CIT: 492 Technology Management I @ WKU - On-demand Study Tool
Advantages of PERT include
ability to identify interdependencies and problems between activities.
A specific task, or set of tasks, that is part of the scope of a project, uses up some of the resources of a project, and requires some finite time to be completed best defines
activity.
The actual amount spent in completing the work accomplished within a given time period best defines
actual costs.
Professional characteristics of a project manager include
adaptable to situations.
A requirements management plan includes
all the features required by customers and users.
CMM benefits include allowing software organizations to focus on software process activities. allowing software organizations to strategize how to evolve toward a culture of software engineering and management excellence. providing guidance to organizations on how to gain control of their processes to develop and maintain software. All of these.
allowing software organizations to focus on software process activities. allowing software organizations to strategize how to evolve toward a culture of software engineering and management excellence. providing guidance to organizations on how to gain control of their processes to develop and maintain software. All of these.
Project proposals include each of the following except an implementation plan. a statement of work. perceived benefits by year. high-level schedule requests.
an implementation plan.
Which of the following provides an opportunity for the project manager and the project team to uncover the issues, concerns, and challenges often encountered during the execution of a project? project scope preparation procurement management auditing feasibility study
auditing
A systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence regarding assertions about economic actions and events best defines project scope. auditing. project closedown. communications management.
auditing.
According to Wheelwright and Clark, which of the following project types involve significant changes to existing products, systems, services, and processes?
breakthrough projects
The baseline budgeted cost best defines
budget at completion
Assessing the value and performance of the project and surveying satisfaction are associated with the planning process group and the time management knowledge area. initiating process group and the human resource management knowledge area. controlling process group and the scope management knowledge area. closing process group and the communications management knowledge area.
closing process group and the communications management knowledge area.
The project is finalized during the closure phase. post-implementation phase. design phase. implementation phase.
closure phase.
A formal agreement between two parties, a contractor and a client, wherein the contractor agrees to perform a service and the client is obligated to pay for the service best defines
contract.
Which of the following provides guidance on how to develop, manage, and control costs throughout the project lifespan?
cost management plan
The ratio of earned value to actual cost best defines
cost performance index.
Which of the following compares cost deviations only and does not take schedule into account?
cost variance
Which of the following types of contracts pays the contractor allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on actual total costs?
cost-plus percentage fee contract
Shortening an activity is called
crash.
Which of the following is the longest path of the network, determines the total duration of the project, and is also the shortest amount of time necessary to accomplish the project?
critical path
During an audit, the collection of data is dependent on each of the following except technology employed. project team experience. critical path. project risks.
critical path.
Requirements that satisfy the needs of the customers and the end-users best defines
customer requirements
The Six Sigma DMAIC phase that identifies the problem statement of a project is measure. define. analyze. investigate.
define.
A project audit begins with defining the scope of the audit. conducting interviews with project sponsors. preparing a communication plan. identifying performance measures.
defining the scope of the audit.
Ensuring compliance plans occurs during the planning phase. post-implementation phase. implementation phase. design phase.
design phase.
Basic reasons for creating dependencies of project activities include each of the following except external dependencies. discretionary dependencies. desirable dependencies. mandatory dependencies.
desirable dependencies.
Outputs from the cost management process include each of the following except detailed system specifications. budget updates. lessons learned. revised cost estimates.
detailed system specifications.
Epistemological barriers to learning from post-project reviews include the inability to reflect. difficult to generalize. time constraints. reluctance to blame.
difficult to generalize.
The costs of materials that are entirely linked to the production of the final product defines
direct costs.
Dependencies defined by the project team are
discretionary dependencies.
Auditors should provide positive as well as critical feedback to the project team. communicate any concerns about the project. not discuss the audit results with anyone other than the person who requested the audit. do all of these.
do all of these.
The purpose of the project charter is to define the reasons for undertaking the project. define objectives and constraints of the project. define directions concerning the solution. do all of these.
do all of these.
Which of the following creates requirements from "as-is" process documents?
document analysis
Which of the following compares actual and baseline duration?
duration variance
The total span of active working time that is required to complete an activity best defines
duration.
Which of the following uses "work in progress" to indicate the future of a project?
earned value analysis
The amount of cost budgeted for completed work of a given activity for a given period of time best defines
earned value.
The UP phase concentrating on "high-risk" components of the proposed system in order to minimize the overall risk of the proposed system best defines construction. inception. transition. elaboration.
elaboration.
A project involving renovations due to a fire or other disaster would be classified as
emergency
Project failure is caused by each of the following except cost and duration. enhanced communication. unrealistic goals. customer dissatisfaction.
enhanced communication.
The best estimate of the total cost at the completion of the project best defines
estimate at completion.
The estimate required to complete the project if the project performance continues at this rate best defines
estimate to complete.
Dependencies involving relationships between the project and non-project activities best defines
external dependencies.
Best practices supported by RUP include each of the following except manage requirements. use component-based architectures. develop software iteratively. facilitate a linear approach to software development.
facilitate a linear approach to software development.
A technique to shorten the duration of a project to meet the target dates best describes
fast tracking.
A detailed study in a controlled process to identify potential problems and opportunities best defines project plan. project charter. feasibility study. request for proposal.
feasibility study.
