CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Review

A company's IT department has noticed irregularities in network usage and resource allocation. Which tool would be MOST beneficial in collecting the metadata and statistics from the network traffic? A. Flow collector B. Network monitor C. SNMP trap D. Heartbeat message

Correct Answer(s): A. Flow collector - Flow collectors record metadata and statistics about network traffic, thereby identifying trends and patterns, detecting anomalies, and providing visualization tools that simplify the interpretation of traffic data. Incorrect Answer(s): While network monitors can provide valuable information on the state of network appliances, they primarily focus on aspects like CPU/memory load status, disk capacity, network link utilization, and similar data. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps inform a management system of notable events, such as port failures or excessive CPU utilization, primarily dealing with hardware issues rather than traffic pattern analysis. A heartbeat message indicates availability and does not directly analyze or interpret network traffic.

Which of the following mitigation techniques refers to the process of protecting all information on a hard drive, including the programs responsible for booting an operating system? A. Network segmentation B. Device isolation C. Full-disk Encryption D. Patch management

Correct Answer(s): C. Full-disk Encryption - Full-disk Encryption (FDE) involves encrypting the entire contents of a hard drive, including the operating system and all user data. By doing this, FDE ensures no one accesses the data on the hard drive without the decryption key. Incorrect Answer(s): While network segmentation is a security measure, it does not involve encrypting all the data on a hard drive. Instead, it aims to limit the impact of a security breach by containing it within a specific network segment. Device isolation refers to limiting the interaction between devices on a network, which can prevent a security threat from spreading across the network. Patch management refers to applying updates to software and systems to fix vulnerabilities and improve security.

Which of the following is a correct interpretation of data sovereignty? A. A jurisdiction can restrict or prevent processing and storage of data on systems that do not physically reside within that jurisdiction. B. The physical location of a data center has no bearing on the jurisdiction and laws applicable to the data stored within it. C. Data can freely move across borders with no restrictions or regulations. D. All data is inherently owned by the organization or individual who created it, regardless of where it is stored or processed.

Correct Answer(s): A. A jurisdiction can restrict or prevent processing and storage of data on systems that do not physically reside within that jurisdiction - Data sovereignty is the principle that a jurisdiction can impose restrictions or prevent the processing and storage of data on systems that do not physically reside within that jurisdiction. It often requires organizations to use location-specific storage facilities or cloud services. Incorrect Answer(s): The physical location of a data center often directly determines the jurisdiction and laws applicable to the data stored within it. Data sovereignty is the opposite of this, often placing restrictions and regulations on how and where the user can move and store data. While data ownership is a complex issue and can depend on various factors, data sovereignty refers to the laws and regulations on how and where the user can move and store data.

An IT architect of a medium-sized e-commerce business is planning to optimize their system's capacity and lower operating costs. As part of this, the architect is considering a clustering solution for the servers, with the key objective being maximum capacity and seamless customer experience. Which type of clustering setup would BEST meet the needs of this e-commerce business? A. Active/Active Clustering B. Active/Passive Clustering C. No clustering, just a single server D. Active/Passive Clustering with an equal number of active and passive nodes

Correct Answer(s): A. Active/Active Clustering - Active/Active Clustering is the most suitable for a 24/7 e-commerce business. Both nodes in this setup process the connections concurrently, maximizing the utilization of available resources. Incorrect Answer(s): While Active/Passive Clustering provides a degree of resilience, it does not fully utilize the available resources, as one node remains idle unless the active node fails. A single server and no clustering are not ideal for a 24/7 e-commerce business since a single server does not provide any resilience or recovery options. This type of setup would involve unnecessary costs for the business as it requires an equal number of passive nodes for each active node.

An organization receives large amounts of diverse data sources during cybersecurity incidents and needs a more efficient tool. Dealing with system memory, log files, network traffic, and endpoint security data has proven to be chaotic. What primary function would a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool serve in this scenario? A. Aggregating and correlating data from multiple sources to enable efficient analysis and reporting B. Automatically executing the entire incident response process, eliminating the need for human analysts C. Generating alerts and alarms exclusively when threat indicators appear in the data D. Solely creating custom dashboards and reports tailored to specific needs

Correct Answer(s): A. Aggregating and correlating data from multiple sources to enable efficient analysis and reporting - The primary function of a SIEM tool is to aggregate and correlate data from diverse sources. It collects data from different systems and correlates it to identify patterns or events indicating a security incident. Incorrect Answer(s): A SIEM tool does not automate the entire incident response process. While it can automate certain tasks like data aggregation, correlation, and alert generation, it does not eliminate the need for human analysts. Although one of the functions of a SIEM is to generate alerts and alarms when threat indicators appear in the data, this is not its only function. While a SIEM tool can indeed create custom dashboards and reports tailored to specific needs, this is not its primary function.

A company has recently deployed a new mobile application for its employees. During a security audit, observations show some employees downloaded the application from third-party app stores, not the official ones. Additionally, the IT department found that a few employees are using older versions of the operating system on their devices. What vulnerabilities are likely to emerge in this scenario? (Select the two best options.) A. Application-level vulnerability B. Outdated hardware vulnerability C. Operating system-level vulnerability D. Social engineering vulnerability

Correct Answer(s): A. Application-level vulnerability - Downloading applications from third-party app stores increases the risk of installing versions that someone may have tampered with or may contain malicious code, introducing application-level vulnerabilities. C. Operating system-level vulnerability - Using older versions of an operating system could expose the devices to vulnerabilities patched in later versions, leading to operating system-level vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answer(s): The scenario does not mention any outdated hardware. The issue is with the operating system versions and the source of the application download. The scenario does not describe a situation in which someone manipulates or deceives users into divulging sensitive information, which characterizes social engineering vulnerabilities.

A financial institution receives a significant software update. What is the optimal approach to handle this situation in a change management program? A. Assess impact, test, get approval, apply update B. Apply to critical systems first, then the rest C. Apply at next maintenance window without assessment D. Update systems with past vulnerabilities only

Correct Answer(s): A. Assess impact, test, get approval, apply update - In an effective change management program, it is crucial to assess the impact of the update, test it in a controlled environment, get the necessary approvals, and then apply the update system-wide. This step-by-step approach helps mitigate risks and ensure the update aligns with the organization's business objectives. Incorrect Answer(s): While applying the updates to a few critical systems first and then the rest seems cautious, it skips important steps such as assessment, testing, and approval. Applying the update during the next maintenance window without prior assessment, testing, and approval could introduce unexpected risks. Applying updates only to systems that have shown past vulnerabilities might leave other systems at risk and ignores the assessment process.

The cybersecurity team of a company notices suspicious activities on its network. Some computers have increased memory usage and are sending out network requests repeatedly to random IP ranges. No one observed an intervention when these activities started. Based on the provided details, what type of malicious activity is MOST likely happening in this scenario? A. Computer worm outbreak B. Virus infection C. Trojan attack D. Ransomware infection

Correct Answer(s): A. Computer worm outbreak - Computer worms are self-replicating malware that can spread across networks without user intervention. The continuous network requests to random IP ranges and increased memory usage indicate a worm's behavior. Incorrect Answer(s): Viruses usually require user intervention, like opening an infected file or attachment. They also typically write themselves to the disk, which does not align with the observed behavior in the scenario. Trojans often disguise themselves as legitimate software and rely on user intervention for execution. The description in the scenario does not indicate user involvement, making this option unlikely. While ransomware can cause an increase in memory usage, it is typically associated with file encryption, and the user usually receives a ransom note, neither of which takes place in the scenario.

After an extensive security audit, a medium-sized corporation discovers several of its company laptops contain malware. The malware is most likely the result of the use of unauthorized USB storage devices. The chief information security officer (CISO) wants to prevent similar incidents in the future. Which of the following options would best mitigate this risk? A. Deploy port control software and restrict the use of USB storage devices B. Implement Full-disk Encryption (FDE) on all laptops C. Disable all physical ports on company laptops D. Require all users to change their laptop passwords

Correct Answer(s): A. Deploy port control software and restrict the use of USB storage devices - Port control software allows the company to restrict which devices can connect via USB, preventing the use of unauthorized USB storage devices. This would directly address the problem without unduly limiting other uses of the laptop's physical ports. Incorrect Answer(s): While FDE is a useful tool for protecting sensitive data stored on a device, especially in the event of theft or loss, it does not prevent malware from USB storage devices. Disabling all physical ports would indeed prevent the introduction of malware via USB devices. However, it would also prevent all other uses of these ports. Although regularly updating passwords is a good security practice, it would not prevent malware from coming through USB storage devices.

A company wants to establish a secure communication channel with its remote employees. The company aims to ensure that the individuals communicating are who they claim to be to avoid any potential on-path attacks. Which system can help the company meet its objectives? A. Digital certificates managed by a Certificate Authority (CA) B. Symmetric key infrastructure C. Hash functions D. Password-based authentication system

Correct Answer(s): A. Digital certificates managed by a Certificate Authority (CA) - Digital certificates managed by a Certificate Authority (CA) provide an effective way to verify the identity of entities involved in communication. A CA is a trusted third party that issues digital certificates, which contain the public key of the entity and some identity information. Incorrect Answer(s): While symmetric key infrastructure provides secure communication, it does not inherently provide identity verification since parties share the same key. Hash functions are for data integrity checks rather than authentication or secure communication. They cannot establish identity verification. Password-based authentication systems are often not robust enough to protect against man-in-the-middle attacks or to verify the identity of the remote parties to the level a CA-managed digital certificate can.

A newly established organization has decided to implement Virtual LANs (VLANs) for segmenting workstation computer hosts from Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) handsets. The organization is using two VLANs that map to two subnets: 10.1.32.0/24 for workstation computers and 10.1.40.0/24 for VoIP handsets. In this setup, what could be a potential security advantage? A. Enhanced control over communication between VLANs. B. Unrestricted communication between devices on different VLANs. C. Immunity from unauthorized communication interception. D. Physical security of network devices and connected computers.

Correct Answer(s): A. Enhanced control over communication between VLANs - One security advantage of implementing VLANs is the ability to apply access control rules that prevent or permit certain types of communication between VLANs, hence mitigating risks. Incorrect Answer(s): One of the main purposes of VLANs is to segment the network, meaning devices from different VLANs cannot freely communicate with each other without routing. While VLANs can increase network security by segregating traffic, they do not make it impossible for unauthorized individuals to intercept communications. The organization would need other security measures, like encryption, for that purpose. While VLANs contribute to network security, they do not ensure the physical security of network devices and connected computers. The organization would require physical security measures for that purpose.

