Core 2 Test Questions

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Windows provides several ready-made MMC Snap-ins stored in the _______ applet in the Control Panel. System MMC Administrative Tools Network

Correct Answer: The Administrative Tools applet contains many useful tools that can be added to the MMC as Snap-ins. Incorrect Answers: There is not an MMC applet. The system and network applets in the Control Panel don't contain MMC Snap-ins.

Every time Will opens a Web page, three or four pop-ups appear, even with his pop-up blocker turned on. Which of the following programs should he run to get rid of these annoyances? · Anti-virus · Anti-pop-up · Anti-malware · Anti-spyware

Anti-spyware Correct Answer: Pop-ups are a sure sign of spyware. Incorrect Answers: Viruses and malware are less likely to cause pop-ups than spyware. He's already using a pop-up blocker.

Which error would CHKDSK most likely be able to repair? No ROM basic, system halted No boot device present Incorrect partition type Data error reading drive C:

Correct Answer: CHKDSK would most likely be able to repair the "Data error reading drive C:" error. Incorrect Answers: "No ROM basic, system halted" usually indicates that the system is unable to find the hard drive, or that the CMOS settings for the hard drive are incorrect or missing. "No boot device present" could also mean that the system cannot find the hard drive. CHKDSK could not fix an "Incorrect partition type" issue.

Colby is working in the command line. He knows there are hidden files and folders on the drive. How would he show all the hidden files and folders? DIR /H DIR /AH DIR +H DIR /w/p

Correct Answer: DIR will list the contents of a directory. The /AH switch will show hidden files and folders. Incorrect Answers: DIR +H is not a valid command. DIR /w/p will put the list of files in three columns and pause after each page. DIR /H is not a valid command.

A technician recently set up a new wired network and wants to ensure only his computers can use it. Which of the following is the most secure way to accomplish this? Disable the extra ports on the router. Assign static IP addresses to the computers. Make sure the computers are using strong passwords. Enable an intrusion detection system.

Correct Answer: Disabling the extra ports on the router would make it difficult for other computers to join the network. Incorrect Answers:

What does Disk Cleanup do? Erases and re-formats a disk Automatically cleans the surface of the hard disk(s) Helps you identify and clean up unnecessary files on a hard drive. Optimizes files that have been fragmented across the hard drive

Correct Answer: Disk Cleanup helps you clean up unused and temporary files. Incorrect Answers: Disk Defragmenter optimizes files that have been fragmented across the hard drive. Windows Explorer can be used to erase and re-format a disk. The other answer is made up.

What utility displays Application, Security, and System log files? Disk Administrator Event Viewer System Information Computer Management

Correct Answer: Event Viewer uses these three log files to record tracked events. Incorrect Answers: Disk Administrator is a tool from older versions of Windows and does not contain these logs. Computer Management contains an Event Viewer snap-in but does not itself contain the logs. System Information is for viewing important system details.

Which of the following commands will show you a NIC's MAC address? · IPCONFIG · IPCONFIG /ADDRESS · IPCONFIG /MAC · IPCONFIG /ALL

Correct Answer: IPCONFIG /ALL shows a NIC's MAC address. Incorrect Answers: The IPCONFIG command by itself only shows basic IP information. To see the MAC address, you must use the /ALL switch. The other two choices are not valid options.

Which of the following actions would best show a computer was connected to the Internet? · Pinging www.comptia.org · Pinging your DNS server · Pinging localhost · Pinging your router

Correct Answer: Pinging a remote system means you have to use the Internet. In this case, www.comptia.org is a great example. Incorrect Answers: Both your router and your localhost do not require you to go out to the Internet. Pinging a DNS server might be good proof if your DNS server is outside your local network, but pinging www.comptia.org will always work.

The command-line interface command to delete a directory in Windows 7 Professional is ________. DEL REMOVE ERASE RD

Correct Answer: The RD command removes directories if the directory is empty. Incorrect Answers: DEL and ERASE both erase files, but not directories. REMOVE is not a valid command.

For any given 802.11n wireless Internet signal, which of the following is needed to establish a connection? Proper SSID MAC address filtering Windows password SSL certificate

Correct Answer: To join a wireless network, you must have the proper SSID. Otherwise, you'll join the wrong network! Incorrect Answers: MAC filtering keeps unwanted computers off your wireless network. A Windows password won't help you join a wireless network. A SSL certificate is used in encrypting Web pages.

An LCD flat panel suddenly starts smoking badly. What should you do after unplugging the monitor? Check the MSDS Call the manufacturer Ventilate the room Call the fire department

Correct Answer: Whenever a device creates smoke, ventilate the room to remove noxious fumes. Incorrect Answers: Safety is your priority, not the MSDS. The manufacturer cannot help you right now. Calling the fire department is a bit extreme for this situation.

Which of the following operating systems are NOT used in modern smartphones or tablets? Android OS X iOS Chrome OS

OBJ-1.1: OS X is only supported on Apple desktops, laptops, and servers. It is not available on smartphones or tablets since Apple uses the iOS operating system on those devices.

Which of the following is the MOST secure wireless security and encryption protocol? WPA2 WEP WPS WPA

OBJ-2.3: WPA2 is the most secure wireless security and encryption protocol. WPA2 uses a pre-shared key (PSK) for authentication and is designed to secure both home and enterprise wireless networks.

Samuel's computer is taking a very long time to boot up, and he has asked for your help speeding it up. Which TWO of the following actions should you perform to BEST resolve this issue with the least amount of expense? Defragment the hard drive Terminate processes in the Task Manager Install additional RAM Replace the hard drive with a SSD Remove unnecessary applications from startup Perform a Disk Cleanup

OBJ-3.1: To speed up the boot process, you can defragment the hard drive, remove unnecessary applications from startup, install additional RAM, and replace the hard drive with an SSD. But, to do it with the least amount of expense, you can only defragment the hard drive or remove unnecessary applications from starting up since these actions do not require any additional components to be purchased.

Your friend is concerned that someone might be listening to her daily conversations when her smartphone is still in her purse. Which of the following threats is this an example of? Unauthorized microphone activation Unauthorized location tracking Unauthorized account access Unintended Bluetooth pairing

OBJ-3.5: The microphone can be activated remotely and allow a troublemaker to spy on you. It is suggested that, when not in authorized use, you cover the microphone of your device to keep them from providing any data if remotely accessed.

You are cleaning out the closet in your office and find several bottles of cleaner that need to be disposed of. Which of the following should you consult to determine the proper method of disposal? MITM MOU SOW MSDS

OBJ-4.5: The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document that contains information on the potential hazards (health, fire, reactivity, and environmental) and how to work safely with the chemical product. It is an essential starting point for the development of a complete health and safety program. The MSDS also includes the directions for proper handling and disposal of the chemicals.

Sylvia's café sits tucked into a small shopping area with other businesses close by. She offers free, open Wi-Fi for customers, but wants to make sure other businesses cannot leach her bandwidth. What offers the best solution to retain open Wi-Fi, but limit it to customers? · Enhance the firewall · Apply MAC filtering · Apply content filtering · Change the default SSID · Adjust the power levels on the WAP

Adjust the power levels on the WAP Correct Answer: Adjusting the power levels on a WAP, specifically lowering them, can enable a WAP to cover only the area needed.Incorrect Answers: Changing the default SSID help differentiate overlapping networks and adds a little security, but doesn't address Sylvia's needs. Applying MAC filtering would work in an environment where most wireless devices don't change. Sylvia's café is not that kind of environment. Applying content filtering might work, but would be time-consuming and expense to set up. Not the best answer here. Enhancing the firewall on the WAP would increase security, but not accomplish the stated goal of the scenario.

The shared folder named C$ is an example of which of the following? Local share Permission propagation Administrative share Inheritance

Administrative share The $ symbol at the end of the share name marks this as a hidden administrative share, which enables system administrators to access systems remotely.

Which of the following would help during a power outage? · Battery backup · Surge suppressor · Power strip · Line conditioner

Battery backup Correct Answer: A battery backup will provide power to a PC during a power outage. Incorrect Answers: A line conditioner improves the quality of the power going to a device. A power strip splits one power outlet into many. A surge suppressor protects PCs from power surges.

What is the single biggest social mistake a tech can make at a job site? Get frustrated Get confused Get angry Get hurt

Correct Answer: Never, ever let anyone see you angry at a job site! It is the single most unprofessional thing you can do. Incorrect Answers: Getting hurt is bad, but not a social mistake. Getting confused is bad, too, but not the end of the world. Getting frustrated can lead to getting angry, but there's still time—save yourself the embarrassment and calm down.

A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of the following tools should be used to accomplish this? · SYSPREP · CHKDSK · Windows 7 Advisor · DISKPART

Correct Answer: SYSPREP can be used to prepare duplicate images of a Windows installation when dealing with a mass deployment. Incorrect Answers: The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is used to see if a computer can potentially be upgraded to Windows 7. CHKDSK scans a hard drive's file system for errors and fixes any that it finds. DISKPART is used to partition hard drives.

If a device is hot-swappable, why should you use the Safely Remove Hardware Tool? It allows Windows to store information about the device. It enables the device to recover from a power management mode if the device should be in one. It enables the device to cool down. It prevents ESD. It enables any open files on the device to be closed.

Correct Answer: Safely Remove Hardware enables open files on the removable device to close. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are untrue and incorrect.

Which of the following is a legitimate way to update your anti-malware program? Use Task Scheduler. Virus definitions must be loaded manually. See if the anti-malware program has an automatic update feature. Use Windows Update.

Correct Answer: See if the anti-malware program has an automatic update feature. Incorrect Answers: Windows Update does not update ALL anti-malware programs. Task scheduler automates tasks; it doesn't update programs. Many anti-malware programs have handy update options for either manual or automatic updating.

Which of the following can be achieved with Group Policy to help with workstation security measures? BitLocker password Password complexity requirements BIOS password Wake on LAN

Correct Answer: Using Group Policy, you can force users to create passwords that meet a certain level of complexity. Now, if only you can keep them from writing their passwords on sticky notes, you'll be secure! Incorrect Answers: Group Policy doesn't control the BitLocker or BIOS passwords. Wake on LAN is a technology to awaken or turn on computers over a network.

What is Remote Assistance? · A feature that connects your PC to a live IRC chat session with a Microsoft help desk technician. · An extended warranty program offered by Microsoft. · A feature that enables a tech to access a user's PC remotely to perform diagnostics and initiate repairs. · A toll-free number that connects immediately with Microsoft support staff.

Correct Answer: Using Remote Assistance, you can invite another user to connect to your machine and offer assistance. Incorrect Answers: The other answers don't describe Remote Assistance, and are thus incorrect.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? 4309:FD21:ACB3:0012 192.17.2.1 00-00-00-1B-02-55 http://www.comptia.org

Correct Answer: 00-00-00-1B-02-55 is an example of a 48-bit MAC address. Incorrect Answers: 192.17.2.1 is an IP address. Http://www.comptia.org is a URL. 4309:FD21:ACB3:0012 is a 64-bit address. It's formatted like part of an IPv6 address.

Electrostatic discharge occurs between ______________. · Two objects when they are removed from their protective bags. · Two objects that are not grounded. · Two objects when the relative humidity is low. · Two objects that have dissimilar electric potential.

Correct Answer: ESD is the equalization of charge that occurs between two objects that have dissimilar electric potential. Incorrect Answers: The other choices lead to conditions that might increase the chances of ESD, but don't cause ESD.

Wearing an anti-static wrist strap while installing a CPU protects ________ from ESD. The CPU Neither You Both

Correct Answer: ESD will not hurt humans, only components, including the CPU. Incorrect Answers: You will be fine.

What is the single biggest social mistake a tech can make at a job site? Get confused Get frustrated Get angry Get hurt

The first thing you should try when a Windows application locks up is __________. · Press CTRL + BREAK. · Press CTRL + ALT + DEL to invoke Task Manager. · Press CTRL + ESC. · Shut down the system and wait 10 seconds before re-booting.

Correct Answer: Using the three-fingered salute (CTRL+ALT+DEL) one time brings up the Task Manager, which enables you to close the application that locked up the system. Incorrect Answers: CTRL + BREAK does nothing within Windows. CTRL + ESC brings up the Start menu. Never shut down Windows with the "big switch" unless there are no other options.

Of the following, which is the BEST method to store a CPU temporarily before installing it in a PC? On top of an anti-static bag. Upside down on the workspace. Inside an anti-static bag. Between two anti-static bags.

Inside an anti-static bag. Correct Answer: CompTIA strongly recommends that static-sensitive components be stored inside an anti-static bag until installation. Incorrect Answers: All of the other possible answers are bad ideas. Don't try them!

Which version should you use when installing a Linux operating system and are concerned with end-of-life support? LTS release Rolling release Beta release Developer release

OBJ-1.1: The LTS (Long-Term Support) release is well-supported and will be regularly updated by the Linux distribution to support new hardware, performance, and security improvements. These LTS releases are supported for a long time (approximately 10 years), so they are great to use in production systems like servers.

Which of the following workstation operating systems are Ubuntu and Redhat considered? Windows macOS Android Linux

OBJ-1.1: Ubuntu and Redhat are common distributions of the Linux operating system. The Linux operating system has over 500 different distributions of Linux available.

You are working on a Windows 10 workstation that is operating much too slowly. Which TWO of the following commands should you use to speed up the system? format chkdsk diskpart dism ipconfig dir

OBJ-1.4: The Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to mount and service Windows images before deployment. The dism command with the /RestoreHealth option can run a scan to identify and repair any corruption of an image or virtual hard drive. If you have a physical hard drive operating slowly, then the chkdsk command could be used instead.

Your company is concerned about the possibility of power fluctuations that may occur and cause a small dip in the input power to their server room for an extended period of time. What condition is this known as? Brownouts Blackouts Power spikes Power surge

OBJ-4.5: A brownout is an intentional or unintentional drop in voltage in an electrical power supply system. Intentional brownouts are used for load reduction in an emergency. The reduction lasts for minutes or hours, as opposed to short-term voltage sag (or dip).

Your company is concerned about the possibility of power fluctuations that may occur and cause a large increase in the input power to their server room. What condition is this known as? Power surge Blackouts Power spikes Brownouts

OBJ-4.5: A power spike is a very short pulse of energy on a power line. Power spikes can contain very high voltages up to and beyond 6000 volts but usually last only a few milliseconds instead of longer but lower voltage power surges.

Your company is concerned about the possibility of power fluctuations that may occur and cause a small increase in the input power to their server room. What condition is this known as? Power spikes Power surge Brownouts Blackouts

OBJ-4.5: A power surge is basically an increase in your electrical current. A power surge often has levels of 10-30% above the normal line voltage and last from 15 milliseconds up to several minutes.

Which of the following is considered a form of regulated data? DMCA AUP DRM PII

BJ-4.6: The four forms of regulated data covered by the CompTIA A+ (220-1002) exam are PII (Personally Identifiable Information), PCI (Payment Card Industry), GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), and PHI (Protected Health Information).

Which of the following is best used to prevent other people from viewing a user's computer screen? · Biometric device · Anit-virus software · Privacy filter · Key fob

Correct Answer: A privacy filter reduces the viewing angle of your screen so that only the person right in front of it can see what's on-screen. Incorrect Answers: Anti-virus software just cleans viruses off a computer. Key fobs and biometric devices are used for authentication, not to prevent shoulder surfing.

When securing a new wireless router, which of the following should be changed first? DHCP settings Radio power levels Default SSID Default password

Correct Answer: Changing the default password will prevent others from getting into your router and messing around. Default passwords are well-documented and provide no security. Incorrect Answers: You'll probably want to change your SSID, but change the router password first! Changing radio power levels or DHCP settings does not affect security.

What can protect a computer from a transient voltage that's too high but not too low? UPS Ground fault interrupter Surge suppressor Power outlet

Correct Answer: Surge suppressors only protect from voltage surges, not sags. Incorrect Answers: A UPS is an uninterruptible power supply that protects from surges and sags. A power outlet provides power. A ground fault interrupter is an outlet designed to protect people from electrical shock.

Which of the following switches should a technician use with the PING command to resolve an IP address to a hostname? -a -t -f -n

Correct Answer: The -a switch resolves IP addresses to hostnames. Incorrect Answers: The -f switch sets the don't fragment flag on the PING packets. The -n switch enables you to set the number of PINGS to send. The -t switch runs PING until you manually stop it.

You work for a company that does network cable installations. Your company has been contracted to pull out the existing CAT 3 wiring to install CAT 6. You notice the plug on the end of the CAT 3 is an RJ-45. What is the other connector type that can be used with CAT 3 installations? · RJ-11 · BNC · SC · LC

Correct Answer: The RJ-11 is also used with twisted pair cabling. Shame RJ-45 wasn't on the list, eh? Incorrect Answers: The BNC connector was used with 10Base2 coaxial cabling. The SC and LC connectors are used with fiber-optic cabling.

