Clinical Evaluation and Diagnosis

Which 2 structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? A. Anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum B. The inferior capsule of the shoulder and glenoid fossa C. The articular surface of the humeral head and glenoid labrum D. The surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament E. The acromioclavicular joint and glenoid fossa

A) A Bankart lesion is an injury to the anterior capsule of the shoulder with an associated tear of the glenoid labrum

Which of the following tests is appropriate to perform if the athletic trainer suspects the patient has meningitis? A. Brudzinski-Kernig test B. Milgram's test C. Beevor's test D. Halstead's maneuver E. Bowstring test

A) A Brundzinski-Kernig test is performed if meningitis is suspected. As the patient lies in supine, the neck is passively flexed and the patient is asked to perform a straight leg raise on the tested side to end range or point of pain. Then the patient is asked to flex the knee to 90 degrees while maintaining the hip in flexion on the tested side. The opposite extremity stays in extension on the table. A positive finding is spine pain or lower extremity symptoms that increase with neck and hip flexion and are relieved with knee flexion. A positive test is indicative of nerve root impingement or meningeal/dural irritation

A _____ is a device used to measure joint range of motion. A. Goniometer B. Dynamometer C. Caliper D. Flexometer E. Sphygmomanometer

A) A goniometer is the instrument most commonly used for measuring joint range of motion in the clinical setting. A goniometer may come in a variety of shapes and sizes and may be made of metal or plastic

All of the following are possible factors regarding why a patient might be injury prone except: A. Bad luck B. Problems at home C. Joint hypermobility D. Prone endurance E. Poor coordination

A) A patient might be prone to injury for a number of reasons, some of which are physical and some of which are psychological. Physical factors include poor strength and endurance, inflexibility or hypermobility, and poor coordination. Emotional factors include depression, family or school problems, or anxiety

If a palpable "clunk" or shift at approximately 20 to 30 degrees of knee flexion is found during a pivot-shift test, this may be indicative of what? A. Anterolateral rotary instability of the knee B. Anteromedial rotary instability of the knee C. Posterolateral rotary instability of the knee D. Posteromedial rotary instability of the knee E. Posterior instability of the knee

A) A positive finding, such as palpable clunk or shift with 20 to 30 degrees of knee flexion, is indicative of an anterolateral instability of the knee, secondary to a torn anterior cruciate ligament or torn posterolateral capsule of the knee

If the calcaneofibular ligament of the ankle is torn, which of the following would be positive? A. Talar tilt test B. Anterior drawer sign C. Distraction test D. Clunk test E. Hawkins-Kennedy test

A) A positive talar tilt test is indicative of a torn calcaneofibular ligament. The patient is asked to lie on his or her uninvolved side with the invovled foot and ankle over the edge of the table and the knee flexed to 90 degrees. The athletic trainer's proximal hand stabilizes the tibia as the distal hand grasps the talus. As the ankle is initially placed in neutral, the examiner then tilts the talus into an adducted position. If the range of motion in the adducted position of the invovled ankle is greater than the uninvovled, the findings are considered positive.

What evaluating the inert structures of a joint, passive range of motion is used to determine all of the following except: A. The patient's willingness to move B. Limitations of joint motion C. Joint stability D. Muscle elastcity E. Soft tissue elasticity

A) Active range of motion is used to determine the patient's willingness to move

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after sustaining a hard kick to the abdominal area. Which of the following symptoms is not a sign of a significant abdominal injury? A. Slow, deep respirations B. Increased hear rate, decreased blood pressure C. Ashen-colored skin D. Rapid, shallow respirations E. Rebound tenderness

A) Altered vital signs, such as rapid pulse; decreased blood pressure: ashen skin color: rapid, shallow respirations: and rebound tenderness are all signs of shock, indicating a significant internal injury

At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an jury begin? A. At the moment the injury is witnessed B. Once the patient has been stabilized in the athletic training facility C. Once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor D. After the patient is seen by the team doctor E. B and D

A) An athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury should begin the moment the injury is witnessed or upon initial contact with the patient or another individual who might have witnessed the injury

What is the sensation that a patient might experience just prior to an epileptic seizure called? A. an aura B. A hallucination C. A delusion D. Pre-epileptic vertigo E. A premonition

A) An aura is a sensation that occurs just prior to a seizure. It may last for a few seconds and appears as a smell, sound, or specific feeling. It acts as a warning to the patient and generally takes the same form every time it occurs

A patient has been diagnosed with bulimia and has a known history of laxative abuse. Complications of chronic laxative use include which of the following? A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration B. Hyperactivity C. Hematemesis D. Chronic nasal congestion E. All of the following

A) Because of the constant purging, the patient is vulnerable to an electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Hypokalemia (potassium deficiency) may result from chronic vomiting or laxative/diuretic abuse, causing muscle fatigue, weakness, kidney damage or an arrhythmia

All of the following are symptoms of caffeine withdrawl except: A. Diaphoresis B. Fatigue C. Headache D. Irritability E. Runny nose

A) Caffeine withdrawl may cause fatigue, headache, irritability, restlessness, anxiety, yawning, and a runny nose

What happens when a patient consumes a simple sugar prior to an event? A.May cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production B. May lead to a sudden increase in blood glucose because of a decrease in insulin production C. May lead to increased blood levels of electrolytes D. May lead to hyperlipidemia E. May cause a sudden increase in bilirubin levels

A) Consuming a simple sugar prior to an event will stimulate the pancreas to produce a high level of insulin, which in turn will cause a sudden reduction in blood glucose

Which of the following diseases is the most commonly inherited disorder among which americans? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Down syndrome D. Sickle-cell anemia E. Hemophilia

A) Cystic fibrosis is the most commonly inherited disorder among white Americans. It is a genetic disorder that affects the exocrine glands and is most prevalent in the respiratory and digestive system

After a severe head injury, an individual may posture as follows: extension of the lower limbs and flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers. This condition is known as what? A. Decortication B. Decerbration C. Decellebration D. Dystonia E. Dyskinesia

A) Decortication may occur after a severe head injury and presents as extension of the lower limbs with flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers

Results of severe fluid restriction during weight loss attempts by a wrestler may include which of the following? A. Higher resting heart rate B. Increased renal flow C. Increased stroke volume D. Higher O2 consumption E. Lower resting heart rate

A) Dehydration causes a decrease in blood volume, which results in lowered cardiac filling pressure and stroke volume. The heart rate increases to compensate for these adverse effect

_____ and _____ are 2 signs of diabetic coma. A. Drowsiness, acetone-smelling breath B. Seizures, pale/clammy skin C. Seizures, a bounding pulse D. Flushed skin, giddiness E. Pale skin, weak pulse

A) Diabetic coma, which results from severely elevated blood sugar levels, results in the patient feeling drowsy and having acetone-smelling or fruity breath. The skin may be flushed and dry, the respirations deep, and the thirst intense. This is caused by inadequate insulin intake (ie. insulin-dependent patient). Although diabetic coma rarely occurs in an active patient, it can result from a mismanaged insulin schedule, severe infection, or poor diet

Changes in blood pressure may occur as a result of many factors. Two of these factors may include ____ and _____. A. exercise, change in posture B. Change in posture, respiratory rate C. Level of consciousness, body size D. Respiratory rate, pH levels of the blood E. Change in mood, respiratory rate

A) Exercise may cause a temporary increase in blood pressure, while a change in posture may raise or lower the pressure

Which of the following conditions is also known as Grave's disease? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Hirsutism D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Polymyositis

A) Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder that is also known as hyperthroidism. Some of the signs and symptoms of this disease include, but are not limited to, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations, gastrointestinal irregularities, significant weight loss, anxiety, retracted eyelids, and exophthalmos (bulging of the eyes)

All of the following movement occur in the sagittal plane except: A. Hip abduction B. Shoulder flexion C. Knee extension D. Hip flexion E. Elbow flexion

A) Hop abduction occurs in the frontal plane

A patient reports to the athletic trainer with the presence of lesions on his upper lip and mouth area that look like blisters with a crusted yellow appearance and a red, weeping base. What is the probable cause of these lesions? A. Impetigo B. HIV C. Shingles D. A fungal infection E. Hives

A) Impetigo is a skin infection caused by staphylococcal bacteria. It is prevalent in wrestlers because of their close contact with other athletes. The bacteria can be carried under the nails and in the nose, infecting open skin wounds or abrasions. The lesion look similar to herpes simplex lesions- a superficial ulcer with a yellow crust. The skin around the lesion appears normal. Treatment consists of local cleansing with soap and water and oral antibiotics

Mumps is a contagious viral disease that is primarily manifested by: A. Parotitis B. Splenomegaly C. Retinopathy D. Maculopapular rash E. Pancreatitis

