The screening should be repeated every 3 months. D). The screening should be repeated every year.

The screening should be repeated every 3 years.

According to the Michaelis-Menton kinetics theory, when a reaction is performed in zero-order kinetics: A). The substrate concentration is very low and the reaction rate is dependent on the substrate concentration B). The substrate concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration C). The enzyme concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the substrate concentration D). The substrate concentration is equal to Km and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration

The substrate concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration

Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of: A). Triiodothyronine B). Parathyroid hormone C). Thyroglobulin D). Thyroxine

Thyroxine

Which one of the following analytes usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? A). Transferrin B). Ceruloplasmin C). Alpha-1 Antitrypsin D). Fibrinogen

Transferrin

Which one of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct? A). Vitamin D deficiency is a cause of scurvy. B). One form of Vitamin D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate. C). Vitamin D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission. D). Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation.

Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation.

Which of the following would be considered a normal cerebrospinal fluid glucose level if the serum glucose is 70 mg/dL? A). About 100 mg/dL B). About 45 mg/dL C). About 60 mg/dL D). About 70 mg/dL

About 45 mg/dL

The normal De Ritis ratio (AST/ALT) should be: A). Equal or < 1 B). 2:1 C). 3:1 D). 4:1

Equal or < 1

Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? A). Late stage of Salicylate poisoning B). Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus C). Renal failure D). Excessive vomiting

Excessive vomiting

The results which would be MOST consistent with macro-amylasemia are? A). Normal serum amylase and elevated urine amylase values B). Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values C). Increased serum and increased urine amylase values D). Normal serum and normal urine amylase values

Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values

Which of the following thyroid function assay results would you expect with hyperthyroidism? A). High TSH, low free T4 B). Normal TSH, normal free T4 C). Low TSH, high free T4 D). High TSH, normal free T4

Low TSH, high free T4

When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is 5^C lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how will the results be affected? A). Lower than actual B). Higher than actual C). Varied showing no particular pattern D). No effect

Lower than actual

pH = 7.51 pCO2= 49mmHg HCO3- = 38.7mmol/L pO2= 85mmHg These results are compatible with: A). Metabolic acidosis B). Respiratory acidosis C). Metabolic alkalosis D). Respiratory alkalosis

Metabolic alkalosis

An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indicative of: A). A normal LD isoenzyme pattern B). Myocardial infarction C). Pancreatitis D). Diabetes mellitus

Myocardial infarction

A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had a myocardial infarction (MI)? A). LD B). CK C). Myoglobin D). Troponin

Myoglobin

What is the primary oxygen-carrying protein found in muscle? A). Hemoglobin B). Troponin C). Myoglobin D). BNP

Myoglobin

When testing for ethanol, what is actually measured in the enzymatic reaction, that is proportional to ethanol concentration? A). NADH B). Acetaldehyde C). Acetone D). NAD

NADH

If part 1 of the Schilling test is abnormal, part 2 is performed. IF part 2 is normal, what diagnosis is this? A). Tropical sprue B). Transcobalamin deficiency C). Folic acid deficiency D). Pernicious anemia

Pernicious anemia

The study of drug disposition in the body - how and when drugs enter the circulation, how long they stay there, and how they are eliminated? A). Drug half-life B). Pharmacogenomics C). Therapeutic window D). Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacokinetics

It is important to specify if a blood specimen is a capillary specimen rather than a venous specimen. How will the following laboratory results be affected if a capillary specimen is tested? A). Potassium, calcium, and total protein are lower in capillary specimens, where glucose is typically higher than in venous blood. B). Potassium, calcium, and total protein are higher in capillary specimens, where glucose is typically lower than in venous blood. C). Potassium and total protein are lower in capillary specimens, where glucose and calcium are typically higher than in venous blood. D). Potassium and total protein are higher in capillary specimens, where glucose and calcium are typically lower than in venous blood.

Potassium, calcium, and total protein are lower in capillary specimens, where glucose is typically higher than in venous blood.