Which of the Event Viewer sections records failed hardware events? · Antivirus · Security · Application · System

Correct Answer: The System section records all problems, like hardware failures, that relate to the system. Incorrect Answers: Application and Security do not record hardware failures. There is no Antivirus section in Event Viewer.

A Windows 7 desktop PC has blue screened several times, indicating a possible RAM problem. Which of the following tools can be used to test this problem? MSCONFIG Windows System File Checker Windows Memory Diagnostic Windows System Restore

Correct Answer: The Windows Memory Diagnostic tool diagnoses memory problems. Incorrect Answers: System Restore just restores Windows to a previously-set snapshot. The System File Checker makes sure that all of Windows' system files are in proper working order. MSCONFIG is the tool that enables you to set startup programs.

Using lots of jargon makes you sound: Competent Smart Insecure Knowledgeable

Correct Answer: The overuse of jargon makes a tech sound very insecure to users. Avoid it! Incorrect Answers: Using lots of jargon does not make you sound smart, knowledgeable, or competent.

The term "Patch Management" refers to: · The process of organizing all of a computer's patches by different criteria. · Properly configuring the Windows Update utility. · The process of distributing and organizing Flash ROM updates to system BIOS. · The process of ensuring an operating system has all up-to-date updates.

Correct Answer: The process of ensuring an operating system has all up-to-date updates. Incorrect Answers: The other three answers have nothing to do with Patch Management.

The technology of using the Internet to securely connect a computer to a private network is known as: · VTN · VPN · VNN · VLN

Correct Answer: VPN. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network. Incorrect Answers: VTN, VLN, and VNN are not common networking acronyms.

While cleaning a closet for a new network rack, Tom finds a box labeled "Hexavalent chromium." What should he do with this box? Locate an MSDS online. Hexavalent chromium is expensive. Sell it! Call the local recycling center. It's probably safe, just throw it in the trash.

Correct Answer: Whenever you come across an unidentified item, first locate an MSDS to understand the risks involved with handling and the proper disposal techniques. Incorrect Answers: Calling the local recycling center isn't a bad idea, but it's better to find the MSDS first. Never throw unknown materials into the trash! Don't sell it. Your capitalistic opportunism is inspiring, but if you don't know what it is, don't try selling it!

A drive configured as a basic disk in Disk Management cannot support what feature? Disk Administration RAID NTFS Sharing

Correct Answer: Windows requires Dynamic disk drives to support RAID. Incorrect Answers: NTFS and sharing are both supported by Basic and Dynamic disks.

Which type of virus propagates by tunneling through networks and the Internet? Trojan Worm Spider Macro

Correct Answer: Worms typically propagate via networks or the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A Macro virus attaches to programs. There is no such thing as a Spider virus. A Trojan virus looks like a program but is a virus.

You want to install Windows 7 32-bit onto your computer. What is the bare minimum amount of hard drive space required to do this? · 20 GB · 8 GB · 16 GB · 12 GB

Correct Answer: You'll need 16 GB of hard drive space. That is the bare minimum. Incorrect Answers: 8 GB and 12 GB are not correct. 20 GB is the minimum requirement for a Windows 7 64-bit PC. 1 Gb RAM for 32-bit 2 Gb RAM for 64-bit

Which Registry root key contains information about file types? HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT HKEY_USERS HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

Correct: You'll find file information in HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT. Incorrect: The other Registry root keys contain important information, but not about file types.

What network service provides dynamic IP addresses? · DNS · DHCP · Router · HTTP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows a "pool" of IP addresses to be "leased" as they are needed. Since the IP address is not permanent, it can change (dynamic). Incorrect Answers: HTTP is the protocol used to transfer Web pages on the Internet. DNS is the naming service used to translate domain names to IP addresses. A router is used to separate broadcast domains. It will connect you to other networks. Sometimes they have a DHCP server built into them, but that is not a requirement.

You are a technician working for a large company, and you notice a user has left a Post-it note attached to her monitor of a new password that she was just given. What should the technician do? · Inform their supervisor. · Log in with it and change her password to teach her a lesson. · Explain to her how dangerous it is to leave passwords lying around. · Take it and give it to her when she gets back from lunch.

Inform their supervisor. Correct Answer: Any incident that threatens the security of the organization must be reported! Incorrect Answers: While the other answers are plausible solutions, they aren't the best ones, so they are wrong.

What is the maximum amount of memory used in a 32-bit version of the Windows operating system? 8 GB 1 GB 2 GB 4 GB

OBJ-1.1: Any operating system that is a 32-bit can only access up to 4 GB of memory. Every byte of RAM requires its own address, and the processor limits the length of those addresses. A 32-bit processor uses addresses that are 32 bits long. There are only 4,294,967,296, or 4 GB, possible 32-bit addresses. This 4 GB limit applies to the total system memory, so if the system has memory dedicated to the graphics, it is also considered a part of this 4 GB total limit.

Your coworker is creating a script to run on a Windows server using PowerShell. Which of the following file formats should the file be in? .ps1 .bat .py .sh

OBJ-4.8: If you want to save a series of PowerShell commands in a file to rerun them later, you effectively create a PowerShell script. This is simply a text file with a .ps1 extension. The file contains a series of PowerShell commands, with each command appearing on a separate line.

Which of the following is used to communicate data and preferences to child processes within a script or batch file? Environmental variables Variables Constants Comments

OBJ-4.8: Shell scripts and batch files use environment variables to communicate data and preferences to child processes. They can also be used to store temporary values for reference later in a shell script.

What protocol must be enabled to configure a new workstation to boot an operating system from a network? · WiFi · UPNP · WOL · PXE

PXE Correct Answer: Preboot Execution Environment (PXD) is an industry-standard client/server interface. It allows a workstation to be remotely configured by an administrator. Incorrect Answers: Wake on Lan (WOL) refers to a standard that allows a computer to turn on when awakened by a network message. It does not permit for booting. WiFi is not required for booting a system from a network. It refers to the type of networking. Universal plug and play (UPnP) is a protocol that permits networked devices to know that each other are on the network. It does not permit booting from a network.

Angel is new to the job and is making lists of data his company uses that gets regulated by corporate interests and by government regulations. Which of the following is considered government-regulated data? PHI DRM End-user license agreement Digital Millennium Copyright Act

Protected Health Information (PHI) relates to the health records of individuals and is strictly regulated. Incorrect Answers: The Digital Millennium Copyright Act seeks to regulate copyrights through digital rights management (DRM) schemes, among other things. It's government regulation, yes, but isn't considered government regulated data. An end-user license agreement applies to the interaction of a customer and a company offering software or other services.

Karl wants to make a new folder on his Desktop. Which of the following will work? Click on the Desktop, Press F2, then select New | Folder. Ctrl-Right-click on the Desktop, then select New | Folder. Right-click on the Desktop, then select New | Folder. Double-click on the Desktop, then select New | Folder.

Right-click on the Desktop, then select New | Folder. Right-click on the Desktop, then select New | Folder. Incorrect Answers: The other three options are nothing more than the question writer's imagination at work.

Which of the following devices most likely will require a driver install? · Monitors · Projectors · Speakers · Scanners

Scanners Correct Answer: You'll probably have to install drivers for a scanner before you can start using it. Incorrect Answers: You don't need to install any drivers to use speakers, monitors, or projectors

The on-site technician at ABC Corp. is working on repairing a user's computer. The user claims he is having trouble accessing the R drive. As part of her diagnostics, the tech runs IPCONFIG and notes that the IP address is 10.23.139.19. In the middle of the diagnostics, the user needs to leave. To continue working easily, the technician asks for the user's password. After working on it for another 30 minutes, the technician determines the problem to be a server permissions issue. By the time the user returns, she has called the technician in charge of the server and had the problem corrected. She shows the user that everything now works correctly and returns to her office to file the paperwork. What did the technician do wrong? · She took too long to diagnose the problem. · She did not have the user fill out the proper forms. · She did not follow the CompTIA troubleshooting method. · She asked the user to reveal his password.

She asked the user to reveal his password. Correct Answer: She asked the user for his password. This should be avoided at all costs. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are made up.

A user's computer keeps producing a "low virtual memory" alert, after which the speed of the system degrades. Which of the following Control Panel applets can provide information to review and correct this issue? · System > Advanced · System > Hardware · System > System Restore · System > Remote

System > Advanced Correct Answer: Going to System > Advanced enables you to change settings like the amount of virtual memory your computer uses. Incorrect Answers: The other options won't enable you to change virtual memory settings.

Which Windows utility backs up critical files and settings and enables you to roll back to a previous state? · System Restore · Microsoft Management Console · System Information · Registry

System Restore Correct Answer: System Restore does the trick here, enabling you to back up and restore your system. Incorrect Answers: The Registry is the database that contains all the important information that System Restore backs up. System Information is exactly what it sounds like, showing you a list of important system information. The Microsoft Management Console lets you assemble tools into a single, personalized utility.

Which of the following accurately describes the function of the TRACERT command? It's used to configure a network system's static IP address. It's used to determine the name of a DNS server. It's used to test connectivity to every router between your system and a destination system. It's used to determine the IP address for a given Domain Name.

TRACERT shows the route that a packet takes from your system to a destination system. This enables you to test the connectivity to every router along the way. Incorrect Answers: Determining the name of a DNS server would typically be the job of NSLOOKUP or IPCONFIG. Determining the IP address for a given Domain Name is the job of your DNS server. You go to a network card's TCP/IP properties dialog box to set a static IP address.

In Windows, how do you close an application that has stopped responding? Open Task Manager, select the Applications tab, select the application, then click the End Task button. Open Task Manager, select the Applications tab, select the application, click the Switch To button. Click and hold your mouse button on the application's Taskbar icon, then select Force Quit from the popup dialog box. Open Device Manager, right-click on the application, select Disable from the popup menu.

Task Manager's Applications tab enables you to shut down frozen programs. Incorrect Answers: Force Quit is the Macintosh OS X equivalent. Switch To will not close the application, but switch to it. There is no disable option in the right-click popup menu in Task Manager.

A user reports that the Web browser shortcut key on his laptop's keyboard isn't working. What would a technician do to resolve the problem? · Installing AHCI drivers from a manufacturer's Web site · Installing hotkey drivers from a manufacturer's Web site · Installing Bluetooth drivers from a manufacturer's Web site · Installing ACPI drivers from a manufacturer's Web site

The Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) is a technical standard defined by Intel that specifies the operation of Serial ATA (SATA) host controllers Correct Answer: To get the user's special hotkeys working, the tech needs to install drivers for them. Incorrect Answers: Bluetooth, ACPI, and AHCI drivers won't help.

A user wants to change what happens when a laptop's lid is closed. Which of the following Control Panel applets is the most direct way to adjust this? Display Personalization Device Manager Power Options

The Power Options applet controls what happens when a laptop's lid is closed. Incorrect Answers: The Display applet controlled things like screen resolution, color depth, and desktop wallpaper in older versions of Windows. The Personalization applet has replaced the Display applet's wallpaper and screen saver functionality. Device Manager enables you to control the hardware devices installed in your computer, from updating or rolling back drivers, to disabling troublesome devices.

Lenny has just learned that laptops can share memory for video, and he is curious to find out how much RAM his laptop reserves for video. He is surprised to discover that all of his 1 GB of memory is shown being used by Windows. What's happening? · This laptop does not need any type of RAM for video. · The shared memory is so small that it's not even listed. · This laptop does not use shared memory. · The video card shares its RAM for the operating system.

This laptop does not use shared memory. Correct Answer: Higher-end laptops have dedicated video cards with their own RAM, just like many desktops (although some desktops do use shared memory for video!). Incorrect Answers: All video cards require some type of RAM, and cards have onboard RAM. If Windows is showing that it is using all the memory, then the video is not using any of his system RAM. The operating system is not able to use the RAM on a video card.

When speaking to a customer: Speak only when spoken to. Avoid eye contact. Use clear, direct statements. Show them that you are highly skilled and that their equipment is in good hands.

Use clear, direct statements. Always use clear, direct statements when communicating. Incorrect Answers: Do not prove your skills - they assume that when you walk in the door. Eye contact is good - don't avoid it. Speaking only when spoken to is more helpful with kings and queens than it is in the work place.

Which of these are symptoms of malware on a PC? (Select two.) · When your computer prints, it prints nothing but random character and symbols instead of regular text. · When you browse the Internet, you are redirected to Web sites that you didn't click on. · Your computer's display has a residual ghosted image on it. · The optical drive in your computer ejects at random times. · When your PC is sitting idle, you notice the network and hard drive activity is higher than normal.

When you browse the Internet, you are redirected to Web sites that you didn't click on. When your PC is sitting idle, you notice the network and hard drive activity is higher than normal. Correct Answers: If you notice that your hard drive and NIC are working hard when you aren't working at all, that's a good sign that you have been infected with malware. Also, if you are browsing the Internet and you are randomly presented with a Web site you didn't click on, that could be an indication of malware infection. Incorrect Answers: If your optical drive ejects at random times, it sounds like you have a defective drive. Replace it! If you print nothing but gobbly-gook, then check your printer drivers, you probably have the wrong ones installed. A ghosted image on your display indicates you are a victim of screen burn-in. This was common on CRT displays as well as plasmas. That's why we have screensavers!

A user reports that every time he uses a search engine and clicks on a link to go to a website, he is instead taken to a site blocked by his company's content filter. The user is not trying to go to the blocked site, but he needs to be able to successfully use the search engine to complete his assignment. Which of the following tools would a technician use to best resolve this issue? · Anti-malware software · Factory pre-installation · System restore · Recovery console

· Anti-malware software Correct Answer: It sounds like the user has gotten some malware on his PC, so it's time to run an anti-malware scan. Incorrect Answers: All the other answers involve lengthy processes that would necessitate data backups, application re-installation, and all sorts of other hassles. Use them as last resorts!

To connect to a PC using RDP, what port should you open? · 80 · 21 · 443 · 3389

3389 Correct Answer: Port 3389 needs to be open for Remote Desktop connections. Incorrect Answers: Port 21 is used for FTP, port 80 is for HTTP, and port 443 is for HTTPS.

A user reports that there is a metallic burning smell from their CRT monitor. Which of the following should be taken into consideration before attempting to resolve the customer's issue? CRT monitors should be serviced by qualified personnel. Use anti-static procedures. Allow the CRT power supply to drain all power. Have compressed air available to clear out the debris.

Because of the inherent dangers of the high-voltage power required by monitors, only a technician specialized in CRT repair should work on the CRT. As a technician, you should focus on getting the information on the problem and decide if a specialized technician is warranted. Incorrect Answers: CRTs can take an extended time to drain, and should only be worked on by specialized technicians. There is no evidence of debris in the CRT mentioned. CRTs require repair by a specialized technician. CRTs should only be opened by a specialized technician.

A frustrated user calls in for tech support. She installed three new programs, but now Windows 7 won't load. What can she do to determine which program is at fault? She doesn't want to uninstall all three programs. Select the best answer. · Boot the computer into Safe Mode. Go to the Control Panel | Administrative Tools | Event Viewer. · She needs to uninstall the three programs and reinstall them one at a time, testing Windows startup. · Boot the computer into Safe Mode with Networking and do an Internet searches for the three programs to see if other people have had problems. · Boot the computer into Safe Mode with Command Prompt. At the prompt type CHKDSK /PROGRAMS to run a scan on installed applications.

Boot the computer into Safe Mode. Go to the Control Panel | Administrative Tools | Event Viewer. Correct Answer: Event Viewer will quickly tell her which program(s) made Windows fail to load. Incorrect Answers: CHKDSK will check a hard drive, but cannot scan programs. The Internet search is a good idea, but not the first or fastest way to determine the buggy program. Uninstalling and reinstalling one by one will certainly work, but also requires the most work out of the options.

A technician has just upgraded RAM on a user's Windows 7 workstation from 4GB to 8GB. The technician now wants to adjust the page file size on the system to the recommended Microsoft minimum settings. Which of the following is the Microsoft minimum page file? 16328MB 4096MB 12288MB 8192MB

Correct Answer: 12288MB is correct. Microsoft's suggestion for the minimum page file size in Windows 7 is 1.5x your system RAM. Incorrect Answers: 4096 MB is incorrect. Microsoft's suggestion for the minimum page file size in Windows 7 is 1.5x your system RAM. 8192 MB is incorrect. Microsoft's suggestion for the minimum page file size in Windows 7 is 1.5x your system RAM. 16328 MB is incorrect. Microsoft's suggestion for the minimum page file size in Windows 7 is 1.5x your system RAM.