Project costs can be classified as each of the following except as feasible. direct material and labor. fixed. variable.
feasible.
In CCPM, a finite amount of time that can be added to a sequence of activities to non-critical tasks best describes
feeding buffers.
A contract where the contractor agrees to perform the work at a fixed price best defines
fixed-price contract.
Causing a delay to a subsequent activity is called
free float.
Personal characteristics of a project manager include
friendly and optimistic.
Which of the following contains a brief summary and a rationale that help project stakeholders and outsourced contractors understand why the requirement is needed and track the requirement through the progress of the project?
functional requirement
Organizational process assets include each of the following except
future implementation strategies.
Constructing buildings as environmentally friendly and energy efficient as possible by using more recyclable and earth-friendly products best describes red construction. blue construction. green construction. yellow construction.
green construction.
The final output of the analysis SDLC phase describes how various processes will work with the proposed system or software. how the system will interact with other systems. how and what data, information, and knowledge are collected in the organization. All of these.
how various processes will work with the proposed system or software. how the system will interact with other systems. how and what data, information, and knowledge are collected in the organization. All of these.
In which of the following phases are products, services, and systems realized? conceptualization planning design implementation
implementation
Tested product or system, training manuals, and user manuals are outputs of this phase. conceptualization design implementation closure
implementation
Software being coded, contracts tendered and awarded, and construction work being undertaken will generally occur during conceptualization. planning. design. implementation.
implementation.
Stages in the procurement cycle include each of the following except
implementation.
Benefits of process improvements include improvements in project quality. increase in project value. improved efficiency and effectiveness. All of these.
improvements in project quality. increase in project value. improved efficiency and effectiveness. All of these.
Project audits conducted early in the project or during its progress at a predetermined time are in-process audits. post-project audits. periodic audits. pre-closure audits.
in-process audits.
The UP phase focused on specification of use-cases and scope definition of a project is construction. elaboration. inception. transition.
inception.
Any material and labor costs that are necessary to complete a project, but do not become an actual part of the final project defines
indirect costs.
Preparation for project acceptance begins in the initiation and planning stages. design and development stages. implementation and launch stages. post-implementation review stages.
initiation and planning stages.
Which of the following focuses on identifying the factors that influence proposed changes to a project, evaluating these influences, and managing the changes in real time during project implementation?
integrated change control
The extent to which the items or elements upon which work is performed or the work processes themselves are interrelated best defines uncertainty. interdependence. sufficiency. complexity.
interdependence.
Which of the following reviews various points where two or more systems interact with each other?
interface analysis
AHP is based on each of the following principles except synthesis of priorities. decomposition. comparative judgement. iteration.
iteration.
Project audit areas include each of the following except project guidelines and procedures. project implementation results. joint application development guidelines. project budget approvals.
joint application development guidelines.
Purposes for identifying stakeholders include each of the following except knowing the individual to blame if the project fails. improving working conditions. streamlining business and project processes. stabilizing the project when things go in the wrong direction.
knowing the individual to blame if the project fails.
Customer acceptance documents are an output of this phase. conceptualization analysis design/development implementation execution testing launch termination closure
launch termination closure
Barriers to learning from post-project reviews include each of the following except psychological barriers. team-based shortcomings. location barriers. epistemological constraints.
location barriers.
The PMBOK process groups include each of the following except executing. monitoring and controlling. maintaining. closing.
maintaining.
The PMBOK process groups include each of the following except executing. monitoring and controlling. maintaining. closing.
maintaining.
If prototype testing can be started only after the completion of the prototype, then this is an example of a(n)
mandatory dependency.
Major events occurring during a project that do not have duration best describes
milestones.
A graphical method of taking mental notes or ideas in a structured fashion best defines
mind map.
The foundation of successful projects includes each of the following except money. strategy. leadership. management.
money.
A process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress of a project to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan best defines
monitoring and controlling of project.
Which of the following usually occurs when the forward pass extends beyond the customer's requested end date?
negative slack
Documentation resulting from the SDLC launch phase includes operating instructions and user manuals. final design specifications. software requirements. interface design specifications.
operating instructions and user manuals.
A potential benefit given up when one activity is selected over another best defines
opportunity costs.
The shortest time in which an activity can be completed best defines
optimistic time.
A plan, method, or action employed to achieve the goals and objectives, which in turn achieve the mission of an organization toward the realization of its vision best defines
organizational strategy.
Laboratories used for multiple projects, expendable equipment, and depreciation of laboratory capital equipment are examples of
overhead costs.
The amount of time a project will take to recuperate its investments best defines
payback analysis
The longest time that an activity might require best defines
pessimistic time
The budgeted amount of cost for work scheduled to be accomplished on a given activity for a given period of time best defines
planned value.
Which of the following project life span phases helps to identify certain technical problems and issues in a project that may require additional investigation? conceptualization planning design implementation
planning
CMMI Level 5 objectives include establishing a baseline for software engineering process and management. planning continuous process improvement activities and encouraging employees to participate in those activities. keeping software activities consistent with system requirements. reverting back to coding and testing during a crisis.
planning continuous process improvement activities and encouraging employees to participate in those activities.
A communication plan is developed during the design phase. planning phase. conceptualization phase. closure phase.
planning phase.