A company has recently suffered a data breach due to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to its system via an unsecured network interface on one of its machines. To prevent similar incidents in the future, what steps should the company take as part of its endpoint hardening strategy? A. Explicitly disable unused network interfaces B. Increase employee awareness of phishing threats C. Implement a strict device control policy for USB ports D. Update company-wide password practices

Correct Answer(s): A. Explicitly disable unused network interfaces - By explicitly disabling unused network interfaces, the company can significantly reduce its attack surface and protect against unauthorized access via these interfaces, addressing the specific vulnerability that led to the data breach. Incorrect Answer(s): While employee awareness of phishing threats is essential to cybersecurity, it would not directly address the vulnerability exposed in this incident. A strict device control policy for USB ports would primarily protect against threats originating from external devices connected to the system. This would not directly address the specific issue of unsecured network interfaces. Updating company-wide password practices can enhance overall security but does not directly address the vulnerability of unsecured network interfaces.

A large multinational company adopts a new standard to enhance its information security management system. The company operates across different regions, so the chosen standard must be internationally recognized. The company wants the standard to provide a comprehensive framework to ensure adequate and proportionate security controls. Which of the following standards would be MOST suitable for the company's needs? A. ISO/IEC 27001 B. ISO/IEC 27018 C. NIST Special Publication 800-63 D. PCI DSS

Correct Answer(s): A. ISO/IEC 27001 - ISO/IEC 27001 provides a comprehensive framework for an information security management system (ISMS), ensuring adequate and proportionate security controls. It is suitable for international use and ideal for a multinational company. Incorrect Answer(s): The ISO/IEC 27018 standard also pertains to information security, protecting personally identifiable information (PII) in public clouds. Although it may also be useful, it is less comprehensive than ISO/IEC 27001 for general information security management. The NIST Special Publication 800-63 standard is a U.S. government standard for digital identity guidelines. While it may offer useful guidelines for parts of the company's security needs, it is less comprehensive than ISO/IEC 27001. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is more specific for organizations that handle credit card transactions from major card providers.

An organization's automated scanner has just flagged a vulnerability with the identifier CVE-2023-0150. What are some initial steps the organization should take to understand and potentially address this vulnerability? A. Look up the identifier in the Vulnerability Database and assess the vulnerability. B. Ignore the identifier since it might not be significant. C. Consult the scanner's manufacturer for advice on the vulnerability. D. Modify the scanner settings to avoid detecting similar vulnerabilities in the future.

Correct Answer(s): A. Look up the identifier in the Vulnerability Database and assess the vulnerability - The CVE identifier is a standardized means for different products to refer to a specific vulnerability consistently. This identifier helps the user look up the vulnerability in the National Vulnerability Database (NVD), where the organization can find a detailed description of the vulnerability, its severity rating, affected software versions, and potential mitigation measures. Incorrect Answer(s): Ignoring the identifier is not advisable. The identifier corresponds to a specific vulnerability in the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) dictionary. While contacting the manufacturer might be useful in some cases, it is not the most efficient first step. The purpose of the automated scanner is to identify vulnerabilities so the organization can address them, not ignore them. Ignoring detected vulnerabilities could result in security breaches.

Two businesses establish a new vendor relationship. Before proceeding with formal contractual agreements, the organizations want to mutually outline their intentions, shared goals, and general terms of cooperation. Which of the following agreements would BEST suit this initial stage? A. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) B. Non-disclosure agreement (NDA) C. Service level agreement (SLA) D. Business partnership agreement (BPA)

Correct Answer(s): A. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) - MOUs are nonbinding agreements that serve as a preliminary step to establish a common understanding before proceeding with more formal agreements. They outline the intentions, shared goals, and general terms of cooperation between parties. Incorrect Answer(s): NDAs are typically signed alongside MOUs or other agreements but do not outline shared goals or cooperation terms. SLAs define specific performance metrics, quality standards, and service levels expected from the vendor. This is not the stage at which businesses establish these metrics. BPAs are more comprehensive and govern long-term strategic partnerships between organizations. They include a variety of elements such as goals, financial arrangements, decision-making processes, intellectual property rights, confidentiality, and dispute-resolution mechanisms.

A cybersecurity team at an organization prepares to carry out an assessment that aims to mimic potential attackers' tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the organization's digital systems. What type of penetration test is the team about to conduct? A. Offensive penetration testing B. Defensive penetration testing C. Physical penetration testing D. Integrated penetration testing

Correct Answer(s): A. Offensive penetration testing - Offensive penetration testing is a proactive and controlled approach to simulate real-world cyberattacks on an organization's systems, networks, and applications to identify vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and potential attack vectors that malicious actors could exploit. Incorrect Answer(s): Defensive penetration testing evaluates an organization's overall resilience against cyber threats, not actively trying to find vulnerabilities as an attacker might. Physical penetration testing involves assessing an organization's physical security practices and controls, such as access controls, surveillance, and perimeter defenses. While integrated penetration testing can include offensive penetration testing, the scenario specifically describes an offensive penetration test.

Given the complexities and benefits of secure protocols, which statement BEST guides the chief information security officer's (CISO) approach to implementing them? A. Relying solely on vendor recommendations B. Mandating secure protocols universally C. Balancing security, performance, and cost D. Focusing on encryption levels

Correct Answer(s): A. Relying solely on vendor recommendations - Adopting a holistic approach that balances various factors ensures the optimal security posture, addressing the company's protection needs and operational demands. This is the best approach to ensure the selected approach meets the operational requirements without excessive costs. Incorrect Answer(s): Relying solely on vendors might cause the CISO to overlook the company's specific needs or risks, potentially introducing vulnerabilities or inefficiencies. Mandating secure protocols across all operations without proper assessment could lead to impractical implementations and operational issues. While encryption is critical, focusing only on it neglects broader security considerations like authentication, potential accessibility issues, and integration with existing infrastructure.

At a medium-scale software development firm, significant modifications to several critical applications employees use daily are on the horizon. Considering the principles of change management, what should the primary focus be during the implementation phase of these changes? A. Scheduling service restarts during non-business hours to minimize application downtime B. Ensuring high-risk alterations are prioritized and subject to the entire change management process C. Updating the block list to encompass previous versions of the applications D. Concentrating solely on the allow list while disregarding the block list for a smoother transition

Correct Answer(s): A. Scheduling service restarts during non-business hours to minimize application downtime - One of the main objectives of change management is to minimize disruptions to business operations. The company can achieve this by scheduling service restarts during off-peak hours or maintenance windows. Incorrect Answer(s): While high-risk alterations should indeed be subject to the entire change management process, this should not be the primary focus during the implementation phase of the changes. While including previous versions of applications in the block list could be a part of change management, it should not be the primary focus while implementing the changes. Solely concentrating on the allow list while disregarding the block list would not be advisable. Both lists play crucial roles in the change management process and implementation.

A cybersecurity analyst for a large organization is enhancing the company's security posture. The analyst notices increased alerts related to a particular known exploit in the company's server software. The company's intrusion detection system (IDS) uses a predefined set of rules, provided by security personnel, to identify events that are unacceptable. What type of detection method is the company using in this scenario? A. Signature-based detection B. Behavioral-based detection C. Anomaly-based detection D. Trend analysis

Correct Answer(s): A. Signature-based detection - Since the exploit is known and the IDS already has a rule set for signature-based detection of this specific exploit, enhancing or focusing on signature-based detection would be the most effective method. Incorrect Answer(s): Although behavioral-based detection can detect deviations from normal behavior, it is not the primary method for detecting known threats, especially when a signature for the attack is already in place. Anomaly-based detection focuses on irregularities in the use of protocols. While useful, it is not the primary method when a known exploit signature is in place. Trend analysis, while valuable for understanding the environment over time and identifying patterns, does not directly detect specific known threats. Its focus is on long-term patterns rather than immediate threats.

A mid-sized tech company has started experiencing regular system slowdowns and data traffic abnormalities. However, its current intrusion detection system (IDS) has generated no alerts. The IT department relies heavily on the IDS for potential threats and does not actively monitor system metrics or logs. Which statement is MOST likely true about the situation? A. The company is facing a new type of threat not recognized by the IDS. B. The abnormalities are coincidental and do not signify a potential threat. C. The IDS is fully capable of identifying all potential threats. D. The IDS does not need updating as it handles all kinds of threats.

Correct Answer(s): A. The company is facing a new type of threat not recognized by the IDS - Despite observable anomalies, the absence of alerts from the IDS suggests that the IDS does not recognize the threat. Incorrect Answer(s): While it is possible for system slowdowns or data traffic abnormalities to occur naturally due to factors like system updates or increased workload, the consistent occurrence of these anomalies usually indicates a potential threat, which warrants investigation. The rapid evolution of cybersecurity threats means that a system can only identify some potential threats, especially if the threats are new or highly sophisticated. Regular updates are crucial for an IDS, as these updates often contain patches for new threats and vulnerabilities. Without regular updates, an IDS may fail to identify newer threats, leaving the organization vulnerable.

A large organization is planning to move its operations to the cloud and is considering different cloud deployment models. The organization wants to achieve a balance of cost, security, flexibility, and control over its data and applications and is considering a hybrid cloud model but has concerns about the security implications. Which of the following is a potential security challenge the organization should consider when using a hybrid cloud model? A. The organization may struggle with managing multiple cloud environments and enforcing consistent security policies. B. The organization will have no control over the security of its data and applications in the cloud. C. The organization will have to bear the full cost of managing and securing the cloud infrastructure. D. The hybrid cloud model is not scalable and may not be able to meet the organization's growing needs.

Correct Answer(s): A. The organization may struggle with managing multiple cloud environments and enforcing consistent security policies - A hybrid cloud model can present security challenges, including the complexity of managing multiple cloud environments and enforcing consistent security policies across all environments. Incorrect Answer(s): In a hybrid cloud model, the organization can control the security of its data and applications in the private cloud infrastructure. However, it needs to ensure that the public cloud provider also has robust security measures. In a hybrid cloud model, the organization would typically be responsible for securing the private cloud infrastructure, while the public cloud provider would be responsible for securing the public cloud infrastructure. A hybrid cloud model allows the organization to use the private cloud for sensitive data and applications and use the public cloud for less sensitive, scalable workloads.

