Combo with "Respiratory System questions" and 6 others

Describe the clinical signs of RIGHT sided heart failure.

weight gain distended neck veins hepatomegaly and splenomegaly dependent peripheral edema

The nurse is planning to assess the apex of a client's lungs. Which area of the body will the nurse be assessing? a. Left of the sternum, third intercostal space b. Above the clavicles c. Below the scapula d. Right of the sternum, sixth intercostal space

b. Above the clavicles The apex of each lung is slightly superior to the inner third of the clavicle.

Identify initial assessment findings for a patient with EARLY STAGE LEFT sided heart failure

- fatigue - breathlessness - dizziness - confusion as a result of tissue hypoxia from the diminished CO

Identify what is included during the assessment phase of the nursing process for a cardiopulmonary focus.

Assessment • In-depth history of the client's normal and present cardiopulmonary function • Past impairments in circulatory or respiratory functioning • Patient history including a review of drug, food, and other allergies • Physical examination of the client's cardiopulmonary status reveals the extent of existing signs and symptoms. • Use PQRST for pain / HPI for other symptoms • Review of laboratory and diagnostic test results

41. A patient with a chronic productive cough and weight loss is receiving a tuberculosis skin test and asks the nurse the reason for the test. Which response should the nurse give? a. The skin test will determine if you have a tuberculosis infection. b. The skin test will indicate whether you have active tuberculosis. c. The skin test is used to decide which antibiotic therapy will work best. d. The skin test is done prior to notification of the public health department.

A Rationale: A positive skin test will indicate whether the patient has been infected with tuberculosis. It does not indicate active infection, which will be established through chest x-ray and sputum culture. Initial drug treatment with 4 antibiotics uses a standardized protocol. Although the public health department should be notified if the patient has TB, the nurse should focus on the patient, rather than on the public health concerns. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 571 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. To evaluate both oxygenation and ventilation in a patient with acute respiratory failure, the nurse uses the findings revealed with a. arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. b. hemodynamic monitoring. c. chest x-rays. d. pulse oximetry.

A Rationale: ABG analysis is useful because it provides information about both oxygenation and ventilation and assists with determining possible etiologies and appropriate treatment. The other tests may also provide useful information about patient status but will not indicate whether the patient has hypoxemia, hypercapnia, or both. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1805 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

45. All of the following orders are received for a patient who has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which one will the nurse accomplish first? a. Obtain blood cultures from two sites. b. Give ciprofloxin (Cipro) 400 mg IV. c. Send to radiology for chest radiograph. d. Administer aspirin suppository.

A Rationale: Initiating antibiotic therapy rapidly is essential, but it is important that the cultures be obtained before antibiotic administration. The chest radiograph and aspirin administration can be done last. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 566 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. After 2 months of TB treatment with a standard four-drug regimen, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). The nurse discusses the treatment regimen with the patient with the knowledge that a. directly observed therapy (DOT) will be necessary if the medications have not been taken correctly. b. the positive sputum smears indicate that the patient is experiencing toxic reactions to the medications. c. twice-weekly administration may be used to improve compliance with the treatment regimen. d. a regimen using only INH and rifampin (Rifadin) will be used for the last 4 months of drug therapy.

A Rationale: After 2 months of therapy, negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. The nurse will need to initiate DOT if the patient has not been consistently taking the medications. Toxic reactions to the medications would not result in a positive sputum smear. Twice-weekly medication administration is not one of the options for therapy. INH and rifampin are used for the last 4 months of drug therapy only if the initial four-drug regimen has been effective as evidenced by negative sputum smears. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 571-572 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

31. The emergency department nurse will suspect a tension pneumothorax in a patient who has been in an automobile accident if a. the breath sounds on one side are decreased. b. there are wheezes audible throughout both lungs. c. there is a sucking sound with each patient breath. d. paradoxic movement of the chest is noted.

A Rationale: Breath sounds are decreased on the affected side with tension pneumothorax because air trapped in the pleural space compresses the lung on that side. Wheezes that are heard in both lungs indicate airway narrowing, but not pneumothorax. A sucking sound with inspiration is heard with an open pneumothorax. Paradoxic chest movement is associated with flail chest. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 586 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

32. A 19-year-old male patient with CF and his wife are considering having a child. Which statement by the patient indicates that the nurse's teaching has been effective? a. "We will plan on having genetic counseling before we make a decision." b. "My erectile dysfunction will make it more difficult to have a child." c. "It is likely that I will die before any children we have are grown." d. "There should not be any problems as long as I take my medications."

A Rationale: Children of patients with CF are either CF carriers or have the disease. Most men with CF are sterile, but erectile dysfunction is not associated with CF. The life expectancy for CF is getting longer, with a mean age of 35. Despite appropriate therapy, the couple is likely to experience problems becoming pregnant. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 659 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

19. Which information obtained by the nurse when assessing a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) indicates a complication of ventilator therapy is occurring? a. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema. b. The patient has a sinus bradycardia, rate 52. c. The patient's PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%. d. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields.

A Rationale: Complications of positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) and PEEP include subcutaneous emphysema. Bradycardia, hypoxemia, and bronchial breath sounds are all concerns, but they are not caused by PPV and PEEP. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1816 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia, the nurse instructs the patient to a. splint the chest when coughing. b. maintain fluid restrictions. c. wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. try the pursed-lip breathing technique.

A Rationale: Coughing is less painful and more likely to be effective when the patient splints the chest during coughing. Fluids should be encouraged to help liquefy secretions. Nasal oxygen will improve gas exchange in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) but will not improve airway clearance in pneumonia. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 568 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A patient who was admitted to the hospital with pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of chest pain rated 7 on a 10-point scale with deep inspiration. Which of these ordered medications should the nurse give first? a. Azithromycin (Zithromax) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Guaifenesin (Robitussin) d. Codeine phosphate (Codeine)

A Rationale: Early initiation of antibiotic therapy has been demonstrated to reduce mortality. The other medications are also appropriate and should be given as soon as possible, but the priority is to start antibiotic therapy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 563, 566 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. The nurse will monitor for clinical manifestations of hypercapnia when a patient in the emergency department has a. chest trauma and multiple rib fractures. b. carbon monoxide poisoning after a house fire. c. left-sided ventricular failure and acute pulmonary edema. d. tachypnea and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

A Rationale: Hypercapnia is caused by poor ventilatory effort, which occurs in chest trauma when rib fractures (or flail chest) decrease lung ventilation. Carbon monoxide poisoning, acute pulmonary edema, and ARDS are more commonly associated with hypoxemia. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1800 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. When admitting a patient in possible respiratory failure with a high PaCO2, which assessment information will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The patient is somnolent. b. The patient's SpO2 is 90%. c. The patient complains of weakness. d. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94.

A Rationale: Increasing somnolence will decrease the patient's respiratory rate and further increase the PaCO2 and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent respiratory arrest. An SpO2 of 90%, weakness, and elevated blood pressure all require ongoing monitoring but are not indicators of possible impending respiratory arrest. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1804 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. While teaching a patient with asthma the appropriate use of a peak flow meter, the nurse instructs the patient to a. take and record peak flow readings when having asthma symptoms or an attack. b. increase the doses of long-term control medications for peak flows in the red zone. c. use the flow meter each morning after taking asthma medications. d. empty the lungs and then inhale rapidly through the mouthpiece.

A Rationale: It is recommended that patients check peak flows when asthma symptoms or attacks occur to compare the peak flow with the baseline. Increased doses of rapidly acting 2-agonists are indicated for peak flows in the red zone. Peak flows should be checked every morning before using medications. Peak flows are assessed during rapid exhalation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 625, 628 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. Which finding would be the best indication to the nurse that the patient having an acute asthma attack was responding to the prescribed bronchodilator therapy? a. Wheezes are more easily heard. b. The oxygen saturation is 89%. c. Vesicular breath sounds resolve. d. The respiratory effort decreases.

A Rationale: Louder wheezes indicate that more air is moving through the airways and that the bronchodilator therapy is working. An oxygen saturation level less than 90% indicates continued hypoxemia. Vesicular breath sounds are normal. A decreased respiratory effort may indicate that the patient is becoming too fatigued to breathe effectively and needs mechanical ventilation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 617 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. When teaching the patient who is receiving standard multidrug therapy for TB about possible toxic effects of the antitubercular medications, the nurse will give instructions to notify the health care provider if the patient develops a. yellow-tinged skin. b. changes in hearing. c. orange-colored urine. d. thickening of the nails.

A Rationale: Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of INH, rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications. Changes in hearing and nail thickening are not expected with the four medications used for initial drug therapy. Orange discoloration of body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and not an indication to call the health care provider. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 572-573 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. A patient with COPD is admitted to the hospital. How can the nurse best position the patient to improve gas exchange? a. Sitting up at the bedside in a chair and leaning slightly forward b. Resting in bed with the head elevated to 45 to 60 degrees c. In the Trendelenburg's position with several pillows behind the head d. Resting in bed in a high-Fowler's position with the knees flexed

A Rationale: Patients with COPD improve the mechanics of breathing by sitting up in the "tripod" position. Resting in bed with the head elevated would be an alternative position if the patient was confined to bed, but sitting in a chair allows better ventilation. The Trendelenburg's position or sitting upright in bed with the knees flexed would decrease the patient's ability to ventilate well. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 634 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A patient is receiving isoniazid (INH) after having a positive tuberculin skin test. Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan? a. "Take vitamin B6 daily to prevent peripheral nerve damage." b. "Read a newspaper daily to check for changes in vision." c. "Schedule an audiometric examination to monitor for hearing loss." d. "Avoid wearing soft contact lenses to avoid orange staining."

A Rationale: Peripheral neurotoxicity associated can be prevented by taking vitamin B6 when being treated with INH. Visual changes, hearing problems, and orange staining are adverse effects of other TB medications. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 573 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. The nurse observes a nursing assistant doing all the following activities when caring for a patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia. The nurse will need to intervene when the nursing assistant a. turns the patient over to the right side. b. splints the patient's chest during coughing. c. elevates the patient's head to 45 degrees. d. assists the patient to get up to the bathroom.

A Rationale: Positioning the patient with the left (or "good" lung) down will improve oxygenation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 569 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. Postural drainage with percussion and vibration is ordered bid for a patient with chronic bronchitis. The nurse will plan to a. carry out the procedure 3 hours after the patient eats. b. maintain the patient in the lateral positions for 20 minutes. c. perform percussion and vibration before placing the patient in the drainage position. d. give the ordered albuterol (Proventil) after the patient has received the therapy.

A Rationale: Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration should be done 1 hour before or 3 hours after meals. Patients remain in each postural drainage position for 5 to 15 minutes. Percussion and vibration are done after the postural drainage. Bronchodilators are administered before chest physiotherapy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 647 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. A patient with COPD asks the home health nurse about home oxygen use. The nurse should teach the patient that long-term home O2 therapy a. can improve the patient's prognosis and quality of life. b. may cause oxygen dependency in patients with COPD. c. is used only for patients who have severe end-stage respiratory disease. d. should never be used at night because the patient cannot monitor its effect.

A Rationale: Research supports the use of home oxygen to improve quality of life and prognosis. Oxygen dependency is not an issue for patients with COPD. Although most patients using home oxygen have SpO2 levels less than 89% on room air, it would not be appropriate to tell the patient that he or she was at the end stage of the disease. Oxygen use at night can improve sleep quality and is frequently recommended. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 644 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse obtains the following assessment data in a 76-year-old patient who has influenza. Which information will be most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Fever of 100.4° F (38° C) b. Diffuse crackles in the lungs c. Sore throat and frequent cough d. Myalgia and persistent headache

ANS: B The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing pneumonia, a common complication of influenza, which would require aggressive treatment. Myalgia, headache, mild temperature elevation, and sore throat with cough are typical symptoms of influenza and are treated with supportive care measures such as over-the-counter (OTC) pain relievers and increased fluid intake.

37. A patient with primary pulmonary hypertension is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). The nurse will evaluate that the treatment is effective if a. the patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea. b. the blood pressure is less than 140/90 mm Hg. c. the heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute. d. the patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields.

A Rationale: Since a major symptom of PPH is exertional dyspnea, an improvement in this symptom would indicate that the medication was effective. Nifedipine will affect BP and heart rate, but these parameters would not be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy for a patient with PPH. The chest x-ray will show clear lung fields even if the therapy is not effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 601 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. The nurse makes a diagnosis of impaired gas exchange for a patient with COPD in acute respiratory distress, based on the assessment finding of a. a pulse oximetry reading of 86%. b. dyspnea and respiratory rate of 36. c. use of the accessory respiratory muscles. d. the presence of crackles in both lungs.

A Rationale: The best data to support the diagnosis of impaired gas exchange are abnormalities in the ABGs or pulse oximetry. The other data would support a diagnosis of risk for impaired gas exchange. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 650-651 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has progressed to the fibrotic phase. The patient's family members are anxious about the patient's condition and are continuously present at the hospital. In addressing the family's concerns, it is important for the nurse to a. support the family and help them understand the realistic expectation that the patient's chance for survival is poor. b. inform the family that home health nurses will be able to help them maintain the mechanical ventilation at home after patient discharge. c. refer the family to social support services and case management to plan for transfer of the patient to a long-term care facility. d. provide hope and encouragement to the family because the patient's disease process has started to resolve.