During this phase, progress and success are measured, project documents are archived, lessons learned are captured, and project activities are formally closed. post-implementation closure conceptualization implementation
post-implementation
Auditing conducted after the termination of a project is referred to as a(n) periodic audit. post-project audit. implementation audit. closure audit.
post-project audit.
A working prototype that is implemented to design and define various functionalities of the project and show customers the friendly software interface and the story line of functionalities involved in the project best describes the SDLC
preliminary design phase.
Each of the following is an important project auditing activity except determining and establishing the standards. preparing a revised scope document. collecting and analyzing data. reporting and reviewing the results.
preparing a revised scope document.
Factors for using Agile methods include prioritization of tasks is done by key stakeholders. works well with true teamwork and collaboration. shortened development cycles. All of these.
prioritization of tasks is done by key stakeholders. works well with true teamwork and collaboration. shortened development cycles. All of these.
A specific ordering of structured activities with defined inputs and outputs best defines process. value chain. function. system.
process.
Which of the following consists of the features and functions that characterize a product, a service, a system, or a structure? project scope product scope business case project deliverable
product scope
A systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence of issues in a project and communication results best defines project audit. project planning. feasibility study. steering review.
project audit.
In CCPM, a definite amount of time that can be added at the end of the project is called
project buffer.
A document that formally recognizes a project and includes a problem statement, project objectives, benefits, process owners, and a project sponsor or a champion best defines
project charter.
The process of closing and ending a project best defines project closure. project implementation. project deployment. project maintenance.
project closure.
The sum of all costs to complete a project best describes feasibility costs. total cost of ownership. project budget. project costs.
project costs.
The cost management plan includes
project funding requirements.
Which of the following addresses whether the project requirements and execution comply with the regulatory and company-specific guidelines? risk management plans project implementation audit business case justification system documentation
project implementation audit
Coordinating all other project management knowledge areas describes project integration management. project communications management. project procurement management. project quality management.
project integration management.
Project documents associated with the scope management knowledge area include
project management plan; project scope baseline, which includes the scope docuyment, WBS, and WBS disctionary; Requirements document; and Requirements traceability matrix. (ch 5 pg 218-219 of ISBN13: 978-0-13-280718-0 or ISBN10: 0-13-280718-1)
The overall quality of a project in terms of its impacts and benefits best defines project feasibility. project range. project performance. project scope.
project performance.
Documents that are formal, approved documents used to guide both project execution and project control best describe
project plans.
An available supply of assets, capabilities, processes, attributes, and knowledge in an organization best defines project resources. project inventory. project repository. project scope.
project resources.
Which of the following is the delivery of a project scope?
project schedule
Which of the following defines a baseline for performance measurement?
project scope
Accepted deliverables are part of the training manual. project scope document. budget estimate. business case justification.
project scope document.
Which stakeholder group provides financial resources for the project?
project sponsors and champions
A unique activity that adds value, expends resources, has beginning and end dates, and has constraints and requirements that include scope, cost, schedule performance, resources and value best defines project. task. activity. job.
project.
Which stakeholders have high influence as well as high interest in the project?
promoters
Which of the following is used to demonstrate the feasibility of the project? blueprint contract proof of concept word-of-mouth
proof of concept
A sample or a model built usually to test a concept, a process, a system, or a product best defines
prototype.
In engineering, a proof-of-concept might be a building. car. software program. prototype.
prototype.
Continuous Improvement Management principles include each of the following except fact-based decision making. employee involvement. rapid engineering. strategic alliance.
rapid engineering.
Meredith and Mantel suggest each of the following is a way for a project to end except reduction. extinction. inclusion. integration.
reduction.
Team-based barriers to learning from post-project reviews include the inability to reflect. difficult to generalize. time constraints. reluctance to blame.
reluctance to blame.
A capability of a system, product, or service to include the quantified and documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders best defines task. requirement. process. activity.
requirement.
Which of the following establishes the requirements, requirement types, requirement attributes, and traceability of a project in order to manage project requirements?
requirements management plan
A table captured to map all the requirements of all stakeholders in order to track them until the project is complete best defines
requirements traceability matrix.
Creating a smoother distribution of resource usage is the purpose of
resource leveling.
The planning out of the resources used to execute the project best defines
resource planning.
A method to flatten the schedule when resources are over-allocated with a general idea to prevent team members from becoming over extended best describes
resource-leveling heuristic.
Which of the following summarizes the tasks to be accomplished and delineates who is responsible for the project?
responsibility matrix
Factors that can be used to evaluate scorecards include each of the following except
results.
Disadvantages of the iterative SDLC include each of the following except revisiting and revising prior phases is not easy to accomplish. high-level design has to predict all integrations well in advance. needs great effort to manage all integrations. project teams should be able to estimate well enough to plan all integrations.
revisiting and revising prior phases is not easy to accomplish.
A document that determines the basic criteria for developing and maintaining the actual project schedule is the
schedule management plan
The ratio of earned value to planned value best defines
schedule performance index.
Which of the following compares schedule deviations only and does not take cost into account?
schedule variance
A plan to implement a project using an ordered sequence of activities with time allotted for each activity best defines
scheduling.
A part of the project management plan that is the baseline of the scope of a project and includes the project scope document, WBS, and WBS dictionary best defines
scope baseline.