An organization observes employees leaving sensitive documents on their desks, thereby exposing sensitive data in the work area. To stop unauthorized staff or guests from accessing this information, the organization decides to introduce a new policy. Which policy would resolve this issue? A. Acceptable use policy B. Clean desk policy C. Code of conduct and social media analysis D. Use of personally owned devices in the workplace

Correct Answer(s): B. Clean desk policy - A clean desk policy ensures that each employee's work area is free from any documents left there, preventing unauthorized staff or guests from obtaining sensitive information. Incorrect Answer(s): Acceptable use policy mainly concerns using the organization's equipment and technology, forbidding actions such as defrauding, defaming, obtaining illegal material, and unauthorized access to confidential data. Code of conduct and social media analysis do not directly address the issue of sensitive documents left unattended on desks. This policy concerns the threats portable devices pose to data security, including file copying and recording functions and the unauthorized use of personal software. It does not address the issue of sensitive documents left out in the open.

A newly appointed Information Security Officer at a startup company is improving IT security. The current IT environment lacks standardized security configurations, and various operating systems, applications, and network devices are in use. The officer decides to implement secure baseline configurations but also wants to ensure the chosen approach can adapt to evolving threats and handle the diversity in the company's IT environment. What is the MOST appropriate approach to achieve these goals? A. Use the Center for Internet Security (CIS) Benchmarks and couple it with the use of a configuration management tool. B. Apply generic secure baseline configurations found from an online source without considering the specific technology in use. C. Develop a new security baseline from scratch based on the officer's past experience. D. Retain all default configurations as they are, only applying security patches and updates

Correct Answer(s): A. Use the Center for Internet Security (CIS) Benchmarks and couple it with the use of a configuration management tool - The CIS Benchmarks offer best practice guidelines for various domains and are always up to date with evolving threats. A configuration management tool can help automate the deployment of these configurations, ensuring consistency across diverse systems. Incorrect Answer(s): A one-size-fits-all approach might not be suitable, given the diversity of the IT environment. Additionally, it does not guarantee an online source's credibility and up-to-date nature. While the officer's experience could be valuable, it is time-consuming and might not cover the range of best practices offered by established benchmarks like CIS. Default configurations often lean toward ease of use rather than security, making them a potential security risk. Changing these default settings according to best practices is crucial for improving security.

Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), how soon must an organization report a breach of personal data? A. Within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach B. Within 24 hours of becoming aware of the breach C. Within 96 hours of becoming aware of the breach D. Within 48 hours of becoming aware of the breach

Correct Answer(s): A. Within 72 hours of becoming aware of the breach - The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires that an organization must report a breach of personal data to the relevant supervisory authority within 72 hours of discovering it unless the breach is unlikely to risk the rights and freedoms of natural persons. Incorrect Answer(s): GDPR requires that organizations must report personal data breaches within 72 hours, not 24. Delaying notification beyond the mandated timeframe could result in penalties. A time frame of 96 hours is longer than the period specified by GDPR. The regulation stipulates that organizations must report breaches within 72 hours of becoming aware of them. GDPR stipulates a 72-hour window for reporting breaches of personal data. Forty-eight hours is too short of a period.

An organization wants to ensure the security of its sensitive data stored on the company's physical drives, with varying levels of access for different users. Which of the following encryption methods would BEST suit this requirement? A. Full disk encryption (FDE) only B. A combination of volume and file encryption C. Partition encryption only D. Volume encryption only

Correct Answer(s): B. A combination of volume and file encryption - Combining volume encryption with file encryption would solve the organization's needs. It allows encryption of the storage resource and individual files, granting granular control for different users' access levels. Incorrect Answer(s): Full disk encryption (FDE) encrypts the entire contents of a storage device. While this protects against physical theft of the disk, it does not offer granular control for multiple-user access. Partition encryption allows for the encryption of different disk areas with different keys, but it may need to offer more granularity for controlling multiple user access to individual files. Volume encryption allows the encryption of a storage resource with a single file system. Without combining it with file encryption, it may not offer the required granularity for multiple-user access.

Which of the following describes the placement and role of a firewall in a network with a defense-in-depth strategy? A. A firewall is typically at the network border and serves as a detective control to identify malicious traffic. B. A firewall is typically at the network border and serves as a preventive control to enforce access rules for ingress and egress traffic. C. A firewall is typically inline behind the border firewall and serves as a preventive control to enforce access rules. D. A firewall is typically on internal routers and serves as a corrective control to mitigate denial of service (DoS) attacks.

Correct Answer(s): B. A firewall is typically at the network border and serves as a preventive control to enforce access rules for ingress and egress traffic - In a network with a defense-in-depth strategy, a firewall is usually at the network border and serves as a preventive control. Its main function is to enforce access rules for traffic entering (ingress) and leaving (egress) the network. Incorrect Answer(s): A firewall serves primarily as a preventive control to enforce access rules, not as a detective control to identify malicious traffic. A firewall is typically at the network border, not inline behind another firewall, to enforce access rules. While a firewall can mitigate certain types of attacks, it is not typically on internal routers and is not primarily a corrective control for DoS attacks.

An organization recently experienced a security breach due to the actions of an employee who engaged in an activity that posed a risk to the company's information systems. The employee downloaded unverified software onto the company device, resulting in a malware infection. Following this incident, the company plans to implement a policy to prevent similar occurrences in the future. Which of the following policies is MOST suitable for addressing this specific issue? A. Business continuity and continuity of operations plans (COOP) B. Acceptable use policy (AUP) C. Disaster recovery policy D. Change management policy

Correct Answer(s): B. Acceptable use policy (AUP) - AUP sets the standard for acceptable behavior by users on network and computer systems. The AUP typically comprises rules about software downloads, aiming to deter users from participating in activities that could damage the organization or its resources. Incorrect Answer(s): COOP policies strive to keep critical processes running during and following significant disruption. However, these policies do not directly tackle the problem of an employee downloading risky software. A disaster recovery policy concentrates on the resumption of operations after a catastrophic event but does not incorporate preventive measures against risky behaviors by users, such as unauthorized software downloads. A change management policy describes the process for requesting, reviewing, approving, and implementing changes to IT systems and software.

A cybersecurity analyst notices that a certain rule in the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is generating a high volume of dashboard notifications, making it difficult for the team to manage. Which action would be MOST effective in dealing with this issue? A. Ignore all alerts generated by this particular rule until the team finds the time to resolve the problem B. Adjust the parameters of the rule or lower the alert level C. Remove the problematic rule entirely from the SIEM system D. Increase the sensitivity of the alerting system to counter the increased alert volume

Correct Answer(s): B. Adjust the parameters of the rule or lower the alert level - Modifying the rule's parameters or lowering its alert level can effectively handle a rule generating too many alerts. The company can decrease the rule's sensitivity by refining the parameters to trigger only under more specific conditions. Incorrect Answer(s): Ignoring alerts could potentially lead to the company missing significant security incidents. The alerts should be fine-tuned rather than ignored. Removing a rule completely could lead to overlooking crucial security events. Instead of deleting a rule, the company should alter the rule or its alert level. Enhancing sensitivity would likely lead to even more alerts, exacerbating the situation. The goal should be to reduce the number of irrelevant alerts, not to increase them.

A large corporation with employees spread across different locations wants to enhance its endpoint security. The corporation has had an increase in cybersecurity threats, and its existing antivirus solutions do not seem to be effective against advanced persistent threats. Which of the following mitigation techniques would provide the BEST protection for this situation? A. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) B. Advanced Endpoint Protection with EDR C. User Behavior Analytics (UBA) D. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM)

Correct Answer(s): B. Advanced Endpoint Protection with EDR - Advanced Endpoint Protection (AEP) solution with Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) capability would be the most effective. This approach doesn't just attempt to prevent initial execution of threats, but provides real-time and historical visibility into potential compromises and aids in the remediation process. Incorrect Answer(s): HIDS mainly focuses on detection and alerting but may not have the comprehensive response capabilities necessary to deal with advanced persistent threats. UBA focuses more on detecting insider threats, compromised accounts, or fraud. While it's an important component of a comprehensive security approach, it won't offer sufficient protection against advanced persistent threats. FIM is generally more focused on maintaining the integrity of a system and may not have sufficient capabilities to protect against advanced persistent threats.

An organization's systems and networks are made of various exploitable components and entry points. The organization also faces a cybersecurity threat from a group located outside the organization with extensive funding and highly skilled members capable of creating advanced exploit techniques, but no internal access. Considering the potential vulnerabilities in systems and networks, and based on these attributes, which of the following BEST describes the threat actor and the primary attack surface they might target? A. An internal threat actor with low capability and low resources B. An external threat actor with high capability and high resources C. An external threat actor with low capability and high resources D. An internal threat actor with high capability and low resources

Correct Answer(s): B. An external threat actor with high capability and high resources - The scenario matches this description: an external threat actor (outside the organization, no internal access) with high capability (ability to create advanced exploit techniques) and high resources (extensive funding). Incorrect Answer(s): The scenario describes a threat from an external source with both high capability and resources. This answer option refers to low capability and resources. While this choice correctly identifies the threat actor as external, it inaccurately describes their capability as low. The given scenario presents a threat actor group with high capabilities. This choice inaccurately describes the threat actor as internal and having low resources. The given scenario describes an external threat actor with high resources.

Which of the following is an essential component of a well-structured asset management process within an organization's cybersecurity operations? A. Procurement of assets without consideration of security features B. Asset identification and naming conventions C. Disregard for monitoring and tracking of assets D. Ignoring standard naming conventions

Correct Answer(s): B. Asset identification and naming conventions - Asset identification and standard naming conventions are essential components of an organization's cybersecurity operations. Incorrect Answer(s): It is important to consider the security features of assets during procurement to ensure they fit the organization's security operations, reduce the risk of breaches, and protect critical data and systems. Asset monitoring and tracking are critical components of asset management. Regularly updating and verifying the asset inventory helps organizations manage their assets effectively, ensuring they have accurate information about each asset's location, owner, and status. Standard naming conventions help maintain consistency, making it easier to spot errors and automate processes. They are essential in asset identification and management

An organization is planning to secure its data in all its states: at rest, in transit, and in use. This includes large volumes of data that it continuously transfers over the network. Which of the following schemes is the BEST approach to achieve this while maintaining efficiency and security? A. Rely solely on asymmetric encryption B. Asymmetric and symmetric encryption C. Rely solely on symmetric encryption D. Use hash functions for encryption

Correct Answer(s): B. Asymmetric and symmetric encryption - The optimal solution is to implement a combination of asymmetric and symmetric encryption. Symmetric encryption is for the bulk data, while asymmetric encryption is for securely distributing the symmetric keys. This scheme balances security with computational efficiency. Incorrect Answer(s): Asymmetric encryption, while secure, is not efficient for encrypting large amounts of data due to its high computational overhead. Symmetric encryption is efficient for bulk data encryption, but distributing symmetric keys is challenging and can present security risks. Hash functions are not for encryption. They are for data integrity checks and not for decrypting back to the original data.