A) Mumps is a contagious viral disease that is manifested by enlarged parotid glands (parotitis)

An athlete sustains a neck injury during an ice hockey game and is complaining of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of his forearm and fourth and fifth fingers. Which of the following roentgenograms would be most appropriate in detecting nerve root compression? A. Electromyography or nerve root conduction velocity test B. CT scan or MRI C. Myelography D. Sonography E. Plain film radiograph

A) Nerve root compression is most appropriately evaluated by electromyography or by a nerve conduction velocity test

Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of which of the following? A. Capitellum B. Tibial tubercle C. Olecranon D. First ray of the foot E. Talus

A) Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of the capitellum of the elbow, which develops as a result of chronic repetitive trauma, congenital/hereditary factors, or endorcine disturbances. It is typically seen in children 5 to 10 years of age or in a throwing athlete. It must be distinguished from osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow, which also affects the capitellum and may result in intra-articular loose bodies. Panner's disease heals spontaneously with little or no deformity

What is one of the greatest concerns and primary life threatening effect of rhabdomyolysis? A. Renal failure B. Heart failure C. High blood glucose levels D. Heart arrhythmias E. Blunt trauma to the abdomen

A) Rhabdomyolysis is a fatal disease caused by renal failure. It is associated with the sickle-cell trait and intense levels of exercise

A patient sustains a blunt trauma injury to the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? A. Liver B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Kidney

A) The liver is located in the upper right quadrant and may be injured with blunt trauma to that area of the abdomen

The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arem B. Shoulder shrugs C. Abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. Extension, internal roation, and adduction of the upper arm E. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm

A) The medial and lateral pectoral nerves innervate the pectoralis major muscle, which flexes, adducts, and internally rotates the upper arm

Which of the following are common complications of hepatitis C? A. Cirrhosis and liver cancer B. Bile duct constricture and gastroesophageal reflux disease C. cirrhosis and colon cancer D. Ascietes and pancreatic cancer E. Gastritis

A) The most common complications of hepatitis C are cirrhosis of the liver and liver cancer

How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested? A. Resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg B. Resistance to knee extension and hip adduction C. Resistance to knee flexion and external rotation of the lower leg D. Resistance to knee extension and internal rotation E. Resistance to knee flexion and ankle inversion

A) The pes anserinus (sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus) flexes the knee and will weakly internally rotate the tibia

The _____ pulse and _____ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate. A. Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis B. Anterior tibial, plantar C. Saphenous, dorsalis pedis D. Femoral, posterior tibial E. Femoral, popliteal

A) The posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses should always be palpated after an acute knee injury to ensure the peripheral circulation of the involved limb is intact

What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? A. Have the patient walk on his or her toes B. Manually resist ankle inversion C. Manually resist great toe extension D. Assess the patient's ability to squat E. Resisted ankle eversion

A) The sacroiliac nerve root innervates the posterior tibialis, plantaris, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis muscles, which act to plantar flex the ankle and foot

The athletic trainer asks a patient to shrug his shoulders after a neck and shoulder injury. He has difficulty performing this movement, even though it is not painful. What nerve is injured? A. Spinal accessory B. Dorsal scapular C. Long thoracic D. Suprascapular E. Thoracoscapular

A) The spinal accessory nerve innervates the upper trapezius muscle. If it is injured, the patient will not be able to perform a shoulder shrug

To test the function of the rhomboid major muscle, the athletic trainer should ask the patient to perform what movement? A. Scapular retraction B. Shoulder internal rotation C. Scapular protraction D. Shoulder shrug E. Shoulder external rotation

A) To test the function of the rhomboid major, the athletic trainer should ask the patient to retract his or her scapula

What position is the "recommended" position for manually muscle testing the gluteus medius muscle? A. Side-lying, with the affected limb on top B. Supine C. Prone D. Sitting E. Standing

A) To test the glutues medius in an antigravity position against resistance, the patient must be side-lying with the affected limb on top

What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. sitting B. Prone C. Supine D. Side-lying E. Standing

A) To test the strength of the piriformis, the patient should be sitting. The lower leg is resisted as the patient attempts to externally rotate the hip

What type for force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee? A. A valgus force with the tibia in external rotation B. A varus force with the knee in full extension C. A valgus force with the femur in external rotation D. A valgus force with the knee in recurvatum E. A vlagus force with the knee in full flexion

A) When the tibia is stabilized in an externally rotated position and strong valgus force is applied, the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament are vulnerable to injury

Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament? A. sag sign B. Anterior drawer sign C. McMurray's sign D. Ober's sign E. Lachman's sign

A) A sag sign is positive for a torn posteior cruciate ligament when the tibial plateau sage posteriorly as the patient is lying supine and the knee is flexed to 45 degrees, causing a sulcus just inferior to the inferior border of the patella of the effected leg

Sickle-cell anemia may cause rhabdomyolysis in the athlete. Which of the following is a cardinal sign of rhabdomyolsis? A. Bleeding from the ear B. The presence of myoglobin in the urine C. Yellowing of the nailbed of the fingers and toes D.Yellowing of the conjuctiva of the eyes E. Dyspnea

B) A cardinal sign of rhobdomyolysis is the presence of myoglobin in the urine

Which of the following is an example of a papule? A. A freckle B. A wart C. A hive D. A friction blister E. A fungus

B) A papule may be described as a solid, well-defined pink/red elevated area on the skin. A wart is an infection of the skin caused by the papillomavirus. The lesions are raised flesh-colored or pink papules with a rough surface that tend to grow inward into the foot, causing pain while walking

If a patient whom a athletic trainer is working with has a history of asthma, what daily test should he or she use to monitor the patient's condition? A. Metered-dose inhaler B. Peak flow meter C. Ventilator D. Breatholizer E.Volume spirometer

B) A peak flow meter is used to measure forced expiratory volume. A decreased forced expiratory volume is an indication of exercised-induced bronchospasm

Two major symptoms of a spontaneous pneumothorax include _____ and ______. A. Bradycardia, cyanosis B. Sudden chest pain, dyspnea C. Apnea with rales, rhonchi D. Left shoulder pain, cyanosis E. Diaphoresis, bradycardia

B) A pneimothorax occurs when there is the presence of air within the chest cavity in the pleural space but outside the lung. In an intact chest, a pneumothorax can occur if a fractured rib has lacerated a lung or spontaneously if the patient has a congenitally weakened area on the surface of the lung, which may rupture without antecedent trauma. Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing as the lung collapes are major signs of spontaneous pneumothorax

What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? A. Posterior shoulder subluxation B. Torn rotator cuff muscle C. Axillary nerve injury D. A labral tear E. Humeral head fracture

B) A positive drop-arm is indicative of rotator cuff pathology. The patient is asked to stand as the athletic trainer passively abducts the patient's arm to 90 degrees and then instructs the patient to slowly lower his or her arm to the side. If the patient has significant pain with the movement or is unable to control the adduction of the arm during testing, the sign is positive

A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate> A. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. A crush injury to the epiphysis C. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. The epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from eachother E. The metaphysis is separated with fragmentation

B) A type 5 Salter-Haris epiphyseal fracture is a crush injury to the epiphysis

Allen's test used to test what? A. The integrity of the vertebral arteries B. The integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand C. For carpal tunnel syndrome D. For tarsal tunnel nerve entrapment E. Integrity of the ulnar nerve

B) Allen's test is used to test the integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand. It is performed by first having the patient pump his or her hand by repetitively making a fist. The patient then maintains the fist while the examiner compresses the radial artery with his or her thumb and the ulnar artery with his or her finger. As the patient relaxes his or her hand, the radial artery is released, followed by the ulnar artery, If there is a delay in flushing of the radial or ulnar sides of the hand or fingers, there may be an occlusion of the radial or ulnar artery, respectively

Which of the following structures is affected in an individual who has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (also known as Lou Gehrig disease)? A. Epidermis B. Motor neuron C. Axon D. Neuromusclar junction E. Prefrontal cortex of the brain

B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a peripheral nerve disease that primarily affects the motor neuron of a motor unit. It most commonly occurs during middle age and has an unknown etiology. This disease is manifested by a gradual weakness of the distal extremities and is progressive, ultimately affecting the ability to speak and swallow. It is a terminal disease in which 50% of the patients live for only 3 years after initial onset

What is the average range of motion of elbow flexion A. 0 to 90 degrees B. 0 to 135 degrees C. 0 to 115 degrees D. 0 to 100 derees E. 0 to 180 degrees

B) Average range of motion for elbow flexion is 0 to 135 degrees

An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game and sustains a blow to the jaw with a hockey stick. He is holding his lower face with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there is a fracture of the jaw except. A. Have the athlete bite and observe for a malocclusion B. Palpate the jaw for hematoma C. Ask the athlete to open and close his mouth, noting asymmetry with movement D. Palpate for jaw deformity when it is a rest, open, and closed E. See if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficult with movement

B) Determined if there is a fracture of the jaw, it is appropriate for the athletic trainer to have the patient bite down and observe for any malocclusion, ask the patient to open and close his mouth and observe for movement asymmetry, and palpate the aw for any deformities.