Which of the following documents how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified and communicated to stakeholders?
scope management plan
Which stakeholders have high influence but have some or no interest in the project?
shapers
The amount of time that an activity in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent activities or project completion best defines
slack
A potential for growth in capability that indicates both the richness of an organization's software process and the consistency with which it is applied in projects throughout the organization best defines system maturity. organizational maturity. software process maturity. business process maturity.
software process maturity.
A document that specifies a project's requirement in a complete, precise, verifiable manner and includes the procedures for determining whether the requirement is satisfied best defines
specifications.
A methodology used in incorporating the requirements of those who have an interest in a project best defines
stakeholder analysis.
Individuals or organizations who are affected by a project best defines
stakeholders.
Which of the following describes the work to be done in detail and will be used in the project charter in the future and in all project documents?
statement of work
Project documents associated with the integration management knowledge area include
statement of work.
Projects that are essential to support the long-range mission are categorized as
strategic
Incurred costs that cannot be changed by any decision and that cannot be recovered best defines
sunk costs.
The conceptual phase of any system or just the software facet of a system best describes the SDLC preliminary design phase. analysis phase. systems investigation phase. launch phase.
systems investigation phase.
Quantifiable costs related to an identifiable resource or asset best defines
tangible costs.
The expense that has been agreed upon by a contractor and a client best defines
target cost.
When working with project management software, factors that drive the calculation of time include each of the following except resource assignments and types. task dependencies. task iterations. project calendars.
task iterations.
Which of the following means the project is completed fully? termination by reduction termination by extinction termination by inclusion termination by integration
termination by extinction (1. Termination by extinction - the project may have been stopped either because it is successful or unsuccessful, completed or not completed. 2. Termination by addition - the project has indeed terminated but its success has led to its addition to the organizational structure. 3. Termination by integration - the project team is reintegrated within the organization's existing structure following the conclusion of the project. 4. Termination by starvation - slowly decreasing the budget of the project until it becomes not viable. Ergo, knowing the four reasons for terminating the project could be possibly because it is terminated by extinction or the project is successfully completed.)
Which of the following means the completed project has been transferred to a new place of operation? termination by assumption termination by extinction termination by inclusion termination by integration
termination by inclusion
Which of the following means the project's resources, personnel, and functions are absorbed into the original organization? termination by reduction termination by extinction termination by inclusion termination by integration
termination by integration
Psychological barriers to learning from post-project reviews include the inability to reflect. difficult to generalize. time constraints. reluctance to blame.
the inability to reflect.
The schedule management plan includes
the schedule monitoring and control process.
Managerial barriers to learning from post-project reviews include the inability to reflect. difficult to generalize. time constraints. reluctance to blame.
time constraints.
Causing a delay to the whole project is called
total float.
The UP phase where the proposed, implemented system is deployed to end users best describes the construction phase. transition phase. inception phase. elaboration phase.
transition phase.
The variability in the process of transformation of inputs to outputs or in the inputs themselves best defines specificity. complexity. uncertainty. interdependence.
uncertainty.
A process model used to develop object-oriented software best defines unified process. XML. CMMI. AM.
unified process.
Each of the following is an objective of the CMMI Level 2 except identify and control requirements, specifications, and test plans. document and control all changes in software projects. use a reactionary approach to projects. keep software activities consistent with system requirements.
use a reactionary approach to projects.
A technique used in software projects to document the potential requirements of a new system or software by conveying how the system should interact with the end user or another system to achieve a specific business goal graphically best defines
use case analysis.
Factors affecting project progress include each of the following except cost of each phase. value chain assessment during each phase. resource allocation in each phase. amount of materials utilized in each phase.
value chain assessment during each phase.
Costs that vary in direct proportion to changes in the level of project activities best defines
variable costs.
Which of the following illustrates whether and how much the project will be over budget or under budget at completion?
variance at completion
Deviation from an original plan best defines
variance.
A big picture of the company consisting of a sentence or short paragraph that provides a broad, aspiring image of the future of the organization best defines
vision.
Which of the following provides a unified approach to initiate all activities of a project and the necessary information for work to begin?
work authorization system
Small project activities possibly with very short durations with definable results best defines
work packages.
Which of the following is an estimate made without detailed knowledge of a project?
AHE
Benefits provided by the WBS to the project include schedules and status reporting can be accomplished. objectives can be linked to company resources. costs and budget can be established. All of these.
All of these.
Six Sigma's problem solving methodology is called DMAIC. RAPID. ENGAGE. REVIVE.
DMAIC
A project does not have to be closed.
F
Proper planning can guarantee project success.
F
Which of the following is the return or discount rate that makes NPV = 0?
IRR
Which of the following WBS levels is used for project authority?
Level 1
A project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project best defines
PERT.
Projects relying on mature technologies for all industries to have equal access are classified as Type A projects. Type B projects. Type C projects. Type D projects.
Type A projects.
Projects requiring development of new technologies, providing great competitive advantage are classified as Type A projects. Type B projects. Type C projects. Type D projects.
Type D projects.
A graphical language for visualizing, specifying, constructing, and documenting object-oriented software best defines CASE. UML. JAD. RAD.
UML.