What is the more common term for a "Windows Stop" error? BSoD System Stop Stop Lockup

Correct Answer: A Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) is the common term for a "Windows Stop" error. Incorrect Answers: None of the other phrases are used in place of a "Windows Stop" error.

Which Windows tool would enable a user to recover his encrypted files if he forgets his password? Password restore disk Password reset disk BitLocker Encrypting File System

Correct Answer: A Password reset disk lets a user recover encrypted files if he forgets his password. Incorrect Answers: BitLocker Drive Encryption is a tool in Windows Pro and Enterprise versions for encrypting hard drives. The Encrypting File System is another encryption tool. The Password restore disk is made up.

Tyrion discovers a computer on his network has been infected with a Zero-day virus. Which of the following is the first thing that should be done to the workstation? Unplug it from the network Run an antivirus update and then a full scan Turn off the computer using the power switch Document the symptoms of the virus

Correct Answer: A Zero-day virus is a virus that is so new and unheard of that no virus scanner has the definitions to be able to protect against it. The best thing to do when you have a computer that you suspect has a 0-day virus is unplugging it from the wall and wait for your favorite antivirus company to come up with a fix. Incorrect Answers: Running the antivirus update and then doing a full scan sounds like a great idea, but since this is a Zero-day virus, your virus scanner won't have any clue what to look for. Even the most recent virus definitions will be useless. Turning off the computer using the power switch isn't bad, but it can be harmful to the computer if you abruptly turn it off. Besides, our main goal right now is to quarantine this thing. Documenting the symptoms of the virus would be a great last step after you have cleaned it, of course.

Police Commissioner Gordan has noticed a rash of laptop thefts throughout Gotham city offices. What can he recommend to Gotham's citizens as the most effective way to prevent laptop theft? A cable lock A CCTV system A badge reader A retina scanner

Correct Answer: A cable lock will stymie all but the most dedicated thieves. Incorrect Answers: CCTV doesn't prevent theft but makes it easier to find the thieves. Badge readers and retina scanners won't stop someone from picking up your laptop and walking off with it.

Which of the following is the most secure method, short of physical destruction, that would be used to ensure that data on a hard drive cannot be recovered? · Format the drive · Use a degaussing tool · Use an overwrite program · Repartition the drive

Correct Answer: A degaussing tool is a big magnet that will completely erase any magnetic hard drive. Incorrect Answers: The other answers will delete the contents of a drive, but these methods can all potentially be recovered. Degaussing the drive is the only way to be sure.

What is the purpose of a driver? · It provides more useful memory by moving device control data to extended memory. · It improves the performance of installed devices by optimizing access patterns. · It tells the operating system how to interact with the device. . It modifies programs to work correctly with devices attached to a system.

Correct Answer: A device driver tells the operating system how to interact with the device in question. Incorrect Answers: The other three answers are the products of my limitless imagination

After being infected with a virus, a user's computer does not recognize the user as having local administrator rights to the computer. After troubleshooting the issue, a technician determines the computer's OS needs to be rebuilt, and data needs to be restored from the user's backup. Which of the following tools would best reset the computer to how it worked when first purchased? Factory restore disc System Restore Anti-malware software Recovery Console

Correct Answer: A factory restore disc will revert a computer's OS to the pristine condition in which it left the factory. Incorrect Answers: The Recovery Console will help you troubleshoot a computer that is having trouble booting, but it won't reset the computer back to its original condition. Anti-malware software will help remove malware, but it won't restore your OS. Performing a System Restore takes your PC back to a previously established snapshot, but only in terms of installed programs and drivers. It won't completely restore your computer.

Which attribute keeps a file from being displayed when the DIR command is performed? · Archive · Read-Only · Hidden · Protected

Correct Answer: A file is not displayed if it has the Hidden attribute. Incorrect Answers: Archive is used in conjunction with backup software. Read-Only prevents a file from being modified. Protected is not a real attribute.

Information you see or hear while working on a repair at a job site: Should be reported to your boss Is fair game Can be told to your friends Should stay at the job site

Correct Answer: A tech should never discuss information he discovers on a job. Incorrect Answers: Information received from a customer or learned while working at their site. It should only be used to deal with the repair. Any confidential or private matters must always remain confidential.

Erica sits at her desk and tries to log into the accounting server with her laptop, but she's prompted for a user name and password. What kind of authentication, if any, does this represent? TACACS RADIUS Single-factor Multifactor None; this is authorization.

Correct Answer: A user name and password are both "something you know," thus single-factor authentication. Incorrect Answers: RADIUS is a protocol for encrypted authentication, rather than a specific authentication factor. Multifactor authentication would ask for more than "something you know," such as "something you have" (like a badge) or "something you are" (like fingerprints). TACACS+ is a protocol for encrypted authentication, rather than a specific authentication factor. We're dealing with authentication here. Authorization comes after determining access to resources on the network.

Joe has a firewall and up-to-date antivirus software on his company computer. He has asked what else he can do to improve his security. Which of the following will have the most impact on network security? (Select two.) · Use strong passwords · Conduct a daily security audit · Assign security rights based on job roles · Install additional antivirus software · Disable screen savers

Correct Answer: According to CompTIA's best practices, two of the best ways to secure a workstation are to configure a complex password and to restrict user permissions. You can restrict user permissions by assigning security rights based on whatever job roles exist. Incorrect Answers: Installing another piece of AV software will actually present new issues. Having two or more virus scanners competing against one another can actually hurt more than it helps. Disabling your screen saver doesn't really help security. It just makes your lovely CRT burn out faster. Conducting a daily security audit might be a little overkill here. It's not exactly a realistic expectation for Joe or anyone in the company

A customer calls the help desk to report an issue. The customer suggests that the problem is hardware-related, but the technician knows from the description that this is not the case. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician? Continue to pursue the customer's course of action. Acknowledge the customer's input, but follow another course of action. Explain to the customer that your experience with this shows a different course of action. Continue to pursue your course of action.

Correct Answer: Acknowledge the customer's input, but follow another course of action is correct. The user generally knows their job better, so they may give you some good information that will help solve the problem. Listen to the customer, acknowledge their input; however, you should follow your troubleshooting skills. Incorrect Answers: Continue to pursue your course of action is incorrect. Ignoring the customer's input will only upset your customer. Continue to pursue the customer's course of action is incorrect. They may know their job, but you should follow your troubleshooting guidelines. Explain to the customer that your experience with this shows a different course of action. Telling a customer that they are wrong is not good communication. Listen to their input, but follow your troubleshooting guidelines.

Which of the following is NOT a type of file attribute? Hidden System Administrator Read-Only

Correct Answer: Administrator is not a file attribute. Incorrect Answers: Hidden, System, and Read-Only are all file attributes.

Which of the following user account types can create other user accounts? · Standard User · Restricted User · Limited User · Administrator

Correct Answer: Administrators can create new user accounts. Incorrect Answers: The other listed user account types cannot create other user accounts

After you have completed a Windows installation and verified that the system starts and runs, what should you do next? Perform a full system backup. Install the latest service pack or updates along with any updated drivers. Install productivity applications and restore data. Do nothing. You're through.

Correct Answer: After a successful Windows installation, install the latest service pack or updates along with any updated drivers. Incorrect Answers: Although you have installed Windows, you should always check for updates, especially for security issues. It's not a terrible idea to perform a full backup, but if you've just finished installing Windows, there probably isn't much to back up just yet. You'll want to install productivity applications and restore data after updating Windows.

What should you do with a worn-out Li-Ion battery? Throw it away Return it to the manufacturer for a trade in. Contact your local disposal authority for guidance. Recharge it.

Correct Answer: All laptop batteries should be considered hazardous material. Contact your local waste disposal authority. Incorrect Answers: Don't throw it away! Don't try to return it. Don't try to recharge it.

You come to a job site to fix a printer, and it's a very busy office. Before you do anything else, you should: Hand the customer your business card. Lay out an anti-static mat to define your work area. Shake hands with everyone directly affected by your work. Ask if you can start the job.

Correct Answer: Always ask if it's OK to begin work; this gives the customer time to do whatever they need to do first. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are all nice ideas and will make you seem very friendly, but they aren't what you need to do before you start working.

Identify the correct statement regarding battery disposal: · All batteries can be recycled. · To dispose of dead batteries, place them in the trash can. · Destroy all used batteries by burning them. · Check the battery label for information on special disposal procedures.

Correct Answer: Always check the label to dispose of dead batteries properly. Incorrect Answers: Battery disposal changes from battery to battery. Generally, you should recycle them if possible, but always read the label first.

When cleaning a computer monitor, always spray the cleaning solution on: A thin sponge A polishing cloth The front of the monitor A lint-free cloth

Correct Answer: Always spray the cleaning solution onto a lint-free cloth, never on the monitor itself. Incorrect Answers: Polishing cloths and sponges aren't as good as a lint-free cloth in this situation. Never spray the cleaning solution on the monitor itself!

A technician troubleshooting a computer finds a faulty video card and needs to replace it. Which of the following safety procedures is the BEST to prevent damaging the new part? Use ESD strap on the new card during handling. Ground the computer and remove jewelry. Handle the new card by the edges only. Always use an anti-static mat.

Correct Answer: Always use an anti-static mat. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) is the release of static electricity and can be damaging to any electronic device. It is always best practice to use an anti-static mat and anti-static wrist straps. Incorrect Answers: Grounding the computer and removing jewelry is a good procedure, but we need the BEST. Handling the new card by the edges is good, but again we need the BEST. Use ESD strap on the new card during handling is incorrect. You need an anti-static mat to be the BEST.

Ivan sees a coworker's printer sitting precariously on the edge of a table. The coworker is not around. He should: · Send an email to the building supervisor. · Tell the user to move the printer. · Move the printer back safely on the table. · Call their supervisor.

Correct Answer: Always watch out for safety issues and help when you can. Incorrect Answers: This is not an issue that needs to be escalated. Keep the workplace safe!

Turnstiles and other mantraps will prevent which of the following security threats? Shoulder surfing Viruses Rootkits Tailgating

Correct Answer: An attacker can't follow victims through turnstiles as easily as through a door, and a mantrap enables a building's security staff to prevent a suspected attacker from leaving. Incorrect Answers: Shoulder surfing is looking over a user's shoulder to see sensitive information on the user's screen. A rootkit is a type of malware that hides on a system and grants an attacker remote access to the system. A virus is a type of malware that replicates within a system by making copies of itself.

A full backup is made at the beginning of the week. Which of the following backup methods would be the quickest and smallest if used each day during that week? · Differential · Normal · Incremental · Copy

Correct Answer: An incremental backup backs up all marked files—that is, all files with the Archive attribute—and then clears the Archive attribute. A file gets marked with this attribute when something changes with the file; for example, an increase or decrease in size. Incorrect Answers: A differential backup is similar to an incremental backup except that the Archive attribute is not removed after the backup. This means that unless you change it yourself, you will have more and more to back up each time, thus making backups last longer and take up more space. A normal backup is the same as saying a full backup. A copy backup isn't anything. I made it up.

You are on-site. While working on the client's PC, you notice a red folder with the words "Classified, do not look" on the cover. What should you do? Steal the folder and run it back to the red base Ignore the folder, and get to work Look at the files Ask the client to remove the folder and then work on the PC

Correct Answer: Ask the client to remove the folder and then work on the PC. Not only must you be honest and trustworthy when working for a client, but you must also be above suspicion. Incorrect Answers: Never put yourself in a position where the client wonders if you might have done something wrong. Looking at or stealing the files is a bad idea. And if you try to ignore the folder, you may be tempted to look at it. Just have it removed and save yourself the trouble.

Dana, a Tier 2 help desk tech at Highland Gadgets, Corp., gets that dreaded call, an already-frustrated customer with a dead PC. After walking the customer through a few standard troubleshooting routines, the customer tells Dana that she's wasting his time. He's already tried everything she's suggested so far. What should Dana do next? Bump the customer up to Tier 3 tech support; that is, escalate the problem. Ask the customer open-ended questions to get closer to the underlying issue behind the PC that won't boot. Tell the customer that she has a few more steps to try first, then follow the script as written for the troubleshooting steps. Question the user more aggressively, because his frustration points to something he did that caused the problem.

Correct Answer: Ask the customer open-ended questions to get closer to the underlying issue behind the PC that won't boot. The script isn't working, so be creative. Open-ended questions give the customer space to speak and perhaps give the tech a clue about what might have happened to cause the current problem. Incorrect Answers: Tell the customer that she has a few more steps to try first, then follow the script as written for the troubleshooting steps. This option will most likely infuriate the customer! Question the user more aggressively, because his frustration points to something he did that caused the problem. Don't get aggressive or confrontational with a customer. Bump the customer up to Tier 3 tech support; that is, escalate the problem. Dana might have to do this later, but it's not the best next step.

What is the generic term used for the process to determine the identity of a user logging into a system? Indemnification Identification Authentication Authorization

Correct Answer: Authentication is the generic term used for determining the identity of a user logging into a system. Incorrect Answers: Authorization is for determining what a user can and cannot do. The other answers are incorrect.

Autostarting programs can exist in which of the following locations? (Select two.) BOOT.INI bootcfg Services Startup folder in the Start menu Windows folder

Correct Answer: Autostarting programs can be loaded through the Services snap-in and from the Startup folder in all versions of Windows. Incorrect Answers: BOOT.INI only points to the location of the Windows OS boot files. The Windows folder is the default location of the Windows OS boot files. Bootcfg is a utility in the Recovery Console used to rebuild the Boot.ini.

Cheryl has purchased and installed a contact management program on her non-networked laptop. She keeps getting an "Unable to connect to contact database - 3256" error message. What should she do next? Check for vendor documentation. Reboot the PC. Uninstall/reinstall the program. Call the company help desk.

Correct Answer: Bizarre, meaningless errors like this one are common in this business. Check the vendor documentation to see if there's a good answer to this problem. Incorrect Answers: Uninstalling/reinstalling the program or rebooting the PC might make the error go away, but it doesn't solve the problem. Calling the help desk is time-consuming and should be considered a last resort.

Which of the following command-line utilities is designed to edit the BOOT.INI file? Regedit Sigverif Bootcfg Cacls

Correct Answer: Bootcfg is designed to let you edit the BOOT.INI file from the command prompt. Incorrect Answers: Regedit enables you to manually edit the Registry. Cacls is designed to view/edit NTFS permissions from the command prompt. Sigverif works from the command prompt to inspect all the device drivers and verify which drivers are signed and unsigned.

While installing a driver for a new device on your Windows 32-bit PC, you are warned that the driver is not digitally signed by Microsoft. What does this mean? You cannot install the driver. It's a known bug in the Windows OS. You can safely ignore this warning. You can install the driver, but should be aware that it might not function properly. You need to run the SIGVERIF utility to manually create a digital signature for the driver.

Correct Answer: By default, Windows checks drivers for a digital signature from Microsoft. If the driver lacks a signature, you are warned, but permitted to install the driver. You can reconfigure this to block the installation of unsigned drivers. Incorrect Answers: You can still install the driver, but it does warn you. It is not a bug - it's supposed to do that. SIGVERIF scans critical system files to confirm their digital signature, but you cannot manually create a digital signature for drivers. Note: As long as the driver is 32-bit, you are in the clear. However, in Windows 64-bit editions, you are not allowed to install drivers that are not digitally signed.

Missy loves her old Windows games. When she upgrades her Windows system, the games run fine, but the output looks fuzzy since the programs are designed only to run in VGA mode. What can she do to make the games work properly in Windows? Reboot into Low Resolution Mode Reduce her screen resolution to 640 x480 Run compatibility mode for 640 x 480 resolution Reboot into Safe Mode

Correct Answer: By right-clicking on the game, selecting Properties, and then clicking on the Compatibility tab, Missy can change several settings including running in 640 x 480 mode. Incorrect Answers: All of these other options would probably work. However, two require reboots and one requires resetting the screen resolution. Using Compatibility Mode is faster and easier.

A user can edit the services that start-up in Windows by using what tool? Service Snap-in for MMC Add/Remove programs Add/Remove hardware Event Viewer

Correct Answer: By using the Microsoft Management Console's Service Snap-in, the user can edit startup services. Incorrect Answers: The other tools cannot control services.

Jodie suspects that her hard drive has bad sectors. Steve says she needs to run DEFRAG to fix the problem areas, but Maria disagrees. She tells Jodie to run CHKDSK. Who is correct? · Only Steve is correct. DEFRAG is the proper tool here. · Both Steve and Maria are correct. Either tool will fix the problem. · Only Maria is correct. CHKDSK is the proper tool here. · Neither Steve nor Maria is correct. Jodie should run FDISK.

