CIS 227 Final Review - Questions from NetAcad
97. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
99. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch(config)# no vlan 100
66. A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?
System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.
245. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?
Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.
7. Which media access method requires that an end device send a notification across the media before sending data?
CSMA/CA
305. Which packet-forwarding method does a router use to make switching decisions when it is using a forwarding information base and an adjacency table?
Cisco Express Forwarding - CEF
265. What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
183. What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?
They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.
91. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
14. In performing a protocol analysis of a network, when should traffic be captured to ensure the most accurate representation of the different traffic types on the network?
during hours of peak network use*
219. Which type of ACL statements are commonly reordered by the Cisco IOS as the first ACEs?
host
105. Fill in the blank. Static routes are configured by the use of the ________ global configuration command.
ip route
226. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
native VLAN ID
45. A small-sized company has 30 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. The two servers must be assigned public IP addresses so they are reachable from the outside world. What technology should the company implement in order to allow all workstations to access services over the Internet simultaneously?
port address translation*
140. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?
protect
62. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?
protect
173. What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme
68. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
show cdp neighbors
214. Which feature will require the use of a named standard ACL rather than a numbered standard ACL?
the ability to add additional ACEs in the middle of the ACL without deleting and re-creating the list
267. What does the term "port density" represent for an Ethernet switch?
the number of available ports
293. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
to be used as a backup route
161. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?
to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
321. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?
to enable the router as an IPv6 router
124. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?
to have only a link-local IPv6 address
319. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?
to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table
236. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?
to the subinterface
96. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
- Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option - Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.
61. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task?
- IP address - VTY lines - Default Gateway
98. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
- The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link. - The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
40. What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols?
- They require a lot of hardware resources - They compute their own knowledge of the network topology
50. What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols?
- They require a lot of hardware resources - They compute their own knowledge of the network topology
165. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the syslog message that was generated by the router? (Choose two.)
- This message is a level 5 notification message. - This message indicates that service timestamps have been configured.
54. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route?
- Ultimate route - Level 2 child route
64. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?
Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
2. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.) MAC address IP address kernel shell subnet mask
IP address Subnet mask
28. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
IPsec
73. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
IPsec
304. A network administrator enters the command copy running-config startup-config. Which type of memory will the startup configuration be placed into?
NVRAM
223. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?
Native
71. Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?
- access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 - ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload
182. A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?
R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80
144. Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router? (access-list 15 has already been configured, just asking how to apply it to the router for telnet)
R1(config)# line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)# access-class 15 in
215. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
247. Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?
RAM
47. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?
RAM
271. Which routing protocol is limited to smaller network implementations because it does not accommodate growth for larger networks?
RIP
128. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below C 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0:S 10.0.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0:S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2:*S 10.0.2.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2
Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?
75. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below ipv6 unicast-routing.dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8.ipv6 dhcp server LAN1.*ipv6 nd other-config-flag.prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?
120. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? Helpful information: Use PID 1 and the network they want to share is 172.168.2.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
246. What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?
enables port security on an interface
256. A local law firm is redesigning the company network so that all 20 employees can be connected to a LAN and to the Internet. The law firm would prefer a low cost and easy solution for the project. What type of switch should be selected?
fixed configuration
127. Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?
floating static route
228. Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?
no vlan 20
273. When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?
on a network where there is a lot of topology changes
244. If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?
on the half-duplex end of the connection
213. On which router should the show access-lists command be executed?
on the router that has the ACL configured
88. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
permit icmp any any nd-na
17. A network administrator is checking the system logs and notices unusual connectivity tests to multiple well-known ports on a server. What kind of potential network attack could this indicate?
reconnaissance
114. Refer to the IP address below. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured? ipv6 route 2001:0DB8::/32 2001:0DB8:3000::1
recursive static route
205. Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL?
source IP address
258. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?
source MAC address
197. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?
stateless DHCPv6
139. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?
sticky secure MAC addresses
59. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
store-and-forward switching
259. Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?
switch
63. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict
164. The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?
synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1
166. Which protocol or service allows network administrators to receive system messages that are provided by network devices?
syslog
309. Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?
terminal emulation client software
199. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
76. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
126. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?
the ipv6 unicast-routing command
194. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?
the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network
176. What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?
the pool of global address
122. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
216. Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command?
vty
189. Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?
client hardware address
227. Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?
Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
181. What is the purpose of port forwarding?
Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.
93. What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
192. An administrator issues the commands: Router(config)# interface g0/1 Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp What is the administrator trying to achieve?
configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server
156. Which destinations do Cisco routers and switches use by default when sending syslog messages for all severity levels?
console
238. Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax. The _____________ command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.
show vlan
225. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
153. A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command: ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the 192.168.128.0/18 network as the inside local addresses?
access-list 1 permit 192.168.128.0 0.0.63.255
315. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?
a directly connected network
80. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- access-class 5 in - access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
304. 227. Describe the port-security violation mode restrict 3
- drops frame - a sys log entry is made - violation counter increases
87. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.1.255
104. Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level ______ ultimate routes.
1
107. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is _______.
1
44. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate? What is an easy way to remember this?
- A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does. - It's better when things cost less in real life too.
32. What are two functions of a router?
- It connects multiple IP networks - It determines the best path to send packets
100. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
288. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two) A. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. B. Static routing scales well with expanding networks. C. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation. D. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing. E. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
A. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network. D. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.
121. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers. B. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. C. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. D. The database information for each router is obtained from the same source. E. Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
B. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. C. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
301. Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 How would an administrator test this configuration?
Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route.
35. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer below Drop the packet.*Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.
Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?
1. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer(s) below Enable DTP on both ends of the trunk. Configure all workstations on SW1 to be part of the default VLAN.Configure all workstations on SW2 to be part of the native VLAN.*Allow VLAN 20 on the trunk link.
Refer to the exhibit. What would correct the problem and allow PC1 to ping PC4?
236.5 What information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
Source MAC address and the incoming port
186. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?
broadcast DHCPREQUEST
167. Which syslog message type is accessible only to an administrator and only via the Cisco CLI?
debugging
292. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
default route
177. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
262. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?
determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address
106. Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ________ packet.
hello
305. 228. Describe the port-security violation mode shutdown 3
- drops frame - increases violation counter - shuts the port down
226. Describe the port-security violation mode protect What might help you remember this?
- drops frame - protectors drop just enemies in fights, they don't do anything but stop the threat
78. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment? using the name LAN-POOL
- ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10 - ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254 - ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100 - network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 - default-router 192.168.100.1
84. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
- ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 - ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
56. What are 3 characteristics of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?
- provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies - interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets - aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries
72. A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?
- the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses
303. An administrator issues the ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::1 100 command on a router. What administrative distance is assigned to this route?
100
20. Which three IP addresses are public? (Choose three.) 10.1.1.1 128.107.0.7 192.31.7.10 172.16.4.4 192.168.5.5 64.104.7.7
128.107.0.7 192.31.7.10 64.104.7.7
294. A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements: IP phones - 50 PCs - 70 IP cameras - 10 wireless access points - 10 network printers - 10 network scanners - 2 Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?
172.16.0.0/24
81. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?
172.16.36.255
22. Which IP address is a valid network address? 172.16.4.32/27 172.16.4.79/28 172.16.4.255/22 172.16.5.255/23
172.16.4.32/27
24. An organization has received the IPv6 network prefix of 2001:db8:1234::/52 from their ISP. How many subnets can be created from this prefix without borrowing bits from the interface ID?
4096
210. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
8
53. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?
::/0
92. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
A cable has not been attached to the port.
235. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?
A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.
237. A high school uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network. What is required to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the router-on-a-stick approach?
A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the router.
266. Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected? A. The broadcast domain expands to all switches. B. One collision domain exists per switch. C. Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches. D. There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.
A. The broadcast domain expands to all switches.
307. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) A. A router connects multiple IP networks. B. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. C. It determines the best path to send packets. D. It provides segmentation at Layer 2. E. It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.
A. A router connects multiple IP networks. C. It determines the best path to send packets.
313.Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.) A. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. B. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. C. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. D. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. E. The metric is always determined based on hop count. F. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.
A. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. D. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
316. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.) A. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. B. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances. C. The value of the administrative distance cannot be altered by the network administrator. D. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
A. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route. D. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
193. Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.) A. The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway. B. The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent. C. The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts. D. This is an ISP requirement. E. The router has a fixed IP address.
A. The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway. D. This is an ISP requirement.
207. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.) A. An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE. B. A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched. C. A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE. D. A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default. E. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list. F. Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
A. An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE. B. A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched. E. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.