A Rationale: The chance for survival is poor when the patient progresses to the fibrotic stage because permanent damage to the alveoli has occurred. Because of continued severe hypoxemia, the patient is not a candidate for home health or long-term care. The fibrotic stage indicates a poor patient prognosis, not the resolution of the ARDS process. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1814 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

19. A staff nurse has a TB skin test of 16-mm induration. A chest radiograph is negative, and the nurse has no symptoms of TB. The occupational health nurse will plan on teaching the staff nurse about the a. use and side effects of INH. b. standard four-drug therapy for TB. c. need for annual repeat TB skin testing. d. recommendation guidelines for bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine.

A Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 572 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

23. The occupational nurse at a manufacturing plant where there is high worker exposure to beryllium dust will monitor workers for a. shortness of breath. b. chest pain. c. elevated temperature. d. barrel-chest.

A Rationale: The nurse will monitor for the earliest signs of occupational lung disease, which are dyspnea and a cough. The other symptoms are also consistent with occupational lung disease but would occur much later, after significant lung involvement has occurred. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 577-578 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

47. A patient with a deep vein thrombophlebitis complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142, BP of 100/60, and respirations of 42. The nurse's first action should be to a. elevate the head of the bed. b. administer the ordered pain medication. c. notify the patient's health care provider. d. offer emotional support and reassurance.

A Rationale: The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism; elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be accomplished after the head is elevated (and oxygen is started). Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 599 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A patient is brought to the emergency department unconscious following a barbiturate overdose. Which potential complication will the nurse include when developing the plan of care? a. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to decreased ventilatory effort b. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to diffusion limitations c. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to shunting of blood d. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to increased airway resistance

A Rationale: The patient with an opioid overdose develops hypercapnic respiratory failure as a result of the decrease in respiratory rate and depth. Diffusion limitations, blood shunting, and increased airway resistance are not the primary pathophysiology causing the respiratory failure. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1800 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

40. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain "whenever I take a deep breath." Which action will the nurse take next? a. Listen to the patient's lungs. b. Check the patient's O2 saturation. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

A Rationale: The patient's statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and/or decreased breath sounds. The re is no indication that the oxygen saturation has decreased The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 597 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A 32-year-old patient is seen in the clinic for dyspnea associated with the diagnosis of emphysema. The patient denies any history of smoking. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. 1-antitrypsin testing. b. use of the nicotine patch. c. continuous pulse oximetry. d. effects of leukotriene modifiers.

A Rationale: When emphysema occurs in young patients, especially without a smoking history, a congenital deficiency in 1-antitrypsin should be suspected. Because the patient does not smoke, a nicotine patch would not be ordered. There is no indication that the patient requires continuous pulse oximetry. Leukotriene modifiers would be used in patients with asthma, not with emphysema. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 632 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

38. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Prior to the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. b. instruct the patient about the importance of incentive spirometer use after the procedure. c. start a peripheral intravenous line to administer the necessary sedative drugs. d. remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 8 hours.

A Rationale: When the patient is sitting up, fluid accumulates in the pleural space at the lung bases and can more easily be located and removed. The lung will expand after the effusion is removed; incentive spirometry is not needed to assure alveolar expansion. The patient does not usually require sedation for the procedure and there are no restrictions on oral intake, since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 596 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse enters the room of a patient who has just returned from surgery for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection and notes the following problems. In which order should the nurse address the problems? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. The nasogastric (NG) tube is disconnected from suction and clamped off. b. The patient is in a side-lying position with the head of the bed flat. c. The Hemovac in the neck incision contains 200 mL of bloody drainage. d. The patient is coughing blood-tinged secretions from the tracheostomy

ANS: B, D, C, A The patient should first be placed in a semi-Fowler's position to maintain the airway and reduce incisional swelling. The blood-tinged secretions may obstruct the airway, so suctioning is the next appropriate action. Then the Hemovac should be drained because the 200 mL of drainage will decrease the amount of suction in the Hemovac and could lead to incisional swelling and poor healing. Finally, the NG tube should be reconnected to suction to prevent gastric dilation, nausea, and vomiting. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 532-534 | 538-539 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format, Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiologi

The nurse notes new onset confusion in an 89-year-old patient in a long-term care facility. The patient is normally alert and oriented. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. Obtain the oxygen saturation. b. Check the patient's pulse rate. c. Document the change in status. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D, C Assessment for physiologic causes of new onset confusion such as pneumonia, infection, or perfusion problems should be the first action by the nurse. Airway and oxygenation should be assessed first, then circulation. After assessing the patient, the nurse should notify the health care provider. Finally, documentation of the assessments and care should be done. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 549 | 551 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format, Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiolog

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized 82-year-old patient who has nasal packing in place to treat a nosebleed. Which of the following assessment findings will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. The oxygen saturation is 89%. b. The nose appears red and swollen. c. The patient's temperature is 100.1° F (37.8° C). d. The patient complains of level 7 (0 to 10 scale) pain.

ANS: A Older patients with nasal packing are at risk of aspiration or airway obstruction. An O2 saturation of 89% should alert the nurse to assess further for these complications. The other assessment data also indicate a need for nursing action but not as immediately as the fall in O2 saturation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 520 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a 67-year-old patient with a 40 pack-year smoking history, complaints of hoarseness and tightness in the throat, and difficulty swallowing. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "How much alcohol do you drink in an average week?" b. "Do you have a family history of head or neck cancer?" c. "Have you had frequent streptococcal throat infections?" d. "Do you use antihistamines for upper airway congestion?"

ANS: A Prolonged alcohol use and smoking are associated with the development of laryngeal cancer, which the patient's symptoms and history suggest. Family history is not a risk factor for head or neck cancer. Frequent antihistamine use would be asked about if the nurse suspected allergic rhinitis, but the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of this diagnosis. Streptococcal throat infections also may cause these clinical manifestations, but patients also will complain of pain and fever. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 535 | 538 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube coughs violently during suctioning and dislodges the tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert the obturator and attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube. b. Position the patient in an upright position with the neck extended. c. Assess the patient's oxygen saturation and notify the health care provider. d. Ventilate the patient with a manual bag until the health care provider arrives.

ANS: A The first action should be to attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube to maintain the patient's airway. Assessing the patient's oxygenation is an important action, but it is not the most appropriate first action in this situation. Covering the stoma with a dressing and manually ventilating the patient may be an appropriate action if the nurse is unable to reinsert the tracheostomy tube. The patient should be placed in a semi-Fowler's position if reinsertion of the tracheostomy tube is not successful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 531 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of these patients in the respiratory disease clinic should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-year-old, complaining of a sore throat, who has a "hot potato" voice b. A 34-year-old who has a "scratchy throat" and a positive rapid strep antigen test c. A 55-year-old who is receiving radiation for throat cancer and has severe fatigue d. A 72-year-old with a history of a total laryngectomy whose stoma is red and inflamed

ANS: A The patient's clinical manifestation of a "hot potato" voice suggests a possible peritonsillar abscess that could lead to an airway obstruction requiring rapid assessment and potential treatment. The other patients do not have diagnoses or symptoms that indicate any life-threatening problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 528 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After completing discharge instructions for a patient with a total laryngectomy, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I must keep the stoma covered with a loose sterile dressing at all times." b. "I can participate in most of my prior fitness activities except swimming." c. "I should wear a Medic Alert bracelet that identifies me as a neck breather." d. "I need to be sure that I have smoke and carbon monoxide detectors installed."

ANS: A The stoma may be covered with clothing or a loose dressing, but this is not essential. The other patient comments are all accurate and indicate that the teaching has been effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 542 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with laryngeal cancer has received teaching about radiation therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will need to buy a water bottle to carry with me." b. "I should not use any lotions on my neck and throat." c. "Until the radiation is complete, I may have diarrhea." d. "Alcohol-based mouthwashes will help clean oral ulcers."

ANS: A Xerostomia can be partially alleviated by drinking fluids at frequent intervals. Radiation will damage tissues at the site being radiated but should not affect the abdominal organs, so loose stools are not a usual complication of head and neck radiation therapy. Frequent oral rinsing with non-alcohol-based rinses is recommended. Prescribed lotions and sunscreen may be used on irradiated skin, although they should not be used just before the radiation therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 538 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. Which action will the nurse use to promote airway clearance? a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. b. Educate the patient about the need for fluid restrictions. c. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

ANS: A Coughing is less painful and more likely to be effective when the patient splints the chest during coughing. Fluids should be encouraged to help liquefy secretions. Nasal oxygen will improve gas exchange, but will not improve airway clearance. Pursed lip breathing is used to improve gas exchange in patients with COPD, but will not improve airway clearance. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When teaching the patient who is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB) about possible toxic effects of the antitubercular medications, the nurse will give instructions to notify the health care provider if the patient develops a. yellow-tinged skin. b. changes in hearing. c. orange-colored sputum. d. thickening of the fingernails.

ANS: A Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications. Changes in hearing and nail thickening are not expected with the four medications used for initial TB drug therapy. Orange discoloration of body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and not an indication to call the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 | 556 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan for a patient who is receiving rifampin (Rifadin) for treatment of tuberculosis? a. "Your urine, sweat, and tears will be orange colored." b. "Read a newspaper daily to check for changes in vision." c. "Take vitamin B6 daily to prevent peripheral nerve damage." d. "Call the health care provider if you notice any hearing loss."

ANS: A Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The other adverse effects are associated with other antituberculosis medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient experiences a steering wheel injury as a result of an automobile accident. During the initial assessment, the emergency department nurse would be most concerned about a. paradoxic chest movement. b. the complaint of chest wall pain. c. a heart rate of 110 beats/minute. d. a large bruised area on the chest.

ANS: A Paradoxic chest movement indicates that the patient may have flail chest, which can severely compromise gas exchange and can rapidly lead to hypoxemia. Chest wall pain, a slightly elevated pulse rate, and chest bruising all require further assessment or intervention, but the priority concern is poor gas exchange. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 567 | 569 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse observes nursing assistive personnel (NAP) doing all the following activities when caring for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse will need to intervene when NAP a. lower the head of the patient's bed to 10 degrees. b. splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. help the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. d. assist the patient to a bedside chair for meals.

ANS: A Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with a standard four-drug regimen, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. b. Discuss the need to use some different medications to treat the TB. c. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly. d. Educate about using a 2-drug regimen for the last 4 months of treatment.

ANS: A The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. A two-drug regimen will be used only if the sputum smears are negative for AFB. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556-557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A staff nurse has a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration. A chest radiograph is negative, and the nurse has no symptoms of TB. The occupational health nurse will plan on teaching the staff nurse about the a. use and side effects of isoniazid (INH). b. standard four-drug therapy for TB. c. need for annual repeat TB skin testing. d. bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine.

ANS: A The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556-557 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142, BP reading of 100/60, and respirations of 42. The nurse's first action should be to a. elevate the head of the bed to 45 to 60 degrees. b. administer the ordered pain medication. c. notify the patient's health care provider. d. offer emotional support and reassurance.

ANS: A The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism. Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be accomplished after the head is elevated (and oxygen is started). DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 580 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 out of 10 and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next? a. Administer the prescribed PRN morphine. b. Assist the patient to deep breathe and cough. c. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots. d. Tape the area around the insertion site of the chest tube.

ANS: A The patient is unlikely to take deep breaths or cough until the pain level is lower. A chest tube output of 100 mL is not unusual in the first hour after thoracotomy and would not require milking of the chest tube. An air leak is expected in the initial postoperative period after thoracotomy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 573-574 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain "whenever I take a deep breath." Which action will the nurse take next? a. Listen to the patient's lungs. b. Administer the PRN morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: A The patient's statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and/or decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 576 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which information best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

ANS: A The weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 551-552 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The teaching plan for a patient with acute sinusitis will need to include which of the following interventions (select all that apply)? a. Taking a hot shower will increase sinus drainage and decrease pain. b. Over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines can be used to relieve congestion and inflammation. c. Saline nasal spray can be made at home and used to wash out secretions. d. Blowing the nose forcefully should be avoided to decrease nosebleed risk. e. You will be more comfortable if you keep your head in an upright position.

ANS: A, B, C, E The steam and heat from a shower will help thin secretions and improve drainage. Antihistamines can be used. Patients can use either OTC sterile saline solutions or home-prepared saline solutions to thin and remove secretions. Maintaining an upright posture decreases sinus pressure and the resulting pain. Blowing the nose after a hot shower or using the saline spray is recommended to expel secretions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 526-527 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When inflating the cuff on a tracheostomy tube to the appropriate level, the best action by the nurse will be to a. check the pilot balloon after inflation to ensure that it is firm. b. use a manometer to ensure cuff pressure is at an appropriate level. c. check the amount of cuff pressure ordered by the health care provider. d. fill the balloon until minimal air leakage around the cuff is auscultated.