The end result of a method that decomposes a project into small manageable activities best defines
WBS
According to Wheelwright and Clark, which of the following project types breeds future commercial products, new systems, and novel services?
basic research projects
The maximum price the client expects to pay a contractor regardless of cost overruns in a project best defines
celling price / ceiling price
Deming, Juran, and other scholars found the common denominator in any quality system is
change
Which of the following refers to a project management process where changes to a project are formally introduced and approved?
change management
A project audit is conducted during the post-implementation phase. design phase. conceptualization phase. closure phase.
closure phase.
Project scope management involves
collecting requirements.
An investigation of available resources is undertaken during the planning phase. design phase. conceptualization phase. implementation phase.
conceptualization phase.
An idea or thought that refers to the reflection of a targeted business function or process and how the various facets of the process or function relate to each other best defines commitment. pre-feasibility study. conceptualization. closure.
conceptualization.
A set of approval stages that are required to change the attribute of a configuration item best describes
configuration change control.
Which of the following focuses on establishing and maintaining the consistency of the performance of a system or product?
configuration management
The process of managing change in hardware, software, documentation, and measurements best defines
configuration management.
The UP phase where components of the system are developed and tested is construction. transition. inception. elaboration.
construction
Which of the following includes activities performed more quickly than they normally would be performed?
crashed program
The spiral model of software process involves determination of objectives, alternatives, and constraints. evaluation of alternatives, risk identification, and risk resolution. planning and development of the next level of the project. All of these.
determination of objectives, alternatives, and constraints. evaluation of alternatives, risk identification, and risk resolution. planning and development of the next level of the project. All of these.
Delayed projects that are shelved for a period of time and then re-initiated again after a while describes premature projects. looping projects. endless projects. failed projects.
endless projects.
CMMI Level 4 objectives include manage measurable metrics and software goals. plan organization-level process development and improvement activities. establish a baseline for software engineering process and management. constantly changing the software process as the project progresses.
manage measurable metrics and software goals.
Which of Six Sigma's DMAIC phases focuses on the measurement of internal process that affect factors that are critical to quality? analyze define measure improve
measure
Project documents associated with the time management knowledge area include
milestone list.
The completion time having the highest probability best defines
most likely time
Costs that are primarily indirect costs associated with project implementation best defines
overhead costs.
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For an activity, assume the early start is 3 weeks, early finish is 6 weeks, late start is 4 weeks, and late finish is 7 weeks. What is the activity's slack?
1 week
Assuming a discount rate of 8 percent, what is the present value of $800,000 three years from now?
635,065.79
According to a study cited in the textbook, inadequate management practices are associated with project failure. What is the percentage? 45% 65% 25% 5%
65%
For an activity, assume the early start is 12, early finish is 27, late start is 19, and late finish is 34. What is the activity's slack?
7
Saaty's multiple criteria decision-making technique that allows subjective as well as objective factors to be considered during the decision-making process is
AHP.
Which of the following PMBOK knowledge areas are included in an audit? risk management procurement management quality management All of these are included.
All of these are included.
When creating a WBS, you should keep in mind that a good understanding of the project is needed. a good scope document must be developed. good requirements documentation with good input from all stakeholders is needed. All of these are needed.
All of these are needed.
A project life span is a progression through a series of differing stages of project development. the total of the phases through which a project passes from the time it is initially conceived until the time it is either in use as a success or abandoned as a failure. often used to explain changes in project strategic decision priorities, changes in project strategic outlook, and their effect on organizational structure and perceptions of organizational effectiveness criteria. All of these.
All of these.
A resource schedule specifies resources required to complete the project. timeframes for the consumption of each resource. quantity of each resource required per week. All of these.
All of these.
Attributes of a project manager include possessing good people skills. knowing how to solve disputes. having a great attitude and enthusiasm. All of these.
All of these.
Barriers to learning from post-project reviews include psychological barriers. team-based shortcomings. epistemological constraints. All of these.
All of these.
Benefits of networking project activities include an estimate of time and cost at any point of a project. the interdependence of the activities of a project. a graphical representation of work to be performed. All of these.
All of these.
Disadvantages of accelerating the duration of a project include customer satisfaction may suffer. sometimes adding manpower late to a software project makes it later. scheduling overtime may cause problems with direct and intangible costs. All of these.
All of these.
Factors and constraints affecting either the success or failure of projects include completion of the project to maximize project value for stakeholders. completion of the project within established performance and technology standards. completion of the project within allocated resources. All of these.
All of these.
Factors in the failure of projects include overly optimistic project planning. poor cost management. poor project management. All of these.
All of these.
Factors signaling early project closure include incomplete requirements. lack of user involvement. lack of resources. All of these.
All of these.
Information that may be collected and analyzed for an audit includes customer satisfaction. project priority to company strategy. management support. All of these.
All of these.
Models for project selection and prioritization include scorecard analysis. decision tree analysis. net present value. All of these.
All of these.
Negative slack can occur due to unavailability of resources. resources were either incorrect or did not do their job right. some activities slipped during project execution. All of these.
All of these.
Obstacles to projects include changed requirements. misunderstood project objectives. outsourced problems. All of these.
All of these.
PDM is useful because it provides the start and end times of all activities. expected project completion time. the probability of completion at any given period during the project. All of these.
All of these.