A company has implemented a zone-based security topology with different levels of trust and access control requirements for hosts within its network perimeter. The company has various zones, including a low-privilege zone for printers, an enterprise local area network (LAN) for client devices, a guest zone, and a zone for public-facing servers. Which of the following statements about the inter-zone traffic is correct? A. Printers in the low-privilege zone are allowed to initiate requests to other network hosts. B. Client devices on the enterprise LAN can initiate authorized requests to other zones but cannot accept new connection requests. C. Public-facing servers can accept requests from the internet and can initiate requests to the enterprise LAN. D. Hosts in the guest zone are allowed to access both the enterprise LAN and the internet.

Correct Answer(s): B. Client devices on the enterprise LAN can initiate authorized requests to other zones but cannot accept new connection requests - Client devices on the enterprise LAN can typically make authorized requests to different zones, but they cannot accept new connection requests. This is to ensure control over the communication flow and to prevent potential unauthorized connections. Incorrect Answer(s): Printers, considered low-privilege hosts, are usually configured to accept connections but not to initiate requests to other hosts. Public-facing servers can accept requests from the internet but are generally unable to initiate requests to the enterprise LAN. Hosts in the guest zone can generally access the internet but are usually restricted from accessing the enterprise LAN to prevent potential security threats

At a healthcare technology company, a cybersecurity alert flagged an unusual pattern of data traffic from one of its key database servers. Initial analysis indicates a potential data breach that is not yet conclusively confirmed. The server contains sensitive patient data. If confirmed, it could have severe legal and reputational implications for the company. What steps should the incident response team take to better understand the situation? A. Immediately shut down the server to prevent further data leaks B. Conduct a detailed analysis of the alert using threat intelligence and incident response playbooks C. Announce the potential data breach to all stakeholders and the public to maintain transparency D. Focus on other network abnormalities and wait for additional alerts before conducting a detailed analysis

Correct Answer(s): B. Conduct a detailed analysis of the alert using threat intelligence and incident response playbooks - The response team should conduct a detailed alert analysis, leveraging threat intelligence and incident response playbooks. This will help them determine if a genuine incident occurred, identify the type of incident, and evaluate the impact. Incorrect Answer(s): While shutting the server down might seem prudent, it may also hamper the incident response team's ability to understand the situation fully and disrupt essential services. Although transparency is essential, prematurely announcing a potential breach can lead to unnecessary panic and reputational damage, especially if the alert is a false positive. Focusing on other network abnormalities may delay the identification of a potential data breach, leaving sensitive data at risk.

A large financial institution recently adopted a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy. It understands the cost and flexibility advantages of this approach but is concerned about the potential security implications. Specifically, the institution wants to ensure that its sensitive data remains protected even when accessed from or stored on employees' personal devices. What would be the MOST effective strategy to safeguard data in this context? A. Regularly update the company's firewall and antivirus software B. Deploy a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution C. Implement mandatory password changes every 30 days D. Conduct regular security training for employees

Correct Answer(s): B. Deploy a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution - An MDM solution allows a company to manage, secure, and enforce policies on employees' mobile devices, even if they are personal devices. Incorrect Answer(s): While updating the firewall and antivirus software is a good general practice for any organization, it would not specifically address the security risks associated with a BYOD policy. While regular password changes can enhance security by limiting the effectiveness of stolen or guessed passwords, they do not directly address the risks associated with a BYOD policy. While security training is an important aspect of any organization's cybersecurity strategy, it would not directly mitigate the risks associated with a BYOD policy.

A cybersecurity analyst uses a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool to monitor network activity in a large organization. During a shift, the analyst receives multiple alerts indicating the same user account is experiencing multiple login failures. They received the alert only after multiple login failures occurred within an hour. Which of the following correlation rules likely triggered this alert? A. Error.LoginFailure > 1 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 1 day B. Error.LoginFailure > 3 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 1 hour C. Error.LoginFailure > 5 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 30 minutes D. Error.LoginFailure > 2 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 2 hours

Correct Answer(s): B. Error.LoginFailure > 3 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 1 hour - Error.LoginFailure > 3 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 1 hour - This correlation rule accurately represents the scenario described, which involves multiple login failures from the same user account within an hour. Incorrect Answer(s): Error.LoginFailure > 1 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 1 day - While this correlation rule will flag repeated login failures, it is not as precise as the rule described in the scenario, specifically looking for more than three failures within one hour. Error.LoginFailure > 5 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 30 minutes - This correlation rule is stricter than the scenario described. It is looking for more than five login failures within 30 minutes, while the scenario involves multiple failures within an hour. Error.LoginFailure > 2 AND LoginFailure.User AND Duration < 2 hours - This correlation rule is less precise than the one in the scenario. It looks for more than two failures within two hours, which is a broader timeframe than specified in the scenario.

Which, typically small-group, threat actor uses cyber weapons to promote political agendas and perform service disruption attacks? A. Unskilled attacker B. Hacktivist group C. Nation-state actor D. Internal threat

Correct Answer(s): B. Hacktivist group - A hacktivist group uses cyber weapons to promote a political agenda. Hacktivists might attempt to use data exfiltration to obtain and release confidential information to the public domain, perform service disruption attacks, or deface websites to spread disinformation. Incorrect Answer(s): An unskilled attacker is someone who uses hacker tools without necessarily understanding how they work or having the ability to craft new attacks. A nation-state threat actor is supported by the resources of its host country's military and security services. An internal threat actor is assigned privileges on the system that can cause an intentional or unintentional incident.

An organization stores its sensitive data on physical storage devices. It wants to bolster security measures due to a rise in industrial espionage and the risk of physical theft of these devices. Which of the following encryption strategies would be the MOST effective for the organization to choose? A. Deploy a granular file-level access control system B. Incorporate self-encrypting drives (SEDs) into its storage infrastructure C. Implement selective encryption for specific partitions on its storage drives D. Utilize volume encryption for its RAID arrays

Correct Answer(s): B. Incorporate self-encrypting drives (SEDs) into its storage infrastructure - Self-Encrypting Drives (SEDs) encrypt the entire contents of a storage device, making them ideal for when the physical theft of the storage device is a concern. Even if a threat actor steals a drive, the actor cannot access the data without unlocking the device with the correct credentials. Incorrect Answer(s): While a granular file-level access control system can enhance security, it may not fully protect data if a threat actor steals the physical storage device. Selective encryption for specific partitions may not provide adequate protection if a threat actor steals the entire storage drive. While volume encryption for Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) arrays can help protect data at rest, it does not address the physical theft of individual storage drives.

The company's system has recently detected suspicious network activity, signaling a possible cybersecurity incident. The incident response team has assembled, and after going through the detection and analysis phases, the containment phase of the incident response process has started. In this phase, what is the primary objective? A. Continuing the discovery of indicators of the threat actor activity B. Limiting the scope and magnitude of the incident C. Removing the source of the threat and restoring the affected systems to a secure state D. Analyzing the incident and responses to identify whether procedures or systems could be improved

Correct Answer(s): B. Limiting the scope and magnitude of the incident - During the containment phase of the incident response process, the primary goal is to limit the scope and magnitude of the incident, which includes securing data and minimizing the immediate impact on customers and business partners. Incorrect Answer(s): The company's system has already identified the indicators of threat actor activity, meaning this scenario has already passed. This action corresponds to the eradication phase, which comes after the containment phase in the incident response process. This objective is part of the lessons learned phase, which is the final stage of the incident response process.

The network administrator of an educational institution is upgrading an existing wireless network. The campus has various buildings, each having multiple floors, and the aim is to ensure consistent Wi-Fi coverage across the entire campus. To achieve this, a site survey and heat map creation will guide the placement and configuration of wireless access points (WAPs). Which of the following would MOST accurately represent the correct actions based on the survey results? A. Place WAPs in areas marked strong in the heat map and carefully manage transmit power to avoid unnecessary overlap. B. Place WAPs in areas indicated weak in the heat map and increase transmit power to the highest in all devices, while avoiding unnecessary overlap. C. Ignore the heat map and place WAPs in every room regardless of signal strength to ensure maximum coverage. D. Set all WAPs to use the same channel to ensure seamless transition for user

Correct Answer(s): B. Place WAPs in areas indicated weak in the heat map and increase transmit power to the highest in all devices, while avoiding unnecessary overlap - WAPs belong in areas where the signal is weak (red) to ensure consistent coverage. Managing the transmit power helps to fine-tune the coverage area, reducing unnecessary overlap and interference. Incorrect Answer(s): Placing WAPs in areas already marked blue/green (strong signal) on the heat map would lead to unnecessary overlap, causing interference. This approach could lead to too much overlap and interference between WAPs, resulting in poor performance. It also ignores the valuable information the heat map provides. Setting all WAPs to the same channel can cause co-channel interference. Instead, WAPs should use different, non-overlapping channels to avoid interference. The channel selection should follow the site survey results to optimize the network performance.

A large multinational corporation recently suffered a significant data breach. The organization had established an Incident Response Plan (IRP) that primarily consisted of a team of skilled cybersecurity analysts. However, the data breach escalated rapidly, and the company found itself in the headlines, which caused serious damage to its reputation. What key elements were likely missing from the company's Incident Response Plan? A. A designated social media monitoring team B. Proper stakeholder management and a comprehensive communication plan C. A larger team of cybersecurity analysts D. An annual cybersecurity training program for all employees

Correct Answer(s): B. Proper stakeholder management and a comprehensive communication plan - Proper stakeholder management and a comprehensive communication plan are crucial elements of an Incident Response Plan. They can prevent information leakage and provide guidelines for responding to a crisis, reducing the damage to the organization's reputation. This is likely the main missing element in the incident response plan. Incorrect Answer(s): While a social media monitoring team could help manage the company's public image, it is not the primary missing element in the incident response plan. While having more analysts could potentially improve response time, it would not address the issues of stakeholder communication and crisis management, which were likely the primary causes of the damaged reputation. Annual cybersecurity training is important for overall cybersecurity posture but would not necessarily improve the incident response process.