ANS: B Measurement of cuff pressure using a manometer to ensure that cuff pressure is 20 mm Hg or lower will avoid compression of the tracheal capillaries. A firm pilot balloon indicates that the cuff is inflated but does not assess for overinflation. A health care provider's order is not required to determine safe cuff pressure. A minimal leak technique is an alternate means for cuff inflation, but this technique does allow a small air leak around the cuff and increases the risk for aspiration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 530 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An RN is observing a nursing student who is suctioning a hospitalized patient with a tracheostomy in place. Which action by the student requires the RN to intervene? a. The student preoxygenates the patient for 1 minute before suctioning. b. The student puts on clean gloves and uses a sterile catheter to suction. c. The student inserts the catheter about 5 inches into the tracheostomy tube. d. The student applies suction for 10 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.

ANS: B Sterile gloves and a sterile catheter are used when suctioning a tracheostomy. The other student actions do not require intervention by the RN. Although the patient may not need 1 minute of preoxygenation, this would not be unsafe. Suctioning for 10 seconds is appropriate. The length of catheter that should be inserted depends on the length of the tracheostomy tube, but 5 inches would be appropriate for most adult patients. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 530 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Which of these nursing actions can the RN working in a long-term care facility delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN who is caring for a patient with a permanent tracheostomy? a. Assessing the patient's risk for aspiration b. Suctioning the tracheostomy when needed c. Educating the patient about self-care of the tracheostomy d. Determining the need for replacement of the tracheostomy tube

ANS: B Suctioning of a stable patient can be delegated to LPN/LVNs. Assessments and patient teaching should be done by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 532-534 | 542 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Which action should the nurse take first when a patient develops a nosebleed? a. Pack both nares tightly with 1/2-inch ribbon gauze. b. Pinch the lower portion of the nose for 10 minutes. c. Prepare supplies that will be needed for cauterization. d. Apply ice compresses over the patient's nose and cheeks.

ANS: B The first nursing action for epistaxis is to apply direct pressure by pinching the nostrils. Application of cold packs may decrease blood flow to the area somewhat, but will not be sufficient to stop bleeding. Cauterization or nasal packing may be needed if pressure to the nares does not stop bleeding, but these are not the first actions to take for nosebleed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 520-521 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When the nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection during the first 24 hours after surgery, what is the priority nursing action? a. Monitor for bleeding. b. Assess breath sounds. c. Clean the inner cannula every 8 hours. d. Avoid changing the tracheostomy ties.

ANS: B The most important goals posttracheotomy are to maintain the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Assessment of the breath sounds is the priority action. Maintenance of the tracheostomy ties, cleaning the inner cannula, and checking for bleeding also are appropriate nursing actions but are not of as high a priority. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 538-541 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When developing a teaching plan for a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking, it will be most important for the nurse to include information about a. computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer. b. options for smoking cessation. c. reasons for annual sputum cytology testing. d. erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk.

ANS: B Because smoking is the major cause of lung cancer, the most important role for the nurse is educating patients about the benefits of and means of smoking cessation. Early screening of at-risk patients using sputum cytology, chest x-ray, or CT scanning has not been effective in reducing mortality. Erlotinib may be used in patients who have lung cancer but not to reduce risk for developing tumors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 563 | 565 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

During assessment of the chest in a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia, the nurse would expect to find a. vesicular breath sounds. b. increased tactile fremitus. c. dry, nonproductive cough. d. hyperresonance to percussion.

ANS: B Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment information obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. BP is 150/90 mm Hg. b. Oxygen saturation is 89%. c. Pain level is 5/10 with a deep breath. d. Respiratory rate is 24 when lying flat.

ANS: B Oxygen saturation would be expected to improve after a thoracentesis. A saturation of 89% indicates that a complication such as pneumothorax may be occurring. The other assessment data also indicate a need for ongoing assessment or intervention, but the low oxygen saturation is the priority. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 576 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) screening in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Before doing a TB skin test on a patient, which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Is there any family history of TB?" b. "Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?" c. "How long have you lived in the United States?" d. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?"

ANS: B Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test. Another method for screening (such as a chest x-ray) will need to be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection. The other information also may be valuable but is not as pertinent to the decision about doing TB skin testing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with primary pulmonary hypertension (PPH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). The nurse will evaluate that the treatment is effective if a. the BP is less than 140/90 mm Hg. b. the patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea. c. the heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute. d. the patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields.

ANS: B Since a major symptom of PPH is exertional dyspnea, an improvement in this symptom would indicate that the medication was effective. Nifedipine will affect BP and heart rate, but these parameters would not be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy for a patient with PPH. The chest x-ray will show clear lung fields even if the therapy is not effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 582 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The health care provider inserts a chest tube in a patient with a hemopneumothorax. When monitoring the patient after the chest tube placement, the nurse will be most concerned about a. a large air leak in the water-seal chamber. b. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber. c. complaint of pain with each deep inspiration. d. subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site.

ANS: B The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak would be expected immediately after chest tube placement for pneumothorax. The pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 572 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which action by the occupational health nurse at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust will be most helpful in reducing incidence of lung disease? a. Teach about symptoms of lung disease. b. Treat workers who inhale dust particles. c. Monitor workers for shortness of breath. d. Require the use of protective equipment.

ANS: D Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks. The other actions will help in recognition or early treatment of lung disease, but will not be effective in prevention of lung damage. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 560-561 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, "I think I am going to die pretty soon." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?" b. "Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?" c. "Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?" d. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?"

ANS: B The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning "Can you tell me what it is" is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning, "Are you afraid" implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 565 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

Which nursing action will be most effective in preventing aspiration pneumonia in patients who are at risk? a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Provide for continuous subglottic aspiration in patients receiving enteral feedings.

ANS: B The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Continuous subglottic suction is recommended for intubated patients but not for all patients receiving enteral feedings. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 551 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. start a peripheral intravenous line to administer the necessary sedative drugs. b. position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. c. remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours. d. instruct the patient about the importance of incentive spirometer use after the procedure.

ANS: B When the patient is sitting up, fluid accumulates in the pleural space at the lung bases and can more easily be located and removed. The lung will expand after the effusion is removed; incentive spirometry is not needed to assure alveolar expansion. The patient does not usually require sedation for the procedure, and there are no restrictions on oral intake because the patient is not sedated or unconscious. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 576 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is reviewing the charts for five patients who are scheduled for their yearly physical examinations in October. Which of the following patients will require the inactivated influenza vaccination (select all that apply)? a. A 56-year-old patient who is allergic to eggs b. A 36-year-old female patient who is pregnant c. A 42-year-old patient who has a 15 pack-year smoking history d. A 30-year-old patient who takes corticosteroids for rheumatoid arthritis e. A 24-year-old patient who has allergies to penicillin and the cephalosporins

ANS: B, D Current guidelines suggest that healthy individuals between 6 months and age 49 receive intranasal immunization with live, attenuated influenza vaccine. Individuals who are pregnant, have chronic medical conditions, or are immunocompromised should receive inactivated vaccine. The corticosteroid use by the 30-year-old increases the risk for infection. Individuals with egg allergies should not receive inactivated flu vaccine because it is made using eggs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 524 | 525 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse is caring for a spontaneously breathing patient who has a tracheostomy. To determine that the patient can protect the airway when eating without having the tracheostomy cuff inflated, the nurse will deflate the cuff and a. ask the patient to say a few sentences. b. monitor for signs of respiratory distress. c. have the patient drink a small amount of grape juice and observe for coughing. d. auscultate the lungs for crackles after having the patient take a few sips of water.

ANS: C Because the cuff is deflated when using a fenestrated tube, the patient's risk for aspiration should be assessed before changing to a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. The decannulation cap is never inserted before cuff deflation because to do so would obstruct the patient's airway. The cuff is deflated and the inner cannula removed to allow air to flow across the patient's vocal cords when using a fenestrated tube. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 529 | 535 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who had a total laryngectomy has a nursing diagnosis of hopelessness related to loss of control of personal care. Which information obtained by the nurse is the best indicator that the problem identified in this nursing diagnosis is resolving? a. The patient lets the spouse provide tracheostomy care. b. The patient allows the nurse to suction the tracheostomy. c. The patient asks how to clean the tracheostomy stoma and tube. d. The patient uses a communication board to request "No Visitors."

ANS: C Independently caring for the laryngectomy tube indicates that the patient has regained control of personal care and hopelessness is at least partially resolved. Letting the nurse and spouse provide care and requesting no visitors may indicate that the patient is still experiencing hopelessness. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 539-540 | 542 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

After a patient has undergone a rhinoplasty, which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Educate the patient about how to safely remove and reapply nasal packing. b. Reassure the patient that the nose will look normal when the swelling subsides. c. Instruct the patient to keep the head elevated for 48 hours to minimize swelling and pain. d. Teach the patient to use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain control.

ANS: C Maintaining the head in an elevated position will decrease the amount of nasal swelling. NSAIDs increase the risk for postoperative bleeding and should not be used postoperatively. The patient would not be taught to remove or reapply nasal packing, which is usually removed by the surgeon on the day after surgery. Although return to a preinjury appearance is the goal of the surgery, it is not always possible to achieve this result. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 520 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After discussing management of upper respiratory infections (URI) with a patient who has acute viral rhinitis, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says a. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat discomfort." b. "I will drink lots of juices and other fluids to stay hydrated." c. "I can use my nasal decongestant spray until the congestion is all gone." d. "I will watch for changes in nasal secretions or the sputum that I cough up."

ANS: C The nurse should clarify that nasal decongestant sprays should be used for no more than 3 days to prevent rebound vasodilation and congestion. The other responses indicate that the teaching has been effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 524 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When the nurse is deflating the cuff of a tracheostomy tube to evaluate the patient's ability to swallow, it is important to a. clean the inner cannula of the tracheostomy tube before deflation. b. deflate the cuff during the inhalation phase of the respiratory cycle. c. suction the patient's mouth and trachea before deflation of the cuff. d. insert exactly the same volume of air into the cuff during reinflation.

ANS: C The patient's mouth and trachea should be suctioned before the cuff is deflated to prevent aspiration of oral secretions. The amount of air needed to inflate the cuff varies and is adjusted by measuring cuff pressure or using the minimal leak technique, not by measuring the volume of air removed from the cuff. The cuff is deflated during patient exhalation so that secretions will be forced into the mouth rather than aspirated. There is no need to clean the inner cannula before cuff deflation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 534 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a family member who is visiting the patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the family member a. washes the hands before entering the patient's room. b. hands the patient a tissue from the box at the bedside. c. puts on a surgical face mask before visiting the patient. d. brings food from a "fast-food" restaurant to the patient.

ANS: C A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Hand washing before visiting the patient is not necessary, but there is no reason for the nurse to stop the family member from doing this. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food from outside the hospital is appropriate. The family member should wash the hands after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the patient to sit up at the bedside. b. Splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. Medicate the patient with the prescribed morphine. d. Have the patient use the prescribed incentive spirometer.

ANS: C A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain (which increases with deep breathing and coughing). The first action by the nurse should be to medicate the patient to minimize incisional pain. The other actions are all appropriate ways to improve airway clearance but should be done after the morphine is given. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 574 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse recognizes that the goals of teaching regarding the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) have been met when the patient with TB a. demonstrates correct use of a nebulizer. b. washes dishes and personal items after use. c. covers the mouth and nose when coughing. d. reports daily to the public health department.

ANS: C Covering the mouth and nose will help decrease airborne transmission of TB. The other actions will not be effective in decreasing the spread of TB. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient who has just been admitted with pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which of these prescribed medications should the nurse give first? a. guaifenesin (Robitussin) b. acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. azithromycin (Zithromax) d. codeine phosphate (Codeine)

ANS: C Early initiation of antibiotic therapy has been demonstrated to reduce mortality. The other medications also are appropriate and should be given as soon as possible, but the priority is to start antibiotic therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When providing preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for cancer of the lung, the nurse informs the patient that the postoperative care includes a. positioning on the right side. b. bed rest for the first 24 hours. c. frequent use of an incentive spirometer. d. chest tubes to water-seal chest drainage.

ANS: C Frequent deep breathing and coughing are needed after chest surgery to prevent atelectasis. To promote gas exchange, patients after pneumonectomy are positioned on the surgical side. Chest tubes are not usually used after pneumonectomy because the affected side is allowed to fill with fluid. Early mobilization decreases the risk for postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 573 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which statement by a patient who has been hospitalized for pneumonia indicates a good understanding of the discharge instructions given by the nurse? a. "I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week." b. "I will need to use home oxygen therapy for 3 months." c. "I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home." d. "I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines."

ANS: C Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue for several weeks is expected. Home oxygen therapy is not needed with successful treatment of pneumonia. The pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After the nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should be assessed first? a. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes b. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled c. A 46-year-old patient who has a deep vein thrombosis and is complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath. d. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C)

ANS: C Sudden onset shortness of breath in a patient with a deep vein thrombosis suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and actions such as oxygen administration. The other patients also should be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 577-578 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the right chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take? a. Position the patient so that the right chest is dependent. b. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation. c. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. d. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing.

ANS: C The dressing taped on three sides will allow air to escape when intrapleural pressure increases during expiration, but it will prevent air from moving into the pleural space during inspiration. Placing the patient on the right side or covering the chest wound with an occlusive dressing will allow trapped air in the pleural space and cause tension pneumothorax. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 to 45 degrees to facilitate breathing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 567 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient with primary pulmonary hypertension who is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action? a. The BP is 98/56 mm Hg. b. The oxygen saturation is 94%. c. The patient's central intravenous line is disconnected. d. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

ANS: C The half-life of this drug is 6 minutes, so the nurse will need to restart the infusion as soon as possible to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. The other data also indicate a need for ongoing monitoring or intervention, but the priority action is to reconnect the infusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 581 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After a patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 2 days, which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus. c. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/µl. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest.