Correct Answer: CHKDSK can repair lost clusters, cross-linked files, directory and file structures, FATs, and even volume labels. Incorrect Answers: DEFRAG will only defragment files. FDISK is a partitioning tool used in legacy operating systems.

The one thing that CHKDSK does NOT repair is _______________. directory structures cross-linked files bad clusters fragmented files

Correct Answer: CHKDSK does not repair fragmented files; that is the job of DEFRAG. Incorrect Answers: CHKDSK does fix the other issues.

Which of the following is a danger with discarded CRT monitors? Static Discharge Arsenic Vacuum Li-Ion

Correct Answer: CRTs are vacuum tubes that shatter violently when they implode. Incorrect Answers: Arsenic is a poison that is not present in CRTs. Li-Ion is a type of battery. Static Discharge is not a danger in a discarded CRT.

You are working the 8:00 AM shift at the help desk. An irate user who fails to identify himself calls in claiming that his workstation is malfunctioning and that you need to fix it NOW. What is the first action you should take? Scold him for his tone of voice and tell him to call back when he has calmed down. Tell the user you will send a technician over right away. Calmly ask him for his name and a more detailed explanation of the problem. Recognize the urgency of the situation and escalate the user's complaint to level 2 tech support.

Correct Answer: Calmly asking him for his name and a more detailed explanation of the problem is the first thing you should do when communicating with a user over the phone. Incorrect Answers: Never get angry at the user, scold him for his tone of voice, or tell him to call back when he has calmed down. You need to always remain calm and professional with users. You cannot send a technician over right away because you do not know the user's name or the scope of his problem. You cannot escalate the user's complaint to level 2 tech support without getting his name and a more detailed description of the problem.

Which of the following programs would be LEAST useful in removing malware? Chkdsk Anti-spyware Anti-virus Recovery Console

Correct Answer: Chkdsk cannot clear malware. Incorrect Answers: The other programs are capable of removing malware.

Which is the correct type of fire extinguisher for electrical fires? · Water-based fire extinguisher · Class B · Class C non-water based extinguisher · Class A

Correct Answer: Class C fire extinguishers are designed to put out live electrical fires using non-conducting foam or spray. Incorrect Answer: Class A fire extinguishers are for ordinary, free-burning combustibles, such as wood or paper. Class B fire extinguishers are for flammable liquids, such as gasoline, solvents, or paint. Class D fire extinguishers are for combustible metals such as titanium or magnesium.

Technician Jason tests several computers on the LAN for connectivity to a secure Web server (using port 443 and HTTPS). Five of the computers connected properly, but one received an invalid certificate error. What should Jason change on the non-connecting computer to fix the problem? UAC settings Logon times Date and time Boot sequence

Correct Answer: Computers can get out of sync with an Internet server running Network Time Protocol (NTP) and thus have incorrect date and time. This could cause an invalid certificate error. Incorrect Answers: Changing the boot sequence won't have any effect on certificates. Changing logon times won't have any effect on certificates. Changing UAC settings won't have any effect on certificates.

Which type of conditions promote ESD? · Cool, moist air · Cool, dry air · Warm, moist air · Warm, dry air

Correct Answer: Cool, dry air promotes the best chances of ESD.Think of the potential of static cling in the winter. Incorrect Answers: Warm, moist air would reduce the chance of ESD. The other answers are incorrect, as well.

Which application reorganizes files on a disk in order to optimize hard disk drive performance? · CHKDSK · DEFRAG · OPTIMIZE · FDISK

Correct Answer: DEFRAG reorders the files on the hard drive to position the file fragments closer to each other, and then it updates the FAT. Incorrect Answers: CHKDSK scans the disk for errors. OPTIMIZE is not real. FDISK is an old partitioning tool used back in the DOS and Win9x days. Are you as sad as I am that it's still being covered on the A+ test?

What tool can you use in the Recovery Console to partition a hard drive? FDISK DISKPART Disk Management PARTITION

Correct Answer: DISKPART is the Recovery Console tool that enables you to partition a hard drive. Incorrect Answers: Disk Management is the graphical partitioning program in Windows. It does not work in the Recovery Console. FDISK was the tool used for partitioning drives in DOS and Windows 9x. PARTITION is not a valid tool.

A technician contacts the network administrator to request a list of all static IP addresses in the building. Which of the following server roles would the technician MOST likely review to find that information? Proxy server DHCP server DNS server File server

Correct Answer: DNS server (Domain Name System) is a computer hardware or software server on a network that responds to queries about its domain directory. In essence, it is a phone book to translate the IP addresses to the device. Incorrect Answers: DHCP servers use a protocol to assign an IP address to a workstation. File servers are used as the primary location for shared disk access of data. Proxy servers are designed to act as an intermediary between users and a server. A proxy server can hide the IP address of the user from the outside server.

Ursula needs to configure a Cisco router using the USB serial port adapter on her Windows laptop. The router documentation says the COM port needs to be set to 9600 bits/sec, 8 data bits, no parity, one stop bit. Where does she go to make these settings for the serial port? CMOS Device Manager Sound Control Panel applet Phone and Modem Control Panel applet

Correct Answer: Device Manager. Go to the Ports setting and locate your serial port. Select Properties. Incorrect Answers: Your CMOS will have settings to enable/disable the serial port as well as settings to set I/O addresses and IRQs, but there will not be settings for the COM port. The Sound Control Panel applet controls sound inputs and outputs, not COM ports. The Phone and Modem Control Panel applet sets up your telephony rules and tests your modems but does not deal with serial ports.

A user starts yelling at you over the phone. You should: Hang up on their rude behavior. Scold the user. Yell back—he/she with the loudest voice wins. Don't take it personally.

Correct Answer: Do not take these things personally. Phone support personnel often have to deal with angry customers. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are bad ways to deal with the situation. Don't do any of them!

An incident response technician responds to a request for investigation about illegally obtained movies. The technician finds that a user has been violating company policy and illegally downloading movies. Which of the following would be the next BEST step for this technician to perform? Delete all unauthorized materials. Isolate the workstation in a limited access facility. Document the incident, purge all policy violating materials. Reprimand the user, and remove violating materials.

Correct Answer: Document the incident and purge all materials is correct. Once complete, the violating materials should be purged, so they cannot be used by any other person. Incorrect Answers: Isolate the workstation in a limited access facility is incorrect. The investigation does not require these measures. Deleting the materials is correct, but it is not the BEST answer available. Reprimand the user, and remove violating materials is incorrect. It is not the technician's responsibility to take disciplinary action on an employee.

Assuming a computer was confiscated for illegal material, what should the technician do LAST before transferring the computer to another department? Preserve data Report prohibited activity Identify prohibited activity on PC Document change of custody

Correct Answer: Documenting every person who has had possession of the computer is very important when dealing with confiscated PCs. Incorrect Answers: Unless you're with law enforcement, you don't need to be documenting the stuff on the PC. If the computer is being transferred, the prohibited activity has probably already been reported. Don't preserve illegal data! That's a good way to get in trouble yourself!

If an application does NOT appear on the Start menu, but you know that it is on the hard drive, how can you run the program? You cannot run an application that is not in the Start Menu. Go to Start/Run and type COMMAND. From the command prompt, change directories to the application's folder and press Enter. Open Windows Explorer, navigate to the application's folder and press the F1 key. Open Windows Explorer, navigate to the application's folder and double-click the program's executable file.

Correct Answer: Double-clicking an executable file causes that file to run. Incorrect Answers: F1 brings up the Help dialog. COMMAND starts the command prompt. You can run an application that is not in the Start Menu.

A contractor needs to destroy several drives containing confidential information so that they can never be used again. Which of the following destruction methods would best accomplish this task? Overwrite the hard drives Sanitize the hard drives Drill into the hard drives Format the hard drives

Correct Answer: Drilling into the hard drives will ensure that the hard drives will never be used again. Incorrect Answers: Overwriting, sanitizing, or formatting the drives will not render them unusable.

Tammy's computer is generating seemingly random Blue Screens of Death, making her suspect a bad device driver. What handy Windows tool can she run to check all her device drivers? Device Manager Driver Verifier Manager Debug Mode Sigverif

Correct Answer: Driver Verifier Manager enables you to test some or all device drivers at bootup and give a Blue Screen of Death with information about a bad driver if any are found. Incorrect Answers: Sigverif tests for unsigned drivers, but won't specifically test all drivers. Device Manager could help but won't specifically show a bad driver. Debug Mode is an Advanced Startup Option that logs device drivers as they load during the boot. If a bad driver caused a BSoD at every boot, this might be a good tool.

When booting to Windows, a user receives several messages referring to a .dll file that cannot be found. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the technician? Run defrag utility to correct any file damage. Research the file to identify the application which uses the .dll. Copy the .dll file from another PC. Run Windows Update utility to replace the DLL file.

Correct Answer: Dynamic-link library files allow applications to share code to perform functions. The files are often used by malware to alter your system and allow intruders to gain remote access to your system. Always verify the program for which a .dll file is used. Incorrect Answers: Do not copy a .dll file to your system until you know that it is not malware. The Windows Update will only provide an update to Windows components. It does not review all .dll files. Defrag is a hard drive utility process to reduce fragmentation.

Which of the following file systems enable you to encrypt an image, thus making it un-viewable by any account except your own? FAT OSR FAT32 EFS

Correct Answer: EFS or Encrypted File System enables you to encrypt an image. Incorrect Answers: FAT, FAT32, and OSR are older file systems that do not include this function.

A technician has just fixed a user's PC and successfully removed a virus and malware from the machine. Which of the following is the LAST thing the technician should do? Enable system restore and create restore point. Educate the user regarding safe Internet browsing. Update all anti-virus and malware. Setup a scheduled scan.

Correct Answer: Educate the user regarding safe internet browsing is correct. Incorrect Answers: Update all anti-virus and malware is incorrect. It is a good step, but we need the LAST thing to complete. Setup a scheduled scan is incorrect. It is a good step, but we need the LAST thing to complete. Enable system restore and create restore point is incorrect. It is a good step, but we need the LAST thing to complete.

Which of the following file systems enable you to encrypt an image, thus making it un-viewable by any account except your own? FAT EFS OSR FAT32

Correct Answer: Encrypted File System (EFS) enables you to encrypt an image. Incorrect Answers: FAT, FAT32, and OSR are older file systems that do not include this function.

A large corporation that has more than 250 users is interested in updating their office software. Which of the following is the BEST license type to comply with the end-user licensing agreement (EULA) terms? Personal license Open source license Enterprise license Single Seat license

Correct Answer: Enterprise licensing typically allows unlimited use of a program in an organization. It also can make installation on a large number of systems easier for network administration. Incorrect Answers: Personal licenses are designed for an individual. Some allow for two installations but are not designed for a corporate environment. Single-seat licenses are registered and installed on one computer. Open-source licenses allow for software to be freely used modified and shared.

You are on a service call. The customer tells you that he keeps finding new folders with names like "music" and "games" that he did not place there. After talking to the other employees to verify they did not place those files, you see they have an unencrypted wireless network. Which of the following actions is the LEAST NECESSARY response? Change all usernames and passwords. Update the NTFS permissions on the system to prevent users from accessing any folder other than necessary ones. Configure the wireless network for security. Use only wired networking.

Correct Answer: Even though the wireless network is surely the route used, there's no reason to only use wired networks when proper security is all that is needed. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are reasonable responses to securing the system. However, the question asks for the LEAST NECESSARY.

Iago's boss gets a "good deal" on a monitor-cleaning solution and has bought four 20-gallon bags of the stuff. He reads the ingredients, and it contains "Water - 80%, Dipropylene Glycol Methyl Ether - 20%. " He needs to put it in small jars but is not sure if he'll need gloves or not. What should he do? Ask his boss. Call the manufacturer. Find an online MSDS for Dipropylene Glycol Methyl Ether. Call your local poison control center.

Correct Answer: Get an online MSDS. Incorrect Answers: Your boss probably doesn't even know. Chances are you won't be able to contact the manufacturer. Even if you can, a long-distance call to China might be a more expensive option than simply buying a new cleaning solution. The local poison control center is not the place to call in this situation.

When dealing with a difficult customer, which of the following is the BEST way to handle the situation? Do not argue with the customer and/or be defensive. Sympathize with the customer about the issue. Use technical terms to assure customer confidence. Tell the customer you will have a supervisor contact them.

Correct Answer: Good technicians must appreciate the customer's feelings. Nothing upsets people more than a broken computer. So if you are helping someone, they are likely already frustrated. Never speak rudely to a customer, and be sure to maintain a positive attitude. Incorrect Answers: Technical terms may frustrate the customer further, as they may not understand the terms. If a customer is not being abusive, try to help them solve the problem. Once solved, they will likely be much less difficult. Maintain professionalism at all times. The quicker the issue is solved, the happier the customer will be.

Even after his impassioned secure password meeting, Paul is frustrated by the overly simplistic passwords his users use to login into Windows. What can Paul do to make sure his users create truly random, challenging passwords? Make users change passwords every 30 days Show users how to combine a pet's name with his or her name Have users use a password generator program to make their passwords Have users make a password of at least 15 characters in length

Correct Answer: Have users use a password generator program to make their passwords. Password generators make truly random passwords. Incorrect Answers: Longer passwords are better, but longer does not mean more random. Users will invariably use variations of a single password when compelled to change their passwords. Showing users how to combine their pet's name with his or her name is exactly what Paul is trying to avoid!

No matter what a technician is doing on a local system, if he sees the error "Access is Denied," what is the first issue he should consider? He needs to be a Power User. He hasn't logged in with his correct password. He lacks the necessary permissions. His account isn't listed on the Local Security Policy.

Correct Answer: He lacks the necessary permissions. This is a generalized question, so think broadly here. In general, "Access is Denied" means the user lacks the necessary permission to do whatever he is attempting to do. This could be accessing a folder, installing an application, or clearing a print queue (for a few quick examples). Incorrect Answers: All accounts are "listed" on the Local Security Policy. Listed is a meaningless term. If this question said, "He isn't allowed to do that action per the Local Security Policy," then this answer might have some weight, but as it stands, it's incorrect Power Users do have some permissions regular users don't have, but it doesn't cover enough. If this answer said, "He needs to be a local administrator," then it might be correct. No one can even log onto a computer without using the correct password. This is a totally silly answer.

Jim sees a Windows error saying the "error log is full." Where can he go to fix this? Event Viewer Registry Editor Users Accounts Local Security Policy

Correct Answer: Jim can use the Event viewer to delete error log files when they become full - or to have the files delete themselves when they reach a certain size. Incorrect Answers: The other options do not deal with error logs. The Registry Editor edits the registry, User Accounts configures user accounts, and Local Security Policy configures local security policies.

John can ping any other computer on his LAN by IP address or name. He can also ping hosts outside his network by IP address or Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). However, when he opens his Web browser, he's unable to access any Web sites. Which of the following problems is the MOST likely cause? Below is his current IPCONFiG. C:\>ipconfig Windows IP Configuration Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : total.local IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.4.76 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.4.1 His router is blocking outgoing port 443. His proxy server settings are wrong. His DNS server is down. His DHCP server is down.

Correct Answer: His proxy server settings are wrong. He likely needs to configure the web browser. However, this answer is the best answer by eliminating the other three answers. Incorrect Answers: His DNS server is down. No way, as he's pinging by FQDN. His DHCP server is down. Doubtful, as he's getting a non-APIPA address in IPCONFIG. We would expect to see a 169.254.X.Y if the DHCP server was down. His router is blocking outgoing port 443, which would prevent his web browser from accessing Secure HTTP sites (HTTPS), but it wouldn't stop him from accessing port 80 (HTTP) sites.

What is the shortcut for viewing the properties/attributes of a file or folder in Windows? Hold down the TAB key and double-click on a file or folder. Hold down the ALT key and double-click on a file or folder. Hold down the CTRL key and double-click on a file or folder. Hold down the SHIFT key and double-click on a file or folder.

Correct Answer: Holding down the ALT key and double-clicking a folder shows the properties of the file or folder. You can also right-click and select Properties. Incorrect Answers: The other choices are do not show file properties or attributes

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Is this correct? How may I help you? What's your employee ID? What symptoms appeared, and when?

Correct Answer: How may I help you? This is a VERY open-ended question. Open-ended questions are not looking for a particular response and solicit a broad answer. Closed-ended questions look for a specific response. Incorrect Answers: What symptoms appeared, and when? This question is closed-ended as it is looking for specific symptoms. What's your employee ID? The only real answer is either the employee ID or "I don't know." Very specific, and therefore closed-ended. Is this correct? Yes/No questions are always close-ended.

A user reports problems browsing the internet and that their browser has a person with a headset that keeps asking them to "click here for help." When the user has clicked on the icon to try to resolve the issue, the browser is redirected to a website to purchase software. Which of the following should be performed FIRST to resolve the issue? Identify the malware on the system. Create a Restore Point. Patch all security updates for operating system. Train the user of malicious software.