EIA stand for what clinical entity? A. Exercise-induced arrhythmia B. Exercise-induced asthma C. Exercise-induced allergy D. Exercise-induced aneurysm E. Exercise-induced angina

B) EIA stands for exercise-induced asthma

Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? A. Adductor magnus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gracilis D. Tensor fasciae latae E. Gluteus minimus

B) The gluteus maximus externally rotates the hip

A patient comes to the athletic training facility after being kicked in the lower leg by an opponent during a football game. He is complaining of decreased sensation in the L4 dermatome. What is this change in sensation called? A. Paresthesia B. Hypoesthesia C. Hyperesthesia D. Referred pain E. Anesthesia

B) Hypoestesia is dulled sensation to touch

What is the proper position to manually muscle test the anterior deltoid? A. Shoulder in full internal rotation with the palm facing the floor, the force directed downward B. Shoulder at 90 degrees of abduction, full external rotation, and supination with the force directed downward C. Resistance to the first 30 degrees of abduction D. Arm at 90 degrees of flexion, palm facing downward, and the force is in the downward direction E. Shoulder at 45 degrees of abduction

B) In order to expose the anterior deltoid to resistance in an antigravity position, the shoulder must be in 90 degrees abduction and in full external rotation. The forearm must be in full supination

Which of the symptoms below are seen with acute mountain sickness? 1. Insomnia 2. Vomiting 3. Shortness of breath with exertion 4. Headache 5. Fatigue A. 2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,4,5 D. 1,2,3,5 E. 2,3,4

B) Insomnia, shortness of breath with exertion, headache, fatigue, tachycardia, bradycardia, confusion, and edema are all symptoms of acute mountain sickness

Which of the following cervical nerve roots represent the sensory dermatomes of the hand? 1. C5 2. C6 3. C7 4. C8 5. T1 A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 3,4,5 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,3,5

B) Nerve roots C6, C7, and C8 represent the sensory dermatomes of the hand (from radial to thumb sides, respectively)

A tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of the pain? A. Hip flexor rupture B. Groin strain C. Medial hamstring strain D. Popliteal strain E. Patellar tendon rupture

B) Pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion with diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis of the medial thigh is indicative of a strain of the groin area

a patient has a wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supinate his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in the anatomical position)? A. Frontal B. Horizontal C. Sagittal D. Vertical E. A and C

B) Pronation and supination of the forearm take place in the horizontal plane

"Spearing" in football is a dangerous technique. Football coaches have discontinued this practice when teaching tackling techniques because it may cause severe head and neck injuries. What is the resulting force on the cervical spine when a football player spears an opponent? A. Sudden neck extension B. Sudden neck hyperflexion with rotation C. Sudden neck lateral flexion D. Sudden neck rotation E. Sudden vertebral axial distraction

B) Spearing occurs when a football player uses the top of his head as a ram, making contact with an opponent. The force is transmitted axially through the cervical spine, causing injury. Most cervical spine injuries result from forced hyperflexion, often with a combined rotation movement

Which of the following muscles abducts the little finger of the hand? A. Interossei B. Abductor digiti minimi C. Lumbricals D. Abductor digitorum brevis E. Adductor digiti minimi

B) The abductor digiti minimi abducts the fifth finger.

The maximal rate at which oxygen is consumed and utilized while exercising is know as the maximal oxygen consumption, or VO2 max. What is the normal range of VO2 max for an average college athlete? A. 80 to 100 mL/kg/min B. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min C. 70 to 80 mL/kg/min D. 45 to 60 dL/g/min E. 25 to 40 mL/kg/min

B) The average range of VO2 max for average college patient is 45 to 60 mL/kg/min

What is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle? A. Sitting, resisting knee extension B. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation C. Sitting, resisting hip flexion D. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation E. Sitting, resisting elbow flexion

B) The biceps femoris is tested with the patient lying in a prone position. Knee flexion is then resisted with the tibia in full external rotation

An athlete sustained a blow to the head with a temporary loss of consciousness. He appears to have a lucid period in which he seems to be normal for a period of a couple of hours and then becomes significantly lethargic. What type of medial emergency would be athletic trainer suspect? A. Ruptured interverebral disc at level C3,4 B. Extraduarl hemorrhage C. Basilar fracture D. Subdural hemorrhage E. Contrecoup fracture

B) The cardinal symptom of an extradural hemorhage include a lucid interval usually lasting for a few minutes up to a couple of hours, followed by a period of lethargy, which may precede a seizure and coma. This is a true medical emergency, and the patient must receive treatment immediately in order to survive

The contact phase of the running gait is divided into which components? A. Forward swing and foot strike B. Foot strike, midsupport, and take-off C. Follow-through, forward swing, and foot decent D. Midsupport, take-off, and foot descent E. Foot strike, follow-through, and foot descent

B) The contact phase of the running gait consists of foot strike, midsupport, ad take-off. The swing phase includes the follow-through, forward swing, and foot decent. One foot is in contact with the ground during the contact phase, and the leg and foot freely move through the air during the swing phase

Which of the following diagnostic tests is considered the "gold standard" for detecting signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A. CT scan B. Echocardiogram C. Genetic testing D. Electrocardiogram E. Cardiac stress test

B) The diagnostic tool that is considered the "gold standard" for detecting hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is echocardiography

Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the athletic trainer detects some weakness of the invertors and evertors of a patient's ankle. Which of th efollowing muscle sdoes not invert the ankle? A. Tibialis posterior B. Extensor digitorum longus C. Flexor digitorum longus D. Flexor hallucis longus E. C and D

B) The extensor digitorum longus extends the toes

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following actions? A. Great toe flexion B. Thumb flexion C. Thumb flexion and adduction D. Thumb flexion and abduction E. None of the above

B) The flexor pollicis longus originates on the radius, adjacent interosseous membrane, and coronoid process of the ulna and inserts on the distal phalanx of the thumb. Its primary action is flexion of the thumb.

If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? A. Tennis elbow test B. Golfer's elbow test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test E. Allen's test

B) The golfer's elbow test is used to identify inflammation in the area of the medial epicondyle. The patient is asked to flex both the elbow and wrist with the forearm fully supinated. The patient is then asked to fully extend the elbow. If the patient complains of pain over the medial epicondyle during testing, the findings are considered positive

What is the incubation period for HIV and human papillomavirus? A. 4 to 7 days B. 1 to 6 months C. 2 to 14 days D. 1 to 13 weeks E. 1 to 6 weeks

B) The incubation period for HIV and human papillomavirus is 1 to 6 months

During your examination of a patient who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machines in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. What nerve is affected? A. Trigeminal B. Thoracodorsal C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracic spinal E. None of the above

B) The latissimus dorsi muscle is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve

Which of the carpal bones is the most commonly dislocated? A. Scaphoid B. Lunate C. Cuboid D. Hamate E. Triquetral

B) The lunate is the most frequently dislocated carpal bone, which occurs from a fall on an outstretched hand. This in turn opens the space between the proximal and distal carpal bones, and the lunate dislocates to the palmar side of the wrist

What is wrong with an athlete eating a 12 to 16 ounce steal, baked potato, scrambled eggs, and coffee with sugar 4 hours prior to an event? A. Coffee with sugar may take as long as 3 hours to metabolize B. The intestinal tract will be full at the time of competition because it is a large meal C. The athlete may be hungry 8 hours later after he or she competes D. Nothing; the pre-event meal should be at least 500 calories or more E. Nothing; the athlete should eat whatever makes him or her feel comfortable

B) The meal is high in fat and protein and will take a long time to pass through the digestive tract

The patellar tendon reflex correlates to what spinal level? A. L1 B. L2-4 C. L5 D. L5-S1 E. S1

B) The patellar tendon reflex correlates to the L2-4 spinal level

Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? A. Elbow flexion B. Wrist extension C. Forearm supination D. Thumb-to little finger opposition E. Shoulder flexion

B) The radial nerve innervates the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, and extensor digitorum of the wrist, which when acting together, extend the wrist

Foot pronation results in ___ of the tibia during midsupport in the running gait. A. External rotation B. Internal rotation C. Abduction D. Adduction E. Retroversion

B) The tibia internally rotates during midsupport, following pronation of the subtalar joint