ANS: C The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action will the nurse take? a. Repeat the tuberculin skin testing. b. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. c. Obtain consecutive sputum specimens from the patient for 3 days. d. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.

ANS: C Three consecutive sputum specimens are obtained on different days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. The patient should not provide all the specimens at once. Blood cultures are not used for tuberculosis testing. Once skin testing is positive, it is not repeated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information obtained by the nurse about a patient who has been diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of only 8 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the upper lobes. c. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus.

ANS: C Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat tuberculosis. The other data are expected in a patient with HIV and TB disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

When teaching the patient with allergic rhinitis about management of the condition, the nurse explains that a. over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines cause sedation, so prescription antihistamines are usually ordered. b. corticosteroid nasal sprays will reduce inflammation, but systemic effects limit their use. c. use of oral antihistamines for a few weeks before the allergy season may prevent reactions. d. identification and avoidance of environmental triggers are the best way to avoid symptoms.

ANS: D The most important intervention is to assist the patient in identifying and avoiding potential allergens. Intranasal corticosteroids (not oral antihistamines) should be started several weeks before the allergy season. Corticosteroid nasal sprays have minimal systemic absorption. Nonsedating antihistamines are available OTC. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 521-523 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the larynx asks the nurse, "How will I talk after the surgery?" The best response by the nurse is, a. "You will breathe through a permanent opening in your neck, but you will not be able to communicate orally." b. "You won't be able to talk right after surgery, but you will be able to speak again after the tracheostomy tube is removed." c. "You won't be able to speak as you used to, but there are artificial voice devices that will give you the ability to speak normally." d. "You will have a permanent opening into your neck, and you will need to have rehabilitation for some type of voice restoration."

ANS: D Voice rehabilitation is planned after a total laryngectomy, and a variety of assistive devices are available to restore communication. Although the ability to communicate orally is changed, it would not be appropriate to tell a patient that this ability would be lost. Artificial voice devices do not permit normal-sounding speech. In a total laryngectomy, the vocal cords are removed, so normal speech is impossible. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 541 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.2° F (38.5° C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. The patient is very weak and needs assistance to get out of bed. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. hyperthermia related to infectious illness. b. impaired transfer ability related to weakness. c. ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions. d. impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.

ANS: D All these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the patient, but the patient's oxygen saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. document the presence of a large air leak. b. obtain and attach a new collection device. c. notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax. d. take no further action with the collection device.

ANS: D Continuous bubbling is expected in the suction-control chamber and indicates that the suction-control chamber is connected to suction. An air leak would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence of pneumothorax. A new collection device is needed when the collection chamber is filled. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 572 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

To determine the effectiveness of prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure, which assessment will the nurse make? a. Lung sounds b. Heart sounds c. Blood pressure d. Peripheral edema

ANS: D Cor pulmonale is right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary hypertension, so clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure such as peripheral edema, jugular vein distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected. Abnormalities in lung sounds, blood pressure, or heart sounds are not caused by cor pulmonale. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 582 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Educating the patient about the long-term impact of TB on health b. Giving the patient written instructions about how to take the medications c. Teaching the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed d. Arranging for a daily noontime meal at a community center and giving the medication then

ANS: D Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen, and arranging a daily meal will help to ensure that the patient is available to receive the medication. The other nursing interventions may be appropriate for some patients, but are not likely to be as helpful with this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of these orders will the nurse act on first for a patient who has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis? a. Administer aspirin suppository. b. Send to radiology for chest x-ray. c. Give ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV. d. Obtain blood cultures from two sites.

ANS: D Initiating antibiotic therapy rapidly is essential, but it is important that the cultures be obtained before antibiotic administration. The chest radiograph and aspirin administration can be done last. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After discharge teaching has been completed for a patient who has had a lung transplant, the nurse will evaluate that the teaching has been effective if the patient states a. "I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year." b. "I will not turn the home oxygen up higher than 2 L/minute." c. "I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise." d. "I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever."

ANS: D Low-grade fever may indicate infection or acute rejection, so the patient should notify the health care provider immediately if the temperature is elevated. Patients require frequent follow-up visits with the transplant team; annual health care provider visits would not be sufficient. Home oxygen use is not an expectation after lung transplant. Shortness of breath should be reported. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 583 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A lobectomy is scheduled for a patient with stage I non-small cell lung cancer. The patient tells the nurse, "I would rather have radiation than surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Are you afraid that the surgery will be very painful?" b. "Did you have bad experiences with previous surgeries?" c. "Surgery is the treatment of choice for stage I lung cancer." d. "Tell me what you know about the various treatments available."

ANS: D More assessment of the patient's concerns about surgery is indicated. An open-ended response will elicit the most information from the patient. The answer beginning, "Surgery is the treatment of choice" is accurate, but it discourages the patient from sharing concerns about surgery. The remaining two answers indicate that the nurse has jumped to conclusions about the patient's reasons for not wanting surgery. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 565 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

Which information about a patient who has a recent history of tuberculosis (TB) indicates that the nurse can discontinue airborne isolation precautions? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

ANS: D Negative sputum smears indicate that M. tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. Chest x-rays are not used to determine whether treatment has been successful. Taking medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Repeat Mantoux testing would not be done since it will not change even with effective treatment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When assessing a 24-year-old patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes that the breath sounds are absent on the right side. The nurse will anticipate the need for a. emergency pericardiocentesis. b. stabilization of the chest wall with tape. c. administration of an inhaled bronchodilator. d. insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system.

ANS: D The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. The other therapies would be appropriate for an acute asthma attack, flail chest, or cardiac tamponade, but the patient's clinical manifestations are not consistent with these problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 567 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A female client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism? a. Dyspnea b. Bradypnea c. Bradycardia d. Decreased respiratory

Answer A. The common clinical manifestations of pulmonary embolism are tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, and chest pain

2. Nurse Kim is caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is appropriate? a. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding. b. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician. c. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent. d. Increase the suction pressure so that bubbling becomes vigorous.

Answer A. Continuous gentle bubbling should be noted in the suction control chamber. Option B is incorrect. Chest tubes should only be clamped to check for an air leak or when changing drainage devices (according to agency policy). Option C is incorrect. Bubbling should be continuous and not intermittent. Option D is incorrect because bubbling should be gentle. Increasing the suction pressure only increases the rate of evaporation of water in the drainage system.

An unconscious male client is admitted to an emergency room. Arterial blood gas measurements reveal a pH of 7.30, a low bicarbonate level, a normal carbon dioxide level, a normal oxygen level, and an elevated potassium level. These results indicate the presence of: a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Overcompensated respiratory acidosis d. Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis

Answer A. In an acidotic condition, the pH would be low, indicating the acidosis. In addition, a low bicarbonate level along with the low pH would indicate a metabolic state. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

A nurse is caring for a female client after a bronchoscope and biopsy. Which of the following signs, if noted in the client, should be reported immediately to the physicians? a. Dry cough b. Hematuria c. Bronchospasm d. Blood-streaked sputum

Answer C. If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is expected for several hours. Frank blood indicates hemorrhage. A dry cough may be expected. The client should be assessed for signs of complications, which would include cyanosis, dyspnea, stridor, bronchospasm, hemoptysis, hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hematuria is unrelated to this procedure.

A male client has been admitted with chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident and has undergone subsequent intubation. A nurse checks the client when the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, and notes that the client has absence of breathe sounds in right upper lobe of the lung. The nurse immediately assesses for other signs of: a. Right pneumothorax b. Pulmonary embolism c. Displaced endotracheal tube d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Answer A. Pneumothorax is characterized by restlessness, tachycardia, dyspnea, pain with respiration, asymmetrical chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. Pneumothorax can cause increased airway pressure because of resistance to lung inflation. Acute respiratory distress syndrome and pulmonary embolism are not characterized by absent breath sounds. An endotracheal tube that is inserted too far can cause absent breath sounds, but the lack of breath sounds most likely would be on the left side because of the degree of curvature of the right and left main stem bronchi.

A nurse teaches a male client about the use of a respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales b. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler well before use c. Presses the canister down with the finger as he breathes in d. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if more than one puff has been prescribed

Answer A. The client should be instructed to hold his or her breath for at least 10 to 15 seconds before exhaling the mist. Options B, C, and D are accurate instructions regarding the use of the inhaler.

A nurse is assessing a male client with chronic airflow limitations and notes that the client has a "barrel chest." The nurse interprets that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitations? a. Emphysema b. Bronchial asthma c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis d. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis

Answer A. The client with emphysema has hyperinflation of the alveoli and flattening of the diaphragm. These lead to increased anteroposterior diameter, referred to as "barrel chest." The client also has dyspnea with prolonged expiration and has hyperresonant lungs to percussion.

A nurse is caring for a male client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse reports which of the following signs immediately if experienced by the client? a. Stridor b. Occasional pink-tinged sputum c. A few basilar lung crackles on the right d. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min

Answer A. The nurse reports stridor to the physician immediately. This is a high-pitched, coarse sound that is heard with the stethoscope over the trachea. Stridor indicates airway edema and places the client at risk for airway obstruction

4. The nurse caring for a male client with a chest tube turns the client to the side, and the chest tube accidentally disconnects. The initial nursing action is to: a. Call the physician. b. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water. c. Immediately replace the chest tube system. d. Place the sterile dressing over the disconnection site.

Answer B. If the chest drainage system is disconnected, the end of the tube is placed in a bottle of sterile water held below the level of the chest. The system is replaced if it breaks or cracks or if the collection chamber is full. Placing a sterile dressing over the disconnection site will not prevent complications resulting from the disconnection. The physician may need to be notified, but this is not the initial action.

A nurse is caring for a male client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? a. Hypocapnia b. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray c. Increase oxygen saturation with exercise d. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray

Answer B. Clinical manifestations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include hypoxemia, - hypercapnia, - dyspnea on exertion and at rest - oxygen desaturation with exercise - and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-rays reveal a hyperinflated chest and a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced.

A nurse is caring for a male client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure that it does not exceed: a. 1 L/min b. 2 L/min c. 6 L/min d. 10 L/min

Answer B. Oxygen is used cautiously and should not exceed 2 L/min. Because of the long-standing hypercapnia that occurs in emphysema, the respiratory drive is triggered by low oxygen levels rather than increased carbon dioxide levels, as is the case in a normal respiratory system.

A nurse is caring for a female client diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which assessment, if made by the nurse, is inconsistent with the usual clinical presentation of tuberculosis and may indicate the development of a concurrent problem? a. Cough b. High-grade fever c. Chills and night sweats d. Anorexia and weight loss

Answer B. The client with tuberculosis USUALLY experiences cough (productive or nonproductive), fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest discomfort or pain, chills and sweats (which may occur at night), and a low-grade fever

An emergency room nurse is assessing a female client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which of these signs would indicate the presence of a pneumothorax in this client? a. A low respiratory b. Diminished breathe sounds c. The presence of a barrel chest d. A sucking sound at the site of injury

Answer B. This client has sustained a blunt or a closed chest injury. Basic symptoms of a closed pneumothorax are shortness of breath and chest pain. A larger pneumothorax may cause tachypnea, cyanosis, diminished breath sounds, and subcutaneous emphysema. Hyperresonance also may occur on the affected side. A sucking sound at the site of injury would be noted with an open chest injury.

Nurse Hannah is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a client. Which of the following nursing actions will facilitate obtaining the specimen? a. Limiting fluids b. Having the clients take three deep breaths c. Asking the client to split into the collection container d. Asking the client to obtain the specimen after eating

Answer B. To obtain a sputum specimen, the client should rinse the mouth to reduce contamination, breathe deeply, and then cough into a sputum specimen container. The client should be encouraged to cough and not spit so as to obtain sputum. Sputum can be thinned by fluids or by a respiratory treatment such as inhalation of nebulized saline or water. The optimal time to obtain a specimen is on arising in the morning

A nurse is suctioning fluids from a female client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning procedure, the nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing intervention? a. Continue to suction. b. Notify the physician immediately. c. Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client. d. Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.

Answer C. During suctioning, the nurse should monitor the client closely for side effects, including hypoxemia, cardiac irregularities such as a decrease in heart rate resulting from vagal stimulation, mucosal trauma, hypotension, and paroxysmal coughing. If side effects develop, especially cardiac irregularities, the procedure is stopped and the client is reoxygenated.

A nurse is teaching a male client with chronic respiratory failure how to use a metered-dose inhaler correctly. The nurse instructs the client to: a. Inhale quickly b. Inhale through the nose c. Hold the breath after inhalation d. Take two inhalations during one breath

Answer C. Instructions for using a metered-dose inhaler include - shaking the canister, - holding it right side up, - inhaling slowly and evenly through the mouth, - delivering one spray per breath, - and holding the breath after inhalation.