Correct Answer: Identify the malware on your system. In troubleshooting, always identify your problem first. You cannot solve a problem if you do not know the problem. Incorrect Answers: Creating a restore point will not help once your system has a problem. Remember, this is what should happen first. Patching all security updates is also good, but you must do this before the problem. Remember, this is what should happen first. Train the user of malicious software is not the first step. It is the last step.

Under what Control Panel applet is Computer Management located? Control Center Security Center Administrative Tools System

Correct Answer: If you need to access Computer Management via the Control Panel, you must first open the Administrative Tools. Incorrect Answers: You cannot access Computer Management via any of the other Control Panel applets listed.

A user is experiencing slow performance with her computer. A technician suspects the computer has a virus and runs anti-virus software. A virus is found and removed, but the performance issue is not resolved. Which of the following should the technician perform next? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem Implement preventative measures Document findings, actions, and outcomes Re-establish a new theory or escalate

Correct Answer: If your previous theory proves incorrect, it's time to either come up with a new theory or escalate the problem to someone else who can help. Incorrect Answers: None of the other options are appropriate steps to take when your theory is proved incorrect.

John is bringing some laptops to a school for a job fair. Guards are present to prevent physical theft, and he will keep the machines turned off when he's not around. Which of the following would best help him keep the students from using the machines? BIOS User password Biometric Retinal Scanner Windows Administrator password BIOS Supervisor password

Correct Answer: Implementing a BIOS User Password is the only realistic answer here. Incorrect Answers: The BIOS Supervisor password only stops access to the CMOS setup utility. The Windows Administrator password would only prevent access to the administrator account and administrator-only utilities and functions in Windows. A biometric retinal scanner is not a bad idea, but not very practical, either.

How do you update a sound card driver in Windows 10? · In Computer Management, select Device Manager, right-click the sound device and select Properties, click the Driver tab, and click Update Driver. · In the Control Panel, select System, select Drivers, select Sound Devices, then click Update Driver. · Right-click My Computer and select Properties, select the Hardware tab, select Drivers, select Sound Devices, then click Update My Driver. · In the Control Panel, select Sound Devices, click the Drivers Tab, and then click Update.

Correct Answer: In Computer Management, select Device Manager, right-click the sound device and select Properties, click the Driver tab, and click Update Driver. Incorrect Answers: You cannot update a sound card driver from the Control Panel or the Hardware tab of My Computer Properties.

In Windows, where can you update a network card driver? · Task Manager · Performance Logs and Alerts · Device Manager · BOOTMGR

Correct Answer: In Windows, you can update drivers in Device Manager. Incorrect Answers: BOOTMGR is the file used to control the boot process in Windows 7. Performance Logs and Alerts is a snap-in for creating a written record of what happens on the system. Task Manager is for managing running applications and processes.

Jan says that when she walks away from her laptop for a long period of time, she has to reconnect to the wireless network when she gets back. Which of the following will most likely correct this issue? Replace the Wi-Fi card Adjust advanced power settings Disable screensaver Install a higher-capacity battery

Correct Answer: In the advanced power settings, there should be a section to modify the power saving mode of your wireless adapter. Jan is most likely set to a power-saving mode that causes her Wi-Fi card to go to sleep after a set period. Having this feature enabled will force her to reconnect every time she comes back to use her computer. Incorrect Answers: Disabling her screensaver will keep the screen from being "saved." It doesn't affect the Wi-Fi adapter. There's nothing that says the Wi-Fi card could be failing. However, based on the information we are given about Jan's problem, we should most likely assume that it's a power management issue. Installing a higher-capacity battery will make the laptop heavier and last longer on a single charge, but it won't change how her Wi-Fi adapter is behaving.

Louis is using the Web interface to configure his SOHO home router/access point. At this exact moment, none of his computers are on the wireless network. He goes into a screen called "active clients" only to see that a computer he doesn't recognize is on his network. What should he do? Immediately call the police Reassess and add better security to his wireless network Shut down the router Install a Wireless Intrusion Detection System to track down this hacker

Correct Answer: In the vast majority of these cases, the person using your wireless connection doesn't even realize they are doing so. Louis needs to assess and apply better security. Incorrect Answers: Calling the police is a bit extreme. Shutting down the router would mean no one could use it. A Wireless Intrusion Detection System is impractical.

The power coming into a remote jobsite goes out for a few seconds three or four times a day. What should you install to work around this issue? · Multimeter · Surge suppressor · UPS · Generator

Correct Answer: In this case, a UPS can bridge the gaps when the power goes out for a few seconds. Incorrect Answers: A generator is overkill. A surge suppressor will not keep power flowing to the computer. A multimeter measures power - nothing more.

Lenny is pretty sure he accepted an invalid certificate, and now he wants to "unaccept it." Where does he go to do that? My Network Places Properties Internet Options in Internet Explorer Windows Security Center Windows Firewall

Correct Answer: Internet Options in Internet Explorer has several settings, including one to clear undesired SSL certificates. Incorrect Answers: The other choices do not control SSL certificates.

Lenny is pretty sure he accepted an invalid certificate, and now he wants to "unaccept it." Where does he go to do that? Windows Security Center My Network Places Properties Windows Firewall Internet Options in Internet Explorer

Correct Answer: Internet Options in Internet Explorer has several settings, including one to clear undesired SSL certificates. Incorrect Answers: The other choices do not control SSL certificates.

On Dana's third day on the job as a receptionist, a nice-looking guy approaches her and says, "Hi, I'm Jake, and this is my first day. Could I borrow your internal phone directory?" What should she do? · Loan him the internal directory. He's in the office, so he's probably fine. · Never give information to someone you don't already know. · Call the police. · Ask him to verify his employment in some fashion.

Correct Answer: Is he legit or not? A simple request for verification he works here is sufficient. Incorrect Answers: Calling the police would be a bit extreme. Just because he is in the office doesn't mean he works there. You should avoid giving sensitive information to people you don't know, but in this case, there is an easy way to verify his identity.

Your IT guy calls with some bad news: the company has been the victim of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack. What does he mean? Someone has stolen the server. Someone has stolen employee personal information. The company was denied a line of credit. Someone has attacked the company web site to bring it down.

Correct Answer: It looks like someone out there has something against your company and is looking to take it down. By issuing a DoS attack, the attacker will deny services from the targeted web server for all clients. Incorrect Answers: Stealing the server or employee information is just flat-out robbery. Being denied a line of credit sounds like a job for the business department, not the IT dept.

A customer reports that their wireless laptop cannot connect after removing it from its carrying case. The laptop boots and the user can log in. Which of the following should be checked first? Status in Device Manager Laptop battery levels External Wi-Fi switch Available hard drive space

Correct Answer: It's highly likely that the Wi-Fi switch got knocked into the wrong position during transport. Just flip the switch back into the correct position, and you're good to go! Incorrect Answers: There is a possibility the wireless card got disabled in Device Manager somehow. however, it's far more likely that the Wi-Fi switch got turned to the wrong position. Hard drive space doesn't affect wireless connectivity. A low battery would prevent the PC from turning on at all, not just from connecting to a wireless network.

A user states that their old notebook loses connectivity to the Internet several times a day at work and at home. The issue started after the wireless card was replaced. Which of the following items is most likely causing the issue? · The drivers for the NIC need to be updated. · The wireless on/off switch is not in the on position. · The keyboard is faulty and turns the wireless NIC on and off. · The motherboard drivers are not current.

Correct Answer: It's possible that the drivers for the NIC aren't working properly, so updating them might help. Incorrect Answers: The motherboard drivers probably won't have any effect on Internet connectivity. If the wireless switch was set to off, then there wouldn't be any Internet connectivity at all. A faulty keyboard would most likely not cause this problem.

When working on a user's computer Jamie the tech notices, that the user has created several desktop shortcuts to inappropriate websites. What should Jamie do? · Report through proper channels · Preserve the data and device · Track the evidence · Document all changes to the computer

Correct Answer: Jamie should report the infraction to his supervisor, who will then ensure that the appropriate action is taken. Incorrect Answers: Unless the Web sites host illegal content, the user's computer couldn't be considered evidence. Jamie should be documenting changes while working on the computer, but that's not part of dealing with the shortcut issue. Jamie should preserve the data and device in any case, not specifically for this issue.

Kevin gets a call from a user who is trying to install a new piece of software. The user doesn't have administrative rights, so she's unable to install the software. What tool can Kevin use to install the software for the user without giving the user the local administrator password? · Remote Assistance · Computer Management · Regedit · Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: Kevin can use Remote Desktop to login to the computer with administrative rights and perform the install for the user. Incorrect Answers: Computer Management has nothing to help solve this issue. Regedit would not help, either. Remote Assistance, which is similar to Remote Desktop, would require an invitation by the user, which might not be possible. Remote Desktop requires no such invitation.

The moment the customer says he keeps getting the IP address 169.254.x.xx, Frieda knows how to fix the machine. But now the customer starts talking about the new server. What should she do? Hold up your hand and say "I got it." Just start working as they talk. Let the customer complete the description of the problem. Use body language to get them to stop talking.

Correct Answer: Let your customer fully complete the description of the problem and take notes. Incorrect Answers: All three answers are incorrect, as they do not maintain professionalism or proper communication. A tech must always actively listen to a customer regarding the issue, keep notes of the problem, and avoid interrupting a customer.

A technician has a computer locked in a cabinet in the office. The computer shares a printer and some files and, therefore, must remain on. Which of the following Control Panel options would be used to control the users that can shut the computer down? Local Security Policy Security Center System Power Options

Correct Answer: Local Security Policy enables you to control many aspects of local computer use, including who has shutdown privileges for the local PC. Incorrect Answers: Power Options is where you control things like putting the computer to sleep or turning off the screen. Security Center is a central location for viewing the status of your computer's firewall, anti-malware software, and Windows Update. The System applet enables you to view information about your system's OS and hardware, and also provides access to certain system tools.

A turnstile is an example of which of the following forms of physical security? Biometrics Cipher lock Key pad Mantrap

Correct Answer: Mantrap is correct. Mantrap, or sally port, use a mechanical device to stop access. Two sets of interlocking doors or turnstiles are the most common. Incorrect Answers: Biometrics uses a physical characteristic for identification. Keypads enable personnel to open physical security systems. But are not in and of themselves physical security. Cipher locks are a keypad physical security system that requires a code for entry.

Of the following, which is information you would NOT find on an MSDS? Local Poison Control Numbers Handling Antidotes Fire Fighting Measures

Correct Answer: Material Safety Data Sheets do not carry location-specific help information. Incorrect Answers: The other three things can be found on an MSDS.

A user wants to completely re-install Windows 7 on their laptop, but it did not come with any operating system discs. How can this be accomplished? System restore Recovery partition Secondary partition Primary partition

Correct Answer: Modern manufacturers usually do not include backup media for OEM systems, therefore recovery partition is correct. They utilize a hidden partition on the hard drive to create a recovery partition. Incorrect Answers: Primary partitions contain your file system. System restore will only restore your system back to a previously stored point, it will not re-install Windows. Secondary partition is a storage space that is defined on a hard drive that will hold its own logical drive name.

James reports that his workstation is very sluggish today. When Sylvia the tech explores the computer, she notices a ton of background programs running, many of which she doesn't recognize. James comments that one of the users of the computer added a program downloaded from the Internet recently. What's most likely the problem? The workstation has rootkit malware. The workstation has Trojan Horse malware. The workstation has keylogger malware. The workstation has ransomware malware.

Correct Answer: Most likely, the recently-downloaded program was a Trojan Horse that released malware some days later with a trigger. Incorrect Answers: Keylogger malware would show up immediately, although probably with little noticeable effects. Ransomware generally runs immediately, shutting down or encrypting systems, demanding money. Rootkit malware doesn't have much in the way of visible effects.

ames reports that his workstation is very sluggish today. When Sylvia the tech explores the computer, she notices a ton of background programs running, many of which she doesn't recognize. James comments that one of the users of the computer added a program downloaded from the Internet recently. What's most likely the problem? The workstation has ransomware malware. The workstation has rootkit malware. The workstation has Trojan Horse malware. The workstation has keylogger malware.

Correct Answer: Most likely, the recently-downloaded program was a Trojan Horse that released malware some days later with a trigger. Incorrect answer: Keylogger malware would show up immediately, although probably with little noticeable effects. Ransomware generally runs immediately, shutting down or encrypting systems, demanding money. Rootkit malware doesn't have much in the way of visible effects.

Little Johnny, a cute but chatty seven-year-old, is asking you 10,000 questions while you work on his father's PC. He's also sticking his fingers in the computer and tugging on your shirt. What should you do? Ask Johnny's parent or guardian to take the child away. Ask Johnny to stop. Read Johnny a book. Drag Johnny over to his father.

Correct Answer: Never deal with a minor directly - ask the parent to intervene. Incorrect Answers: Don't try to deal with kids yourself. If you do, you're just asking for trouble.

What do you use to clean the inside of the system unit? A rag soaked in water Compressed air Household vacuum 50/50 isopropyl alcohol/water spray

Correct Answer: Never use anything other than compressed air inside the system unit. Incorrect Answers: A rag soaked in water inside a system is just a terrible idea. Don't use an alcohol/water spray, either, or a household vacuum!

Do biometric security devices replace the need for passwords? Yes. Thumbprints are unique, so biometrics are foolproof. No. Thumbprints are not unique, so biometrics are not adequately secure. No. Because no device is foolproof, biometrics should be part of a security strategy that also includes passwords. Yes. The biometric device's primary purpose is convenience.

Correct Answer: No biometric device is foolproof, so most security situations that use biometrics still include passwords. Incorrect Answers: Thumbprints are unique, but you should still use a password in conjunction with biometric devices. Biometric devices are convenient, but that is not their primary purpose.

Mario sets up a kiosk at a convention. Here's the scenario. First, the kiosk needs to log in automatically whenever it's rebooted. Second, the computer can only run Microsoft Edge for Web browsing. Users cannot have access to any other application. What account type should Mario use? Guest Power User Administrator Remote Desktop User

Correct Answer: Of the choices, only the Guest account would enable Mario to lock the machine so securely. Incorrect Answers: The Administrator account has full control over the machine. Not a good choice for a kiosk! A Power User account has almost as much power as an Administrator. Mario would have trouble locking down the kiosk. A Remote Desktop User account would allow a user to sign in to the system from a different computer, not from the kiosk at the convention.

Which of the following can be used as a boot device? Tuner card USB drive HDMI FDISK

Correct Answer: Of these options, only a USB drive can hold data, making it the only possible boot device. Incorrect Answers: HDMI is an interface for high-definition audio/visual signals. A tuner card picks up television signals on a PC. FDISK is a command-line utility used to partition disks.

Most laptops show they are in hibernation mode by: A flashing NumLock or CapsLock LED. A flashing Power LED. A flashing Battery Power LED. A flashing Sleep LED.

Correct Answer: On the vast majority of laptops, a slowly flashing Power LED indicates the laptop is in Hibernation mode. Incorrect Answers: There are no common features on laptops called Sleep LEDs or Battery Power LEDs, although many smart batteries do have a button you can press to show the remaining power. While most laptops do have a NumLock or CapsLock LED, these are not used to show any power states.

Correct Answer: Open the registry | File | Export | pick location to save to. The Registry keeps track of important configuration information about Windows. Whenever the user edits the registry, they should make a back up first. Incorrect Answers: The other paths are incorrect.

Which of the following is most commonly a local security policy? · Soft Power · RAID · Use a password to log in · Password length

Correct Answer: Password length is a common local security policy. Incorrect Answers: Using a password to log in is controlled in Control Panel. RAID is a Disk Management issue. Soft Power is not a Windows issue at all.

As a member of the accounting group, John has Write permission to the Database folder; as a member of the technicians group, John has Read permission to the Database folder. What permission or permissions does John have to the Database folder? Read only Full Control Write only Read and Write

Correct Answer: Permissions are cumulative, so John has both the Read and Write permissions. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are not correct.

A user receives an email containing a co-worker's birth date and social security number. The email was not requested, and it had not been encrypted when sent. What policy does the information in the email violate? IRP EULA DRM PII

Correct Answer: Personally identifiable information, or PII, is correct. PII refers to any data that can lead back to a specific individual. Incorrect Answers: Digital rights management (DRM) refers to the technology used to restrict copyright or proprietary hardware. End-User License Agreement (EULA) is a contract between a user and a software publisher. The incident response plan (IRP) provides instructions that are followed when there is a potential data or security breach.