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the excitation light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design? A). Prevent loss of emitted light B). Prevent loss of the excitation light C). Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector D). Prevent incident light from striking the detector

Prevent incident light from striking the detector

Plasma creatinine concentration is dependent on all of the following EXCEPT: A). Sodium concentration B). Rate of creatinine turnover C). Relative muscle mass D). Renal function

Sodium concentration

Deviations from Beer's law are caused by? A). Very low concentration of absorbing material B). Polychromatic light C). Very high concentrations of substance being measured in a colorimetric reaction. D). Stray light

Stray light

Which of the following immunosuppressive drugs below has been associated with thrombus formation in patients with toxic levels? A). Tacrolimus B). Cyclosporine C). Sirolimus D). Mycophenolic acid

Tacrolimus

The measurement of 17-ketosteroids (17-KSs) in urine is performed to assess PRIMARILY which organ(s)? A). Testes B). Adrenal cortex C). Testes and adrenal cortex D). Anterior pituitary

Testes and adrenal cortex

When considering therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM), what is the definition of bioavailability? A). The relative proportion between the circulation and the tissues. B). The fraction of the administered dose that eventually reaches its site of action. C). The variations in drug metabolism as related to genetics. D). The metabolic generation of a therapeutically active metabolite.

The fraction of the administered dose that eventually reaches its site of action.

What is the formula for creatinine clearance? A). UP/V x SA/1.73 B). 1.73 x UV/P C). UV/P x 1.73/SA D). SA/P x 2.73/UV

UV/P x 1.73/SA

What is the difference between plasma glucose results and whole blood glucose results? A). Whole blood is 11% lower. B). Whole blood is 11% higher. C). Plasma is 11% lower. D). Both results should be the same.

Whole blood is 11% lower.

Of the following what is a antiepileptic drug used to treat seizures? A). digoxin B). procainamide C). carbomazepine D). quinidine

carbomazepine

Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? A). Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of adiponectin B). Increased synthesis and secretion of PAI-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressure C). A state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease D). None of the above

A state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus (both immunosuppressive drugs) have multiple therapeutic ranges, why? A). There is no therapeutic range established for either. B). Because of the slow uptake of the medications by tissues. C). Because both drugs have ranges dependent on the organ transplanted and the time after transplantation. D). Because of the short half-lives of the drugs.

Because both drugs have ranges dependent on the organ transplanted and the time after transplantation.

Absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration of a solution? A). Johns law B). Law of absorbance C). Beer's law D). Tim's law

Beer's law

The metabolic generation of a therapeutically active metabolite is an enzymatic process referred to as? A). Biotransformation B). Drug distribution C). Bioavailability D). Pharmacogenomics

Biotransformation

To assess drug concentrations during the trough phase: A). Blood should be drawn about one hour after the administration of an oral dose of the drug. B). Blood should be drawn about half an hour before the next dose is given. C). Blood should be drawn about two hours after the administration of an oral dose of the drug. D). Blood should be drawn immediately before the next dose is given.

Blood should be drawn immediately before the next dose is given.

All cells can synthesize heme, what two organs are the main sites of hemoglobin synthesis for the body? A). Liver and spleen B). Spleen and bone marrow C). Bone marrow and thymus D). Bone marrow and liver

Bone marrow and liver

Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is derived from all of the following organs except? A). Bone B). Placenta C). Intestine D). Brain

Brain

Atherosclerosis is due to which of the following? A). Build up of plaque B). Aggregation of platelets C). Hypercalcemia D). Hypocalcemia

Build up of plaque

What tumor marker is specifically associated with Breast Cancer? A). CA 125 B). CA 15-3 C). CA 549 D). CA 76

CA 15-3

While serum elevations are NOT generally seen in early stages, which of the following tumor markers are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer? A). CEA and AFP B). AFP and CA 125 C). PSA and CA 15-3 D). CA 15-3 and CA 549

CA 15-3 and CA 549

Which of the following tumor markers is associated with the colon? A). PSA B). CEA C). Beta hCG D). AFP

CEA

Which two biomarkers are not specific to cardiac muscles and may increase in patients with muscle injury other than cardiac muscle? A). CTnI and CTnT B). CTnT and CK-MB C). CK-MB and Myoglobin D). Myoglobin and CTnI

CK-MB and Myoglobin

All of the following statements concerning CK-MB (CK-2) are true EXCEPT: A). Greater than 5% or 10 IU/L followed by an LDH-1: LDH-2 flip is specific evidence of myocardial infarction (MD). B). CK-MB levels can be normal with an elevated total CK. C). CK-MB and troponin levels can be elevated after an AMI. D). CK-MB levels are normal in cardiac ischemia.