A nurse is suctioning fluids from a male client via a tracheostomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of: a. 1 minute b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 30 seconds

Answer C. Hypoxemia can be caused by prolonged suctioning, which stimulates the pacemaker cells in the heart. A vasovagal response may occur, causing bradycardia. The nurse must preoxygenate the client before suctioning and limit the suctioning pass to 10 seconds.

A female client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A nurse would implement which of the following nursing interventions for this client? a. Administering atropine intravenously b. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed) c. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours d. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering food or fluids

Answer D. After bronchoscopy, the nurse keeps the client on NPO status until the gag reflex returns because the preoperative sedation and local anesthesia impair swallowing and the protective laryngeal reflexes for a number of hours. Additional fluids are unnecessary because no contrast dye is used that would need flushing from the system. Atropine and midazolam would be administered before the procedure, not after.

A community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding tuberculosis. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with tuberculosis is: a. Dyspnea b. Chest pain c. A bloody, productive cough d. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

Answer D. One of the first pulmonary symptoms is a slight cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum. Options A, B, and C are late symptoms and signify cavitation and extensive lung involvement.

A nurse instructs a female client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to: a. Promote oxygen intake. b. Strengthen the diaphragm. c. Strengthen the intercostal muscles. d. Promote carbon dioxide elimination.

Answer D. Pursed-lip breathing facilitates maximal expiration for clients with obstructive lung disease. This type of breathing allows better expiration by increasing airway pressure that keeps air passages open during exhalation. Options A, B, and C are not the purposes of this type of breathing.

A nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a male client who has suffered a fractured rib. The nurse would expect to note which of the following? a. Slow deep respirations b. Rapid deep respirations c. Paradoxical respirations d. Pain, especially with inspiration

Answer D. Rib fractures are a common injury, especially in the older client, and result from a blunt injury or a fall. Typical signs and Sx include - pain and tenderness localized at the fracture site and exacerbated by inspiration and palpation - shallow respirations - splinting or guarding the chest protectively to minimize chest movement, and possible bruising at the fracture site. Paradoxical respirations are seen with flail chest.

A nurse is assessing a female client with multiple trauma who is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse assesses for which earliest sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome? a. Bilateral wheezing b. Inspiratory crackles c. Intercostal retractions d. Increased respiratory rate

Answer D. The earliest detectable sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome is an increased respiratory rate, which can begin from 1 to 96 hours after the initial insult to the body. T his is followed by increasing dyspnea, air hunger, retraction of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Breath sounds may be clear or consist of fine inspiratory crackles or diffuse coarse crackles.

Presence of overdistended and non-functional alveoli is a condition called: a. Bronchitis b. Emphysema c. Empyema d. Atelectasis

Answer: B. An overdistended and non-functional alveoli is a condition called emphysema. Atelectasis is the collapse of a part or the whole lung. Empyema is the presence of pus in the lung.

39. When taking an admission history of a patient with possible asthma who has new-onset wheezing and shortness of breath, the nurse will be most concerned about which information? a. The patient has a history of pneumonia 2 years ago. b. The patient takes propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension. c. The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches. d. The patient has chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

B Rationale: -blockers such as propranolol can cause bronchospasm in some patients. The other information will be documented in the health history but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 610 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active TB, the nurse observes a family member who is visiting the patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the family member a. washes the hands before entering the patient's room. b. puts on a surgical face mask before visiting the patient. c. brings food from a "fast-food" restaurant to the patient. d. hands the patient a tissue from the box at the bedside.

B Rationale: A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Handwashing before visiting the patient is not necessary, but there is no reason for the nurse to stop the family member from doing this. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food from outside the hospital is appropriate. The family member should wash the hands after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 574 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

32. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance for a patient who has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after having a pneumonectomy. To promote airway clearance, the nurse's first action should be to a. have the patient use the incentive spirometer. b. medicate the patient with the ordered morphine. c. splint the patient's chest during coughing. d. assist the patient to sit up at the bedside.

B Rationale: A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain (which increases with deep breathing and coughing). The first action by the nurse should be to medicate the patient to minimize incisional pain. The other actions are all appropriate ways to improve airway clearance but should be done after the morphine is given. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 591, 594 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

33. The nurse caring for a patient with CF recognizes that the manifestations of the disease are caused by the pathophysiologic processes of a. inflammation and fibrosis of lung tissue. b. altered function of exocrine glands. c. failure of the mucus-producing goblet cells. d. thickening and fibrosis of the pleural linings.

B Rationale: CF is characterized by abnormal secretions of exocrine glands, mainly of the lungs, pancreas, and sweat glands. Damage to lung tissue develops late in the disease. The goblet cells continue to produce mucus. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 655-656 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. A 68-year-old man has a long history of COPD and is admitted to the hospital with cor pulmonale. Which clinical manifestation noted by the nurse is consistent with the cor pulmonale diagnosis? a. Audible crackles at both lung bases b. 3+ edema in the lower extremities c. Loud murmur at the mitral area d. High systemic BP

B Rationale: Cor pulmonale is right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary hypertension, so clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure such as peripheral edema, jugular vein distension, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected. Lung crackles, a murmur, and numbness and tingling are not caused by cor pulmonale. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 602 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A patient who has mild persistent asthma uses an albuterol (Proventil) inhaler for chest tightness and wheezing has a new prescription for cromolyn (Intal). To increase the patient's management and control of the asthma, the nurse should teach the patient to a. use the cromolyn when the albuterol does not relieve symptoms. b. use the cromolyn to prevent inflammatory airway changes. c. administer the cromolyn first for chest tightness or wheezing. d. administer the albuterol regularly to prevent airway inflammation.

B Rationale: Cromolyn is prescribed to reduce airway inflammation. It takes several weeks for maximal effect and is not used to treat acute asthma symptoms Albuterol is used as a rescue medication in mild persistent asthma and will not decrease inflammation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 620 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements for a patient with COPD. An appropriate intervention for this problem is to a. have the patient exercise for 10 minutes before meals. b. offer high calorie snacks between meals and at bedtime. c. assist the patient in choosing foods with a lot of texture. d. increase the patient's intake of fruits and fruit juices.

B Rationale: Eating small amounts more frequently (as occurs with snacking) will increase caloric intake by decreasing the fatigue and feelings of fullness associated with large meals. Patients with COPD should rest before meals. Foods that have a lot of texture may take more energy to eat and lead to decreased intake. Although fruits and juices are not contraindicated, foods high in protein are a better choice. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 649,652 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. Which statement by the COPD patient indicates that the nurse's teaching about nutrition has been effective? a. "I will drink lots of fluids with my meals." b. "I will have ice cream as a snack every day." c. "I should exercise for 15 minutes before meals." d. "I should avoid much meat or dairy products."

B Rationale: High-calorie foods like ice cream are an appropriate snack for patients with COPD. Fluid intake of 3 L/day is recommended, but fluids should be taken between meals rather than with meals to improve oral intake of solid foods. The patient should avoid exercise for an hour before meals to prevent fatigue while eating. Meat and dairy products are high in protein and are good choices for the patient with COPD. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 649 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

38. Which information given by an asthmatic patient during the admission assessment will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The patient says that the asthma symptoms are worse every spring. b. The patient's only asthma medications are albuterol (Proventil) and salmeterol (Serevent). c. The patient uses cromolyn (Intal) before any aerobic exercise. d. The patient's heart rate increases after using the albuterol (Proventil) inhaler.

B Rationale: Long-acting 2-agonists should be used only in patients who are also using another medication for long-term control (typically an inhaled corticosteroid). Salmeterol should not be used as the first-line therapy for long-term control. The other information given by the patient requires further assessment by the nurse but is not unusual for a patient with asthma. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 615, 621 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. A lobectomy is scheduled for a patient with stage I non-small cell lung cancer. The patient tells the nurse, "I would rather have radiation than surgery." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Are you afraid that the surgery will be very painful?" b. "Tell me what you know about the various treatments available." c. "Surgery is the treatment of choice for stage I lung cancer." d. "Did you have bad experiences with previous surgeries?"

B Rationale: More assessment of the patient's concerns about surgery is indicated; an open-ended response will elicit the most information from the patient. The answer beginning, "Surgery is the treatment of choice" is accurate, but it discourages the patient from sharing concerns about surgery. The remaining two answers indicate that the nurse has jumped to conclusions about the patient's reasons for not wanting surgery. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 583-584 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

4. The health care provider has prescribed triamcinolone (Azmacort) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) two puffs every 8 hours and pirbuterol (Maxair) MDI 2 puffs four times a day for a patient with asthma. In teaching the patient about the use of the inhalers, the best instruction by the nurse is a. "Use the Maxair inhaler first, wait a few minutes, then use the Azmacort inhaler." b. "Using a spacer with the MDIs will improve the inhalation of the medications." c. "To avoid side effects, the inhalers should not be used within 1 hour of each other." d. "To maximize the effectiveness of the drugs, inhale quickly when using the inhalers."

B Rationale: More medication reaches the bronchioles when a spacer is used along with an MDI. There is no evidence that using a bronchodilator before a corticosteroid inhaler is helpful. The medications can be used at the same time. The patient should inhale slowly when using an MDI. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 621 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. The nurse notes new-onset confusion in an 89-year-old patient in a long-term-care facility; the patient is normally alert and oriented. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Check the patient's pulse rate. b. Obtain an oxygen saturation. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Document the change.

B Rationale: New-onset confusion caused by hypoxia may be the first sign of pneumonia in older patients. The other actions are also appropriate in this order: check the pulse, notify the health care provider, and document the change in status. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 565 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. During assessment of the chest in a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia, the nurse would expect to find a. hyperresonance on percussion. b. increased vocal fremitus on palpation. c. fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation. d. asymmetric chest expansion on inspection.

B Rationale: Pneumonias caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae are typically lobar or segmental. The nurse would expect to find increased vocal fremitus over the affected area of the lungs. The area would be dull to percussion. Fine crackles in all lobes would indicate a diffuse infection, which is more typical of viral pneumonias. Asymmetric chest expansion is not typical with pneumonia. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 565 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. A finding indicating to the nurse that a 22-year-old patient with respiratory distress is in acute respiratory failure includes a a. shallow breathing pattern. b. partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 45 mm Hg. c. partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial gas (PaCO2) of 34 mm Hg. d. respiratory rate of 32/min.

B Rationale: The PaO2 indicates severe hypoxemia and that the nurse should take immediate action to correct this problem. Shallow breathing, rapid respiratory rate, and low PaCO2 can be caused by other factors, such as anxiety or pain. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1806 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. When developing a teaching plan to help increase activity tolerance at home for a 70-year-old with severe COPD, the nurse should teach the patient that an appropriate exercise goal is to a. exercise until shortness of breath occurs. b. walk for a total of 20 minutes daily. c. limit exercise to activities of daily living (ADLs). d. walk until pulse rate exceeds 150.

B Rationale: The goal for exercise programs for patients with COPD is to increase exercise time gradually to a total of 20 minutes daily. Shortness of breath is normal with exercise and not an indication that the patient should stop. Limiting exercise to ADLs will not improve the patient's exercise tolerance. A 70-year-old patient should have a pulse rate of 120 or less with exercise (80% of the maximal heart rate of 150). Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 653 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. The nurse is caring for a patient with primary pulmonary hypertension who is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action? a. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged. b. The central line is disconnected. c. The oxygen saturation is 90%. d. The BP is 88/56.

B Rationale: The half-life of this drug is 6 minutes, so the nurse will need to restart the infusion as soon as possible to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. The other data also indicate a need for ongoing monitoring or intervention, but the priority action is to reconnect the infusion. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 601 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. A patient with an acute attack of asthma comes to the emergency department, where ABGs are drawn. The nurse determines the patient is in the early phase of the attack, based on the ABG results of a. pH 7.0, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and PaO2 74 mm Hg. b. pH 7.4, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and PaO2 70 mm Hg. c. pH 7.36, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and PaO2 80 mm Hg. d. pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, and PaO2 60 mm Hg.

B Rationale: The initial response to hypoxemia caused by airway narrowing in a patient having an acute asthma attack is an increase in respiratory rate, which causes a drop in PaCO2. The other PaCO2 levels are normal or elevated, which would indicate that the attack was progressing and that the patient is decompensating. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 614, 626 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

29. The health carre provider inserts two chest tubes connected with a Y-connecter in a patient with a hemopneumothorax. When monitoring the patient after the chest tube placement, the nurse will be most concerned about a. a large air leak in the water-seal chamber. b. 400 ml of blood in the collection chamber. c. severe pain with each deep patient inspiration. d. subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site.

B Rationale: The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak would be expected immediately after chest tube placement for pneumothorax. The severe pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 586 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

42. All of the following information is obtained by the nurse who is caring for a patient receiving subcutaneous heparin injections to treat a pulmonary embolus. Which assessment data is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient has many abdominal bruises. b. The patient's BP is 90/46. c. The activated partial thromboplastin time is 2 times the patient baseline. d. The patient's stool is dark green and liquid.

B Rationale: The low BP may indicate that the patient is experiencing bleeding, a possible adverse effect of heparin therapy. Subcutaneous heparin administration is given into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen and abdominal bruising is not unusual. An aPTT 2 times the baseline indicates a therapeutic heparin level. The patient should be monitored for gastrointestinal bleeding, which would be indicated by black or red stools. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 600 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, "I think I am going to die pretty soon, maybe this week." The best response by the nurse is a. "Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective?" b. "Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon?" c. "Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings?" d. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful?"

B Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning "Can you tell me what it is" is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning, "Are you afraid" implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 583-584 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

13. A patient who has active TB has just been started on drug therapy for TB. The nurse informs the patient that the disease can be transmitted to others until a. the chest x-ray shows resolution of the tuberculosis. b. three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. c. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. d. sputum cultures on 3 consecutive days are negative.

B Rationale: The patient is considered infectious until three sputum smears are negative for acid-fast bacilli. Chest x-rays help to determine the presence of active TB but are not utilized to monitor the effectiveness of treatment. Taking the medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Sputum cultures are used to diagnose the presence of active TB, but sputum smears are usually done to establish that treatment has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 574 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

13. When the nurse is caring for an obese patient with left lower-lobe pneumonia, gas exchange will be best when the patient is positioned a. on the left side. b. on the right side. c. in the high-Fowler's position. d. in the tripod position.

B Rationale: The patient should be positioned with the "good" lung in the dependent position to improve the match between ventilation and perfusion. The obese patient's abdomen will limit respiratory excursion when sitting in the high-Fowler's or tripod positions. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 1809-1810 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. The nurse obtains the vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature 101.2° F, blood pressure 90/56 mm Hg, pulse 92, respirations 34. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Notify the health care provider of the patient's vital signs. b. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. c. Document the vital signs and continue to monitor. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg.

B Rationale: The patient's increased respiratory rate in combination with the admission diagnosis of gram-negative sepsis indicates that acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) may be developing; the nurse should check for hypoxemia, a hallmark of ARDS. The health care provider should be notified after further assessment of the patient. Documentation and continued monitoring of the vital signs are needed but do not constitute an adequate response to the patient situation. Tylenol administration is appropriate but not the highest priority for this patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1813-1814 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. A patient with hypercapnic respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 8 and an SpO2 of 89%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which collaborative intervention will the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of 100% oxygen by non-rebreather mask b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning d. Initiation of bilevel positive pressure ventilation (BiPAP)

B Rationale: The patient's lethargy, low respiratory rate, and SpO2 indicate the need for mechanical ventilation with ventilator-controlled respiratory rate. Administration of high flow oxygen will not be helpful because the patient's respiratory rate is so low. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy will facilitate removal of secretions, but it will not improve the patient's respiratory rate or oxygenation. BiPAP requires that the patient initiate an adequate respiratory rate to allow adequate gas exchange. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1807-1808, 1810 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. To protect susceptible patients in the hospital from aspiration pneumonia, the nurse will plan to a. turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. position patients with altered consciousness in lateral positions. c. monitor frequently for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. provide for continuous subglottic aspiration in patients receiving enteral feedings.

B Rationale: The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonias in immune compromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Continuous subglottic suction is recommended for intubated patients but not for all patients receiving enteral feedings. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 567 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

13. When teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about reasons to quit smoking, the nurse will explain that long-term exposure to tobacco smoke leads to a a. weakening of the smooth muscle lining the airways. b. decrease in the area available for oxygen absorption. c. lesser number of red blood cells for oxygen delivery. d. decreased production of protective respiratory secretions.

B Rationale: Tobacco smoke leads to an increase in proteolytic enzymes, which break down alveolar walls and lead to less alveolar surface area for gas exchange. Bronchial smooth muscle is not weakened by chronic smoking. Polycythemia is a common compensatory mechanism for patients with COPD. The quantity of respiratory secretions increases as a result of smoking. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 633 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. When teaching the patient with COPD about exercise, which information should the nurse include? a. "Stop exercising if you start to feel short of breath." b. "Use the bronchodilator before you start to exercise." c. "Breathe in and out through the mouth while you exercise." d. "Upper body exercise should be avoided to prevent dyspnea."

B Rationale: Use of a bronchodilator before exercise improves airflow for some patients and is recommended. Shortness of breath is normal with exercise and not a reason to stop. Patients should be taught to breathe in through the nose and out through the mouth (using a pursed-lip technique). Upper-body exercise can improve the mechanics of breathing in patients with COPD. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 653 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. Which of these nursing actions included in the care of a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN working in the intensive care unit? a. Placing the patient in the prone position b. Assessment of patient breath sounds c. Administration of enteral tube feedings d. Obtaining the pulmonary artery pressures

C Rationale: Administration of tube feedings is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice and can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN who is experienced in caring for critically ill patients. Placing a patient who is on a ventilator in the prone position requires multiple staff and should be supervised by an RN. Assessment of breath sounds and obtaining pulmonary artery pressures require advanced assessment skills and should be done by the RN caring for a critically ill patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1816-1818 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

40. A patient who is experiencing an acute asthma attack is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse's first action should be to a. determine when the dyspnea started. b. obtain the forced expiratory flow rate. c. listen to the patient's breath sounds. d. ask about inhaled corticosteroid use.

C Rationale: Assessment of the patient's breath sounds will help to determine how effectively the patient is ventilating and whether rapid intubation may be necessary. The length of time the attack has persisted is not as important as determining the patient's status at present. Most patients having an acute attack will be unable to cooperate with a FEV measurement. It is important to know about the medications the patient is using but not as important as assessing the breath sounds. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 626 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. When preparing a patient with possible asthma for pulmonary function testing, the nurse will teach the patient to a. avoid eating or drinking for 4 hours before the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)/forced expiratory volume (FEV) test. b. take oral corticosteroids at least 2 hours before the examination. c. withhold bronchodilators for 6 to 12 hours before the examination. d. use rescue medications immediately before the FEV1/FEV testing.

C Rationale: Bronchodilators are held before pulmonary function testing so that a baseline assessment of airway function can be determined. Testing is repeated after bronchodilator use to determine whether the decrease in lung function is reversible. There is no need for the patient to be NPO. Oral corticosteroids should also be held before the examination and corticosteroids given 2 hours before the examination would be at a high level. Rescue medications (which are bronchodilators) would not be given until after the baseline pulmonary function was assessed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 614 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. A patient with COPD tells the nurse, "At home, I only have to use an albuterol (Proventil) inhaler. Why did the doctor add an ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler while I'm in the hospital? The appropriate response by the nurse is a. "Atrovent will dilate the airways and allow the Proventil to penetrate more deeply." b. "Atrovent is being used to decrease airway inflammation and sputum production." c. "Atrovent works differently to dilate the bronchi, and the two drugs together are more effective." d. "Atrovent is a potent bronchodilator and patients need to be hospitalized when receiving it."

C Rationale: Combining bronchodilators improves effectiveness. Atrovent does not have to be used before Proventil, it does not decrease airway inflammation, and it does not require hospitalization. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 640 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

33. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. document the presence of a large air leak. b. obtain and attach a new collection device. c. notify the health care provider of a possible pneumothorax. d. take no further action with the collection device.

C Rationale: Continuous bubbling is expected in the suction-control chamber and indicates that the suction-control chamber is connected to suction. An air leak would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence of pneumothorax. A new collection device is needed when the collection chamber is filled. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 591 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. When reading the chart for a patient with COPD, the nurse notes that the patient has cor pulmonale. To assess for cor pulmonale, the nurse will monitor the patient for a. elevated temperature. b. complaints of chest pain. c. jugular vein distension. d. clubbing of the fingers.

C Rationale: Cor pulmonale causes clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure, such as jugular vein distension. The other clinical manifestations may occur in the patient with other complications of COPD but are not indicators of cor pulmonale. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 635-636 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A patient with a history of asthma is admitted to the hospital in acute respiratory distress. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would notify the health care provider immediately about a. a pulse oximetry reading of 90%. b. a peak expiratory flow rate of 240 ml/min. c. decreased breath sounds and wheezing. d. a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min.

C Rationale: Decreased breath sounds and wheezing would indicate that the patient was experiencing an asthma attack, and immediate bronchodilator treatment would be indicated. The other data indicate that the patient needs ongoing monitoring and assessment but do not indicate a need for immediate treatment. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 608, 612, 614 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active TB. Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Giving the patient written instructions about how to take the medications b. Teaching the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed c. Arranging for a daily noontime meal at a community center and give the medication then d. Educating the patient about the long-term impact of TB on health

C Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen, and arranging a daily meal will help to ensure that the patient is available to receive the medication. The other nursing interventions may be appropriate for some patients, but are not likely to be as helpful with this patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 572, 575 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

46. The nurse has received change-of-shift report about these four patients. Which one will the nurse plan to assess first? a. A 23-year-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled in 30 minutes b. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with bacterial pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2° F c. A 46-year-old patient who is complaining of dyspnea after having a thoracentesis an hour previously d. A 77-year-old patient with TB who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes

C Rationale: Dyspnea after a thoracentesis may indicate a pneumothorax or hemothorax and requires immediate evaluation by the nurse. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 596 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. All the following medications are ordered for a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and acute renal failure. Which medication should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before administration? a. IV ranitidine (Zantac) 50 mg IV b. sucralfate (Carafate) 1 g per nasogastric tube c. IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg d. IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg

C Rationale: Gentamicin, which is one of the aminoglycoside antibiotics, is potentially nephrotoxic, and the nurse should clarify the drug and dosage with the health care provider before administration. The other medications are appropriate for the patient with ARDS. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1816 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. It will be most important for the nurse to check pulse oximetry for which of these patients? a. A patient with emphysema and a respiratory rate of 16 b. A patient with massive obesity who is refusing to get out of bed c. A patient with pneumonia who has just been admitted to the unit d. A patient who has just received morphine sulfate for postoperative pain

C Rationale: Hypoxemia and hypoxemic respiratory failure are caused by disorders that interfere with the transfer of oxygen into the blood, such as pneumonia. The other listed disorders are more likely to cause problems with hypercapnia because of ventilatory failure. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1799-1800 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. Which of these is the best goal for the patient admitted with chronic bronchitis who has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? a. Patient denies having dyspnea. b. Patient's mental status is improved. c. Patient has a productive cough. d. Patient's O2 saturation is 90%.

C Rationale: The goal for the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance is to maintain a clear airway by coughing effectively. The other goals may be appropriate for the patient with COPD, but they do not address the problem of ineffective airway clearance. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 660 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

44. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. BP is 150/90. b. Pain level is 5/10 with a deep breath. c. Oxygen saturation is 89%. d. Respiratory rate is 24 when lying flat.

C Rationale: Oxygen saturation would be expected to improve after a thoracentesis; a saturation of 89 indicates that a complication such as pneumothorax may be occurring. The other assessment data also indicate a need for ongoing assessment or intervention, but the low oxygen saturation is the priority. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 596 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. The nurse is performing TB screening in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Before doing a TB skin test on a patient, which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "How long have you lived in the United States?" b. "Is there any family history of TB?" c. "Have you received the BCG vaccine for TB?" d. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?"

C Rationale: Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test; another method for screening (such as a chest x-ray) will be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection. The other information may also be valuable but is not as pertinent to the decision about doing TB skin testing. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 572 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. When a patient is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the nurse will teach the patient about the risk for poor oxygenation because of a. too-rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels. b. incomplete filling of the alveoli with air because of reduced respiratory ability. c. decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood because of thickening of the alveoli. d. mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels of the lung.

C Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis causes the alveolar-capillary interface to become thicker, which increases the amount of time it takes for gas to diffuse across the membrane. Too-rapid pulmonary blood flow is another cause of shunt but does not describe the pathology of pulmonary fibrosis. Decrease in alveolar ventilation will cause hypercapnia. Ventilation and perfusion are matched in pulmonary fibrosis; the problem is with diffusion. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1802 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. The nurse teaches a patient with COPD how to perform pursed-lip breathing, explaining that this technique will assist respiration by a. loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily. b. promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs. c. preventing airway collapse and air trapping in the lungs during expiration. d. decreasing anxiety by giving the patient control of respiratory patterns.

C Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing increases the airway pressure during the expiratory phase and prevents collapse of the airways, allowing for more complete exhalation. Although loosening of secretions, improving inhalation, and decreasing anxiety are desirable outcomes for the patient with COPD, pursed-lip breathing does not directly impact these. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 646 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. An asthmatic patient who has a new prescription for Advair Diskus (combined fluticasone and salmeterol) asks the nurse the purpose of using two drugs. The nurse explains that a. Advair is a combination of long-acting and slow-acting bronchodilators. b. the two drugs work together to block the effects of histamine on the bronchioles. c. one drug decreases inflammation, and the other is a bronchodilator. d. the combination of two drugs works more quickly in an acute asthma attack.