Which of the following commands would be best for testing if DNS is working on a system? Net www.barney.com Ping www.barney.com Icacls www.barney.com Netstat www.barney.com

Correct Answer: Ping www.barney.com. If you ping by DNS name, the ping will return the IP address, showing that DNS is working. This is true even if the ping fails to get a response from the remote system. Incorrect Answers: Net www.barney.com: While the NET command has many powerful features, typing NET (DNS name) will only result in an error. Netstat www.barney.com: Netstat shows all of the current connections and optionally open ports. However, typing NETSTAT (DNS name) will only result in an error. Icacls www.barney.com: The icacls command is used to view/change NTFS permissions from a command prompt. It has nothing to do with networking.

You drop a screw down into a PC's case and need to retrieve it. Which of the following tools would be the best to use in this situation? Plastic tweezers Needle-nosed pliers Magnetic screwdriver Fingers

Correct Answer: Plastic tweezers are best for reaching tiny things in your PC. Incorrect Answers: A magnetic screwdriver might affect the tiny components on the motherboard. Needle-nosed pliers might break something. Your fingers might be dirty or oily.

What does Windows 7 's User Account Control (UAC) do? Prevents programs from running with escalated privileges without your knowledge Prevents users from accidentally deleting critical files Prevents malware from attacking your critical files Prevents unauthorized user access of privileged data

Correct Answer: Prevents programs from running with escalated privileges without your knowledge by opening a dialog box warning you and asking for you to either allow or deny that program. Incorrect Answers: UAC does not prevent users from deleting files or accessing "privileged data"—that's the job of NTFS permissions. UAC also does not prevent malware attacks directly, although in most cases UAC prevents malware from running at a privileged level, assuming you have malware that tries to do this—few do.

A technician has just installed a new SOHO router for several users to share an Internet connection. He received a call that, when one user streams media, the remaining user's browsing speed slows. What can the technician adjust, so the experience is universal for all users? QoS DSL VNC WAN

Correct Answer: QoS is the Quality of Service tool that allows your router to share the bandwidth among users. Incorrect Answers: A digital subscriber line (DSL) is a type of internet connection. Virtual network computing (VNC) is a graphical desktop sharing system. Wide area network (WAN) is a computer network that covers a large geographical area.

A user reports that icons appeared on the desktop after visiting a website. The technician reviews the system and identifies that the system has malware. Which of the following procedures would be performed NEXT? · Quarantine infected system · Educate the user on using the internet safely. · Disable System Restore · Report the issue to the information security officer. · Scan the system for malware, and verify security updates are current.

Correct Answer: Quarantine the system. Malware is easily propagated over a network. Incorrect Answers: Scanning the system and updating the security is a good step, but you need to quarantine first. Reporting issues are also key but again quarantine first. Disable System Restore is good to do before running your virus scan, but again the order is key. Educating the user is one of the last things you do. Focus on the proper order.

Which of the following would be a digital security prevention method? · Load balancer · Mantrap · Biometrics · ID badge · RFID badge

Correct Answer: RFID badges or tags carry an HF or UHF frequency and are widely used for identification. The tag can be tracked by RFID readers. Incorrect Answers: Mantrap is a device to catch people or control access. An ID badge uses physical characteristics to control access. Biometrics refers to using human characteristics to confirm identity and access. A load balancer is a device that helps distribute network traffic.

Several users call the Help Desk on Wednesday morning complaining about a blank screen on their Windows 7 computers. Rebooting doesn't do anything except displaying the same blank screen. Microsoft pushed a patch out the night before. What should the technician do with these machines as a first option as he visits each workstation? Reboot into the safe mode and roll back the updates. Configure boot options in the BIOS. Repair the Windows Registry. Disable Windows services and applications.

Correct Answer: Reboot into the safe mode and roll back the updates. Although very rare, a patch from Microsoft can break things. This was more common on versions previous to Windows 10 because Microsoft had less control over software and hardware on individual machines. Incorrect Answers: Configure boot options in the BIOS. It would be unusual for a Windows patch to change the boot order. Disable Windows services and applications. This might be a subsequent step, but not the first one to take. Repair the Windows Registry. Only do this as a last resort.

When replacing a power supply, what should you do first? Remove watch and all jewelry Review local regulations for disposal procedures Read MSDS documentation Check for environmental concerns

Correct Answer: Remove all metal from your person when working with electricity. This means jewelry and watches should be set aside until the job is done. Incorrect Answers: Environmental concerns are good to know about, but they're secondary to personal safety. You'll want to check into disposal procedures when the new power supply is installed and working, but that's not your first order of business. The MSDS will tell you lots about safety procedures, but removing your watch and jewelry is just common sense.

After installing an update on her MacBook, a user contacts the technician to complain that the WiFi is not working. The WiFi icon displays that it has connectivity, but the user is unable to browse. Which of the following could be the issue? Uninstall the upgrade. PRAM needs to be reset The user's iCloud account is compromised. Reboot your router.

Correct Answer: Reset the Parameter RAM. PRAM memory can occasionally be the cause of various technical issues, so if you have WiFi difficulty, try to reset it. Incorrect Answers: A compromise in a user's iCloud account will not affect the WiFi connection. Rebooting the router will not assist, as the WiFi icon is showing connectivity. Uninstalling the upgrade will not likely solve the issue. Updates often are security-based, and would not affect the WiFi.

A home user calls into the Help Desk. Her Windows 10 computer worked fine last night. This morning, however, none of the devices plugged into the computer work: no mouse, keyboard, or even printer. She rebooted twice and got the same error. What should fix this problem? Disable the Windows Update service. Restore hidden updates. Check for updates. Roll back updates.

Correct Answer: Rollback updates. It's rare but has happened in the past that a Windows Update breaks things, such as access to peripherals. Incorrect Answers: Check for updates. Hard to accomplish this with no mouse or keyboard. Disable the Windows Update service. This will probably be the next option after rolling back the latest patch. (Turn it back on after Microsoft releases another patch.) Restore hidden updates. Microsoft has hidden updates and update options, so this could be a correct answer. However, it's not very likely in this scenario.

Which of the following types of hardware is least likely to be used as a security device? · SD flash card · Key fob · Biometric thumbprint reader · Smart card

Correct Answer: SD flash RAM is not a common type of device used for security. Incorrect Answers: Key fobs, biometric thumbprint readers, and smart cards are all used as security devices.

Highland Network Management Services has been hired to handle the Bayland Widget switches and routers. The only problem is that Highland is across town from the Bayland network devices. Which tool should Highland use to connect securely to the Bayland devices to manage them properly? RDP Telnet SSH VNC

Correct Answer: SSH, or Secure Shell, enables secure access to remote devices, such as switches and routers. Incorrect Answers: The Remote Desktop Protocol, RDP, is used to control Microsoft Windows-based computers remotely. Telnet passes login information in cleartext, so it is not inherently secure. Virtual Network Computing, VNC, is used to control a remote desktop client.

How do you run a command in Windows with administrative privileges? Right-click a command-prompt shortcut and then select Run as PowerUser. When prompted, enter a valid root or supervisor password. Right-click a command-prompt shortcut and then select Run as administrator. Enter an elevated username and password at the command prompt.

Correct Answer: Selecting Run as administrator, with the proper user permissions, will grant administrative rights in a program in Windows. Incorrect Answers: Enter an elevated username and password at the command prompt: You can try this, but since it won't ask you for either, it won't work. Right-click a command-prompt shortcut and then select Run as PowerUser: There is no Run as PowerUser option. When prompted, enter a valid root or supervisor password: You won't be prompted, so this doesn't work.

Which of the following services allows you to perform a backup while a system is running? Shadow copy Xcopy Robocopy Copy

Correct Answer: Shadow copy will allow a file to be copied if it is currently in use. Incorrect Answers: Robocopy replaced Xcopy as a robust copy utility that copies more than just files but will not copy files in use. The copy command copies files from one directory to another, and will not copy files in use. Xcopy is a command that not only copies files but allows for copying of multiple files and directories, however it does not support a copy of a file in use.

What command is used to type or paste recovery commands directly into a Linux box? Command/cmd Backup/time machine Shell/terminal Restore/snapshot

Correct Answer: Shell is the Linux program that processes commands and returns the output. Terminal is a wrapper program that will run a shell. Either of these will allow you to use commands in the Linux box. Incorrect Answers: Backup/time machine are utilities that allow you to restore your hard drive. Command/cmd are command-line tools that open a DOS window. Restore/snapshot are tools designed to revert files to a previous version.

Erin, the tech has noticed a lot of company internal passwords getting misused in some fashion. She suspects someone inside the company is stealing passwords. What technique could be used to accomplish this action? Tailgating Shoulder surfing Man-in-the-middle Phishing

Correct Answer: Shoulder surfing involves someone with physical access surreptitiously gaining information. That's an insider stealing passwords. Incorrect Answers: All three other answers involve someone from the outside seeking to gain electronic or physical access to the inside.

Ken's company requires all users to change their password every month. A user shows Ken a trick the uses to help him remember this month's password. He uses the password "friendly" and then adds the third letter of the month to the end of the password. For example, in March, his password is "friendlyr." What should Ken remark about this user's idea? Inform his supervisor. Tell him to try to add at least one more extra number or letter that changes every month. Tell him he must use a completely random password every month and just memorize it. Praise him for his clever idea.

Correct Answer: Simply changing one letter is not enough. Incorrect Answers: His idea is not clever enough. Using a completely random password every month is a good idea, but it doesn't respond to the user's idea. Informing the supervisor is not necessary.

A customer reports that after a technician cleaned up a rogue anti-virus program, the customer cannot browse the web. Which of the following should the technician check to resolve the situation? Firewall settings Proxy settings User privileges Browsing history

Correct Answer: Some viruses change a computer's proxy settings to use a proxy server controlled by the virus's creator. Incorrect Answers: A computer's browsing history won't have any effect on the ability to browse the web. It's unlikely that a virus would change a computer's firewall settings to be more restrictive. If anything, you would expect a virus to turn off the firewall. Changed user privileges wouldn't prevent web browsing.

Which of the following power management modes takes more power but enables the PC to return to normal operation faster? Shutdown Coma Standby Hibernate

Correct Answer: Standby. The major difference between standby and hibernate is that in standby mode, the data is not copied to the hard drive. Standby requires more power, but the system returns to normal mode more quickly. Incorrect Answers: Hibernate takes less power, but is slower to return to normal operation. Shutdown means to turn off the computer. Coma is not a power management mode.

Which of the following can enable a technician to remove a virus that prevents users from updating their anti-virus software? MSCONFIG Regedit Safe Mode Recovery Console

Correct Answer: Starting the computer in Safe Mode may enable you to update your anti-virus software since the virus's background process won't be running. Incorrect Answers: The Recovery Console is a troubleshooting tool for fixing Windows installs that are having boot problems or other serious issues. Regedit is the tool for editing the Windows Registry. MSCONFIG is the tool used to control what programs and services startup with Windows. You might be able to use MSCONFIG to help with this problem, but it's far easier to simply use Safe Mode.

Rick unpacks and sets up a new Windows 7 64-bit PC he bought from the store. The PC runs great, but it takes a long time to boot up. What can he do to speed up the boot process? Run CHKDSK on the hard drive. Stop some of the autostarting programs from loading. Defragment the hard drive. Update the antivirus signature files.

Correct Answer: Stopping autostarting programs from loading is the best option here. Most store-bought, preconfigured PCs come with many unnecessary programs. Rick should type MSCONFIG at the Start menu to run the System Configuration utility and stop them from autostarting. Incorrect Answers: Updating the antivirus signature is most definitely a good thing to do, but probably wouldn't have much effect on startup speed. Because the system is new, it's very unlikely that the hard drive is fragmented. A damaged or failing drive would cause all sorts of problems, not just startup slowness, so CHKDSK or Error Checking probably wouldn't' be the right tool here.

You are about to install a microATX motherboard in an ATX computer case. What should you do, FIRST? Remove the power supply unit Put on your anti-static wrist strap You cannot install a microATX motherboard into an ATX case Remove the processor

Correct Answer: The FIRST thing you should do when installing or replacing any hardware component is to put on your anti-static wrist strap. Incorrect Answers: Removing the CPU is a great idea—I would probably do that after I put on the wrist strap, though. Removing the PSU is also a great idea, but I would still do that after the strap. You can put a microATX motherboard into an ATX case without any issues at all. Just move your brass stand-outs into the correct positions.

Rick unpacks and sets up a new Windows 7 64-bit PC he bought from the store. The PC runs great, but it takes a long time to boot up. What can he do to speed up the boot process? Run CHKDSK. Defragment the hard drive. Stop some of the autostarting programs from loading. Update the antivirus signature files.

What does the System Information utility do? · Enables you to schedule hard drive defragmentation, CHKDSK scans, and other computer tasks · Enables you to select which programs and services start when Windows boots up · Enables you to perform automatic custom backups of your files and settings · Provides you with a report about the hardware resources, components, and software environment in your computer

Correct Answer: System Information provides you with a report about the hardware resources, components, and software environment in your computer. Incorrect Answers: MSCONFIG enables you to select which programs start when Windows boots up. Task Scheduler enables you to schedule various tasks. Windows Backup enables you to perform automatic backups.

A client has a computer that is infected with several viruses and spyware. Which of the following should the technician perform first before spyware removal? Disable network cards Run Windows Update Disable System Restore Run the CHKDSK /R command

Correct Answer: System Restore points can become infected by certain malware, so it's always a good idea to disable System Restore on an infected machine. Incorrect Answers: Updates to Windows frequently fix security holes, but they don't remove existing malware. The CHKDSK /R command will scan and repair your file system, but won't help with viruses. If you disable your network cards, your anti-malware tools won't be able to download new malware definitions.

Tammy can successfully run the command PING 192.168.4.1 on her system. If Tammy types PING -t 192.168.4.1 on her system, how will the "-t" switch change the results of the PING command? The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping 4 times. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping showing time-to-live values. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping 10 times. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping continuously.

Correct Answer: The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping continuously. Incorrect Answers: The PING -n <number of times> switch tells the ping command to ping a certain number of times. Time-to-live is a value that is reduced by 1 for every router hop. PING -I <TTL> display this information. PING already pings 4 times; you don't need a switch for that.

ammy can successfully run the command PING 192.168.4.1 on her system. If Tammy types PING -t 192.168.4.1 on her system, how will the "-t" switch change the results of the PING command? The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping showing time-to-live values. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping ten times. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping continuously. The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping four times.

Correct Answer: The "-t" switch tells the PING command to ping continuously. Incorrect Answers: The PING -n <number of times> switch tells the ping command to ping a certain number of times. Time-to-live is a value that is reduced by one for every router hop. PING -I <TTL> display this information. PING already pings four times; you don't need a switch for that.

Which of the following programs enables you to edit NTFS permissions from a command line? · NTFS · CHMOD · CACLS · ROOT

Correct Answer: The CACLS command enables you to edit NTFS permissions from the command line. Incorrect Answers: CHMOD is the UNIX/Linux command for changing permissions. NTFS and ROOT are not valid command line commands.

A technician is working on a workstation that is receiving read/write failures when trying to access a particular file. Which of the following commands should the technician use to resolve this issue? DISKPART FDISK FORMAT CHKDSK

Correct Answer: The CHKDSK command scans a hard drive for errors and repairs them as needed. Incorrect Answers: DISKPART enables you to partition a drive from the command line. FORMAT erases all the data on a drive and sets up a new file format on it. FDISK is an older partitioning tool that was replaced by DISKPART.

Which of the following should be regularly scheduled to fix hard drive errors? Defragmentation Anti-virus scan System Restore CHKDSK

Correct Answer: The CHKDSK utility scans a hard drive for errors and repairs any that it finds. Incorrect Answers: Defragmentation fixes what's called "file fragmentation," where individual files are stored in many different places on a drive. System Restore is used to take an OS back to a previously-set snapshot in case of OS errors. An anti-virus scan simply scans for and removes viruses. It doesn't fix hard drive errors.

What contains utilities to safely and easily modify the configuration of just about every setting in Windows? · Control Panel · SYSEDIT.EXE · Registry Editor · SCANDISK.EXE

Correct Answer: The Control Panel gives you access to almost everything necessary to configure the system. Incorrect Answers: The Registry Editor lets you modify the configuration of many settings, but not very safely or easily. SCANDISK.EXE checks for errors on your hard drive. SYSEDIT.EXE is for editing WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, CONFIG.SYS, and AUTOEXEC.BAT in older versions of Windows.

If you are diagnosing a recurring failure with an application, what tool can you use to view information about the application errors? Microsoft Management Console (MMC) System Information Performance Console Event Viewer

Correct Answer: The Event Viewer provides information about application errors as well as information about system and security issues. Incorrect Answers: The Event Viewer can be a part of the MMC, but the information is found in the Event Viewer, not the MMC. The Performance Console and the System Information tool provide information about the system, not applications.