A patient comes to your office complaining of intense itching and burning pain between his toes, and he cannot find anything to help alleviate the symptoms. The area is reddened with some white flakes. What might you recommend? A. Neosporin ointment B. Tinactin spray C. Silvadene cream D. Eucerin cream E. Hydrocortisone

B) Tinactin is an antifungal medication that is supplied as an aerosol powder, cream, powder, or solution and is indicated for treatment of tinea pedis (patient's foot) or tinea cruris (Jock itch)

A wrestler comes into the athletic training facility after sustaining a major elbow injury. There is intense pain, and the area is grossly swollen. The athlete is unable to straighten his elbow, and the forearm appears shortened. The athletic trainer suspects an acute dislocation. Which 2 area would the athletic trainer check for possible vascular impairment? A. Ulnar and radial pulses B. Radial pulse and color of the nailbeds after compression C. Brachial and radial pulses D. Arterial and venous circulation E. Axilla and anticubital fossa

B) To check the vascular integrity of the hand after an acute elbow dislocation, it is important to assess the presence and quality of the radial pulse and check for good capillary refill of the nailbeds of the fingers

What position should the patient's shoulder be in to manually muscle test the deltoids? A. Abducted to 0 degrees and externally rotated to 45 degrees B. Abducted to 90 degrees C. Flexed with the palm down D. Extended with the palm up E. Extended with the palm down

B) To test the deltoids, the patient's shoulder should be positioned to 90 degrees

Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual? A. Obese, geriatric B. Lean, insulin dependent C. Noninsulin dependent, obese D. Noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. None of the above

B) Type 1 diabetes is also known as juvenile-onset diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes, and it usually as its onset prior to age 25. It is not usually associated with obesity

Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? A. Dimetapp B. Ultram C. Benadryl D. Claritin E. Allegra

B) Ultram is a centrally acting analgesic drug used to control moderate to severe pain

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is characterized by which of the following? A. A depressed QT interval B. a short PR interval and prolonged QRS complex C. A long PR interval and shortened QRS complex D. An elevated QT interval E. Very later depolarization of the heart

B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is characterized by ventricular tachycardia and is a result of a short PR interval, a prolonged QRS complex, and early depolarization of the heart

You are covering a football game when 2 players collide. You notice that one player grabs his neck and shakes his arm. When you examine him, he complains of lateral neck discomfort and a feeling of "numbness" or "burning" down his arm. His arm is hanging limp by his side. In a few minutes, the symptoms subside. What do you suspect? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. A "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome D. Dorsal scapular nerve injury E. Thoracic outlet syndrome

C) A "burner" is a nerve injury commonly caused when the head is forced to one side while the opposite shoulder is depressed. It usually affects the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. A pinched nerve syndrome may also be caused by a nerve root entrapment, subluxed cervical facet, a bulging intervertebral disc, or a combination of lesions (nerve root entrapment and traction injury).

What is the usual mechanism of injury for a Colles' fracture? A. A fall on a closed fist B. A fall on a elbow C. A fall on an outstretched arm and hand D. A twisting movement of the knee when the lower leg is planted E. Direct trauma to the forearm

C) A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the distal radius and tip of the lunate. This usually occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched arm and hand

One of your female gymnasts has been complaining of feeling generally fatigued on a constant basis. After being examined by the team physician, he orders a complete blood count. This blood test assesses all of the following except: A. Red blood cell count B. White blood cell count C. Plasma volume D. Hemoglobin levels E. Platelet count

C) A complete blood count is a test that assesses the red and white blood cell count, hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and platelet count

With the patient sitting, the scapula stabilized, and the shoulder maximally flexed. The patient complains of pain and appears apprehensive. This is a positive _____ test. A. Yergason's B. Speed's C. Neer's D. Compression E. Hawkins-Kennedy

C) A positive Neer's test is indicative of shoulder impingement of the supraspinatus tendon or the tendon of the long head of the biceps

Speed's test an evaluative test for which of the following problems? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Supraspinatus tendinitis C. Bicipital tendinitis D. Ruptured biceps tendon E. Rupture of the brachialis muscle

C) A positive Speed's test may suggest biciptial tendinitis. The patient is asked to stand or sit with the invovled shoulder flexed to 90 degrees and the elbow fully extended with the forearm supinated. The athletic trainer should have his or her distal hand on the volar aspect of the forearm and the proximal hand palpating the bicipital groove. As the athletic trainer resists shoulder flexion, it should be noted if there is tenderness or pain over the biceps tendon

During a return to play progression for a concussion, what is the typical time frame between stages? A. 12 hours B. 1 hour C. At least 24 hours D. 1 month E. None of the above

C) According to the NATA position statement on Management of Sport Concussion, there should be a minimum of 24 hours between return to play progression stages following a concussion

The athletic trainer notices one of the baseball players routinely cleans his cleats after every game and practice so no dirt is visible and checks his equipment bag multiple times to assure himself his "lucky towel" is with him. This is an example of what type of behavior? A. Schizophrenic B. Anxiety C. Obsessive-compulsive D. Passive-aggressive E. A and B

C) An obsessive-compulsive patient may perform ritualistic behaviors, such as cleaning his equipment after each game, and repeat specific behaviors obsessively, such as hand washing numerous times after touching a dirty uniform or money

Which of the following signs is test for when a deep vein thombosis is suspected after a traumatic incident occurs involving the lower leg? A. Babinski's sign B. Thompson's sign C. Homan's sign D. Battle's sign E. Ballotment sign

C) The Homan's sign is used to screen for suspected deep vein thrombosis. It is performed by passively dorsiflexing the ankle, stretching the gastrocnemius. The sign is positive if this maneuver causes leg pain

A basketball player reports to the athletic training facility complaining of a "burning" pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following special test might be positive? A. Lachman's test B. Patellar apprehension test C. Ober's test D. Sag sign E. Faber's test

C) Burning pain with tenderness to palpation over the lateral epicondyle of the femur is associated with iliotibial band syndrome. If the iliotibial band is too tight, it will rub over this area during running, causing localized inflammation. Ober's test is appropriate for a tight iliotibial band

"Cauliflower ear" is an injury to which structure of th ear? A. Tympanic membrane B. External auditory canal C. Pinna D. Eustachian tube E. Internal auditory canal

C) Cauliflower ear is an injury to the pinna of the ear caused by continuous friction or direct trauma to the auricle, which results in bleeding into the soft tissue of the ear. If it characterized by localized perichondrial swelling, discomfort, and deformity of the outer ear

During the inflammatory response, leukocytes are drawn to the site of injury by chemical mediators. This process is known as which of the following? A. Margination B. Coaxing C. Chemotaxis D. Emigration E. Integration

C) Chemotaxis is the process by which leucocytes are drawn to the site of injury by chemical mediators during an inflammatory reaction

A patient you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial droop on the left side of his face. What cranial nerve is involved? A. 1 B. 4,5 C. 7 D. 3,9 E. 2,6

C) Cranial nerve 7 is the facial nerve. It supplies both sensation and motor control to the facial muscles

How is cranial nerve 8 tested? A. Having the patient identify an odor B. Using a Snellen chart C. Crumpling paper near the ear D. Resisting a shoulder shrug E. Having the patient stick out his or her tonque

C) Cranial nerve 8, the vestibulocochlear nerve, controls hearing and can be tested by crumpling paper or rubbing fingers together near the ear

After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is this substance called? A. Prostaglandins B. Substance P C. Endorphins D. Insulin E. Histamines

C) Endorphins are polypeptides that are produced in the brain and produce analgesia by binding to the opiate receptor sites of pain perception in the body

A patient reports having had a recent upper respiratory infections 2 weeks ago and is now having rapidly evolving bilateral muscle weakness of unknown origin. He is afebrile. What should the athletic trainer suspect? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Autonomic dysreflexia C. Guillian-Barre syndrome D. Acute myelogenous lymphoma E. Lyme disease

C) Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute autoimmune syndrome manifesting as a rapid, diffuse, demyelinating disorder of the spinal roots and peripheral nerves. More than 50% of those individuals affected have a history of a viral respiratory or gastrointestinal infection from 1 to 3 weeks prior to the onset of neurological symptoms

What may proteinuria indicate? A. Pancreatitis B. Possible gallstones C. Renal or urinary tract pathology D. Diabetes E. Crohn's disease

C) If a patient has increased protein in the urine (most commonly diagnosed by urinalysis during a pre-participation medical exam), it may indicate renal or urinary tract pathology

During your evaluation of a patient's shoulder, you notice his left scapula is "winging". What does this indicate? A. Rhomboid weakness B. Deltoid weakness C. Serratus anterior weakness D. Upper trapezius weakness E. Long thoracic nerve entrapment

C) If there is an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior muscle, the scapula cannot be protracted, and it will result in winging, which is a prominence of the vertebral border of the scapula

Tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexertion is indicative of which syndrome? A. Chondromalcia B. Pes anserinus bursitis C. Periostitis D. Nerve compression syndrome E. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

C) Periostitis, myositis, tendinitis, or a combination of conditions may cause tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature of the patient's lower leg. They may be classified as anterior of postmedial "shin splints" depending on which group of structures are involved

A patient has just been diagnosed with plantar fascitis. All of the following would be appropriate measures to provide support/relief to the affected area except: A. An orthotic for arch support B. Low dye taping C. Metatarsal pad D. A heel cup E. Stretching program

C) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the plantar fascia of the foot. It has a variety of possible causes but is commonly due to one or all of the following: pronated feet: poor footwear, leading to decreased shock absorption: and/or tight plantar fascia, Achilles, and hamstrings. A metatarsal pad would only be indicated if the patient also had a diagnosis of metatarsalgia (ie. inflammation in the area of the metatarsal heads)

What is an excessive lateral curvature of the vertebral column called? A. Kyphosis B. Spondylolysis C. Scoliosis D. Lordosis E. Ankylosing spondylolysis

C) Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine with rotation of the vertebrae around its long axis. The ribs may become prominent on the convex side of the curve (rib hump) as the vertebral bodies rotate toward the convex side and the spinous processes rotate toward the concave side of the curve

All of the following are true about infectious mononucleosis except? A. the attacker ate is highest between 15 to 25 year olds B. The virus is excreted in saliva C. The primary symptom is low back pain D. It is caused by transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus E. It causes splenomegaly in over half of all cases

C) Symptoms of mononucleosis include tender lymph nodes, fever, sore throat, and a stiff neck. Low back pain is not a characteristic symptom of this illness

A patient informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a nonabsorbable complex (and therefore should to be taken before meals)

C) Tetracycline should be taken 2 to 3 hours after meals to avoid the possibility of the drug binding to either iron or calcium

What is the primary target of the AIDS virus in the body? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. T-helper lymphocytes D. Phagocytes E. Red blood cells

C) The AIDS virus attacks the T-helper lymphocytes of the body's immune system, leaving the individual vulnerable to infection

What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed? A. Hip flexor weakness B. Plantar flexion weakness C. Knee extension weakness D. Dorsiflexion weakness E. Drop foot

C) The L4 nerve root innervates the rectus femoris muscle and the vastus medialis, intermedius, and lateralis muscles, all of which extend the knee

What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact? A. Have the patient flex his or her hip while standing B. Have the patient walk on his or her toes C. Have the patient extend his or her great toe D. Have the patient extend his or her hip E. Have the patient flex his or her knee

C) The L5 nerve root innervates the extensor hallucis longus muscle

Which dermatome correlated to the T7 nerve root? A. Axilla B. Nipple line C. Xyphiod process, costal margin D. Umbilicus E. Anterior superior iliac spine

C) The T7 nerve root correlates to the dermatome at the level of the xyphoid process and costal margins

Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? A. Brachialis B. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Flexor pollicis longus E. Shoulder external rotation

C) The biceps brachii muscle originates on the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula (long head) and the apex of the coracoid process (short head). It inserts into the tuberosity of the radius. It functions to supinate the forearm, flex the elbow, and flex the shoulder

The biceps brachii tendon reflex correlates to what spinal level? A. C2 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 E. C7

C) The biceps tendon reflex correlates to the C5 spinal level

What is the typical mechanism of injury for an anterior should dislocation? A. Should abduction with internal rotation B. Maximal shoulder extension C. Shoulder abduction with external rotation D. Shoulder adduction with internal rotation E. Shoulder flexion with internal rotation

C) The classical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation is forceful shoulder abduction with external rotation

Which nerves innervate the hip adductor musculature? A. Femoral, superior gluteal B. Femoral, tibial C. Femoral, obturator D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal E. Tibial, obturator

C) The femoral nerve innervates the pectineus muscle, and the obturator innervates the adductor longus, magnus, brevis, and gracilis

Which of the following structures is not part of the pelvis? A. Coccyx B. Pubic symphysis C. Ileum D. Innominate bones E. Sacrum

C) The ileum is part of the lower small intestine

A patient is poked in the eye with a finger and comes to the athletic trainer for evaluation. The patient is having significant difficulty opening his eye. Which of the following muscles might have sustained an injury? A. Levator capitis inferioris B. Splenius capitis C. Levator palpebrae superioris D. Levator palpebrae orbitis E. Scalenes

C) The levator palpebrae superioris muscle elevates the eyelid

What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? A. musculocutaneous B. Radial C. Median D. Ulnar E. cubital

C) The median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel at the wrist

A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count. A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000/cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/cu mm E. 250 to 500 cu mm

C) The normal leukocyte (white blood cell) count is between 4000 and 10,000 cu mm

What type of gait deviation might the athletic trainer see with a patient who has sustained an ankle injury and has decreased range of motion in dorsiflexion

C) The patient will hike the hip to allow his or her foot to clear the floor during the swing phase of gait

All of the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: A. Valsalva's maneuver B. Bilateral straight leg test C. Scouring test D. Laseque's test E. Slump test

C) The scouring test s used to test for hip joint pathologies, such as arthritis, osteochondral defects, avascular necrosis, and acetabular defects

The supinator muscle innervate by which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Median nerve E. A and D

C) The supinator muscle of the forearm is innervates by the radial nerve

Which of these muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve? 1. Gastrocnemius 2. Flexor hallucis longus 3. Extensor hallucis longus 4. Tibialis anterior 5. Biceps femoris A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,5 C. 1,2,5 D. 1,3,4,5 E. 1,2,3

C) The tibial nerve innervates the gastrocnemius, flexor hallucis longus, and biceps femoris musculature.

In what position should the patient be to manually muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainer's force be directed during testing?

C) To test the hip flexor musculature, the patient should be sitting. The athletic trainer then applies a force down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh as the patient resists the movement

Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of what structures? A. hip flexors B. Peroneal muscles C. Hip abductors D. Erector spinae E. Abdominals

C) Trendelenburg's test is used to test for gluteus medius weakness of the hip. Patient is asked to stand on one leg for approximately 10 sec and then switch to the other leg. If the pelvis on the unsupported side drops noticeably lower than the pelvis on the supported side, it is a positive finding (weakness of the gluteus medius on the supported side)

Which of the following medications is not an NSAID? A. Aspirin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Celebrex E. Aleve

C) Tylenol (acetaminophen) has analgesic and anti-pyretic properties but is not an anti-inflammatory drug

A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training facility with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion. There is a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer requests the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of a taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong? A. Biceps femoris rupture B. Femoral nerve injury C. Ruptured rectur femoris muscle D. Obturator nerve injury E. Iliopsoas rupture

C) With a rupture of the rectus femoris muscle, a large bulge is seen in the upper thigh, and there is pain along the entire muscle belly. Extension is limited because of the inability to contract the rest of the quadriceps musculature

Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus

C) the quadratus lumborum originates on the iliac crest, the lumbar vertebrae, and lumbodorsal fascia and inserts onto the 12th rib and the transverse processes of upper lumbar vertebrae. If functions to laterally flex the trunk

A positive clunk test is indicative of what pathology? A. Unstable ankle B. Olecranon fracture C. Meniscus tear of the knee D. Glenoid labrum tear E. Anterior cruciate ligament tear

D) A positive clunk test is indicative of a possible glenoid labrum tear. The patient is asked to lie supine. The athletic trainer places his or her proximal hand on the posterior aspect of the involved shoulder and the other hand distally on the humerus. As the athletic trainer passively abducts and externally rotates the subject's arm overhead, an anterior force is applied to the humerus as he or she circumducts the humeral head in the glenoid fossa. A clunking or grinding sensation is a positive finding

A second-degree burn will have which of the following characteristics? A. A raised, reddened appearance B. A white, mottled appearance C. A blackened, hard appearance D. A reddened area with blisters E. Blanched, shiny appearance

D) A second-degree burn is also known as a partial-thickness burn and appears as a bright red area with blisters

All of the following are signs of an injury except: A. Change in skin color or texture B. Change in body temperature C. Change in blood pressure D. Complaint of headaches E. Change in respiratory rate

D) A sign is an objective entity, one that can be measured, felt, seen ,smelled, or heard. A symptom, such as dizziness, is subjective in nature. Symptoms can only be experienced by the individual who is affected by the ailment or injury

When a patient reports to the athletic trainer complaining of lateral hip pain, all of the following conditions might be the source of pain except: A. Trochanteric bursitis B. Strain of the gluteus medius C. Lumbar discogenic disease D. Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity E. Strain of the tensor fasciae latae

D) An avulsion of the ischial tuberosity will cause local acute pain deep in the proximal thigh/distal buttock area

Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. AIDS B. Genital Herpes C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Candida E. Gonorrhea

D) Candida is a yeast infection that causes vaginitis

How is cranial nerve 11 tested? A. Having the patient identify as odor B. Using a Snellen chart C. Having the patient smile D. Resisting a shoulder shrug E. Checking pupil reaction to light

D) Cranial nerve 11, the spinal accessory nerve, is tested by resisting a shoulder shrug

All of the following are controlled by the cranial nerves except: A. Vision B. Smell C. Tongue movement D. Cervical flexion E. Hearing

D) Cranial nerve 2 is the optic nerve (vision), cranial nerve 1 is the olfactory nerve (smell), cranial nerve 12 (hypoglossal) is the nerve responsible for movement of the tongue, and cranial nerve 8 is responsible for hearing

How is cranial nerve 9 tested? A. Having the patient identify an odor B. Using a Snellen chart C. Having the patient stick out his or her tongue D. Having the patient swallow E. By touching the patient's cheek lightly with a finger

D) Cranial nerve 9, the glossopharyngeal nerve, controls the ability to swallow. Tracheal deviation or complaints of dysphagia are abnormal

Which of the following conditions often contributes to shoulder impingement? A. Acute bicipital tendinitis B. Suprascapular nerve entrapment C. Adhesive capsulitis D. Glenohumeral instability E. Serratus anterior weakness

D) Glenohumeral instability allows increased movement of the humeral head within the glenoid fossa, which is turn may lead to microscopic damage to the tissues that lie beneath the coracoacromial arch. Resultant edema and microhemorrhage cause a reduction in the joint space and impingement, most commonly of the supraspinatus tendon

During a track meet, you notice one of the runners appears somewhat disoriented. During your assessment of this athlete, you find he is complaining of being lightheaded, his skin is cool and clammy, he is sweating profusely, and his radial pulse is rapid. You take a rectal temperature and find it is mildly elevated (102 F). You suspect the athlete is suffering from which of the following problem? A. Heat cramps B. Prickly heat C. Heat stroke D. Heat exhaustion E. Hematuria

D) Heat exhaustion is characterized by profuse sweating, cool and clammy skin, rapid pulse, a mildly elevated rectal temperature (approximately 102F), and hyperventilation

You evaluate a basketball player who has sustained a finger injury while attempting to catch a ball. During you examination, you observe that the athlete is unable to extend the distal phalanx and the tip of his finger is positioned in approximately 30 degrees of flexion. You determine the athlete has a mallet finger. This injury is caused by which of the following? A. Tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus B. A subungual hematoma C. A sprain of the extensor pollicis brevis D. An avulsion of the extensor tendon form its insertion E. Duputren's contracture

D) Mallet finger is caused by a blow to the tip of the finger by a thrown ball, which jams the finger and results in an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion

Mast cells release which of the following chemicals to initiate the inflammatory response? A. Bradykinins B. Antigens C. Lysosomes D. Histamine E. Antibodies

D) Mast cells are specialized cells that are found in connective tissue throughout the body. They release histamine, which is one of the chemicals that initiate the inflammatory process

All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except: A. Sensation B. The pulse distal to the injury C. Motor function D. Joint range of motion E. Atrophic changes

D) Measuring the amount of a motion available at a joint will provide the athletic trainer with no significant information regarding the neurovascular status of the injured limb

A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following except: A. Pain along the medial joint line B. No gross knee instability, but mild ligamentous laxity is noted in full know extension during valgus stress testing C. Difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee D. Immediate, severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint E. A and B

D) Most often a "pop" is associated with an anterior cruciate ligament injury and less frequently with a subluxed patella

Asking the patient to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down tests the integrity of which cranial nerve? A. 2 B. 5 C. 1 D. 3 E. 8

D) Movement of the eyes are controlled by the oculomotor nerve Cranial nerve 3

All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: A. Early menopause B. High consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Obesity E. Lack of folic acid in the diet

D) Osteoporosis rarely occurs in an obese individual. Obesity is not considered a risk factor for the disease

Body fat percentage should not go below _____ in females because the internal organs lose a protective layer of fat. A. 20% B. 25% C. 17% D. 12% E. 8%

D) Percent body fat in females should not go below 12 % because the internal organs lose a protective layer of adipose tissue

Submaximal exercise tests, which evaluate physical working capacity by measuring heart rate increases with exercise, include all of the following except: A. Progressive pulse rate test B. Harvard step test C. Cooper 12-min run-walk test D. The Saltin-Astrand VO2 debt test E. None of the above

D) Progressive pulse rate test, the Harvard step test, and the Cooper 12-min run-walk test are all classifies as submaximal stress tests

A baseball player comes to see the athletic trainer and is complaining of diffuse pain, clicking, and a sensation of "slipping" of his right shoulder when throwing. What pathology might the athletic trainer suspect with this type of presentation? A. Torn rotator cuff B. Thower's exostosis C. Acromioclavicular joint pathology D. Labral pathology E. Bicipital tendinitis

D) Recurrent anterior subluxation of the shoulder most frequently occurs with repetitive throwing motions, primarily during the cocking and flow-through phases. With constant repetition, the anterior capsule and labrum may stretch or tear allowing the humeral head to slip anteriorly

A young gymnast sustains a fracture/dislocation of the right talus and is immobilized in nonweightbearing for 6 weeks. After the cast is removed, she begins to complain of sin hypersensitivity, pain that is disproportional to the injury, and a significant resistance to move her ankle or toes. The athletic trainer recognizes this to be the initial symptoms of which of the following disorders? A. Cauda equina B. Post fracture syndrome C. Myasthenia gravis D. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy E. Muscular dystrophy

D) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy is a condition that affects a distal extremity after a significant traumatic injury. It occurs as a result of overactivity of small fiber pain receptors. The initial signs of reflex sympathetic dystrophy include range of motion limitations, swelling of the limb, an increased skin temperature, and atrophic changes. If the syndrome becomes chronic, atrophy of the limb may be evident and vascular changes may occur. If the untreated, the limb may potentially become completely dysfunctional

A soccer player sustains a mild head injury during a game. The athletic trainer administers a Romberg's test on the sideline, assessing which of the following: A. Disorder of the medulla B. Function of the cerebral cortex C. Function of the temporal lobe of the brain D. Cerebrellum of basal ganglia dysfunction E. Disorder of the parietal lobe of the brain

D) Romberg's test is used to evaluate for possible dysfunction of the cerebellum or basal ganglia. These areas of the brain control vestibular and postural control

While training in a high-altitude climate (eg, 9000 to 10,000 feet), a rock climber experiences acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

D) Signs of pulmonary edema include acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. These symptoms can occur in athletes who train in high altitudes

A gymnast reprots to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "Scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. Fractured transverse process of a vertebra B. Fractured demifacet of a vertebrae C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylolysis E. A and B

D) Spondylolysis occurs when there is a defect in the pars interarticularis. A "Scottie dog" sign is a radiographic finding of spondylolysis. On an oblique view of the lumbosacral spine, there is an outline that looks like a Scottish terrier. The defect in the pars interarticularis appears as the collar on the neck of the Scottie dog

All of the following are symptoms of an overtrained patient except; A. Emotional liability B. Loss of appetite C. Reduced concentration D. Excessive motivation E. Fatigue

D) Symptoms of overtraining include emotional liability, loss of appetite, decreased concentration, decreased motivation to participate in practices and competitions, chronic fatigue, indigestion, and changes in bowel and sleeping patterns. An athlete who experiences staleness should be temporarily removed from activity and allowed time to rest and relax to stimulate renewed interest and motivation

Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except: A. Presence of crepitus B. Sensory function C. Presence of a deformity D. Degree of functional movement E. A and B

D) Tactile information alone will not provide the athletic trainer with enough information to adequately assess the patient's functional status. It is crucial that a well-planned, comprehensive evaluation is performed to assess all aspects of the patient's condition prior to treatment

What are the 3 most commonly affected organ systems in Marfan Syndrome? A. Skeletal, auditory, sensory B. Dermatological, auditory, neurological C. Neurological, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal D. Skeletal, ocular, cardiovascular E. Neurological, cardiovascular, ocular

D) The 3 most commonly affected organ systems in Marfan syndrome are the skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular systems. Symptoms may include, but are not limited to, scoliosis, anterior chest deformity, tall height, various cardiac abnormalities, myopia, superior lens dislocation, retinal detachment, and eye shape irregularities

Which of the following is one of the most common eye injuries sustained in athletics? A. Detaches iris B. Detached retina C. Zygomatic fracture D. corneal abrasion E. Hpertrophic retina

D) The cornea, which is the clear surface covering the front of the eye, is most often injured by a foreign body causing a corneal abrasion