C Rationale: Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator, and fluticasone is a corticosteroid; they work together to prevent asthma attacks. Neither medication is an antihistamine. Advair is not used during an acute attack because the medications do not work rapidly. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 621 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A hospitalized patient who may have tuberculosis (TB) has an order for a sputum specimen. When will be the best time for the nurse to collect the specimen? a. After the patient rinses the mouth with mouthwash b. As soon as the order is received from the health care provider c. Right after the patient gets up in the morning d. After the skin test is administered

C Rationale: Sputum specimens are ideally collected in the morning because mucus is likely to accumulate during the night. The patient should rinse the mouth with water; mouthwash may inhibit the growth of the bacilli. There is no need to wait until the tuberculin skin test is administered. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 572 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. The nurse will anticipate discharge today for which of these patients with community-acquired-pneumonia? a. 24-year-old patient who has had temperatures ranging from 100.6° to 101° F b. 35-year-old patient who has had 600 ml of oral fluids in the last 24 hours c. 50-year-old patient who has an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air d. 72-year-old patient with a pulse of 102 and a blood pressure (BP) of 90/56

C Rationale: The 50-year-old meets the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) hospital discharge criteria. The other patients do not meet the criteria for discharge. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 563 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. A common etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis in patients with asthma is a. anxiety about dyspnea. b. side effects of medications. c. work of breathing. d. fear of suffocation.

C Rationale: The activity intolerance patients with asthma experience is related to the increased effort needed to breathe when airways are inflamed and narrowed and interventions are focused on decreasing inflammation and bronchoconstriction. The other listed etiologies are not as appropriate for this diagnosis but would be appropriate for diagnoses seen in patients with asthma, such as social isolation, knowledge deficit, and anxiety. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 612, 624 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD has the following ABG analysis: pH 7.32, PaO2 58 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and SaO2 86%. The nurse recognizes these values as evidence of a. normal acid-base balance with hypoxemia. b. normal acid-base balance with hypercapnia. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.

C Rationale: The elevated PaCO2 and low pH indicate respiratory acidosis. The patient is hypoxemic and hypercapnic, but the pH indicates acidosis, not a normal acid-base balance. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 650 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. When caring for a patient who developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as a result of a urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse is asked by the patient's family how a urinary tract infection could cause lung damage. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "The infection spread through the circulation from the urinary tract to the lungs." b. "The urinary tract infection produced toxins that damaged the lungs." c. "The infection caused generalized inflammation that damaged the lungs." d. "The fever associated with the infection led to scar tissue formation in the lungs."

C Rationale: The pathophysiologic changes that occur in ARDS are thought to be caused by inflammatory and immune reactions that lead to changes at the alveolar-capillary membrane. ARDS is not directly caused by infection, toxins, or fever. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1813 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

26. An hour after a left upper lobectomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 out of 10 and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 ml of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the patient to deep breathe and cough. b. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots. c. Medicate the patient with the ordered morphine. d. Notify the surgeon about the large air leak.

C Rationale: The patient is unlikely to take deep breaths or cough until the pain level is lower. A chest tube output of 100 ml is not unusual in the first hour after thoracotomy and would not require milking of the chest tube. An air leak is expected in the initial postoperative period after thoracotomy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 594 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

31. A 26-year-old patient has had CF since birth and has severe lung changes and cor pulmonale as a result of the disease. An appropriate expected outcome is that the patient will a. engage in aerobic exercise without dyspnea. b. be weaned from home oxygen use. c. achieve a realistic attitude toward treatment. d. develop no CF-related complications.

C Rationale: The patient's severe lung disease and cor pulmonale are late complications of CF, and a realistic attitude about what outcome can be expected from treatment is an appropriate outcome. Exercising without dyspnea and weaning from home oxygen therapy are not realistic outcomes for this patient with end-stage disease. The patient already has multiple CF-related complications and is likely to continue to develop complications. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 657-658 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

21. When prone positioning is used in the care of a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective? a. The skin on the patient's back is intact and without redness. b. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 24 hours. c. The patient's PaO2 is 90 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 92%. d. Endotracheal suctioning results in minimal mucous return.

C Rationale: The purpose of prone positioning is to improve the patient's oxygenation as indicated by the PaO2 and SaO2. The other information will be collected but does not indicate whether prone positioning has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1817-1818 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. During assessment of a patient with a history of asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse will anticipate giving medications to reduce a. laryngospasm. b. pulmonary edema. c. airway narrowing. d. alveolar distention.

C Rationale: The symptoms of asthma are caused by inflammation and spasm of the bronchioles, leading to airway narrowing. Treatment for laryngospasm or pulmonary edema would not be appropriate. There are no medications used to treat alveolar distention. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 608, 611-612 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

29. The nurse has completed teaching a patient about MDI use. Which patient statement indicates that further patient teaching is needed? a. "I will shake the MDI each time before giving the medication." b. "I will take a slow, deep breath in after pushing down on the MDI." c. "I will float the canister in water to decide whether I need to get a new MDI." d. "I will attach a spacer to the MDI to make it easier for me to use."

C Rationale: This method is no longer recommended as a means of determining whether the medication needs replacement. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate the patient understands how to use the MDI. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 622 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department complaining of acute respiratory distress. When monitoring the patient, which assessment by the nurse will be of most concern? a. The patient is sitting in the tripod position. b. The patient has bibasilar lung crackles. c. The patient's pulse oximetry indicates an O2 saturation of 91%. d. The patient's respiratory rate has decreased from 30 to 10/min.

D Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory distress suggests the onset of fatigue and a high risk for respiratory arrest; therefore, the nurse will need to take immediate action. Patients who are experiencing respiratory distress frequently sit in the tripod position because it decreases the work of breathing. Crackles in the lung bases may be the baseline for a patient with COPD. An oxygen saturation of 91% is common in patients with COPD and will provide adequate gas exchange and tissue oxygenation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1804 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. A patient is seen in the clinic with COPD. Which information given by the patient would help most in confirming a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis? a. The patient tells the nurse about a family history of bronchitis. b. The patient denies having any respiratory problems until the last 6 months. c. The patient's history indicates a 40 pack-year cigarette history. d. The patient complains about having a productive cough every winter for 2 months.

D Rationale: A diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is based on a history of having a productive cough for several months for at least 2 consecutive years. There is no familial tendency for chronic bronchitis. Although smoking is the major risk factor for chronic bronchitis, a smoking history does not confirm the diagnosis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 629 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. A patient is diagnosed with a large pulmonary embolism. When explaining to the patient what has happened to cause respiratory failure, which information will the nurse include? a. "Oxygen transfer into your blood is slow because of thick membranes between the small air sacs and the lung circulation." b. "Thick secretions in your small airways are blocking air from moving into the small air sacs in your lungs." c. "Large areas of your lungs are getting good blood flow but are not receiving enough air to fill the small air sacs." d. "Blood flow though some areas of your lungs is decreased even though you are taking adequate breaths."

D Rationale: A pulmonary embolus limits blood flow but does not affect ventilation, leading to a ventilation-perfusion mismatch. The response beginning, "Oxygen transfer into your blood is slow because of thick membranes" describes a diffusion problem. The remaining two responses describe ventilation-perfusion mismatch with adequate blood flow but poor ventilation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1802 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

37. The nurse has received a change-of-shift report about these patients with COPD. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with loud expiratory wheezes b. A patient who has a cough productive of thick, green mucus c. A patient with jugular vein distension and peripheral edema d. A patient with a respiratory rate of 38

D Rationale: A respiratory rate of 38 indicates severe respiratory distress, and the patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent possible respiratory arrest. The other patients also need assessment as soon as possible, but they do not need to be assessed as urgently as the tachypneic patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 612, 626 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

20. During IV administration of amphotericin B ordered for treatment of coccidioidomycosis, the nurse increases the patient's tolerance of the drug by a. cooling the solution to 80° F before administration. b. keeping the patient flat in bed for 1 hour after the infusion is completed. c. diluting the amphotericin B in 500 ml of sterile water. d. giving diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 1 hour before starting the infusion.

D Rationale: Administration of an antihistamine before giving the amphotericin B will reduce the incidence of hypersensitivity reactions. Cooling the solution and keeping the patient flat after infusion are not indicated. Amphotericin B does not need to be diluted in 500 ml of fluid, although the nurse should ensure adequate hydration in the patient receiving this drug. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 575 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

39. After discharge teaching has been completed for a patient who has had a lung transplant, the nurse will evaluate that the teaching has been effective if the patient states a. "I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year." b. "I will not turn the home oxygen up higher than 2 L/minute." c. "I will be careful to use sterile technique with my central line." d. "I will write down my medications and spirometry in a journal."

D Rationale: After lung transplant, patients are taught to keep logs of medications, spirometry, and laboratory results. Patients require frequent follow-up visits with the transplant team; annual health care provider visits would not be sufficient. Home oxygen use is not an expectation after lung transplant and patients would not usually have a central IV line. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 604 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

34. All of these orders are received for a patient having an acute asthma attack. Which one will the nurse administer first? a. IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg b. triamcinolone (Azmacort) 2 puffs per MDI c. salmeterol (Serevent) 50 mcg per DPI d. albuterol (Ventolin) 2.5 mg per nebulizer

D Rationale: Albuterol is a rapidly acting bronchodilator and is the first-line medication to reverse airway narrowing in acute asthma attacks. The other medications work more slowly. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 620 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A 77-year-old patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.2° F (38.5° C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. The patient is very weak and needs assistance to get out of bed. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. hyperthermia related to infectious illness. b. ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions. c. impaired transfer ability related to weakness. d. impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.

D Rationale: All these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the patient, but the patient's oxygen saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 566 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. The nurse recognizes that intubation and mechanical ventilation are indicated for a patient in status asthmaticus when a. ventricular dysrhythmias and dyspnea occur. b. loud wheezes are audible throughout the lungs. c. pulsus paradoxus is greater than 40 mm Hg. d. fatigue and an O2 saturation of 88% develop.

D Rationale: Although all of the assessment data indicate the need for rapid intervention, the fatigue and hypoxia indicate that the patient is no longer able to maintain an adequate respiratory effort and needs mechanical ventilation. The initial treatment for the other clinical manifestations would initially be administration of rapidly acting bronchodilators and oxygen. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 612-613 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. When developing a teaching plan for a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking, it will be most important for the nurse to include information about a. reasons for annual sputum cytology testing. b. CT screening for lung cancer. c. erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk. d. options for smoking cessation.

D Rationale: Because smoking is the major cause of lung cancer, the most important role for the nurse is educating patients about the benefits of and means of smoking cessation. Early screening of at-risk patients using sputum cytology, chest x-ray, or CT scanning has not been effective in reducing mortality. Tarceva may be used to in patients who have lung cancer, but not to reduce risk for developing tumors. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 582, 584 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

20. Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the family members of a patient with ARDS is correct? a. "PEEP will prevent fibrosis of the lung from occurring." b. "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation." c. "PEEP allows the ventilator to deliver 100% oxygen to the lungs." d. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."

D Rationale: By preventing alveolar collapse during expiration, PEEP improves gas exchange and oxygenation. PEEP will not prevent the fibrotic changes that occur with ARDS, push more air into the lungs, or change the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) delivered to the patient. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1817 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. The nurse recognizes that the goals of teaching regarding the transmission of TB have been met when the patient with TB a. demonstrates correct use of a nebulizer. b. reports daily to the public health department. c. washes dishes and personal items after use. d. covers the mouth and nose when coughing.

D Rationale: Covering the mouth and nose will help decrease airborne transmission of TB. The other actions will not be effective in decreasing the spread of TB. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 574 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

34. When providing preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for cancer of the lung, the nurse informs the patient that the postoperative care includes a. positioning on the right side. b. chest tubes to water-seal chest drainage. c. bedrest for the first 24 hours. d. frequent use of an incentive spirometer.

D Rationale: Frequent deep breathing and coughing are needed after chest surgery to prevent atelectasis. To promote gas exchange, patients after pneumonectomy are positioned on the surgical side. Chest tubes are not usually used after pneumonectomy because the affected side is allowed to fill with fluid. Early mobilization decreases the risk for postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 596-597 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. While caring for a patient who has been admitted with a pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes a change in the patient's arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation (SpO2) from 94% to 88%. The nurse will a. assist the patient to cough and deep-breathe. b. help the patient to sit in a more upright position. c. suction the patient's oropharynx. d. increase the oxygen flow rate.

D Rationale: Increasing oxygen flow rate will usually improve oxygen saturation in patients with ventilation-perfusion mismatch, as occurs with pulmonary embolism. Because the problem is with perfusion, actions that improve ventilation, such as deep-breathing and coughing, sitting upright, and suctioning, are not likely to improve oxygenation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1802, 1807 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. A patient experiences a steering wheel injury as a result of an automobile accident. During the initial assessment, the emergency department nurse would be most concerned about a. complaints of severe pain. b. heart rate of 110 beats/min. c. a large bruised area on the chest. d. paradoxic chest movement.

D Rationale: Paradoxic chest movement indicates that the patient may have flail chest, which will severely compromise gas exchange and can rapidly lead to hypoxemia. Severe pain, a slightly elevated pulse rate, and chest bruising all require further assessment or intervention, but the priority concern is poor gas exchange. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 586, 588 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. After a patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 2 days, which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. Increased vocal fremitus is palpable over the right chest. c. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucous. d. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/µl.

D Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 569 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. Following discharge teaching, the nurse evaluates that the patient who was admitted with pneumonia understands measures to prevent a reoccurrence of the pneumonia when the patient states, a. "I will increase my food intake to 3000 calories a day." b. "I will need to use home oxygen therapy for 3 months." c. "I will seek medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." d. "I will do deep-breathing and coughing exercises for the next 6 weeks."