An organization in the healthcare sector notices an increase in ransomware attacks in their industry. How should it adjust its vulnerability analysis strategy? A. Reduce vulnerability analysis frequency B. Keep the current vulnerability analysis strategy C. Focus on vulnerabilities linked to data breaches and regulatory penalties D. Disregard the rise in ransomware attacks

Correct Answer(s): C. Focus on vulnerabilities linked to data breaches and regulatory penalties - With the increase in ransomware attacks within the healthcare sector, and given the stringent regulatory environment, prioritizing vulnerabilities that could lead to significant data breaches and regulatory penalties is crucial. Identifying these vulnerabilities and addressing them promptly is essential to protecting patient data and avoiding non-compliance penalties. Incorrect Answer(s): Reducing vulnerability analysis could potentially lead to more security gaps, increasing the risk. By decreasing its vulnerability analysis efforts, the organization could overlook crucial vulnerabilities, leading to increased chances of security breaches. While maintaining the current strategy might be effective under steady-state conditions, the increased ransomware attacks in the healthcare sector necessitate reevaluation. Ransomware attacks can target organizations of all sizes. It is crucial to consider these threats in vulnerability analysis.

A large technology firm adopts the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Cybersecurity Framework to improve its security posture. The company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a gap analysis to identify areas in which the firm deviates from the recommended framework controls. What is the MOST accurate description of this process? A. The use of an automated system to identify and prioritize patching of vulnerabilities B. The review and comparison of the company's security systems against NIST Cybersecurity Framework C. The consultant's implementation of NIST Cybersecurity Framework controls without assessing the current security posture D. Regular phishing tests conducted by the consultant to assess employee response to threats

Correct Answer(s): B. The review and comparison of the company's security systems against NIST Cybersecurity Framework - The firm hires an external security consultant to objectively assess the organization's existing cybersecurity controls. This assessment is then compared to the requirements of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. Incorrect Answer(s): While vulnerability management is an important aspect of cybersecurity, it does not capture the full scope of a gap analysis. A gap analysis involves a comprehensive review of the organization's current security posture concerning a chosen security framework. While implementing controls from a cybersecurity framework like NIST's is an important part of improving an organization's security posture, it should be a response to a gap analysis. While important, these tests are specific measures used to evaluate the organization's defenses against phishing attacks and train staff to identify and respond to these attacks.

A major software vendor becomes aware of a new zero-day vulnerability in one of its products due to an anonymous tip. The vulnerability could potentially allow unauthorized access to sensitive data stored in the software. The vendor is currently creating a patch to address the issue. Which of the following BEST describes the current risk to the software users and the appropriate response from the software vendor? A. Since the vendor knows about the vulnerability, there is minimal risk. The vendor should alert all users about the vulnerability immediately and provide mitigation steps. B. The risk to the users is significant, and the vendor should quietly create a patch without informing the users until it is ready. C. There is no risk to users as long as the vendor does not disclose the vulnerability. The vendor should continue its usual operations without interruption. D. The risk to users is unknown, and the vendor

Correct Answer(s): B. The risk to the users is significant, and the vendor should quietly create a patch without informing the users until it is ready - Zero-day vulnerabilities represent significant risk, and the vendor should prioritize creating a patch. Disclosing the vulnerability to the public before a patch is ready could increase the risk. Incorrect Answer(s): Alerting users about the vulnerability could also alert potential threat actors, increasing the risk before a patch is ready. Even if the vendor does not disclose the vulnerability, there is a risk while the vulnerability exists, especially since someone is aware of it, as indicated by the anonymous tip. The risk is significant due to the nature of the vulnerability, and contacting individual users is not feasible, nor will it reduce the risk. The vendor should focus on creating a patch.

An employee at a company is having difficulty remembering a complex password and is looking for a more secure and memorable alternative. What type of credential would be the BEST recommendation? A. A short numeric PIN B. A username C. A device-specific PIN with any characters and length D. A longer password with more characters

Correct Answer(s): C. A device-specific PIN with any characters and length - This option provides both security and ease of use. The employee can create a memorable PIN that includes a variety of characters and is specific to the device, enhancing the security. Incorrect Answer(s): While a short numeric PIN may be easier to remember, it is less secure due to the limited number of possible combinations. Usernames are typically not secret and do not provide any security on their own. They are for use in conjunction with a password or another form of authentication. While this would be more secure than a short numeric PIN or username alone, the problem was the employee having difficulty remembering a complex password. A longer password would likely exacerbate the issue.

A newly launched online store wants to secure transactions between the store and customers using a pair of public and private keys. Which cryptographic technique would BEST meet these requirements? A. Symmetric encryption B. Hashing techniques C. Asymmetric encryption D. Hybrid encryption

Correct Answer(s): C. Asymmetric encryption - Asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys—public and private. The online store can encrypt the transaction details with the customer's public key, ensuring that only the customer, who holds the corresponding private key, can decrypt and access the details. Incorrect Answer(s): Symmetric encryption provides confidentiality but fails to inherently provide authentication or non-repudiation, as the same key is for both encryption and decryption. Hashing techniques verify the integrity of the data, but they do not provide encryption or the capability to validate the sender's authenticity. While hybrid encryption provides the benefits of both symmetric and asymmetric encryption, it is more complex and allows for secure key exchange and efficient data encryption.

An organization has just completed an assessment of all the points where a threat actor might exploit a vulnerability in the network. This analysis includes its computer systems, network ports, applications, and user interactions. What is the term for this collection of potential points of exploitation? A. Threat landscape B. Threat vector C. Attack surface D. Attack vector

Correct Answer(s): C. Attack surface - An attack surface refers to all the points where a threat actor might exploit a vulnerability. It includes network endpoints, server and network interfaces, Application Programming Interfaces, and user interactions. Incorrect Answer(s): The term threat landscape refers to the overall set of threats an organization encounters, considering various factors. A threat vector is a path or means that a threat actor uses to breach the security of a system. It does not refer to all potential points of exploitation within a system. An attack vector refers to the method or pathway an attacker uses to access or breach a system. It is a specific approach, not the total collection of all potential points of exploitation.

A multinational firm headquartered in San Francisco, California, serves customers from various countries, including European Union countries. The company collects, processes, and stores substantial amounts of personal data. With which of the following legal regulations must the company's governance committee ensure compliance? A. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) only B. California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) only C. Both General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) D. Neither General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) nor California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)

Correct Answer(s): C. Both General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) - GDPR requires companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within the EU. At the same time, CCPA provides California residents with specific rights regarding their personal information. Incorrect Answer(s): Although the company serves customers from the European Union and thus needs to comply with the GDPR, it also has its headquarters in California and is subject to the CCPA. Because the company also serves customers in the European Union, it needs to ensure compliance with the GDPR. As the company headquarters is in California and serves customers from the European Union, it must comply with both the GDPR and the CCPA; thus, this option is incorrect.

A company has been experiencing issues with operator fatigue within the cybersecurity team, leading to decreased alertness and cognitive function. Considering different strategies to help combat this issue, how can automation and orchestration assist in addressing operator fatigue in security operations? A. By reducing the initial cost of implementing security measures B. By enforcing standardized baselines and overriding unauthorized changes C. By automating routine tasks, allowing cybersecurity personnel to focus on more complex, strategic issues D. By increasing the complexity of the company's systems and processes

Correct Answer(s): C. By automating routine tasks, allowing cybersecurity personnel to focus on more complex, strategic issues - By automating routine tasks such as scanning for vulnerabilities, applying patches, or monitoring systems, automation and orchestration can significantly reduce a cybersecurity team's workload. This reduces operator fatigue by allowing cybersecurity personnel to focus on more complex, strategic issues. Incorrect Answer(s): While automation and orchestration might save costs in the long run due to increased efficiency and reduced errors, the initial cost of implementation can be high. While this is a benefit of automation and orchestration, it does not directly address operator fatigue. This benefit maintains consistent system configurations and security. Increased complexity is actually a potential challenge of implementing automation and orchestration, not a benefit, and does not address operator fatigue.

An organization considers a new third-party vendor to provide critical technology solutions. It is nearing the final stages of the vendor selection process and wants to ensure a robust assessment of the vendor's security practices and risk management capabilities. Provided approval is granted, which method would be MOST suitable for the organization to gain an in-depth understanding of the vendor's security controls, identify potential vulnerabilities in its systems, and validate the effectiveness of its security measures? A. Rely on the vendor's self-assessment report B. Perform a supply chain analysis C. Conduct a penetration test D. Request evidence of internal audits

Correct Answer(s): C. Conduct a penetration test - Penetration testing is a proactive and in-depth method of testing a vendor's defenses. It helps organizations discover potential vulnerabilities in the vendor's systems, networks, and applications that attackers could exploit. Incorrect Answer(s): Self-assessments can be biased and may not accurately disclose all potential risks or vulnerabilities. While supply chain analysis is important, it mostly helps the company understand the risk associated with multiple entities within the organization's supply chain. While internal audits are important for providing insight into a vendor's risk management and compliance, they might not provide a detailed understanding of specific security vulnerabilities in the vendor's systems the way a penetration test would.

Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to exploit unsecured networks using default credentials for financial gains? A. Nation-state actors B. Hacktivist groups C. Cybercriminals D. Insider threats

Correct Answer(s): C. Cybercriminals - Financial gain motivates cybercriminals. These individuals or groups exploit easy targets like unsecured networks using default credentials to gain unauthorized access and commit fraud, theft, or ransom attacks. Incorrect Answer(s): Nation-state actors are typically government-sponsored groups or individuals who conduct cyber espionage, sabotage, or warfare for political, economic, or military gain. Hacktivist groups are individuals or groups who engage in hacking for a political or social cause, not for personal financial gains. While insiders might have motivations to harm an organization or profit illicitly, they usually have legitimate access to the organization's assets and might not need to exploit unsecured networks in the same manner as external actors.

Which of the following descriptions is true about fail-open and fail-closed configurations for security devices in the event of a failure? A. Fail-open prioritizes confidentiality and integrity over availability, while fail-closed prioritizes availability over confidentiality and integrity. B. Fail-open means that access is blocked or that the system enters the most secure state available, while fail-closed means that network or host access is preserved, if possible. C. Fail-open means that network or host access is preserved, if possible, while fail-closed means that access is blocked or that the system enters the most secure state available. D. Both fail-open and fail-closed prioritize confidentiality and integrity over availability.