The act of using the Internet via e-mail and fake web pages to pose as someone else to get usernames and passwords is called: Spamming Phishing Spoofing DoS

Correct Answer: The correct term is Phishing. Incorrect Answers: Spamming is sending unwanted e-mails. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are made against web pages, not users. Spoofing is for e-mail only.

Jan, a customer, states that another technician just removed malware from her computer, and now she is not able to connect to Web sites such as Windows Update, but she can connect to others. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? NIC driver is corrupt The Web browser's cache is full The HOSTS file has been tampered with Not all the malware has been eliminated

Correct Answer: The HOSTS file is a file on your computer that resolves DNS names to IP addresses, so it looks like the malware finished its job. It was DNS before there was DNS! This particular malware must have tampered with Jan's HOSTS file, disabling her computer from accessing certain Web sites like Windows Update. It would be wise to find the HOSTS file on her computer and find out if any other Web sites have been affected by this hack. Incorrect Answers: While the NIC driver COULD become corrupt from malware, the fact that she can connect to other Web sites suggests that isn't the case. If the Web browser's cache was full, then she would be out of hard drive space. She would be having a different conversation with you at that point. While there is a definite chance that malware might still be residing on the computer, it looks like another technician successfully removed all of it. We are just dealing with the after-effects of this malware. I would run another scan on the computer after I've made sure the HOSTS file was OK just to be safe!

A user has too many applications starting when they log into Windows. From the command line, which of the following tools is the fastest option to prevent these applications from running on startup? MSCONFIG SERVICES.MSC REGEDIT MSINFO32

Correct Answer: The MSCONFIG tool enables you to select which programs start up with Windows. Incorrect Answers: SERVICES.MSC enables you to start and stop various Windows services. REGEDIT enables you to edit the Windows Registry. MSINFO32 enables you to view information about your system.

A technician wants to configure the computer to send an alert when the CPU usage is above 95% for an arbitrary length of time. Which utility should be used? · Task Manager · TLIST · Performance Monitor · REGSRV32

Correct Answer: The Performance Monitor's role on your computer is to monitor and log the system performance. You can even configure it to send alerts when an object being monitoring exceeds a given threshold. Incorrect Answers: Task Manager is great for checking out what exactly is making the computer use over 95% CPU usage in a given moment. But it's only good for that moment. It doesn't have any reporting or logging features. REGSRV32 is used to register DLL files with your system. TLIST is an outdated, Windows XP command-line tool that was used to view the list of running processes. (TLIST was replaced by TASKLIST Windows 7).

Which of the following commands may be used on a computer, running Windows 7, to stop a single process from the command line? · ERASE · SHUTDOWN · TASKKILL · DEL

Correct Answer: The TASKKILL command does exactly what it says: it kills a task. Incorrect Answers: ERASE is a command used back in MS-DOS to delete files. SHUTDOWN also does exactly what it says: it shuts down the computer. DEL is used to delete files.

A technician receives an error every time a workstation boots up. The technician needs to find out what process is responsible for the error. Which of the following utilities would be used first? System Control Panel Task Manager MSCONFIG Event Viewer

Correct Answer: The Windows Event Viewer provides a method for browsing Windows event logs. It keeps track of everything that happens on a system. Incorrect Answers: The Control Panel is a collection of tools to configure many various parts of the Windows operating system. The Task Manager enables you to control the processes and services running in the background. MSCONFIG enables you to select which processes and services start with Windows.

Which of the following should a technician do last after cleaning up a virus infection? Enable system restore and create restore point Update anti-virus software Schedule scans and updates Educate the end user

Correct Answer: The best way to make sure that a virus infection doesn't recur is to educate the user about safe browsing practices and the use of anti-malware software. Incorrect Answers: Creating a restore point could result in an infected restore point. Doing this won't help anything. You should update the anti-virus program and schedule scans before trying to clean the infection.

The part of your hard drive that contains the MBR is called the: Logical drive Boot sector Primary partition Extended partition

Correct Answer: The boot sector is the location on your drive that holds the partition table and your boot sector. Incorrect Answers: Residing in the partition table on the boot sector is all the information regarding your partitions, including where your primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives begin and end.

What protocol should you follow when handling evidence in a criminal investigation? Change control management Chain of custody MSDS documents Channel escalation

Correct Answer: The chain of custody is a record of everyone who has had possession of a piece of evidence. Incorrect Answers: Change control management is a way of ensuring that changes are made to a product or system in a controlled manner. Channel escalation is a made-up term. MSDS documents cover all the relevant safety details about a product.

Which command prompt command will enable you to see all the files in the C:\FRED folder with the extension EXE? · DIR C:\FRED\*.EXE · DIR C:\FRED\?.EXE · DIR *.EXE C:\FRED · DIR FRED *.EXE

Correct Answer: The command DIR C:\FRED\*.EXE is the only command prompt command that will list only the files in the C:\FRED folder with the extension EXE. Incorrect Answers: The other commands are incorrect.

A nework administrator needs to set some immediate policies on several systems. Upon completion of an update from the command line of the first system, what is the next step that should be completed before moving to a new system? (Select TWO). Minimize the CMD box to the taskbar Click the "x" in the top right of the CMD window Type EXIT at the command prompt and press Enter Select Switch User on the PC View the CMD process in Task Manager

Correct Answer: The command-line prompt should be closed, not minimized, upon completion of the update command. Incorrect Answers: CMD will only open a DOS window. It does not set policy. Minimizing the CMD box does not complete the task and leave the program open. Switching the user does not close the CMD box and complete the task.

Sam installs a brand-new second hard drive into his Windows system. The drive shows up in CMOS, but when he boots into Windows, he can't see the drive in Computer. What's wrong? The drive isn't mounted. The drive is fragmented. The drive isn't partitioned. The drive isn't dynamic.

Correct Answer: The drive isn't partitioned. Computer only shows partitions. Incorrect Answers: Drives aren't mounted, only partitions can be mounted. This brand-new drive does not have any partitions. Whether a drive is basic or dynamic does not affect whether it shows up in Computer or not. A fragmented drive will still show up in Computer just fine.

What's the first thing you should do when your computer gets a Blue Screen of Death? Go into Safe Mode Reboot Write down the error Go to Recovery Console

Correct Answer: The first step in troubleshooting a Blue Screen of (technically known as a Windows Stop error) is to write down the entire error. Incorrect Answer: Once you've written down the entire error, then go through these other options as needed.

John worked on his PowerPoint presentation yesterday, but today the program won't run. What Windows tool or option should he try to get PowerPoint working again? Safe mode Last Known Good Configuration Safe mode with networking System Restore

Correct Answer: The key fact here is that the application worked in the past but doesn't work now. Given the choices you have, it's safe to assume that John possibly installed another program that created a problem with PowerPoint and that his best fix to this problem would be to restore the system to a time that PowerPoint was working. Incorrect Answers: Last Known Good is a fine answer, but not the best. Last Known Good is used when you have a driver or registry problem that prevents Windows from starting up. Safe mode and Safe mode with networking are good answers as well, but with no drivers loaded in safe mode, it may be hard to troubleshoot this application-based problem.

Which of the following is the best way to ensure you've made a quality backup? · Always close all files before a backup · Verify your backup · Do only full backups · Run backups when the least number of users are online

Correct Answer: The only true test of a backup's quality is to restore it and see the results - but that is practically difficult to do. Instead, use the backup software's verification utility - verifiers are quite good at determining the quality of a backup job. Incorrect Answers: Only performing full backups will not ensure a quality backup. Closing all files before a backup is good practice, but does not ensure a quality backup. Running backups when the least number of users are online is also a good idea but does not ensure a quality backup.

Which of the following types of screen locks is the MOST secure way to secure your mobile device? Passcode lock Fingerprint lock Swipe lock Face lock

Correct Answer: The passcode lock is the most secure screen lock. On current Apple products, a forgotten passcode could potentially disable your device. The only way for recovery is to erase the device, which will remove all your data. Incorrect Answers: Fingerprint locks are not advised for security. Fingerprint security can be easily tricked. Master fingerprint scanners only read partial fingerprints, and master fingerprint codes have been developed. Swipe lock does not provide any security for your device. Face lock can be fooled with a good quality picture of you!

While working on a user's computer at work, you discover inappropriate content. What should you do? Report back to your supervisor and wait for instructions. Check for viruses. Ignore it. Remind the user of the appropriate use rules.

Correct Answer: The question uses the word "user" instead of "customer." This implies the person in question, the "user,"is a fellow employee, and you're an I.T. person for that company. Report back to your supervisor and wait for instructions. If this was a customer, you would ignore it. Incorrect Answers: Check for viruses: This might be a good idea after the powers that be decide what to do. Remind the user of the appropriate use rules: It's not your job to act as a rules enforcer. Ignore it: Only if this is a customer, not a fellow employee—and it isn't illegal.

Which of the following is a safe way to deal with your new password? E-mail it to yourself. Memorize it. Tape it under your keyboard. Put a note in your wallet.

Correct Answer: The safest place for your password is in your head. Memorize it! Incorrect Answers: Don't write it down at all because someone will find it and then you'll be in trouble!

Glenda plugs in her new scanner only to have it emit a bright flash, a popping noise, and a wisp of smoke. It stops functioning. She unplugs the scanner. What should she do now? · Verify the illumination light is not broken. · Try plugging it back in. · Return the scanner to the place of purchase. · Try a scanner reset.

Correct Answer: The scanner is clearly defective and must be returned. Incorrect Answers: Plugging it back in would not help. If it is smoking, verifying that the illumination light is not broken will not help. There is no scanner reset.

Where is the system tray located in Windows? · On the far right end of the Taskbar · In the System Tools folder · In the System folder located in Control Panel . None of the above

Correct Answer: The system tray shows icons for programs running in the background, such as volume controls, network status, and Internet connectivity. It is always located on the far right end of the Taskbar. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are creative but incorrect.

The process of keeping a PC's operating system up-to-date is called: · Security Protocol. · Upgrading. · Preventive Maintenance. · Patch Management.

Correct Answer: The term is called Patch Management. Incorrect Answer: Upgrading is getting a new and improved version, not keeping up-to-date on a current version. Preventative maintenance is sort of what you are doing with patch management, but it's not the correct term. Security Protocol has nothing to do with keeping a PC's OS up-to-date.

One of the best ways to identify an infected machine is to: · Watch for unusual behavior · Run Ipconfig /antivirus · Have it tested annually · Scan the hard drive for bad sectors

Correct Answer: The typical user will notice when their system is behaving differently than normal. Many times, system sluggishness or excessive network traffic can be a sign of an infected system. Incorrect Answers: There is no need to have your systems "tested" for malware, simply running up-to-date anti-virus software frequently should keep your systems healthy. Scanning for bad sectors will not affect infected machines. There is no such command as "ipconfig /antivirus."

Jamie has just finished cleaning up a virus infection on a customer's computer. Which of the following should Jamie do last? Schedule regular virus scans and updates Update the definitions on antivirus software Enable system restore and create restore point Educate the end user

Correct Answer: The very last thing Jamie should do is educate the user so that the virus infection hopefully never happens again. Education is one of the best ways to mitigate future attacks from happening. Incorrect Answers: All of the other answers are great things for Jamie to do during the cleaning and removal of the virus, but not the appropriate last steps.

Which of the following is NOT an APM/ACPI level? · Standby · Enabled · Full On · Shut Down

Correct Answer: There is no APM Shut Down level. Incorrect Answers: You can enable power management, put the system in standby, or tell it to run full on, but you don't use APM to shut down. ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) is an industry specification for the efficient handling of power consumption in desktop and mobile computers. ACPI specifies how a computer's basic input/output system, operating system, and peripheral devices communicate with each other about power usage APM - Advanced Power Management

What does the Windows feature "Sticky Keys" do for users? · Plays a tone when you press Caps Lock, Num Lock, or Scroll Lock. · Lets you press key combinations such as (Windows Key+Tab) one key at a time. Locks down the function key to Enable mode · Tells the computer to ignore quick or repeated keystrokes

Correct Answer: These features are accessed in the Control Panel under Ease of Access in Windows. In this case, Sticky Keys lets you press key combinations, such as Windows Key+Tab, one key at a time. Incorrect Answers: The Toggle Keys feature plays a tone when the Caps Lock, Num Lock, or Scroll Lock keys are pressed. The Filter Keys feature tells the computer to ignore quick or repeated keystrokes. There is no "Enable mode" feature in Windows.

Johnny is looking to purchase flowers online. He goes to a website that sells flowers when a popup window suddenly appears, offering a 25% discount on flowers purchased on another website. This is an example of: Worm Virus Adware Trojan

Correct Answer: This is a classic example of adware. Incorrect Answers: A popup could also be a virus, worm or Trojan. However, in this case, the advertisement is clearly adware.

A user types http://23.62.99.75 to access the Barney the Dinosaur website, but cannot access it by entering www.barney.com. What Internet service needs to be checked? WINS DHCP NetBIOS DNS

Correct Answer: This is a classic symptom of a problem with the Domain Name Service (DNS). Incorrect Answers: The other services do not deal with domain names.

A technician is trying to reinstall Windows on a machine. He's already inserted the install disc in the optical drive, so what will he most likely have to configure next? Boot sequence Clock speeds Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade BIOS password

Correct Answer: To ensure that the computer boots to the installation media, the technician should check that the optical drive is at the top of the boot sequence. Incorrect Answers: A BIOS password is not a requirement for installing an operating system. You don't need to upgrade your BIOS firmware to install Windows. Configuring clock speeds won't help.

Which of the following are good ESD protection measures? · Wear leather gloves. · Touch the power supply occasionally. · Only touch the PC with one hand. · Wear sneakers when working on PCs.

Correct Answer: Touch the power supply occasionally. The power supply is grounded, provided it is plugged in. Even if it is not plugged in, it will equalize the electrical potential between you and the system. Incorrect Answers: Only touching the PC with one hand will not protect you from ESD hazards, but it will make you look silly. Wearing sneakers when working on PCs won't protect you from ESD. Wearing leather gloves would only frustrate you, not protect you from ESD.

How can you insulate yourself from ESD without an ESD bracelet? Unplug the PC Take off their shoes Hold the metal of the case Hold on to the power cord

Correct Answer: Touching the metal of the case is an effective way of discharging any static electricity you may have built up. Incorrect Answers: None of the other things will help protect your PC from ESD

After installing a thumbprint reader, you must also _______ it. Reset Enable Defrag Train

Correct Answer: Training is the process by which the reader scans and stores the fingerprints you want to use. Incorrect Answers: Defragmenting is for hard drives. The other answers are made up.

What is the purpose of User Account Control in Windows 7? · To prevent applications on the system from running with escalated privileges without the user's approval. · To provide the user with visual feedback indicating he or she is modifying dangerous parts of the system. · To annoy the user. · To make system security more visible to the user.

Correct Answer: UAC's purpose is to prevent applications from running with elevated privileges without the user's approval. Incorrect Answer: None of the other answers are a real part of a Windows system.

Mike wants to baseline his new computer. What tool should he use? Windows Baseline Performance Monitor Event Viewer Task Manager

Correct Answer: Use Performance Monitor to create a baseline for a computer. Incorrect Answers: Event Viewer enables you to see logs and system events. Windows Baseline doesn't exist. Task Manager will show running programs and enable you to end processes or tasks but doesn't do baselines. A baseline is the concept of having common minimum requirements for an entrprise while setting up computers. When a new computer is added to the domain, the minimum requirements are met as the required configurations are applied automatically.

Karen is unable to access the Internet on her home network, but she can access both her roommate's computer and her home theater PC. She thinks her router might not be working. Which of the following tools could she use to test this theory? ICACLS IPCONFIG /all TRACERT NET VIEW

Correct Answer: Use TRACERT to try to access some remote host. TRACERT works even better at this point if you get around any DNS problems by using a legitimate IP address instead of an FQDN name. Incorrect Answers: IPCONFIG /all will only tell you your IP settings, not if you can get out on the Internet. NET VIEW shows you all the local computers on your network, but tells you nothing about getting out on the Internet. ICACLS is a tool to enable you to configure NTFS permissions from the command line and has nothing to do with Internet access.

When troubleshooting a software problem on Pheobe's computer and listening to her describe the problem, your beeper goes off. It's your boss. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for you to take? · Wait until Phoebe finishes her description, run through any simple fixes, and then explain that you need to call your boss on your cell phone. · Pick up Phoebe's phone and dial your boss's number. · Wait until Phoebe finishes her description, and then ask to use her phone to call your boss. · Excuse yourself, walk out of the cube, and use a cell phone to call your boss.