D Rationale: Patients at risk for recurrent pneumonia should use the incentive spirometer or do deep breathing and coughing exercises or both for 6 to 8 weeks after discharge. Although caloric needs are increased during the acute infection, 3000 calories daily will lead to obesity and increase the risk for pneumonia. Patients with acute lower respiratory infections do not usually require home oxygen therapy. Upper respiratory infections require medical treatment only when they fail to resolve in 7 days. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 569 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

41. After teaching the patient with asthma about home care, the nurse will evaluate that the teaching has been successful if the patient states, a. "I will use my corticosteroid inhaler as soon as I start to get short of breath." b. "I will only turn the home oxygen level up after checking with the doctor first." c. "My medications are working if I wake up short of breath only once during the night." d. "No changes in my medications are needed if my peak flow is at 80% of normal."

D Rationale: Peak flows of 80% or greater indicate that the asthma is well controlled. Corticosteroids are long-acting, prophylactic therapy for asthma and are not used to treat acute dyspnea. Because asthma is an acute and intermittent process, home oxygen is not used. The patient who has effective treatment should sleep throughout the night without waking up with dyspnea. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 628 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. After prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass, a patient develops increasing shortness of breath and hypoxemia. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by left ventricular failure, the nurse will anticipate assisting with a. positioning the patient for a chest radiograph. b. drawing blood for arterial blood gases. c. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan. d. inserting a pulmonary artery catheter.

D Rationale: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure will remain at normal levels in the patient with ARDS because the fluid in the alveoli is caused by increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane rather than by the backup of fluid from the lungs (as occurs in cardiogenic pulmonary edema). The other tests will not help in differentiating cardiogenic from noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1815 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. A 23-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Schedule sweat chloride test to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy. b. Arrange for a hospice nurse to visit with the patient regarding home care. c. Place the patient on a low-sodium diet to prevent cor pulmonale. d. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours to mobilize secretions.

D Rationale: Routine scheduling of airway clearance techniques is an essential intervention for patients with CF. A sweat chloride test is used to diagnose CF, but it does not provide any information about the effectiveness of therapy. There is no indication that the patient is terminally ill. Patients with CF lose excessive sodium in their sweat and require high amounts of dietary sodium. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 658 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. A patient is receiving 35% oxygen via a Venturi mask. To ensure the correct amount of oxygen delivery, it is most important that the nurse a. give a high enough flow rate to keep the bag from collapsing. b. use an appropriate adaptor to ensure adequate oxygen delivery. c. drain moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing every hour. d. keep the air entrainment ports clean and unobstructed.

D Rationale: The air entrainment ports regulate the oxygen percentage delivered to the patient, so they must be unobstructed. A high oxygen flow rate is needed when giving oxygen by partial rebreather or non-rebreather masks. The use of an adaptor can improve humidification but not oxygen delivery. Draining oxygen tubing is necessary when caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 642 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. When a patient with COPD is receiving oxygen, the best action by the nurse is to a. avoid administration of oxygen at a rate of more than 2 L/min. b. minimize oxygen use to avoid oxygen dependency. c. administer oxygen according to the patient's level of dyspnea. d. maintain the pulse oximetry level at 90% or greater.

D Rationale: The best way to determine the appropriate oxygen flow rate is by monitoring the patient's oxygenation either by ABGs or pulse oximetry; an oxygen saturation of 90% indicates adequate blood oxygen level without the danger of suppressing the respiratory drive. For patients with an exacerbation of COPD, an oxygen flow rate of 2 L/min may not be adequate. Because oxygen use improves survival rate in patients with COPD, there is not a concern about oxygen dependency. The patient's perceived dyspnea level may be affected by other factors (such as anxiety) besides blood oxygen level. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 640 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound to the right chest. Air can be heard entering his chest with each inspiration. To decrease the possibility of a tension pneumothorax in the patient, the nurse should a. position the patient so that the right chest is dependent. b. administer high-flow oxygen using a non-rebreathing mask. c. cover the sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing. d. tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound.

D Rationale: The dressing taped on three sides will allow air to escape when intrapleural pressure increases during expiration, but it will prevent air from moving into the pleural space during inspiration. Placing the patient on the right side or covering the chest wound with an occlusive dressing will allow trapped air in the pleural space and cause tension pneumothorax. The patient should receive oxygen, but this will have no effect on the development of tension pneumothorax. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 586 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. When assessing a patient with chronic lung disease, the nurse finds a sudden onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the patient every 10 to 15 minutes. b. Notify the patient's health care provider immediately. c. Attempt to calm and reassure the patient. d. Assess vital signs and pulse oximetry.

D Rationale: The nurse needs to collect additional clinical data to share with the health care provider and to start interventions quickly if appropriate (e.g., increased oxygen flow if hypoxic). The change in the patient's neurologic status may indicate deterioration in respiratory function, and the health care provider should be notified immediately but only after some additional information is obtained. Monitoring the patient and attempting to calm the patient are appropriate actions, but they will not prevent further deterioration of the patient's clinical status and may delay care. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1804-1805 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

43. In developing a teaching plan for a patient who is being discharged with a warfarin (Coumadin) prescription after having a pulmonary embolus, the nurse will include information about a. where to schedule activated partial thromboplastin time testing. b. avoidance of a high protein diet. c. how to obtain enteric-coated aspirin. d. foods that are high in vitamin K.

D Rationale: The patient who is taking Coumadin should have a consistent vitamin K intake, since vitamin K interferes with the effect of the medication. INR testing, rather than aPTT testing, is used to monitor for a therapeutic level of Coumadin. Aside from vitamin K, there are no other dietary requirements associated with Coumadin use. Aspirin should be avoided when taking anticoagulant medications because of the effect on platelet function. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 600 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A patient in acute respiratory failure as a complication of COPD has a PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg, rhonchi audible in the right lung, and marked fatigue with a weak cough. The nurse will plan to a. allow the patient to rest to help conserve energy. b. arrange for a humidifier to be placed in the patient's room. c. position the patient on the right side with the head of the bed elevated. d. assist the patient with augmented coughing to remove respiratory secretions.

D Rationale: The patient's assessment indicates that assisted coughing is needed to help remove secretions, which will improve PaCO2 and will also help to correct fatigue. If the patient is allowed to rest, the PaCO2 will increase. Humidification may help loosen secretions, but the weak cough effort will prevent the secretions from being cleared. The patient should be positioned with the good lung down to improve gas exchange. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1809 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. The nurse is caring for a patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with aspiration pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged sputum. b. The patient has scattered crackles throughout the posterior lung bases. c. The patient's temperature is 101.5° F after 2 days of IV antibiotic therapy. d. The patient's SpO2 has dropped to 90%, although the O2 flow rate has been increased.

D Rationale: The patient's dropping SpO2 despite having an increase in FIO2 indicates the possibility of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The patient's blood-tinged sputum and scattered crackles are not unusual in a patient with pneumonia, although they do require continued monitoring. The continued temperature elevation indicates a possible need to change antibiotics, but this is not as urgent a concern as the progression toward hypoxemia despite an increase in O2 flow rate. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1815 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

26. A patient with severe COPD tells the nurse, "I wish I were dead! I cannot do anything for myself anymore." Based on this information, the nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of a. hopelessness related to presence of long-term stress. b. anticipatory grieving related to expectation of death. c. ineffective coping related to unknown outcome of illness. d. disturbed self-esteem related to physical dependence.

D Rationale: The patient's statement about not being able to do anything for himself or herself supports this diagnosis. Although hopelessness, anticipatory grieving, and ineffective coping may also be appropriate diagnoses for patients with COPD, the patient does not mention long-term stress, death, or an unknown outcome as being concerns. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 655 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

1. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which information best supports this diagnosis? a. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% b. Respiratory rate of 28 c. Large amounts of greenish sputum d. Weak, nonproductive cough effort

D Rationale: The weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 568 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

What does FIO2 stand for?

Fraction of Inspired oxygen concentration

What does central cyanosis indicate?

Hypoexmia

How often should a nurse assess the skin and nares of the patient with a nasal cannula?

The nurse should assess the client's nares and ears for skin breakdown every 6 hours.

a 48-year-old client doesn't smoke cigarettes yet is demonstrating signs of lung irritation. Which of the following questions could help with the assessment of this client? a. Do you smoke or inhale marijuana or other herbal products? b. Have you had allergy testing? c. Have you received a flu or pneumonia vaccination? d. Have you tried to stop smoking?

a. Do you smoke or inhale marijuana or other herbal products?

The position of a conscious client during suctioning is: a. Fowler's b. Supine position c. Side-lying d. Prone

a. Fowler's Position a conscious person who has a functional gag reflex in the semi fowler's position with the head turned to one side for oral suctioning or with the neck hyper extended for nasal suctioning. If the client is unconscious place the patient a lateral position facing you.

During a physical assessment, the nurse documents eupnea on the client's medical record. What does this finding suggest? a. Normal respirations b. Slow respirations c. Irregular respirations d. Rapid respirations

a. Normal respirations

After inspecting a client's thorax, the nurse writes "AP:T 1:2, bilateral symmetrical movements, sternum midline, respiratory rate 16 and regular." What do these findings suggest? a. Nothing. These findings are normal. b. The client has pneumonia. c. The client has a respiratory illness. d. The client has allergies.

a. Nothing. These findings are normal.

23. The accumulation of fluids in the pleural space is called: a. Pleural effusion b. Hemothorax c. Hydrothorax d. Pyothorax

a. Pleural effusion

A client with a strained trapezius muscle complains of having occasional shortness of breath. What might be the reason for this symptom? a. The strained muscle is an accessory muscle of respiration. b. The diaphragm muscle is also injured. c. There is an undiagnosed heart problem. d. There is a blood clot in his lung.

a. The strained muscle is an accessory muscle of respiration.

Prior to listening to a client's lung sounds, the nurse palpates the sternum and feels a horizontal bump on the bone. What does this finding suggest to the nurse? a. This is the angle of Louis. b. The manubrium is damaged. c. The costal angle is greater than normal. d. The xiphoid process is misshaped.

a. This is the angle of Louis.

A 57-year-old client tells the nurse, "I need two to three pillows to sleep." How should this information be documented? a. Two to three pillow orthopnea b. Dyspnea on excursion c. Resting apnea d. Dyspnea at rest

a. Two to three pillow orthopnea

While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the male client coughs and the tube is dislodged. The initial nursing action is to: a. Call the physician to reinsert the tube. b. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening. c. Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy. d. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.

b. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening.

The nurse is assessing the client's lung bases posteriorly. At which area can the nurse assess this portion of the lung? a. Right anterior axillary line b. Scapular line c. Midsternal line d. Left midclavicular line

b. Scapular line

In planning a patient education session, the nurse sees one area of focus for Healthy People 2010 is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the education session to address this focus area? a. Screening for environmental triggers b. Smoking cessation c. Develop action plans d. Identify those at risk

b. Smoking cessation

The mother of a four-year-old child tells the nurse, "I think there's something wrong with him; his chest is round like a ball." Which of the following would be an appropriate response for the nurse to make to the mother? a. I see what you mean. That seems odd. b. The chest of a child appears round and is normal. c. I wouldn't worry about that. d. Did you tell the doctor about this?

b. The chest of a child appears round and is normal.

The client tells the nurse he sometimes coughs up "thick yellow mucous." What does this information suggest to the nurse? a. He might have an allergy. b. He might have a fungal infection. c. He might have episodic lung infections. d. He might have tuberculosis.

c. He might have episodic lung infections Rationale: The color and odor of any mucus is associated with specific diseases or problems. Green or yellow mucus often signals a lung infection.

A seven-month-pregnant female is sitting quietly in the waiting room, and her respiratory rate is 20 and shallow. What does this finding suggest to the nurse? a. She has a history of smoking. b. She is using accessory muscles to breathe. b. She is in pending respiratory failure. c. Nothing. This is normal.

c. Nothing. This is normal.

While palpating the posterior thorax of a client, the nurse notes increased fremitus. What does this finding suggest to the nurse? a. The client needs to speak up. b. The client has a thick chest wall. c. The client could either have fluid in the lungs or have an infection. d. Nothing. This is a normal finding.

c. The client could either have fluid in the lungs or have an infection.

What is atelectasis?

collapse of the alveoli in the lung prevents normal exchange of O2 and co2 hypoventilation occurs

The most important action the nurse should do before and after suctioning a client is: a. Placing the client in a supine position b. Making sure that suctioning takes only 10-15 seconds c. Evaluating for clear breath sounds d. Hyperventilating the client with 100% oxygen

d. Hyperventilating the client with 100% oxygen

After examining a 75-year-old male client, the nurse writes down "barrel chest." What does this finding suggest? a. The client has a history of smoking. b. The client has osteoporosis. c. The client has long-standing respiratory disease. d. This is a change associated with aging.

d. This is a change associated with aging.

The nurse sees that the client will breathe deeply and then stop breathing for a short while. Which of the following does this observation suggest? a. This client is hyperventilating. b. This client is in a diabetic coma. c. This client has pneumonia. d. This is seen in aging people, people with heart failure, and people who have suffered brain damage.

d. This is seen in aging people, people with heart failure, and people who have suffered brain damage.

Describe Tachypnea

respirations > 35 clinical significance/contributing factors: - respiratory failure - response to fever - anemia - pain - respiratory infection - anxiety (emergencies SNS system kicks in)