CK-MB levels are normal in cardiac ischemia.

What two tests are most specific to cardiac muscles? A). CTnI and CTnT B). CTnT and CK-MB C). CK-MB and Myoglobin D). Myoglobin and CTnI

CTnI and CTnT (Troponin blood test)

Which lipid does not serve as a source of fuel, but can be converted to steroid hormones? A). Fatty acids B). Cholesterol C). Triglycerides D). Phospholipids

Cholesterol

A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions: A). Neural tube defects B). Maternal hypertension C). Hemolytic disease of the newborn D). Maternal diabetes

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

What role does lipase play in the body? A). Transferring animo acid groups between compounds B). Catalyzing the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate C). Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce water D). Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce alcohol and fatty acids

Hydrolyzes fat esters to produce alcohol and fatty acids

Which lipid abnormality is most closely linked to heart disease? A). Hypobetalipoproteinemia B). Hypertriglyceridemia C). Hypercholesterolemia D). Abetalipoproteinemia

Hypercholesterolemia

A high TSH and a low free T4 is associated with? A). Hyperthyroidism B). Hypothyroidism C). Normal patient D). Thyroiditis

Hypothyroidism

Which of the following is the most common technique that is used by clinical laboratories for therapeutic drug monitoring? A). Immunoassay B). Electrophoresis C). Atomic absorption D). Ion selective electrode voltametry

Immunoassay

Which of the following is considered an action of the hormone glucagon? A). Increase lipogenesis B). Increase glycogenesis C). Increase glycolysis D). Increase lipogenesis

Increase glycogenesis

High levels of lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 (Lp-PLA2) are associated with: A). Decreased cardiovascular risk B). Increased cardiovascular risk C). Increased renal failure risk D). Increased liver failure risk

Increased cardiovascular risk

All of the following would be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel (profile), EXCEPT? A). Sodium B). Potassium C). Magnesium D). Chloriode

Magnesium

An important metallic activator of alkaline phosphatase and creatine kinase is: A). Iron B). Zinc C). Potassium D). Magnessium

Magnessium

Of the following anticonvulsant medications, which one does not rely soley on the liver to metabolize it for excretion? A). Valproic acid B). Phenobarbital C). Phenytoin D). Carbamazepine

Phenobarbital

Of the following, which has the longest half-life? A). Carbamazepine B). Valproic Acid C). Phenytoin D). Phenobarbital

Phenobarbital

The selectivity of an ion-selective electrode is determined by the: A). Properties of the membrane used B). Magnitude of the potential across the membrane C). The size of the membrane used D). Neural potential of the membrane

Properties of the membrane used

Which one of the following is the correct definition of isoelectric point (pI)? A). Buffer formation of a positively charged ionic cloud that can affect the migration of the negative ionic cloud of the sample B). The ability of a molecule to have both negatively and positively charged groups C). The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero D). The movement of charged particles in an electrical field

The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero

A chemical reaction that is utilized by many different analytical methods involves: A). Fluorometry B). The reduction of NAD to NADH C). Glucose oxidase D). UV spectrophotometry

The reduction of NAD to NADH

Which troponin protein binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin? A). Troponin I (TnI) B). Troponin C (TnC) C). Troponin T (TnT) D). Troponin P (TnP)

Troponin T (TnT)

Which marker is most useful for detection of gestational trophoblastic disease? A). CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen) B). AFP (a-fetoprotein) C). hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) D). CA-125 (cancer antigen 125)

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)