Correct Answer(s): C. Fail-open means that network or host access is preserved, if possible, while fail-closed means that access is blocked or that the system enters the most secure state available - In a fail-open configuration, the system maintains network or host access, if possible, in the event of a failure. In a fail-closed configuration, the system blocks access or enters the most secure state available in the event of a failure. Incorrect Answer(s): Fail-open prioritizes availability over confidentiality and integrity, while fail-closed prioritizes confidentiality and integrity over availability. Fail-open means preservation of network or host access, if possible, while fail-closed means blocked access or the system entering the most secure state available. Fail-open prioritizes availability over confidentiality and integrity, while fail-closed prioritizes confidentiality and integrity over availability.

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of fundamental security concepts in the cybersecurity profession? A. Fundamental security concepts act as specialized tools, like specific software or hardware, that security professionals use in their daily tasks. B. Fundamental security concepts are jargon used by security experts to confuse outsiders and maintain the exclusivity of their profession. C. Fundamental security concepts are building blocks that form the foundation of understanding and implementing security in a business environment. D. Fundamental security concepts are strict rules that every organization must follow exactly to achieve cybersecurity.

Correct Answer(s): C. Fundamental security concepts are building blocks that form the foundation of understanding and implementing security in a business environment - Fundamental security concepts like the confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) triad, access control, and frameworks form the foundation of understanding for cybersecurity professionals. Incorrect Answer(s): Specific software and hardware tools are important in cybersecurity, but they are not fundamental security concepts. Fundamental security concepts are foundational principles and ideas, such as the CIA triad or access control, not specific tools. While the cybersecurity field has its own specialized terminology, members do not use these concepts to confuse or exclude outsiders. While certain fundamental security concepts form the guidelines that many organizations follow, they are not strict rules that the organization must follow exactly

A multinational company discovered its existing cybersecurity policies were no longer adequate due to evolving cybersecurity threats and updated industry regulations. The board of directors, comprising high-ranking executives, decided to review and revise the policies. Who should the company involve in this process? A. Data custodian B. Data processor C. Governance committee D. Regulatory agency

Correct Answer(s): C. Governance committee - A governance committee is a specialized group comprised of subject matter experts, stakeholders, and representatives from relevant departments and focuses on specific issues such as security, risk management, audit, or compliance. Incorrect Answer(s): While a data custodian, or data steward, is responsible for the safe custody, transport, and storage of data, this role is more about the implementation of business rules rather than the revision of high-level policies. The role of a data processor is mainly to process personal data on behalf of the controller. While the company must consider the regulations set by regulatory agencies when revising its policies, it is not typically necessary to directly involve these agencies in the process.

What type of data is information that can easily be understood and interpreted without additional processing or translation? A. Regulated data B. Trade secrets C. Human-readable data D. Non-human-readable data

Correct Answer(s): C. Human-readable data - Human-readable data is information in a format directly comprehensible to humans without additional processing or translation. Incorrect Answer(s): Regulated data refers to categories of information subject to legal or regulatory requirements for their handling, storage, and protection. It does not necessarily mean humans can easily understand or interpret it without additional processing or translation. Trade secrets refer to confidential business information that provides a competitive edge. Like regulated data, the trade secret category does not indicate the data is easily understandable or interpretable by humans. Humans cannot easily understand or interpret non-human-readable data in its raw form, and it often requires additional processing or translation

In the event of a confirmed ransomware attack on a server containing valuable intellectual property, what should be the immediate next step? A. Pay the ransom to prevent further damage and potential leaks B. Inform the public about the incident to avoid rumors and misinformation C. Isolate the affected server from the rest of the network by disabling its network access D. Undertake a full system recovery without determining the source or nature of the attack

Correct Answer(s): C. Isolate the affected server from the rest of the network by disabling its network access - As an initial measure in the containment stage, the business needs to isolate the affected systems to prevent the ransomware from spreading further. Incorrect Answer(s): Paying the ransom is generally not advised, as paying the ransom provides no guarantee that the attacker will provide the decryption key. While transparency is crucial, prematurely disclosing a security incident to the public can lead to unnecessary panic and can potentially harm the organization's reputation. While system recovery is critical in the incident response process, the business should begin this only after the containment and analysis stages. System recovery could eliminate vital evidence needed to understand the source, nature, and extent of the attack.

A lead architect is designing a new security system for a multinational corporation. The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) emphasizes that the continuity of business operations is a top priority. Why would incorporating resilience and recovery into the security architecture be vital in this scenario? A. It increases system efficiency. B. It reduces system costs. C. It ensures system functionality during and after disruptions. D. It enhances system aesthetics.

Correct Answer(s): C. It ensures system functionality during and after disruptions - Resilience implies that systems, applications, and services can recover quickly and continue operating even under adverse conditions like cyber-attacks or equipment failures. Recovery ensures the organization has strategies and measures to restore systems, applications, data, and services after a disruption. Incorrect Answer(s): While system performance and efficiency are important considerations, they do not directly relate to business continuity. While resilience and recovery might indirectly help reduce costs by minimizing downtime and potential loss of data or productivity, cost reduction is not the primary function of these elements in a security architecture. Aesthetic value is irrelevant to security architecture. The security architecture's design focuses on functionality, security, and resilience against potential threats and disruptions.

A tech company employs the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) models for quantitative assessment and uses subjective judgment for qualitative analysis. They use a "heat map" or "traffic light" impact matrix to represent the severity of the risk, its likelihood, cost of controls, etc. What is the primary benefit of the company's approach of combining both quantitative and qualitative risk assessment methods? A. It allows for a quick initial assessment of risks and focuses on the most significant issues. B. It develops tangible numbers that reflect real money and justifies the costs of various controls. C. It provides both numerical data for precision and subjective judgment for situations in which precise data is unavailable. D. It eliminates the subjectivity in risk assessment completely.

Correct Answer(s): C. It provides both numerical data for precision and subjective judgment for situations in which precise data is unavailable - The company's approach employs both numerical data for precision (quantitative) and subjective judgment for situations in which precise data is unavailable (qualitative). This mixed approach provides a comprehensive understanding of the risks, their potential impact, and the likelihood of their occurrence. Incorrect Answer(s): While this statement accurately describes a benefit of qualitative risk analysis, it does not fully capture the advantage of combining both quantitative and qualitative methods. This statement describes the benefit of a quantitative risk analysis approach. The combined approach of using both methods provides broader benefits. Even though quantitative risk analysis uses numerical data for precision, the combined approach does not eliminate subjectivity completely.

A manufacturing organization identifies its server maintenance and repair process as a mission-essential function. The company experienced three server failures in the last year, each failure taking approximately six hours to repair and restore operations. A standard operational year is usually assumed to be 8,760 hours (24*365). Given the company's performance metrics and assuming operations run all day and every day, what are the annual MTBF and MTTR for the organization's server maintenance and repair process? A. MTBF: 2,000 hours/failure, MTTR: 6 hours B. MTBF: 1,000 hours/failure, MTTR: 2 hours C. MTBF: 2,920 hours/failure, MTTR: 6 hours D. MTBF: 1,460 hours/failure, MTTR: 18 hours

Correct Answer(s): C. MTBF: 2,920 hours/failure, MTTR: 6 hours - The MTTR is 6 hours, which is the time it took to repair and restore operations for each failure. The MTBF is 2,920 hours/failure, calculated by dividing the total operational time of 8,760 hours per year by 3 failures. Incorrect Answer(s): While the MTTR is correct (average time to repair a failure which is 6 hours), the MTBF is incorrect. MTBF is the total operational time divided by the number of failures. Both MTTR (2) and MTBF (1,000) are incorrect. MTTR is the average time to repair a failure which is 6 hours, not 2. The MTTR is incorrect as it took 6 hours to repair and restore operations for each failure, not 18 hours. The MTBF is also incorrect. The correct MTBF should be 2,920 hours/failure, calculated by dividing the total operational time of 8,760 hours per year by 3 failures.

An organization recently hired a new employee who passed all the necessary background checks and completed the recruitment process successfully. The organization wants to ensure that the new employee's integration into the company is as smooth and secure as possible. Which of the following procedures would be MOST appropriate to apply in this situation? A. Offboarding B. Playbook development C. Onboarding D. Change management

Correct Answer(s): C. Onboarding - Onboarding includes welcoming new employees, setting up their computer system access accounts, designating appropriate privileges, securely transmitting credentials, allocating assets, and organizing security awareness and role-specific training. Incorrect Answer(s): Offboarding refers to the process of facilitating a secure and seamless transition when an employee departs from a company. However, this procedure does not apply to the current scenario, as the organization has onboarded a new employee, not offboarded one. Although playbooks are fundamental for preserving operational consistency and enhancing quality and effectiveness, there are separate procedures for welcoming and incorporating a new employee into the company. Change management entails meticulous planning and execution of changes, often concerning IT systems. Although crucial, this process does not directly involve integrating new employees.

A group of hackers, exploiting vulnerabilities in a certain organization's online platforms and using spear-phishing techniques, launches a series of attacks disrupting the organization's services. These attack vectors target both software flaws and human elements of the organization. Driven by disdain for the organization's practices, their primary objective is to raise awareness and bring about changes in the organization's conduct. Based on this information, what is the primary motivation of these threat actors? A. Financial gain B. Vandalism C. Political change D. Espionage

Correct Answer(s): C. Political change - The hackers desire change in the organization's practices, which is political motivation. Their actions aim to incite change in societal or governance structures, which aligns with the definition of political motivations. Incorrect Answer(s): Financial gain refers to motivations such as extortion, blackmail, fraud, or selling stolen data. In the given scenario, the hackers are not trying to profit from their actions financially. Vandalism refers to attacks primarily conducted for the sake of causing disruption or chaos, often for the hackers' satisfaction. Espionage refers to data exfiltration intended to uncover secrets for a nation-state or commercial advantage. The scenario does not suggest that the hackers want to steal secrets.

A company is considering moving its applications and data to the cloud. The company handles sensitive data and wants to maintain control over the security of its applications and data. It is considering using an infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) model. Which of the following is a key responsibility the company will need to manage in an IaaS model? A. Securing foundational elements of networking, such as DDoS protection B. Physical security of the cloud infrastructure C. Protection of operating systems when deployed D. Cloud storage backup and recovery

Correct Answer(s): C. Protection of operating systems when deployed - In an IaaS model, the customer is responsible for protecting the operating systems it deploys on the cloud infrastructure. This includes tasks like applying security updates and patches, managing access controls, and implementing intrusion detection systems. Incorrect Answer(s): In an IaaS model, the cloud service provider is typically responsible for securing foundational elements of networking, including distributed denial of service (DDoS) protection. The cloud service provider, not the customer, typically manages the physical security of the cloud infrastructure. While customers must manage their data and backups, the cloud service provider typically provides and manages the infrastructure for cloud storage backup and recovery.