PMBOK knowledge areas include project quality management. project communication management. project procurement management. All of these.
All of these.
Project audits are conducted by project managers. outside contractors. the project management office. All of these.
All of these.
Project management plans include project organizational structure. project charter. project closure reports. All of these.
All of these.
Project selection criteria include strategic goals of the organization. market need. technological advancement. All of these.
All of these.
Resource planning steps include level the resources. construct a resource schedule. quantify the required resources. All of these.
All of these.
Resources include people. facilities. equipment. All of these.
All of these.
Stakeholder analysis includes stakeholder characteristics. level of interest of the stakeholders in the specific project. ability to affect the project policies through power and/or leadership. All of these.
All of these.
Stakeholders include customers and users. project team. upper management. All of these.
All of these.
Steps involved in generating a mind map include continuing until no more risks can be identified. begin by drawing a circle that represents a risk category. for each major risk, identify smaller risks that are part of that risk. All of these.
All of these.
The change management plan includes actual change reports. procedures to evaluate and authorize change requests. any reporting formats. All of these.
All of these.
The structure of the WBS should consider and reflect project scope. quality and other performance criteria. reporting and other communication methods. All of these.
All of these.
When constructing the PDM, an activity can have predecessors with no successors. successors with no predecessors. both predecessors and successors. All of these.
All of these.
When selecting contractors or suppliers, information gathering documents include RFIs. RFQs. RFPs. All of these.
All of these.
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's cost management knowledge area? Do value-related processes exist? Do scope-related processes exist? Do schedule-related processes exist? Are budget variances part of the project budget review?
Are budget variances part of the project budget review?
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's communication management knowledge area? Are quality metrics developed, measured, and monitored? Are minutes of meetings stored and distributed? Is the project team being recognized and rewarded? Does the project plan consist of a contingency plan?
Are minutes of meetings stored and distributed?
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's quality management knowledge area? Are quality metrics developed, measured, and monitored? Are minutes of meetings stored and distributed? Is the project team being recognized and rewarded? Does the project plan consist of a contingency plan?
Are quality metrics developed, measured, and monitored?
A model for software implementation used to identify the software process maturity level of organizations best defines CMM. PDM. SPM. SAP.
CMM.
ing was developed by Du Pont de Nemours & Co. and Remington Rand Cor
CPM
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's scope management knowledge area? Do value-related processes exist? Do scope-related processes exist? Do schedule-related processes exist? Are budget variances part of the project budget review?
Do scope-related processes exist?
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's integration management knowledge area? Do value-related processes exist? Do scope-related processes exist? Do schedule-related processes exist? Are budget variances part of the project budget review?
Do value-related processes exist?
A clear statement of project needs is an output associated with the planning phase.
F
A disadvantage of the traditional SDLC is that it does not work well with global and virtual teams.
F
A discovery audit is a controlled process for identifying potential problems and opportunities.
F
A functional requirement is a detailed description of technology suitable for the actual design, development, and production processes of a project.
F
A project service request is a document that shows project details and the project team with stakeholders' approval and customer authorization to work on a project.
F
According to some researchers mentioned in the textbook, CIM leads organizations to be innovators and not followers.
F
An organization should consider projects only if the NPV is negative.
F
At a minimum, a milestone will have a duration of at least one day.
F
At the CMMI Level 4, an organization typically does not provide a stable environment for developing and maintaining software.
F
At the CMMI Level 5, software processes are defined by individuals in an organization.
F
Baseline management focuses on identifying, evaluating, documenting, and managing changes.
F
Capacity measures how early or late an activity can start or finish.
F
Causing a delay to the whole project is called free float.
F
Complexity refers to the extent to which the items or elements upon which work is performed or the work processes themselves are interrelated.
F
Conceptualization is a process used to set the goals of a project, develop strategies to support an organization's strategic goals, and outline tasks and schedules to accomplish the project goals.
F
Contraction rate is the duration at which the project can be compressed with available resources.
F
Decisions made at the beginning stage of a project life cycle have less influence than those made at later stages.
F
Delivery is one of the PMBOK process groups.
F
Designation is one of the five stages of the procurement cycle.
F
During the post-implementation phase, a project is brought to its proper completion.
F
Earned value is the budgeted amount of cost for work scheduled to be accomplished on a given activity for a given period of time.
F
For each project audit, the participation of the business project sponsor is desirable, but not necessary.
F
Free float is an early warning and an indicator that corrective measures to scheduling have to be taken.
F
Generally speaking, the IRR should be lower than the hurdle rate.
F
If cost variance is positive, it means that performing the activity cost more than the planned or budgeted cost.
F
If proof-of-concept testing is successful and the customer accepts the proof-of-concept project, the project proceeds toward project close down.
F
In order to keep the whole project on schedule, the CCPM method requires project personnel to be strict with their start times.
F
Interdependence refers to the number of products or operations that are performed at the same time and the resulting degree of difficulty.
F
It is not necessary to identify the stakeholders before a project is planned.
F
Location is one of the four barriers to learning from post-project reviews.
F
Losses of productivity and customer goodwill are examples of tangible costs.
F
Management plan updates are inputs to project control.
F
NPV is the result of cash flow divided by the cost of the project.
F
Office supplies, telephone, and utilities are examples of direct costs.
