Chemisty and UA Test- MLS
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called: a- glycogenesis b- glycolysis c- glycogenolysis d- gluconeogensis
Glycolysis
Which of the following lipoprotein class are associated with decreased risk of accelerated artherosclerosis? a- chylomicrons b- VLDL c-LDL d- HDL
HDL
The following results were obtained on a urine specimen at 8:00 am: ph: 5.5 Protein: 2+ Glucose: 3+ Ketones: 3+ Blood: Negative Bilirubin: Positive Nitrite: Positive If this urine specimen was stored uncapped at 5C without preservation and retested at 2 pm, which of the following test results would be changed due to these storage conditions? a- glucose b- ketones c- protein d- nitrite
Ketones
A serum sample drawn in the ER from a 42 year old man yielded the following: CK: 185 U/L (Reference: 15-160 U/L) AST: 123 U/L (Reference: 0-48 U/L) CKMB: 6 U/L (Reference: 2-12 U/L) Which of the following conditions might account for these values: a- crush injury to the thigh b- cerebrovascular accident c- pulmonary infarction d- early acute hepatitis
crush injury to the thigh
Which of the following amino acids is associated with sulfhydryl group? a- cystenine b- glycine c- serine d- tyrosisne
cystenine
A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative bilirubin may indicate: a- obstruction of the biliary tract b- viral hepatitis c- hemolytic jaundice d- cirrhosis
hemolytic jaundice
A patient has the following results: Serum Iron: 250 ug/dL (Reference value: 60-150 ug/dL) TIBC: 350 ug/dL (Reference value: 300-350 ug/dL) The best conclusion is that this patient has: a- normal iron status b- iron deficiency anemia c- chronic disease d- iron hemochromatosis
iron hemochromatosis
Refractive index is a comparison of: a- light velocity in solutions to light velocity in solids b- light velocity in air to light velocity in soultions c- light scattereing by air to light scattering by solutions d- light scattering by particles in soulution
light velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
A 68 year old man arrives in the ER with a glucose of 722 mg/dL and serum acetone of 4+ undiluted. An arterial blood gas from this patient is likely to be: a- low pH b- High PH c- low PO2 d- high PO2
low pH
Analysis of CSF for oligoclonal bands is used to screen for which of the following disease states? a- multiple myeloma b- multiple sclerosis c- myasthenia gravis d- von Willebrand disease
multiple sclerosis
Which of the following factors will NOT interfere with the reagent strip test for leukocytes? a- ascorbic acid b- formaldehyde c-nitrite d- urinary protein level of 500 mg.dL
nitrite
Oligoclonal bands are present on electrophoresis of concentrated CSF and also on concurrently tested serum of the same patient. The proper interpretation is: a- diagnostic for primary CNS tumor b- Diagnostic for multiple sclerosis c- CNS involovement by acute leukemia d- non diagnostic for multiple sclerosis
nondiagnostic for multiple sclerosis
Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by: a- insulin b- parathyroid hormone c- thyroxine d- vitamin C
parathyroid hormone
Which of the following enzymes of heme biosynthesis is inhibited by lead? a- aminolevulinate synthase b- porphobilinogen synthase c- uroporpyrinogen synthae c- bilirubin synthetase
porphobilinogen synthase
The following lab results were obtained: Serum: Calcium increased, Alkaline Phosphatase normal or increased, Alkaline Phosphate decreased Urine: Calcium increased, Alkaline Phosphate increased These results are most compatible with: a- multiple myeloma b- milk-alkali syndrome c- sarcoidosis d- primary hyperparathroidism
primary hyperparathyroidism
The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on: a- an enzyme reaction b- protein error of indicators c- copper reduction d- the toluidine reaction
protein error of indicators
The electrophoresis pattern of a plasma sample as compared to a serum sample shows a: a- broad preablbumin peak b- sharp fibrinogen peak c- diffuse pattern because of the presence of anticoagulants d- decreased globuilin fraction
sharp fibrinogen peak
Epithelial cell casts are most indicative of: a- glomerulonephritis b- nephrotic syndrome c- tubular necrosis d- pyelonephritits
tubular necrosis
Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in humans? a- AMP and GMP b- DNA and RNA c- altonon d- uric acid
uric acid
Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase in which of the following urinary amino acids? a- phenylalanine b- tyrosine c- valine, leucine, and isoleucine d- cystin and cysteine
valine, leucine and isoleucine
Which of the following can give a false negative urine protein reading? a- contamination with vaginal discharge b- heavy mucus c- presence of blood d- very dilute urine
very dilute urine
Which of the following hemoglobins has glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal value of the beta chain? a- S b- C c- A2 d- A1c
A1c
An adult diabetic with renal complications has the following results: Sodium: 133 mEq/L Glucose: 487 mg/dL BUN: 84 mg/dL Creatinine: 5 mg/dL On the basis of these results, the calculated serum osmolality is: 266 mOsm/kg 290 mOsm/kg 304 mOsm/kg 709 mOsm/kg
304 mOsm/kg
An eosinophil count may be requested on urine from a patient with suspected: a- acute glomerulonephritits b- cystitis c- renal lithiasis d- actue interstitial nephritis
Acute interstitial nephritis
Assays for free T4 measure hormone not bound to thyroxine-binding prealbumin, thyroxine-binding globulin and: a- thryotropin- releasing hormone b- albumin c- free T3 d- Thyroid -stimulating hormone
Albumin
A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in 2 large squares of the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count in mLs is: 5000 50,000 500,000 5,000,000