179. What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.) A. Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation. B. Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated. C. Define the range of source ports to be used. D. Identify the inside interface.
A. Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation. D. Identify the inside interface.
200. What two methods can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC? (Choose two.) A. EUI-64 B. random generation C. stateful DHCPv6 D. DAD E. ARP
A. EUI-64 B. random generation
137. Which statement correctly describes how a LAN switch forwards frames that it receives? A. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table. B. Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped. C. Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports. D. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.
A. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
57. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions? A. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table. B. Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped. C. Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports. D. Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.
A. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
9. Which statement is true about IPv6 addresses? A. Global unicast addresses are globally unique and can be routed through the Internet. B. Link-local addresses must be unique. C. A loopback address is represented by ::/128. D. Unique local addresses are used to communicate with other devices on the same link.
A. Global unicast addresses are globally unique and can be routed through the internet.
311. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.) A. IP addresses B. MAC addresses C. Layer 1 statuses D. next-hop addresses E. interface descriptions F. speed and duplex settings
A. IP addresses C. Layer 1 statuses
34. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically? A. It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. B. It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network. C. It has an administrative distance of 1. D. It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
A. It's automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols
240. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.) A. POST occurred normally. B. The boot process was interrupted. C. There is not enough RAM or flash on this router. D. A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded. E. The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
A. POST occurred normally. D. A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
21. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.) A. regenerating data signals B. acting as a client or a server C. providing a channel over which messages travel D. applying security settings to control the flow of data E. notifying other devices when errors occur F. serving as the source or destination of the messages
A. Regeneration data signals D. Applying security settings to control the flow of data E. Notifying other devices when errors occur
209. A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.) A. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23 B. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0 C. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255 D. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0 E. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255
A. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23 B. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
38. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three) A. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. B. Configuration of static routes is error-free. C. Static routes scale well as the network grows. D. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. E. The path a static route uses to send data is known.
A. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security D. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does E. The path a static route uses to send data is known
67. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? A. The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number. B. The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number. C. An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master. D. Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
A. The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number. D. Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
119. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.) A. The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command. B. The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command. C. The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. D. The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router. E. The link interface subnet masks must match. F. The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local addres
A. The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command C. The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match. D. The link interface subnet masks must match.
320. What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two) A. a default static route B. a built-in static route by IOS C. a static route to a specific network D. a static route shared between two neighboring routers E. a static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol
A. a default static route C. a static route to a specific network
224. A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking? (Choose two.) A. between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs B. between a switch and a client PC C. between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC D. between a switch and a network printer E. between two switches that share a common VLAN
A. between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs C. between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
274. When would it be more beneficial to use static routing instead of dynamic routing protocols? A. on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk B. on a network that is expected to continually grow in size C. on a network that has a large amount of redundant paths D. on a network that commonly experiences link failures
A. on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk
41. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.) A. scalability B. ISP selection C. speed of convergence D. the autonomous system that is used E. campus backbone architecture
A. scalability C. speed of convergence
222. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.) A. security B. a reduction in the number of trunk links C. cost reduction D. end user satisfaction E. improved IT staff efficiency F. no required configuration
A. security C. cost reduction E. improved IT staff efficiency
283. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. sends subnet mask information in routing updates B. sends complete routing table update to all neighbors C. is supported by RIP version 1 D. allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology E. reduces the amount of address space available in an organization
A. sends subnet mask information in routing updates D. allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
86. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.) A. source address and wildcard mask B. access list number between 100 and 199 C. source subnet mask and wildcard mask D. access list number between 1 and 99 E. destination address and wildcard mask F. destination subnet mask and wildcard mask G. default gateway address and wildcard mask
A. source address and wildcard mas B. access list number between 100 and 199 E. destination address and wildcard mask
298. What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.) A. the interface ID exit interface B. the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor C. the IP address of the next-hop neighbor D. the administrative distance for the destination network E. the IP address of the exit interface
A. the interface ID exit interface C. the IP address of the next-hop neighbor
118. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.) A. the link router interface IP address and subnet mask B. the type of network link C. the link next-hop IP address D. the link bandwidth E. the cost of that link
A. the link router interface IP address and subnet mask B. the type of network link C. the cost of that link
255. Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. user data traffic B. VoIP phone traffic C. scanners and printers D. mobile cell phone traffic E. electrical system
A. user data traffic B. VoIP phone traffic
33. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
Access
65. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
112. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.) A. access list number between 1 and 99 B. access list number between 100 and 199 C. default gateway address and wildcard mask D. destination address and wildcard mask E. source address and wildcard mask F. source subnet mask and wildcard mask G. destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
B. Access list number between 100 and 199 D. Destination address and wildcard mask E. source address and wildcard mask
36. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.) A. loopback address B. default gateway C. IP address D. vty lines E. VTP domain F. default VLAN
B. Default gateway C. IP address D. VTY lines
249. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.) A. The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP. B. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots. C. The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports. D. After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses. E. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
B. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots. E. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
110. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.) A. destination MAC address B. ICMP message type C. computer type D. source TCP hello address E. destination UDP port number
B. ICMP message type E. Destination UDP port number
308. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.) A. hostname B. IP address C. subnet mask D. default gateway E. DNS server address F. DHCP server address
B. IP address C. subnet mask D. default gateway
31. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.) A. specifying source addresses for authentication B. specifying internal hosts for NAT C. identifying traffic for QoS D. reorganizing traffic into VLANs E. filtering VTP packets
B. Specifying internal hosts for NAT C. Identifying traffic for QoS
29. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.) A. They take less time to converge when the network topology changes B. They improve network security C. They improve the efficiency of discovering neighbouring networks D. They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes E. They use fewer router resources
B. They improve network security E. They use fewer router resources
314. Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.) A. hop count B. bandwidth C. jitter D. resiliency E. delay F. confidentiality
B. bandwidth E. delay
257. What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.) A. lower cost per switch B. increased scalability C. lower forwarding rates D. need for fewer power outlets E. availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation
B. increased scalability D. need for fewer power outlets
302. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.) A. show version B. ping C. tracert D. show ip route E. show ip interface brief F. show arp
B. ping D. show ip route E. show ip interface brief
268. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.) A. to create fewer collision domains B. to enhance user bandwidth C. to create more broadcast domains D. to eliminate virtual circuits E. to isolate traffic between segments
B. to enhance user bandwidth E. to isolate traffic between segments
272. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.) A. discover hosts B. update and maintain routing tables C. propagate host default gateways D. network discovery E. assign IP addressing
B. update and maintain routing tables D. network discovery
270. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed to interconnect different Internet service providers?
BGP
82. An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?
Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.
159. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device? A. The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity. B.. To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used. C. CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface. D. Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.
C. CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.
211. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.) A. Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. B. Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic. C. Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link. D. Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. E. Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
C. Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link. D. Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic. E. Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
206. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs? A. In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria. B. Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers. C. Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed. D. On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
C. Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
163. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? A. There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network. B. All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source. C. NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source. D. NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information. E. NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.
C. NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source. D. NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.
230. Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.) A. CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs. B. VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094. C. They are saved in the running-config file by default. D. VLANs are initialized from flash memory. E. They are commonly used in small networks.
C. They are saved in the running-config file by default. B. VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
281. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router's routing table? (Choose two.) A. contain subnets B. be a default route C. contain an exit interface D. be a classful network entry E. contain a next-hop IP address
C. contain an exit interface E. contain a next-hop IP address
251. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.) A. lower bandwidth requirements B. reduced cost for equipment and user training C. easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability D. less required equipment to provide the same performance levels E. simpler deployment for additional switch equipment
C. easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability E. simpler deployment for additional switch equipment
260. What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.) A. path cost B. egress port C. ingress port D. destination IP address E. destination MAC address
C. ingress port E. destination MAC address
116. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58? A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0 B. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0 C. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0 D. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
C. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
148. A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?
Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.
269. Fill in the blank. A _______________ network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.
Converged
141. After sticky learning of MAC addresses is enabled, what action is needed to prevent dynamically learned MAC addresses from being lost in the event that an associated interface goes down?
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
89. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing? A. IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers. B. IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols. C. IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes. D. IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
D. IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
184. Which statement describes IPv6 ULAs? A. They conserve IPv6 address space. B. They are assigned by an ISP. C. They begin with the fe80::/10 prefix. D. They are not routable across the Internet.