What is the hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease? A. Numbness of the hands and feet B. Pallor of the hands and feet C. Hyperlipidemia D. Intermittent claudication E. Pain and cramping of the lower extremities while in sitting

D) The hallmark sign of peripheral vascular disease is intermittent claudication, which manifests as cramping, weakness, numbness, and pain of the lower extremities and is provoked by exercise of a given intensity and duration

All of the following injuries might be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except: A. Anterior cruciate ligament injury B. Torn meniscus C. Subluxed patella D. Iliotibial band friction syndrome E. B and C

D) The iliotibial band moves back and forth over the lateral epicondyle of the femur as the knee is flexed and extended. If the iliotibial band is too tight or it overrides and rubs on the lateral epicondyle during downhill running, the bursa between the iliotibial band and epicondyle becomes inflamed. Pain is elicited as the knee is brought into about 30 degrees of flexion. A popping sensation is not a consistent finding with this syndrome

What is the most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Adduction and external rotation B. Abduction and internal rotation C. Adduction and internal rotation D. Abduction and external rotation E. Abduction and extension

D) The most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation is shoulder abduction and external rotation

What is one of the most common symptoms of a lumbar discogenic injury? A. Dull, localized backache B. Localized swelling with muscle guarding C. Inability to backward bend D. Sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg E. Pain with only forward flexion

D) The most common symptom of lumbar discogenic injury is a sharp, radiating pain down one of both legs. This caused by a bulging or herniated disc impinging on a nerve root in the lumbar spine

A grade 1 ankle inversion sprain involves which structures? A. Tibiofibular ligament B. Posterior talofibular ligament C. Calcaneofibular ligament D. Anterior talofibular ligament E. Spring ligament

D) The most common type of ankle sprain is an inversion sprain, the primary mechanism of injury is a plantar flexion/inversion movement, which usually affects the anterior talofibular ligament first. As the sprain increases in severity, other ligaments around the ankle become involved, such as the calcaneofibular or tibiofibular ligaments

During exercise, the body's oxygen stores are greatly diminished. The recovery O2 is used for all of the following except: A. Replacing O2 dissolved in tissue fluids B. Returning muscle myoglobin to resting values C. Increasing venous oxygemoglobn to pre-exercise levels D. Returning the catecholamine level in the blood to normal E. A and B

D) The oxygen consumed by the patient during the recovery phase of exercise replenishes the oxygen levels in the tissue fluids, increases the myoglobin in the muscles to preactivity levels, and restores the venous oxyhemoglobin to pre-exercise levels

A football quarterback is sacked during a game. He comes off the field holding his throwing arm and complains of chest and anterior shoulder pain. After evaluating the athlete, the athletic trainer suspects a torn pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following physical finding will be seen if the athletic trainer is correct? A. Ecchymossis around the xyphoid process B. Palpable defect in the posterior axilla C. Weakness is abduction and external rotation D. Weakness is adduction, flexion, and internal rotation of the affect arm E. Weakness in adduction and external rotation

D) The primary movements of the pectoralis major are shoulder adduction, flexion, and internal rotation. If the pectoralis muscle is torn, the patient will experience pain and weakness with resistance to these movements, as well as pain to palpation of the injured area

The rectus femoris muscle ____ and _____ when it contracts. A. Flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip B. Extends the hip, flexes the knee C. Flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle D. Flexes the hip, extends the knee E. Extends the hip, extends the knee

D) The rectus femoris muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee when it contracts

Which of the following muscles does not extend and laterally flex the neck? A. Splenius capitis B. Splenius cervicis C. Levator scapulae D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Multifidus

D) The sternocleidomastoid flexes and rotates the head

What evaluative test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee? A. Pivot shift test B. Valgus stress test C. Lachman's test D. Varus stress test E. None of the above

D) The varus stress test is used to test the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee. The patient is asked to lie supine with the knee in full extension. The athletic trainer places his or her hand distally on the lateral ankle and the other hand proximally on the knee medially. With the ankle stabilized, a varus force is applied with the proximal hand. Lateral joint pain and or increased varus movement with an absent or poor endpoint when compared to the uninvolved side are positive findings for a torn lateral collateral ligament

True leg-length discrepancy is measured between which 2 points? A. The posteiror inferior iliac spine to the medial malleolus B. The umbilicus to the midpatella C. The umbilicus to the lateral malleolus D. The anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus E. The anterior superior iliac spine to Gerdy's tubercle

D) True leg length discrepancy is measured between the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus of the ankle

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after being struck in the back of the head with a bat by accident. The patient is complaining of blurred vision. Which lobe of the brain has been affected? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital E. Cerebellum

D) Vision is controlled by the occipital lobe of the brain

Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? A. Broccoli B. Strrawberries C. Organges D. Nuts E. Spinach

D) Vitamin C is found in high concentrations in green vegetables, fruits, and citrus

When the athletic trainer places his or her thumb over the patient's distal biceps tendon and strikes the thumb with the reflex hammer, which nerve level is being evaluated? A. C8 B. C7 C. C6 D. C5 E. C4

D) When the biceps brachii reflex is tested, it correlates with the function of the C% nerve root

When taking a history during a physical examination of a patient, all of the following information is pertinent except: A. The mechanism of the injury B. If a "pop" or "snap" was hear of felt C. If the patient is on medication D. Whether the patient has medical insurance or not E. History of previous injury

D) Whether or not the patient has medical insurance should not be an immediate concern of the athletic trainer during the history-taking portion of the initial evaluation. Only those pieces of information that assist the athletic trainer in developing a course of action or treatment plan for the patient should be considered pertinent

While elevating a patient's shoulder, you note that the patient is unable to abduct through the full range of motion against gravity. When performing a manual muscle test, this finding would be assigned which of the following muscle grades? A> +2/5 B. 3/5 C. -4/5 D. 1/5 E. -3/5

E) A -3/5 muscle denotes an incomplete movement against gravity

A leading cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which is an autoimmune disorder. What is the primary symptom of this disease? A. Depression B. "Butterfly" rash C. Atrophic skin D. Deviated trachea E. Goiter

E) A goiter, which is an enlarged thyroid, is the primary symptom of Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Which muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. -3/5 B. +3/5 C. 5/5 D. 1/5 E. 2/5

E) A manual muscle grade of 2/5 is also known as a poor muscle grade and is defined as completing full range of motion in a gravity-eliminated position, A grade of 3/5, or fair, is defined as completion of full range of motion against gravity, and a grade of 1/5 is a trace grade, in which the examiner observes or palpates contractile activity in the muscle, but no movement is present

A positive Phalen's sign is suspect of what problem? A. Tarsal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Suprascapular entrapment syndrome E. Carpal tunnel syndrome

E) A positive Phalen's test is indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome. The patient is asked to stand with the dorsal aspect of both hands in full contact so both wrists are maximally flexed for 1 min. A complaint of numbness and tingling in the medial nerve distribution of the fingers is a positive test.

The athletic trainer performs a cervical distraction test on a patient. A positive finding is observed. This is indicative of which of the following? A. Tumor B. Soft tissue inflammation C. Traction injury to the brachial plexus D. Cervical disc herniation E. A nerve root compression of facet dysfunction

E) A positive cervical distraction test is indicative of a nerve root compression of facet dysfunction

Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? A. Plantar nerve injury B. Shin splint C. Osteochondritis dissecans D. Achilles tendinitis E. Peroneal nerve injury

E) An injury to the peroneal nerve of the lower leg will result in foot drop. The common peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus muscle, the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis muscle, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus tertius muscle of the lateral aspect of the lower leg and foot

A baseball player has been stung by a bee. This player has a history of a severe allergy to bee stings. A couple of minutes after being stung, the area becomes red and raised and begins to itch. the athlete begins to complain that his tongue feels thick, and he starts to have difficulty breathing. What type of shock is he beginning to develop? A. Neurogenic B. Metabolic C. Hypovolemic D. Respiratory E. Anaphylactic

E) Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to a foreign protein or drug. There is a contraction of smooth muscle fibers and increased capillary permeability, causing dyspnea, cyanosis, convulsions, unconsciousness, and if untreated, death

You notice one of your gymnasts has lost a significant amount of weight over the past month. She is always concerned about her image when she discusses her performance with you. What might you suspect as the problem? A. Drug dependence B. Depression C. Narcissism D. Bipolar disease E. Anorexia nervosa

E) Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that is most commonly seen in adolescent females. The patient consumes a progressively diminishing amount of food until she is malnourished, and there is a weight loss of 25% of the original weight. Because of an intense fear of becoming obese, the patient will not maintain normal body weight for her height and age, even when emaciated. It is a sign of a significant underlying psychological problem