F
Organizations usually prepare feasibility studies as the first means of starting a project.
F
PERT is inexpensive to maintain and primarily used for small to medium sized projects.
F
Phase point analysis is a project management technique in which a project's phases are separated by gates; at each gate, the continuation of the process is decided by the project manager or the steering committee.
F
Planned value, actual cost, and break-even analysis are three variables used extensively in organizations to calculate variances.
F
Post Project Implementation Reviews are conducted at the end of the first five of the six project management phases.
F
Posterior probability is the probability that an event will reflect established beliefs about the event before the arrival of new evidence or information.
F
Primary advantages of PERT are that it is flexible and easy to use.
F
Project costs do not contribute to the profit of an organization.
F
Project success and project management success are the same.
F
Projects are straightforward and not restrained by technological complexity, organizational complexity, and management complexity.
F
Restricted development means that project activities are packaged to fit time boxes.
F
Risk management plans are an output associated with the analysis phase.
F
Schedule variance is planned value minus earned value.
F
Scope constraint refers to the amount of time available to complete a project.
F
Seven Sigma is oriented toward the solution of problems at the root level and the prevention of their recurrence.
F
Stage Project Implementation Review is conducted at the end of the project after project closure.
F
Stakeholder analysis does not include the ability to help mitigate the project risks.
F
Technology employed in projects should not determine project team member selection.
F
Termination by fulfillment means the project is completed fully.
F
Termination by referral means that the completed project has been transferred to a new place of operation.
F
The CMMI Level 3 uses an organization-wide software process database to collect and analyze data available from a project's defined software processes.
F
The configuration management plan documents how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified, and communicated to stakeholders.
F
The construction of a new data center would be categorized as an emergency project.
F
The cost resource variance is the schedule variance due to the difference between budgeted and actual units of resource.
F
The extreme programming model is very suitable for large projects.
F
The feasibility study captures a view of what has gone well and what needs to be improved in order to successfully complete a project.
F
The post-implementation review should be performed by an internal audit team working in consultation with the business users and the project team.
F
The purpose of the process improvement plan is to provide guidance on how to develop, manage, and control the schedule over the project's lifespan.
F
The quality improvement plan includes any improvement methods that were learned from past projects.
F
The scope baseline is the end result of a method that decomposes a project into small manageable activities.
F
The sharing ratio is the negotiated fee in a contract assuming the target cost is met.
F
The spiral model uses a linear approach for project definition and implementation.
F
The standard deviation of the critical path is computed by summing the standard deviations of the activities.
F
The traditional SDLC's popularity is because of its flexibility.
F
With cost-plus percentage fee contracts, all the risks are on the contractor.
F
Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's human resources management knowledge area? Are quality metrics developed, measured, and monitored? Are minutes of meetings stored and distributed? Is the project team being recognized and rewarded? Does the project plan consist of a contingency plan?
Is the project team being recognized and rewarded?
A process used in prototyping to collect requirements while developing new information systems for a company best defines
JAD
A structured group meeting of stakeholders to gather requirements by actively involving the stakeholders to replace individual interviews best defines
JRP.
A software company where software process is ad hoc and occasionally even chaotic is at the CMMI Level 0. Level 1. Level 3. Level 5.
Level 1.
At which CMMI level are software processes documented, standardized, and integrated into a standard "to-be" practiced process for an organization? Level 7 Level 0 Level 1 Level 3
Level 3
Which of the following WBS levels is used for scheduling?
Level 3
When classified according to complexity, a public transportation system project would be classified as a Level 2. Level 3. Level 1. Level 4.
Level 3.
Which of the following WBS levels describes work packages?
Level 4
Popular project management software packages include each of the following except Primavera. Zoho. FastTrack. Microsoft Access.
Microsoft Access.
Which of the following was chosen by Coca-Cola Bottling Co. Consolidated to improve their project cost estimations and use their resources effectively?
Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution
Which of the following is used to help project managers plan, schedule, monitor, and control their projects?
PDM
Which of the following is used in project planning because it helps a project manager to identify interdependencies and problems between various activities?
PERT
Which of the following demands extensive hardware, is used by larger organizations, and may not be ideal for managers working with smaller projects?
Primavera
Methods employed in estimating costs include each of the following except
ROI.
Which of the following provides a rough estimate of what a project costs before the actual project has started?
ROME
Which of the following provides the efficiency of the utilization of the resources allocated to the project?
RUE
Which of the following is integrated with the organization's finance and human resources databases?
SAP PS
A process improvement approach that is used to find and eliminate errors and defects, reduce cycle times, reduce cost, improve productivity, and meet customer expectations best defines Join Application Design. Rapid Application Development. Object Oriented Analysis and Design. Six Sigma.
Six Sigma.
A negative cost variance indicates the project is over budget.
T
A postmortem analysis should include a comprehensive analysis of the technical objectives, budget, resources, project termination, and implications due to the technology and project management.
T
A requirement is a condition needed by a user to achieve a project goal.
T
A use case is a technique used in software projects to document the potential requirements of a new system or software.
T
Acceptance testing should provide an independent appraisal on the completeness and quality of the project.
T
Accomplishing schedules and status reporting is one of several WBS benefits.