Given the importance of automation and orchestration related to secure operations, a newly hired IT employee creates, modifies, and deletes user accounts and access rights across the company's IT systems. Due to the significant number of users and the heightened need for security, this task proves to be time-consuming and error-prone. Which automation capability can not only improve the efficiency and consistency of this task but also ensure secure operations? A. Ticketing B. Service management C. Provisioning D. Guardrails and security groups

Correct Answer(s): C. Provisioning - Creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights across IT systems is termed as provisioning. This ensures secure operations by maintaining consistency and adhering to security protocols. Incorrect Answer(s): While ticketing is an essential part of IT operations, it primarily deals with managing support requests and incidents, not user and access management. Service management involves tasks like enabling or disabling services and maintaining IT resources, but it does not specifically involve creating, modifying, and deleting user accounts and access rights. While guardrails and security groups play a vital role in managing security within an organization, they do not directly involve creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights. Instead, they provide a framework for managing security and defining resource access.

An organization prepares to store and handle a data type that includes sensitive personal information, such as healthcare records and social security numbers. This data is subject to specific laws and regulations concerning its protection and use. What category does this data type fall under? A. Trade secrets B. Human-readable data C. Regulated data D. Legal and financial data

Correct Answer(s): C. Regulated data - Regulated data refers to specific categories of information subject to legal or regulatory requirements regarding their handling, storage, and protection, which typically includes sensitive or personally identifiable information (PII), such as healthcare records and social security numbers. Incorrect Answer(s): Trade secret data refers to valuable, confidential information that gives a business a competitive advantage. Human-readable data is information that humans can easily understand and interpret without additional processing or translation. While this data type is highly sensitive and confidential, it pertains to documents, contracts, financial statements, balance sheets, audit reports, tax records, financial transactions, and other such legal and financial documents.

A technology company identifies a potential risk in the form of data breaches due to vulnerabilities in its e-commerce application. The company has assessed that the likelihood of occurrence is high, and the impact could be significant, leading to loss of customer trust and potential legal liabilities. The company has assigned a team to manage this risk and to implement necessary security measures to mitigate it. Which of the following is the BEST description of the role this team is performing? A. Risk stakeholders B. Key risk indicators (KRIs) C. Risk owners D. Risk appetite evaluators

Correct Answer(s): C. Risk owners - The risk owner is responsible for managing a particular risk, which includes identifying and assessing the risk, implementing measures to mitigate it, monitoring the effectiveness of the measures, and taking corrective actions as necessary. Incorrect Answer(s): Stakeholders are individuals or groups with a vested interest in the organization's activities, but they may not directly manage or mitigate risks. KRIs are metrics used to predict potential risks, not a role that manages and mitigates risks. Risk appetite evaluators are individuals or groups who assess an organization's willingness to take on risk, but they do not manage or mitigate risks directly.

The network administrator of a company receives an email notification about an unusual email activity. Multiple employees received an email with an attached file having an odd double extension: a Word document (.docx) and a Java Archive file (.jar). The email system's security feature flagged the email as potentially harmful. Based on the provided details, what type of virus is MOST likely involved in this scenario? A. Memory resident virus B. Boot sector virus C. Script virus D. Non-resident file infector

Correct Answer(s): C. Script virus - A script virus uses the programming features available in local scripting engines for the OS and/or browser, such as JavaScript. The scenario mentions an attached file with a .jar extension and is executable. Incorrect Answer(s): While a memory resident virus could infect a file attached to an email, the scenario suggests a different type of virus. A boot sector virus infects the boot sector of a hard disk or a floppy disk. The suspicious file came through an email, which does not suggest a boot sector virus. Non-resident viruses or file infectors typically latch onto executable files and programs. Although the attachment is executable (.jar), the main indicator is the file's double extension, which suggests a script virus.

A software development company recognizes that some of its employees are vulnerable to phishing attacks. To address this, the company plans to set up a training program. What factors should the company primarily consider while defining such training programs? A. The job titles of the employees B. The personal interests of the employees C. The roles performed by the employees D. The length of service of the employees

Correct Answer(s): C. The roles performed by the employees - Employees may perform different roles and have different security training, education, or awareness requirements in each role. Therefore, focusing on job roles rather than job titles is essential in setting up effective security training programs. Incorrect Answer(s): Job titles might not accurately reflect an employee's roles, responsibilities, and security training needs. While it may be useful to consider personal interests to enhance engagement, this should not be the primary factor in defining security training programs. While the length of service might influence an employee's experience or familiarity with security issues, it is not a primary factor in determining the training needs for specific roles.

A software engineer discovers a flaw in one of its products that could allow nefarious attackers to gain unauthorized access to the system on which it is running. What vulnerability signifies that developers must immediately fix the problem or widespread damage could ensue before a patch is available. A. Misconfiguration B. Cryptographic C. Zero-day D. Firmware

Correct Answer(s): C. Zero-day - Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to previously unknown software or hardware flaws that attackers can exploit before developers or vendors become aware of or have a chance to fix them. The term "zero-day" signifies that developers have "zero days" to fix the problem once the vulnerability becomes known. Incorrect Answer(s): Misconfiguration of systems, networks, or applications is a common cause of security vulnerabilities. These can lead to unauthorized access, data leaks, or even full-system compromises. Cryptographic vulnerabilities refer to weaknesses in cryptographic systems, protocols, or algorithms that can be exploited to compromise data. Firmware is the foundational software that controls hardware and can contain significant vulnerabilities. For instance, the Meltdown and Spectre vulnerabilities identified in 2018 impacted almost all computers and mobile devices.

A cybersecurity analyst for a medium-sized company needs to perform a vulnerability scan that provides an in-depth analysis of potential weaknesses in the company's system, including misconfigured applications and security settings. The analyst is considering using a credentialed or non-credentialed scan. Which type of scan is MOST appropriate for this situation? A. A non-credentialed scan provides login rights for a more thorough analysis of potential vulnerabilities. B. Both a credentialed and non-credentialed scan would be equally effective in this scenario. C. Neither a credentialed nor a non-credentialed scan would be effective in this scenario. D. A credentialed scan provides login rights for a more thorough analysis of potential vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer(s): D. A credentialed scan provides login rights for a more thorough analysis of potential vulnerabilities - A credentialed scan comes with a user account that has login rights to various hosts, enabling it to conduct a more in-depth analysis, which is particularly useful in detecting misconfigured applications or security settings Incorrect Answer(s): A non-credentialed scan does not have login rights, and its view only includes what the host exposes to an unprivileged user on the network. Given the goal of a thorough and in-depth analysis, a credentialed scan would be more effective because it has more access and can uncover more potential vulnerabilities. Vulnerability scans, particularly credentialed ones, can be extremely effective in identifying potential vulnerabilities within a system or network.

In an IT environment, automation and scripting play a critical role in managing services and access. How does automation assist security analysts in their daily tasks? A. By helping in user and resource provisioning B. By improving the efficiency of ticketing platforms C. By facilitating the development of more complex systems such as SOAR platforms D. By enabling and disabling services, modifying access rights, and maintaining the lifecycle of IT resources

Correct Answer(s): D. By enabling and disabling services, modifying access rights, and maintaining the lifecycle of IT resources - Automation and scripting are essential tools for managing services and access within an IT environment. This includes enabling or disabling services, modifying access rights, and maintaining the lifecycle of IT resources, which directly aligns with the tasks of security analysts. Incorrect Answer(s): While automation assists in user and resource provisioning, the question specifically asks how automation assists security analysts in managing services and access, not provisioning. While improving the efficiency of ticketing platforms is a benefit of automation, it does not directly apply to the tasks of security analysts in managing services and access within an IT environment. While automation does facilitate the development of more complex systems like Security Orchestration Automated Response (SOAR) platforms, this is not a direct way that it assists security analysts in managing services and access.

A multinational organization is planning to expand its services to various locations across the globe. The organization requires a flexible IT infrastructure that can easily adapt to rapid business growth but also maintain data security and meet different legal and regulatory requirements. Which of the following architecture models would be MOST suitable for this organization? A. Peer-to-Peer model B. Client-server model C. Standalone model D. Cloud model

Correct Answer(s): D. Cloud model - A cloud model offers the required flexibility and scalability to handle rapid business expansion. It provides the ability to provision IT resources quickly and on demand. Incorrect Answer(s): A Peer-to-Peer (P2P) model, in which each device acts as both a client and a server, may not be suitable for a multinational organization. The P2P model can introduce risks such as potential data leaks and rapid malware spread. Although a client-server model can provide centralized control for data security, it may not offer the flexibility and scalability required for rapid business expansion across multiple global locations. A standalone model lacks centralized control and coordination and does not support the scalability and flexibility required for global operations.

In the context of a global manufacturing firm transitioning to a remote work arrangement due to a crisis, which aspect is the MOST critical to ensure business continuity? A. Identifying potential bottlenecks through regular trend analysis B. Maintaining the aesthetic value of their digital platforms C. Replacing employees unable to adapt to remote work D. Developing robust remote work plans with appropriate technologies

Correct Answer(s): D. Developing robust remote work plans with appropriate technologies - Establishing robust remote work plans is crucial to ensure business continuity in a crisis when physical presence at work is impossible. Incorrect Answer(s): While regular trend analysis is an essential part of capacity planning to identify patterns and potential problems, the most critical step in a crisis would be to ensure that robust remote work plans are in place. Maintaining the aesthetic value of its digital platforms, while important for user experience and branding, is not the most critical aspect in ensuring business continuity during a crisis. Hiring new employees to replace those unable to adapt to remote work is not only time-consuming but also a costly endeavor that may not be feasible or practical in a crisis.

A cybersecurity team has discovered an unauthorized alteration in the endpoint configuration of several workstations within the organization, resulting in a malware infection. As part of the response strategy, the team must select a specific mitigation technique to prevent similar incidents in the future. Which of the following is the MOST suitable approach to undertake? A. Increase the frequency of system audits B. Offer more secure browsing training to employees C. Switch to a different antivirus software D. Implement a stricter Group Policy

Correct Answer(s): D. Implement a stricter Group Policy - Implementing stricter Group Policy in a Windows environment allows for centralized control over the configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings. Incorrect Answer(s): While system audits can help identify potential vulnerabilities or compliance issues, they are reactive measures. They do not offer real-time prevention of unauthorized changes. While user training is vital to preventing vulnerabilities such as those stemming from phishing or social engineering attacks, the problem in this scenario is unauthorized changes in endpoint configurations. While robust antivirus software may help to detect and clean malware infections, it does not directly prevent unauthorized configuration changes, which are the root cause of the problem in this case.