What would be the most appropriate type of roentgenogram for a possible tibial stress fracture? A. X-ray B. PET scan C. MRI D. CT can E. Bone scan

E) Because stress fractures of the bone can be so small, a typical x-ray will often miss the injury. A bone scan involves injection of a radioactive substance into a vein, which is absorbed by bone. A scanner is used to detect abnormal levels of uptake or hot spots in the bone, indicating a stress fracture or abnormal lesion

Changes in cognition and behavior and disorientation after traumatic head injury are indicative of dysfunction of which part of the brain? A. Basal ganglia B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Occipital love E. Cerebrum

E) Changes in cognition and behavior and disorientation after a head injury are indicative of dysfunction of the cerebrum

A soccer player has fractured his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and give crutches. The addition of crutches does what to his center of gravity? A. Moves it to the left B. Moves it to the midabdominal area C. Moves it to the right D. Ther eis no effect on the center of gravity E. Enlarges the base of support

E) Crutches widen the base of support. This allows for the line of gravity to fall within the base of support, increasing stability

During your examination of a football player who has sustained a low back injury during a tackle, you find that he is reporting dulled sensation along the dorsum of his right foot, he has difficulty walking on his heels, and his patellar tendon reflex is diminished. You suspect which of the following nerve root(s) is affected? A. L3 B. L4 C. L2 D. S1 to S3 E. L5

E) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot, inability to dorsiflex the great toe/ankle, and a diminished patellar reflex are suspect of L5 nerve root irritation or injury

During digestion, food passes through the small intestine as it is being broken down into smaller components. Which area of the small intestine doe sit pass through first? A. Ileum B. Esophagus C. Jejunum D. Cecum E. Duodeum

E) Food passes from the stomach through the duodenum and mixes with the secretions from the pancreas and liver before continuing into the jejunum and ileum

One of the hormones that the pancreas produces is glucagon. What is the function o this hormone? A. It stimulates the increase of glucose transport out of the blood and into the cells B. It facilitates a build-up of glucose in the liver C. It stimulates a increase in metabolism D. It facilitates the breakdown of fat in the pancreas E. It stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood

E) Glucogen is a hormone produced by the pancreas, which stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood

What internal organ is diseased if the patient presents with jaundice? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Kidney E. Liver

E) Jaundice is a symptom of liver disease that causes the skin to appear yellow in color. It occurs when bile cannot be made or excreted normally

Lysosomes function to do which of the following during the inflammatory process? A. Increase vascular permeability B. Cease the inflammatory process C. Cause platelets to adhere to the collagen matrix D. Act as a catalyst in the formation of bradykinins E. Contain enzymes that digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis

E) Lysosomes function to digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis

Which of the following tests is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee? A. Faber's test B. Allen's test C. Jerk test D. Lachman's test E. McMurray's test

E) McMurray's test is used to test the knee for a tear in the medial or lateral meniscus with the patient lying in supine. The knee is fully flexed, and the tibia is externally rotated with a valgus force and extended, or internally rotated with a varus force and extended. A palpable "click" is indicative of a positive test

Which of the following is an indirect method of monitoring oxygen consumption? A. Measuring respiratory rate B. Measuring vital capacity C. Drawing blood gases during testing D. Measuring tidal volume E. Measuring heart rate

E) Measuring the heart rate during submaximal stress testing used to indirectly determine the VO2 max. It is known that heart rate rises linearly with increasing workloads

Which of the following is the underlying cause of multiple sclerosis? A. Hyperactivity of the synapses within the brain B. Inflammation of the middle cerebral artery C. A genetic disorder D. Low levels of dopamine production E. Demyelination of the neurons of the central nervous system

E) Multiple sclerosis is caused by regions of intermittent inflammation, known as plaques, which result in demyelination of the neurons of the central nervous system

Signs and symptoms of Sever's disease include which of the following? A. Point tenderness with palpation of the hamate bone B. Point tenderness and swelling at the base of the fifth metatarsal C. Pain with active ankle inversion D. Pain between the first and second metatarsal shaft with toe flexion E. Point tenderness at of just anterior to the insertion of the Achilles tendon along the posterior border of the calcaneous

E) Sever's disease is most frequently seen in children 7 to 10 years of age. It is a calcaneal spophysitis, which is associated with growth spurts, decreased Achilles and hamstring flexibility, and biomechanical abnormalities, which contribute to poor foot shock absorption

Which of the following signs/symptoms are present in a depressed patient? A. Decreased appetite B. Insomnia C. Fatigue D. Feeling of hopelessness E. All of the above

E) Signs of depression include loss of appetite, insomnia, fatigue, and a feeling of hopelessness

When evaluating a patient for Sinding-Laren-Johansson disease, the athletic trainer should be sure to do the following: A. Abduct, extend, and externally rotate the shoulder while palpating the brachial pulse B. Palpate the effusion over Gerdy's tubercle C. Perform Thompson's test D. Check the level of the sacroiliac joints E. Palpate the inferior patellar pole with the patient's knee extended and the patellar tendon relaxed

E) Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease is a result of excessive strain on the inferior patellar pole at the origin of the patellar tendon. It is commonly seen in children ages 8 to 13 who participate in running or jumping sports. It is often missed unless the athletic trainer palpates the inferior patellar pole with the patient's knee in extension and the patellar tendon relaxed

What is Spins Bifida Occulta? A. Complete herniation of the spinal cord and meninges though a defect in the neural tube B. Complete herniation of the meninges though a defect in the neural tube C. Partial herniation of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the neural tube D. Partial herniation of the meninges through a defect in the neural tube E. The incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord

E) Spina bifida occulta is the incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord. It is often detected by x-rays taken for symptoms of low back pain

When testing for paresthesia of the C5 nerve root, where should the athletic trainer perform pimprick testing? A. Base of the neck B. At the nipple line C. The medial aspect of the arm D. The lateral aspect of the forearm E. The lateral aspect of the upper arm over the middle deltoid

E) The C5 dermatome is located over the area of the middle deltoid

The adrenal glands release all of the following hormones except: A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Growth hormone

E) The adrenal glands release aldosterone, cortisol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. Growth hormone is produced by the pituitary-hypothalamus

What is the average range of motion of knee flexion? A. 0 to 180 degrees B. 0 to 120 degrees C. 0 to 100 degrees D. 0 to 155 degrees E. 0 to 135 degrees

E) The average range of motion of the knee is 0 to 135 degrees

During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? A. T1 B. T3 C. C5 D. C4 E. C8

E) The extensor pollicis longus of the thumb is innervated by the C8 nerve root

Which muscle flexes both the foot and the knee? A. Biceps femoris B. Flexor digitorum C. Posterior tibialis D. Posterior tibialis E.Gastrocnemius

E) The gastrocnemius muscle plantar flexes the foot and flexes the knee

A patient presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root levels. What muscle should the athletic trainer test to confirm an injury at this level? A. Gluteus minimus B. Flexor hallucis longus C. Gluteus maximus D. Adductor magnus E. Quadriceps

E) The quadriceps musculature is innervated by the femoral nerve, which originates at the L2, L3 and L4 nerves levels

Which of the following muscles does not adduct the shoulder? A. Pectoralis major B. Teres major C. Subscapularis D. Latissimus dorsi E. Serratus Anterior

E) The serratus anterior muscle functions to protract the scapula and stabilize it against the rib cage

A patient who sustains a severe or career-ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All of the following are included in this series of reactions except; A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Acceptance D. Denial E. Guilt

E) There are 5 emotional phases a patient may experience after a significant injury or loss. These phases include denial,anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. These reactions are normal when faced with a serious injury or illness, and the athletic trainer should allow the patient a chance to work through each stage without interference

A positive Thompson's sign is indicative of what problem? A. Tight hip flexor B. Tight iliotibial band C. Ruptured anterior tibialis tendon D. Ruptured posterior tibialis tendon E. Ruptured Achilles tendon

E) Thompson's sign involves squeezing the gastrocnemius-soleus complex while the patient lies prone on a table. The foot should plantar flex when the common muscle belly of these muscles squeezed. An absence of plantar flexion upon squeezing is a positive test, indicative of a possible Achilles tendon rupture.

A loss of water equaling what percent of body weight will begin to threaten athletic performance? A. 10% to 20% B. 0.5% to 1% C. 1% to 2% D. 1% to 1.5% E. 2% to 3%

E) Water loss of 2% to 3% total body weight will begin to adversely affect athletic performance. Losses of 4% to 5% total body weight or greater are life-threatening percentages

The inflammatory process includes all of the following signs and symptoms except: A. redness B. Pain C. Warmth D. Swelling E. Numbness

E) signs of inflammation include redness (rubor), pain (dolor), warmth (calor), and swelling (tumor)