T
According to some researchers, CIM may hinder creativity due to enforcement of standards, and cause organizations to be narrow-minded, to be totally focused only on serving customers, and to focus too much on cost efficiency.
T
All stakeholders need to agree upon the requirements before the start of the project.
T
An indirect cost rate is the percentage of a project's indirect costs to its direct costs and is a standardized method of charging individual projects for their share of indirect costs.
T
Asking the customer to verify that every deliverable in the project plan has been completed according to the project requirements and scope is a common activity for a project closure checklist.
T
At the CMMI Level 5, common causes of defects are discovered, identified, prioritized, and eliminated.
T
Based on research cited in the textbook, 31 percent of software projects were cancelled before completion and cost an average of 189 percent of their original estimates in more than half the projects.
T
Before any successor activity can be initiated in PDM, all the activities that precede that activity have to be completed.
T
CPI is the most important tracking metric in EVA.
T
Continuous Improvement Management is a methodology that involves all employees of an organization in a systematic, structured process to implement continuous improvement in quality in projects.
T
Cost is one of the major factors in a project's success.
T
Duration is defined as the total span of active working time that is required to complete an activity.
T
Each activity can be crashed at least once.
T
Environment is a supporting RUP workflow.
T
Estimating is the process of determining the cost of a project.
T
Every aspect of a project has a technical dimension and a human dimension.
T
Fixed-price contracts are preferred by both clients and contractors when the scope of the project is clear and well defined.
T
Higher stability of deliverables is one of the reasons why agile methods are used.
T
If schedule variance is negative, it means it took longer to perform the activity than planned.
T
In PDM, an activity can have predecessors with no successors.
T
In PDM, an activity can have successors with no predecessors.
T
In a decision tree, an alternative's expected value is calculated by multiplying each possible payoff of the alternative by its probability and summing the results.
T
In the last stage of an audit, an audit report is prepared and reviewed with the project team and the project office.
T
PDM uses time as a common factor to analyze other project success factors like scope, resources, cost, performance, and value.
T
Payback occurs when net costs equal net benefits accumulated over the project years.
T
Planning helps project managers to clarify and focus a project's development and prospects.
T
Project Evaluation and Review Technique is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project.
T
Project acceptance is an important part of project implementation and success.
T
Project management and engineering and services of projects are the two main streams of project activities.
T
Project requirements can be gathered through brainstorming, focus groups, and facilitated workshops.
T
Project time includes all the required processes to manage and complete the project in a timely fashion.
T
Project value refers to the overall worth of a project.
T
Projects escalate beyond control either by using extra resources or by failing to deliver value.
T
Quality functional deployment, Kano model, and affinity diagrams are tools used during the design phase.
T
RUI is an index that indicates how the resources on the project should be utilized for the remainder of the project.
T
Requirements gathering is perhaps the most complex and critical process of any project success.
T
Resource leveling extends the project time and aims to minimize the period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances.
T
Six Sigma asserts that continuous efforts to reduce process variation are important to overall performance and customer satisfaction in a project.
T
Stringent performance measures can lead to increased time, increased scope, and increased cost.
T
Target profit is the negotiated profit in a contract assuming the target cost is met.
T
The CCPM method modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources.
T
The Capability Maturity Model for software implementation is used by many organizations to identify best practices that are useful in increasing the maturity of their processes.
T
The ability to plan projects effectively is an attribute of a project manager.
T
The communications management plan defines the communications requirements for a project throughout its lifespan.
T
The competition faced by an organization has a strong influence on ongoing projects.
T
The discipline of project management is about providing tools and techniques to enable a project team to organize its work and meet the project success factors.
T
The earliest finish time is the total of the earliest start time and the activity duration.
T
The higher the ROI, the better for the organization.
T
The more the authority and the responsibility are shared between the functional and project managers, the better the chances of project success.
T
The most important benefit of a project charter is that it authorizes a project and ensures that necessary resources and management commitments are provided to achieve success.
T
The overall success factor of a project is the realized value of the project that can be measured by the project stakeholders.
T
The primary purpose of a project audit is to find reasons for problems and issues in the project and answer questions posed by the customer, sponsor, executives, or other stakeholders.
T
The project management process helps individuals and organizations map a clear strategy to complete a project successfully.
T
The risk management plan defines how risks associated with the project will be identified, analyzed, and managed.
T
The selection and prioritization process of organizational projects has to align with the goals and strategy of the organization.
T
The success of future projects depends not only on past successful projects, but also on how unsuccessful projects were treated by an organization and its stakeholders.
T
The total path standard deviation can be calculated as the square root of the sum of variances of the critical path.
T
The total project duration is the sum of all critical tasks.
T
User manuals are an output associated with the implementation phase.
T
When developed, the DVD player was considered a Type C Level 1 project.
T
When making a forward pass through a network, the earliest start time of a successor activity is the earliest finish date of a predecessor.
T
When using a lifespan-based structure, the highest-level entries in the WBS correspond to the major phases of the lifespan.
T
With the spiral model, activities are managed concurrently and more people are working on the project so the complexity of projects increases.
T
X12 standards serve as a common business language allowing all EDI trading partners to communicate electronically with one another.
T
Which of the following is a free, web-based project software package?
Zoho
Outputs of the WBS process include
a baseline of scope.
The configuration management plan includes
a description of audit process.