An organization validates its security controls, processes, and adherence to industry standards and wants an unbiased evaluation to instill confidence among stakeholders. Which method should it employ for this purpose? A. Compliance assessment B. Audit committee C. Self-assessment D. Independent third-party audit

Correct Answer(s): D. Independent third-party audit - An independent third-party audit offers an external, objective, and unbiased assessment of an organization's systems, controls, processes, and compliance. The goal is to instill confidence among stakeholders, including customers, business partners, regulatory bodies, and investors. Incorrect Answer(s): While compliance assessments help ensure that the organization's practices align with laws, regulations, standards, and policies, the company typically conducts them internally, making bias possible. Although audit committees provide independent oversight and assurance regarding the organization's financial reporting, internal controls, and risk management practices, the organization's board members usually form the committees. While self-assessments can be valuable for identifying improvement areas, they do not provide an external, unbiased perspective.

An organization has decommissioned several laptops used for handling sensitive data. Which of the following should be the primary step to ensure data security and compliance with regulations before repurposing or disposing of these devices? A. Conducting a hardware audit B. Removing all software applications C. Deleting all user accounts D. Initiating a secure data destruction process

Correct Answer(s): D. Initiating a secure data destruction process - Initiating a secure data destruction process ensures the irretrievable deletion of sensitive data on the laptops' storage media, preventing unauthorized access or data breaches. Incorrect Answer(s): Conducting a hardware audit is an important part of asset management and could be useful in tracking the decommissioned laptops. However, it does not directly ensure the security of the sensitive data previously stored on the devices. Removing all software applications from the laptops could make some data less accessible, but it will not ensure the secure deletion of sensitive data. Deleting all user accounts can remove some user-specific data and settings from the laptops but will not securely delete or sanitize all the sensitive data stored on the devices.

An employee at a company frequently recycles old passwords when prompted for a password change. What feature of a password policy can prevent this? A. Password length B. Password complexity C. Password age D. Password history

Correct Answer(s): D. Password history - The password history attribute keeps track of previously used passwords and prevents employees from using them again, discouraging password recycling. Incorrect Answer(s): Password length refers to the minimum (and sometimes maximum) length that a password should have. It does not prevent the reuse of old passwords. Password complexity enforces rules like a mix of characters, numbers, and symbols. It does not prevent the reuse of old passwords. Password age is the length of time an employee can use a password before it expires, and the employee must choose a new one. It does not prevent the reuse of old passwords.

A software company designs a new feature for its product involving the creation and storage of new algorithms and methods that give the product a competitive advantage. The company wants to appropriately classify this information within its data management system. What would be the MOST fitting classification for this data? A. Public B. Confidential C. Critical D. Proprietary

Correct Answer(s): D. Proprietary - Proprietary information or intellectual property (IP) refers to information the company creates and owns, typically concerning the products or services it makes or performs. Incorrect Answer(s): Public or unclassified data refers to information with no restrictions on viewing and no risk to an organization if someone were to disclose it. While this data is sensitive, the confidential classification typically applies to information meant for viewing only by approved persons within the organization or by trusted third parties under a non-disclosure agreement. The term "critical" generally applies to data or systems whose loss would severely impact the operations or survival of an organization. Although the information is vital to the company, "proprietary" is more suitable for the information the company owns.

An IT security analyst at a mid-sized company has observed unusual network activity on a workstation over the past few days. This workstation has initiated frequent and unsolicited communications with an unknown external IP address. Further investigation reveals the presence of unauthorized software on the workstation, which seems to be actively transmitting sensitive system data to this external address and possibly receiving commands or files in return without any visible signs or knowledge of the user. Given these specific behaviors, what type of malware is MOST likely responsible for these activities? A. Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) B. Virus C. Rootkit D. Remote Access Trojan (RAT).

Correct Answer(s): D. Remote Access Trojan (RAT) - Once installed, an attacker can use a RAT to manipulate the system and exfiltrate data, which corresponds to the excessive communication with an external IP address and unauthorized software in the scenario. Incorrect Answer(s): Potentially Unwanted Programs (PUPs) typically cause annoyances like displaying unwanted advertisements, altering browser settings, or slowing down the system, rather than stealing data or communicating with an external IP. A virus, a type of malware, can attach itself to a program or file, enabling it to propagate from one computer to another, leaving infections in its wake. While rootkits can enable malicious activities, they typically do not engage in the direct communication with an external IP that the scenario describes.

A technology company experiences several security vulnerabilities with its online application, leading to customer complaints and legal threats. In response, the board of directors decides to outsource the maintenance and associated liabilities of the application to a third party. Which risk management strategy is the company primarily implementing? A. Risk avoidance B. Risk acceptance C. Risk mitigation D. Risk transference

Correct Answer(s): D. Risk transference - The company is transferring the risk to a third party by outsourcing the maintenance and associated liabilities of the application, which is an example of risk transference. Incorrect Answer(s): Risk avoidance involves halting the risky activity. In this scenario, the company is not stopping its operations but shifting the maintenance to a third party. Risk acceptance means the company has not deployed countermeasures because it has deemed the risk level acceptable. This is different from the company actively seeking a solution, indicating it is not accepting the risk. Mitigation involves implementing controls to lessen the likelihood or impact of risk. Here, the company is not implementing controls but transferring the task to a third party.

A multinational corporation is sending sensitive data to various regional offices securely. What is an optimal cryptographic method to employ in this situation? A. Symmetric encryption for all data transmissions B. Asymmetric encryption for all data transmissions C. Employing the use of hashing on all data transmissions D. Symmetric encryption for data and asymmetric for key exchange

Correct Answer(s): D. Symmetric encryption for data and asymmetric for key exchange - In this case, symmetric encryption encrypts the data due to its efficiency, while asymmetric encryption securely exchanges the symmetric keys between offices. This approach, known as hybrid encryption, combines the strengths of both methods. Incorrect Answer(s): While symmetric encryption is fast and efficient, it requires a secure method to share the encryption key among all the offices. If this key becomes compromised, the data is vulnerable. Asymmetric encryption provides strong security but it is resource-intensive and slower for large data transmissions, making it less optimal for all data transmissions. Hashing is a one-way function and does not provide a method for decrypting data. It is for verifying data integrity, not encryption.

Which of the following accurately reflects the responsibilities of a data processor under data protection laws such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)? A. The data processor determines the purposes and means of processing personal data. B. The data processor has independent decision-making power over personal data. C. The data processor is directly responsible for obtaining consent from data subjects. D. The data processor processes personal data on behalf of the data controller.

Correct Answer(s): D. The data processor processes personal data on behalf of the data controller - The data processor processes personal data on behalf of the data controller and acts under the authority and instructions of the data controller. The data processor is not allowed to make decisions alone regarding the processing of the data. Incorrect Answer(s): The responsibility of determining the purposes and means of processing personal data lies with the data controller, not the data processor. The data processor does not have independent decision-making power over personal data. The data processor can only process data when the data controller instructs the data processor to do so. The responsibility of obtaining consent from data subjects lies with the data controller, not the data processor.

A company plans to expand its existing network, which currently employs a basic star topology, by adding hundreds more devices. What is a potential drawback of this plan? A. It allows for a zone-based security model. B. It is not capable of handling traffic from a large number of hosts. C. It does not allow any host to communicate freely with any other host in the same segment. D. The network performance can be negatively impacted due to large broadcast domains.

Correct Answer(s): D. The network performance can be negatively impacted due to large broadcast domains - With hundreds more devices, the broadcast domain in the star topology would grow significantly. When a host sends a broadcast, all connecting hosts will receive it, which can lead to performance degradation due to the high amount of broadcast traffic. Incorrect Answer(s): The basic star topology does not inherently allow for a zone-based security model. The basic star topology is capable of handling traffic from many hosts. The concern is not about the capacity to handle traffic but rather about potential performance issues due to large broadcast domains. In a basic star topology, any host can communicate freely with any other host in the same segment. This is a characteristic of the network, not a drawback.

In the context of information security, an organization discovers a zero-day vulnerability in its database software. At the same time, a known hacking group has expressed intentions to target entities using this specific software. Which of the following BEST describes this situation's relation to vulnerability, threat, and risk? A. The organization conducts regular vulnerability assessments to maintain its security posture. B. The organization mitigates the risk by improving physical security and firewall configurations. C. The organization hires an external cybersecurity firm to identify potential threats. D. The organization increases its risk of a security breach due to the threat and vulnerability.

Correct Answer(s): D. The organization increases its risk of a security breach due to the threat and vulnerability - This option illustrates a scenario in which an external group (threat) threatens a vulnerability (the software weakness), raising the possibility of a security breach (risk). Incorrect Answer(s): While conducting regular vulnerability assessments is a good practice, it does not demonstrate the relationship between vulnerability, threat, and risk. Focusing on physical security and firewall configurations focuses on risk mitigation techniques but does not illustrate the interplay between vulnerability, threat, and risk. While hiring external cybersecurity expertise can be part of a comprehensive security strategy, this choice does not demonstrate the relationship between vulnerability, threat, and risk.

Considering common threat vectors and attack surfaces, which statement BEST describes the primary risk, from a cybersecurity perspective, with using unsupported systems and applications? A. Unsupported systems are inherently more complex, thus presenting a larger attack surface. B. Unsupported systems usually have outdated security measures, broadening the threat vectors. C. Unsupported systems often operate on obsolete hardware, increasing their vulnerability to physical threat vectors. D. Unsupported systems no longer receive vendor updates or patches, making their attack surfaces more susceptible to known exploits.

Correct Answer(s): D. Unsupported systems no longer receive vendor updates or patches, making their attack surfaces more susceptible to known exploits - Unsupported systems, due to the lack of updates and patches, can have vulnerabilities that are known to attackers but remain unaddressed. This makes the system's attack surface particularly susceptible to exploits that target these vulnerabilities. Incorrect Answer(s): Complexity of a system is not always related to support status. Additionally, while complexity can increase an attack surface, it is not the primary risk related to unsupported systems. Although outdated security measures can introduce new threat vectors, the core issue with unsupported systems is the absence of updates for newly discovered vulnerabilities. Physical attacks are only one type of threat vector and not the predominant concern related to unsupported software.