D. They are not routable across the Internet.
190. As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?
DHCPREQUEST
196. A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?
DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST
95. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.). dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable dynamic auto - dynamic auto dynamic desirable - dynamic auto dynamic desirable - trunk access - trunk access - dynamic auto
Dynamic desirable - Dynamic Desirable Dynamic desirable - Dynamic Auto Dynamic desirable - Trunk
151. What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?
End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.
187. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255
25. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?
Floating static route*
4. What advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through method?
Frame Error Checking
3. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
Frame Header | Network Header | Transport Header | Data | Frame Trailer
11. What is the most effective way to mitigate worm and virus attacks?
Install security updates to patch vulnerable systems.
203. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24. Router(config)# ip dhcp ___________________________________
Ip excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15
250. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
30. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.*
180. What is the major benefit of using NAT with Port Address Translation?
It allows many internal hosts to share the same public IPv4 address.
231. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?
It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
70. What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
191. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?
It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.
291. What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?
It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.
39. What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?
It is a SOHO or home broadband router.*
310. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?
It is a logical interface internal to the router.
317. Consider the following routing table entry for R1: D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0 What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?
It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.
147. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
198. How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?
It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.
195. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.
172. Which method is used by a PAT-enabled router to send incoming packets to the correct inside hosts?
It uses the destination TCP or UDP port number on the incoming packet.
280. Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of 192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?
O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/65] via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0
117. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
101. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
43. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*
18. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
PAT
185. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?
PAT using an external interface
6. A small car dealership has a scanner that is attached to the PC of the sales manager. When salesmen need to scan a document, they place the document in the scanner and use their own PCs to control the scanner through software on the PC of the manager. After the document is scanned, they can attach it to an email or upload it into the sales software. What type of network model does this scenario describe?
Peer-to-peer
69. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer(s) below The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.*The NAT pool has been exhausted.The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.
Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
48. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer(s) below 10.0.0.31.192.168.3.5.192.168.3.33.*192.168.10.35.172.16.20.5
Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 192.168.10.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 192.168.3.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT
154. Image. See other side for question then find the answer between the :: below 1651.31361 3116 16351.631::192.168.10.35:: 3s161
Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 192.168.10.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 192.168.3.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?
155. Image. See other side for question then find the answer below as;ldkfaopsker asopdfkaskfop klajsf sdjfoasjf las;f j alsdjf aksdj f;lAddress translation is working.A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.Two types of NAT are enabled.;lsjdfo jaosdijf o9ewij ;oakjsdfi aosj f
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify?
51. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer(s) below The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.*The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
13. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below letmein.secretin.lineconin.*linevtyin
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
142. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * at the start of the correct answer below 1.*5.8.20.25.30
Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented? A. 1 B. 5 C. 8 D. 20 E. 25 F. 30
125. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below 1.*2.3.4.5.6
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?
52. Image. See other side for question then find the * at the start of the correct answer(s) below because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99.because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN.because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch.^because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface.^because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what are two reasons VLAN 99 missing? (Choose two.)
261. to Fa0/1 only.to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only.*to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only.to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4.to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only
Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?
113. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * at the start of the correct answer below The ip route command was used.The ipv6 route command was used.*Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
42. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains.*5 broadcast domains and *10 collision domains.5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains.16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
146. Image. See other side for question then find the answer below a;lsjdfl;ajsdofjals jkdf;lajjThe IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.asdl;fjapsodifpkaspdeikfpaoksd
Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?
74. 10.130.5.76:209.165.200.245:*203.0.113.5:172.16.1.10:192.0.2.1:209.165.200.226
Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?
232. Image. See other side for question then find the correct answer below kasdljo asdofjiasoei lsjfo ajsdf jaosdjfThe VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk. asdfoajwe ofjasodijf aosjmdfoi jasdjf; lajk;s df
Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?
8. 192.168.1.1_192.168.1.8_192.168.1.255_*255.255.255.255
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is configured to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. PC1 has been shut down for two weeks. When PC1 boots and tries to request an available IP address, which destination IP address will PC1 place in the IP header?
77. A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.*The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
152. Image. See other side for question then find the answer below ja oseijflasjdfi uaowemo;fjasdfNAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.asdfaskdofkaosjdofjasoejrfoajlfja lkajsdfoajs
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?
162. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below aldsjfoasjdof jalsodjfo9ajsldfj*B;LDFJAOSJFOASJDF*D:ASDLFJOASJDFJA
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.) A. Both routers are configured to use NTPv2. B. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client. C. Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client. D. The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2. E. The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.
102. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.*The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
149. Image. See other side for question then find the answer below aksdofaosdjfaj sodlfjajsdlfjasdjfojasldjf;laThe FA0/0 interface is missing the command that informs the clients to use stateful DHCPv6.asljdfo iajwoejfoasj dfoajsd ;ofj
Refer to the exhibit. The users on the LAN network of R1 cannot receive an IPv6 address from the configured stateful DHCPv6 server. What is missing from the stateful DHCPv6 configuration on router R1?
169. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below the time passed since the sysiog server has been started.the time on the router when the show logging command was issued.the time passed since the interfaces have been up.*the time when the syslog message was issued
Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 17:46:26.143 represent?
132. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below 120.*1.0.2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?
16. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below::1/128_2001::/32_2001:db8:9d38:953c:1c53:2271:9c9a:c62c/128_fe80::/64_fe80::13e:4586:5807:95f7/128*
Refer to the exhibit. What is the link-local IPv6 address of the local computer shown based on the output of the netstat -r command?
289. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.*Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.
Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
202.Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a * below Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.*Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.
Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?
10. Site 1.*Site 2.Site 3.Site 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?
90. child route.ultimate route.default route.*level 1 parent route
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?
306. Fill in the blank. When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the ___________ table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.
Routing
296. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
263. A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive broadcast traffic?
Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them.
220. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the outbound direction?
The ACL does not perform as designed.
218. What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic?
The ACL will block all traffic.
109. Image. See other side for question then find the answer with a ^ at the start of the correct answer below R1 S0/0/0:^R1 Gi0/1.12:R2 S0/0/1:R2 Gi0/1.20:inbound:^outbound
The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.) A. R1 Gi0/1.12 B. R1 S0/0/0 C. R2 S0/0/1 D. R2 Gi0/1.20 E. inbound F. outbound
103. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
178. A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?
The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.
262. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?
The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead
94. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
The control and management traffic on the trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
318. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?
The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.
279. What occurs next in the router lookup process after a router identifies a destination IP address and locates a matching level 1 parent route?
The level 2 child routes are examined.
159. A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?
The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
229. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?
The port becomes inactive.
175. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?
The request to the server for the seventh user fails.
233. What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?
The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.
295. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?
The static route is removed from the routing table.
171. A network administrator has issued the logging trap 4 global configuration mode command. What is the result of this command?
The syslog client will send to the syslog server any event message that has a severity level of 4 and lower.
19. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?
The transmission continues without the missing portion.
85. What is a disadvantage of NAT?
There is no end-to-end addressing.
282. What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?
They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default
27. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?
To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*
217. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1# <output omitted> Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match)
Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.
37. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
Untagged
276. A network administrator configures a static route on the edge router of a network to assign a gateway of last resort. How would a network administrator configure the edge router to automatically share this route within RIP?
Use the default-information originate command.
212. What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?
Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.
239. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
VLAN 1
129. A network administrator has entered the following command: ip route 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 serial0/0/1 When the network administrator enters the command show ip route, the route is not in the routing table. What should the administrator do next?
Verify that the serial 0/0/1 interface is active and available.
123. Image. See other side for question then find the answer below asdjfu aosejoajs dojasodf jasf asdf e fasdf aR2(config)#iproute172.16.2.0255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1askjd ajseoirj alkdj foaeijr oa
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
83. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
174. A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?
a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses
252. What is a collapsed core in a network design?
a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers
285. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?
a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
299. Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 Which route would have to go down in order for this static route to appear in the routing table?
a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
133. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?
access
55. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
access
79. A network engineer has created a standard ACL 11 to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?
access-class 11 in
208. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks? 192.168.16.0 192.168.17.0 192.168.18.0 192.168.19.0
access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255
277. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?
allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface
286. Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?
an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF
170. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?
console line
278. Which route would be automatically created when a router interface is activated and configured with an IP address?
directly connected
297. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?
directly connected static route
253. What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?
distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier
234. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?
does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
188. Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?
dynamic allocation
108. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip address dhcp
115. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
290. What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
248. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?
restrict
264. Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?
router
143. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?
router on a stick
300. A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit interface is up?
show ip interface brief
243. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?
when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
204. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?
when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface
60. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?
when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
221. When would a network administrator use the clear access-list counters command?
when troubleshooting an ACL and needing to know how many packets matched