5,000,000
The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance evaluation: Urine concentration: 84 mg/dL Urine volume: 1440 mL/24 hr Serum concentration: 1.4 mg/dL Body surface area: 1.60 m2 (average = 1.73 m2) The creatinine clearance in mL/min is: 6 22 60 65
65
A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is obtained. Before reporting the results, the first step the scientist should take is to: a- check the serum for hemolysis b- rerun the test c- check the age of the patient d- do nothing- report the result
Check the serum for hemolysis
The findings of a large amount of uric acid crystals in a urine specimen from a 6 month old boy: a- may actually be diaper fibers b- could indicate lesch-nyhan syndrom c- should not be reported d- may indicate improper feeding
Could indicate Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. If a dose is given every 6 hours, a steady-state drug level would usually be achieved in: a 3 - 5 hours b 10 -12 hrs c 24 - 42 hrs d48 - 50 hours
24-42 hours
A patient had the following serum results: Na: 140 mEq/L K: 4.0 mEq/L Glucose: 95 mg/dL BUN: 10 mg/dL Which osmolality is consistent with these results? a- 188 b- 204 c-270 d- 390
270
In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect Rh isosensitization is: a- human amniotic placental lactogen b- alpha fetoprotein c- measurement of absorbance at 450nm d- creatinine
Measurement of absorbance at 450 nm
Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent? a- cholesterol b- triglycerides c- fatty acids d- neutral fats
cholesterol
In monitoring glomerular function, which of the following tests has the highest sensitivty? a- urine sodium b- bun/ creatinine ratio c- creatinine clearance d- urea clearance
creatinine clearance
Acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the formation of: a- myoglobin b- sulfhemoglobin c- methemoglobin d- red blood cells
Methemoglobin
A 4 year old girl develops edema following a recent immunization. Lab studies reveal: Serum albumin: 1.8 g/dL Serum cholesterol: 450 mg/dL Serum urea nitrogen: 20 mg/dL Urinalysis: protein 4+, hyaline, granular, and fatty casts These findings are most compatible with: a- acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b- minimal change disease c- acute pyelonephritis d- diabetes mellitus
Minimal Change Disease
The fluid leaving the glomerulus normally has a specific gravity of: 1.001 1.010 1.020 1.030
1.010
If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dL, which of the following 2-hour postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabolism? a- 55 mg/dL b-100 mg/dL c-180 mg/dL d- 260 mg/dL
100mg/dL
What battery of tests is most useful in evaluating an anion gap of 22 mEg/L? a- Ca++, Mg++, Po-4 and pH b- BUN, creatinine, salicylate, and methanol c- AST, ALT, LD and amylase d- glucose, CK, myoglobin, cryoglobin
BUN, Creatinine, salicylate, and methanol
Which of the following serum proteins migrate with the beta-globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6? a- ceruloplasmin b- hemoglobin c- haptoglobin d- C3 component of complemement
C3 component of complement
The primary component of urinary calculi is: a- calcium b- uric acid c- leucine d- cystine
calcium
Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are: a- the same as adults b- lower than adults c- the same as a normal full term infant d- higher than a normal full term infant
Lower than adults
The direction in which albumin migrates (toward anode or cathode) during electrophoresis separation of serum proteins, at pH 8.6, is determined by: a- the ionizatio of the amine groups, yielding a net positive charge b- the ioniation of the carboxy groups, yielding a net negative charge c- albumin acting as a zwitterion d- the density of the gel layer
The ionization of carboxyl groups, yielding a net negative charge
Blood specimens for digoxin assays should be obtained between 8 hours or ore after drug administration because: a- tissue and serum levels need to reach equilibrium b- serum digoxin concentratio will be falsely low prior to 6 hrs c- all of the digoxin is in the cellualr fraction prior to 6 hrs d- digoxin protein- binding interactions are minimal prior to 6 hours
Tissue and serum levels need to reach equilibrium
Serum haptoglobin: a- is decreased in aptents with tissue injury and neoplasia b- is increased in patients with prosthetic heart valves c- can be separated into distinct phenotypes by starch-gel electrophoresis d- binds heme
can be separated into distinct phenotypes by starch-gel electrophoesis
Glitter cells are a microscopic finding of: a- RBCs in hypertonic urine b- RBCs in hypotonic urine c- WBCs in hypertonic urine d- WBCs in hypotonic urine
WBCs in hypotonic urine
The following results are most consistent with: Alkaline phosphatase: Slight increase Aspartate amino transferase: Marked increase Alanine amino transferase: Marked increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase: Slight increase a- acute hepatisis b- chronic hepatitis c- obstructive jaundice d- liver hemangioma
acute hepatitis
The procedure used to determine the presence of neural tube defects is: a-lecithin/sphingomyelin ration b- amniotic fluid creatinine c- measurement of absorbance at 450 nm d- alpha fetoprotein
alpha-fetoprotein
A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure. The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is: a- ammonia b- ALT c- AST d- GGT
ammonia
The presence of C-reactive protein in the blood is an indication of: a- a recent streptococcal infection b- recover from a pneumococcal infection c- inflammatory process d- state of hypersensitivity
an inflammatory process