Correct Answer: Wait until Phoebe finishes her description, run through any simple fixes, and then explain that you need to call your boss on your cell phone. Focus on the customer, and don't use her things. Incorrect Answers: Don't use Phoebe's phone, especially not without asking. Don't leave Phoebe hanging—give her some answers before you do anything else.

After walking across a carpet, you pick up a known good stick of RAM and install it. When you try to boot the machine, you find the RAM no longer works. What is the most likely cause? Radio frequency interference (RFI) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) Electromagnetic interference (EMI) Voltage oscillation corruption (VOC)

Correct Answer: Walking across the carpet before picking up the RAM generated static electricity. Touching the RAM caused an electrostatic discharge (ESD) that destroyed the RAM. You should always discharge into a ground (such as the case) before picking up any components. Incorrect Answers: Electromagnetic interference (EMI) is interference caused by magnets and motors and cannot destroy electronics. Radio frequency interference (RFI) is caused by other radio sources and cannot destroy electronics. Voltage oscillation corruption (VOC) does not exist.

Which of the following questions is NOT accusatory? · When is this happening? · Why are you doing that? · Who taught you that? · What did you do?

Correct Answer: When is this happening? This is a perfectly nice question. Incorrect Answers: Use of the "you" word is almost always accusatory.

Aaron wants to encrypt his hard drive on his Windows 10 Home system. What options does he have? · BitLocker · NTFS · WPA · Third-party encryption tool

Correct Answer: Windows 10 Home does not come with a tool to encrypt an entire hard drive. Incorrect Answers: WPA is a wireless encryption standard. NTFS encryption applies only to folders and files. BitLocker enables you to encrypt a full drive, but it is only available in Windows Vista Ultimate and Enterprise.

Which of the following best describes the function of Windows Defender? Windows Defender prevents accidental partitioning. Windows Defender displays system events. Windows Defender reduces the effects of a malware attack. Windows Defender prevents malware attacks.

Correct Answer: Windows Defender helps prevent malware attacks. Incorrect Answers: Event Viewer displays system events. User Accounts Control (UAC) helps prevent accidental partitioning. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) reduces the effects of malware attacks.

Tom installs a Telnet application on his Windows system. When he first starts the program, Windows Firewall pops up with a message telling him the Telnet application is trying to access the Internet. If he clicks on the Allow button, what has he created? · ACL · Exception · UAC · Port Forward

Correct Answer: Windows Firewall's term for applications allowed to pass to the Internet is exceptions. Incorrect Answers: A Port forward is when a packet's port number or IP address is changed using a NAT device. There's an argument that a Windows Firewall exception is an Access Control List. However, the question is asking for the Windows Firewall term. User Account Control is a Windows feature that prevents programs from automatically running with enhanced permissions. It is not related to Windows Firewall.

Which Control Panel applet enables you to view but not change the status of critical security information for a Windows 7 computer? · Programs and Features · Windows Defender · Internet Options · Security Center

Correct Answer: Windows Security Center provides a quick overview of the status of your firewall, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings. Incorrect Answers: The Internet Options applet enables you to change settings that apply to Internet Explorer primarily and to define default applications for other Internet services such as e-mail. You can uninstall and modify applications in the Programs and Features applet. It has nothing to do with security. Windows Defender protects against spyware and other malware. You can actively run a scan from this applet. It's a good answer, in other words, but not the best answer here.

What updates should be performed regularly to ensure your operating system has the latest security patches? Windows update Driver update BIOS update Anti-malware software update

Correct Answer: Windows update will get the latest updates to help prevent known vulnerabilities with the operating system files. You don't need to clean what can't get in! Incorrect Answers: Anti-malware updates may help the security of your computer, the only answer that will update the operating system is the Windows update. Driver updates will not assist your system with security issues. BIOS updates will not assist your system with security issues.

In Windows, what function does virtual memory accomplish? It enables you to control memory on another computer on a network. It lets you know when you are about to run out of available memory. It uses hard disk space to emulate system memory. It keeps track of daily file usage.

Correct Answer: Windows uses virtual memory to supplement system memory. Inactive programs residing in RAM are moved to the swap file on the hard disk drive to enable active programs to use more RAM. Incorrect Answers: The other three answers have nothing to do with virtual memory.

Which of the following is NOT controlled by Windows' Parental Controls? Torrents Games Time of day Web site filters

Correct Answer: Windows' Parental Controls has no control over torrents. Incorrect Answers: Windows' Parental Controls enables control of the time of day, games, and web site filters.

Running CHKDSK by itself only inspects the partition for problems. To get CHKDSK to fix anything, you must run it with the _______ switch. /H /ALL /F /R

Correct Answers: CHKDSK /F fixes errors on the disk. Incorrect Answers: /ALL is for IPCONFIG. /R searches for defective sectors and recovers legible information in CHKDSK. CHKDSK has no /H switch.

While trying to access a secure Web page, Karen gets an error telling her the domain names for the site and the certificate are mismatched. The site is a small "Mom and Pop" Web site, but she's about to order $1500.00 worth of merchandise. What should she do? Go ahead and make the transaction. Try using TCP port 8080 to confirm the HTTPS is intact. Stop and call the store. Do not accept the certificate, but do the transaction anyway.

Correct Answer: You can risk ignoring problems with some certificates, any time money or personal information is involved, one should take the safe route. In this case, Karen needs to stop and call the company. Incorrect Answers: You should not move forward with a transaction unless you are satisfied with the level of security, especially when money is involved. Accepting the certificate will not ensure security, it only allows your system to believe it is secure. Port 8080 is not able to confirm if it is intact.

The chain of custody is: A documented history of who has been in possession of a system Another name for handcuffs The chain used to beat you into submission Several smaller "custodies" linked together

Correct Answer: You might end up in a situation serious enough that a computer or other device becomes evidence. In these cases, the location of the system and who has touched it may come into question, so you need to establish a chain of custody. Incorrect Answers: Ummm, no. Not that.

Phil wants to set up BitLocker on his computer. He has a TPM chip on his motherboard and Windows 7 Ultimate. How many volumes will be created to use BitLocker? 3 2 1 4

Correct Answer: You need two volumes to set up BitLocker. One of the volumes will be 100 MB and it's the one the computer boots from. The other volume is the one that holds the OS. Incorrect Answers: One is too few. Three and Four are overkill.

A technician needs to initiate a Remote Desktop Assistance connection for a customer who is experiencing email issues. Once the customer agrees, what should the technician ask the customer to complete, before establishing the connection? Take steps to reproduce the problem. Close any files that are personal. Reboot the system. Log off, and log back on.

Correct Answer: You should always treat any customer information as confidential. It is easiest to be preventative and remind customers to close personal items before troubleshooting a system. Incorrect Answers: Rebooting the system will only delay assisting the customer. Logging on and off the system will only delay assisting the customer. You may need to reproduce the problem, but first you need to ensure the system does not have private information open.

When working on a Windows 7 computer, which option will be available to you when you are presented with the Recovery Environment dialog box? Performance Monitor System Information utility Services System Restore

Correct Answer: You will get the choice of entering System Restore, along with Command Prompt, Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool, System Image Recovery, and Startup Repair. Incorrect Answers: The following can be found in the Administrative Tools section in Control Panel, System Information utility, Performance Monitor, and Services.

What is your first step before performing an operating system upgrade? FORMAT the drives with the new OS Use Disk Management to partition the drive Back up your current OS Back up essential data

Correct Answer: Your data is the only thing that's completely irreplaceable! Always back it up. Incorrect Answers: Partitioning and/or formatting the drive would destroy your data. Back up your current OS doesn't make sense, if you're performing an upgrade, there is a chance you have an older version on a disc somewhere anyway.

Which of the following is a new feature of iOS 5? · Ability to perform iTunes backups · Ability to run native PC applications · Ability to dual boot the Android OS · Ability to perform untethered updates

Correct Answer: iOS 5 can perform wireless (or untethered) updates. You can finally just throw your computer in the trash. Incorrect Answers: iOS does not have the ability to dual boot Android or run PC applications. iOS has always been able to perform iTunes backups.

William's system is locking up during Windows boot. He reboots and presses F8 to bring up the boot menu and then selects "enable boot logging" In what file will the results be stored? · logfile.txt · winntlog.txt · ntbtlog.txt · winlog.txt

Correct Answer: ntbtlog.txt. Windows writes the results of boot logging into the ntbtlog.txt file. You usually have to boot into safe mode to read the file (since you're probably still having boot problems). Incorrect Answers: The other three file names do not exist in Windows.

Darlene's computer is set up so that when she enters her user name and password in the morning, she has access to all her programs. What type of security applies here? · Permission propagation · SSO · MFA · Inheritance

Correct Answer: With single sign-on (SSO) in a Windows Domain, Darlene logs in once with her domain account and has access to all her apps. Incorrect Answers: Inheritance refers to the default permissions that apply to a newly created subfolder in NTFS. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) would require Darlene to use more than "something she knows" to authenticate. She'd need a key fob or some biometric option to go with a user name and password. Permission propagation refers to the NTFS permissions applied to a moved or copied file or folder.

Angie has been tasked to write up security recommendations for a new server room. Of the following, which would be the most effective options? (Select two) USB token Badge reader Cable lock Fingerprint lock Privacy shades

Correct Answers: Badge reader and fingerprint lock offer solid authentication, especially when used in conjunction. Incorrect Answers: Use a cable lock to secure a portable computer to a table or something. Privacy shades stop eyes prying for screen- or keyboard-delivered information. Most servers are headless (that is, accessed remotely). A physical USB token often enables you to log onto a specific machine, rather than access a secure room.

When setting up a new wireless router, which of the following actions should the technician take first, to secure the network? (Select two.) · Disable unused ports · Change the default user name · Change the SSID · Position the antennas to prevent outside access · Enable MAC filtering

Correct Answers: By changing the SSID and default user name (also the password, but that's not an option here), you make it more difficult for outsiders to log into your network or router. Incorrect Answers: Disabling unused ports and enabling MAC filtering might help increase security on your network, but they're not the things you should do FIRST. Changing the position of the antennas won't do anything for security.

A new application is installed, which adds three new services to a customer's PC. The customer asks for help because the new application will not start. A technician investigates and finds that one of the services has failed to start. They attempt to manually start the service, but it fails. Where should the technician look next for more information? (Select two.) Task Manager Event Viewer %SystemDir%\system32\Drivers Log files for the new application System registry

Correct Answers: Event Viewer will show you any Windows errors that might have sprung up as a result of installing the program, and the application itself might be keeping some log files for just this sort of troubleshooting. Incorrect Answers: Task Manager helps you end unresponsive programs and start and stop services, but it won't give you the information you need here. You may eventually have to edit the registry, but don't go there first! The drivers folder won't tell you anything.

Uhura has just accepted an SSL certificate, but she's not comfortable about the source and now wishes to make it "go away." What should she do? · Rebuild her SSL cache · Configure her firewall to block all incoming SSL certificates · Right-click on the certificate in question and select "Confirm" · Clear the SSL cache

Correct Answers: In order to get rid of that certificate, she must clear the SSL cache. Incorrect Answers: A firewall cannot be configured that way. Confirming the certificate will not make it go away. There is no option to rebuild an SSL cache.

You have ______ to activate your new copy of Windows before it is disabled. 30 days 90 days 60 days 1 year

Correct Answers: Microsoft gives you 30 days in which to activate Windows before it automatically disables itself. Incorrect Answers: The other answers are incorrect.

Correct Answers: Of the choices given, only Start | Control Panel Administrative Tools | Event Viewer will successfully open the Event Viewer. Incorrect Answers: The other paths are incorrect.

Tom is going to recycle his computer, but he wants to make sure all the data is removed from the drive. What's the most secure way to wipe the data from the hard drive, yet keep the drive usable? Partition the hard drive Use a hard drive degausser Crush the hard drive Use a data wiping program

Correct Answers: Of the choices listed, only a data-wiping program will wipe the drive completely while keeping it usable. Incorrect Answers: A hard drive degausser is a powerful magnet that eliminates any magnetic charge on the platters of the drive but renders the drive unusable. Crushing drives is a common way to recycle hard drives, but they are no longer usable. Neither formatting nor partitioning will sufficiently wipe a hard drive.

What is "phishing?" · Infiltrating an organization so that you can do a job and get a paycheck every two weeks · Pretending to be a trustworthy source over the Internet to get usernames and passwords · Hacking into unsecured wireless networks to access usernames and passwords · Dumpster diving for usernames and passwords

Correct Answers: Phishing is the process of pretending to be a trustworthy source over the Internet to get usernames and passwords. Incorrect Answers: The other choices are not phishing.

Which of the following are examples of physical security? (Select two.) Locked doors Encryption Anti-virus Firewalls Badges

Correct Answers: Security badges and locked doors help prevent unauthorized people from accessing a secure area. Incorrect Answers: Anti-virus software is used to clear viruses off of a computer but does nothing to physically secure an area. Encryption makes data unreadable to unauthorized people. Packet access to individual computers or network nodes is controlled by firewalls.

Where are software firewalls usually located? On the servers On the routers On every node On the client systems

Correct Answers: Software firewalls typically reside on the client systems. Incorrect Answers: Software firewalls do not typically reside on routers or servers or every node. A router would be considered a hardware firewall.

Standard Windows NTFS permissions for a folder are: full control, modify, read & execute, list folder contents, ______, and _______. (Select two.) · read · delete · export · write

Correct Answers: The standard permissions for a folder are: full control, modify, read & execute, list folder contents, read, and write. Incorrect Answers: Delete is not a permission level. You can delete if you have either full control or modify permissions. Export is a nonsense answer.

On a Windows system you must have a valid __________ and ___________ to use the system. (Select two.) account IP address group password

Correct Answers: To use a Windows system, you must have a valid account and password. Without that account, you cannot use the system. Incorrect Answers: Your account will be a member of a group, but the group itself doesn't matter. The IP address has nothing to do with logging in to a Windows system.

Jim has just turned on his Windows Firewall, and now the special real-time news and weather application that runs on his desktop isn't updating. What should he do to fix it? Turn off Windows Firewall when the application is running. Delete and reinstall the application. Get a patch for the application. Create an exception for the application in the Windows Firewall.

Correct Answers: Windows Firewall does a good job automatically allowing known programs access to the network, but will stop programs it doesn't know. Jim simply needs to create an exception for this program. Incorrect Answers: Turning off the firewall is both unsafe and unnecessary. Deleting and reinstalling the application is not needed, and an application patch won't change Windows Firewall.

Phishing is: · A technique used to obtain financial information from a user by compiling information from social networks and their friends · An infection that causes a computer to behave erratically by playing music and launching browser windows · A technique used to obtain financial information from a user by sending e-mails which mimic a bank · An infection that causes a Web browser to go to a different site than the one intended from a search result page

Explanation Correct Answer: A phishing attack uses e-mail that purports to be from a legitimate source to steal information from a victim. Incorrect Answers: None of the other answers are phishing attacks.

Harriet needs to move an 85-pound laser printer off of a table to get to a UPS. She should: · Get help to move it. · Call her supervisor. · Lift with her knees. · Use a hand truck.

Explanation Correct Answer: Any time there's any questions about your ability to handle the weight of any device, get help! Incorrect Answer: Lifting with her knees is good advice, but if she's not sure she can lift it by herself, she shouldn't. Using a hand truck for a printer on a table would require lifting anyway. Calling a supervisor would be a bit much. Just ask a coworker instead.

Explanation Correct Answer: Command Prompt | winsrv.msc | <select service from list> | Stop. You can open up Services from a command prompt, but the correct command would be services.msc, not winsrv.msc. Incorrect Answers: The other three steps would let you stop a service in Windows.

A technician would like to map a network drive. Which of the following indicates the correct path for mapping a network drive using the UNC? \\servername\share \\password\share \\share\servername \\username\servername

Explanation Correct Answer: The correct syntax for the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) is \\servername\share. Map to that UNC, and you will be able to access the folder "share" on the computer "servername" any time. Incorrect Answers: All of the other answers mislabel the Universal Naming Convention (UNC). The server needs to go first, then the shared resource.

A user reports that their PC boots up to a screen that reads "OS not found." Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this problem? · The system has a BSOD. · There are conflicting operating systems. · Not enough memory is available. · The user has a USB key attached.

If the user had plugged a USB stick into the computer, the PC may be trying to boot to that device instead of the hard drive. Incorrect Answers: There are most likely not conflicting operating systems installed. A lack of memory would not result in an OS not found error. A BSOD probably would not cause a boot error.

In Windows, how would you go about sharing your CD-ROM on a network? · Right-click My Computer and select Control Panel, then click Network, File and Print Sharing · Select Start | Settings | Control Panel, then right-click Network, CD-ROM, Sharing · In My Computer, right-click the CD-ROM icon, then click Sharing · Select Start | Settings | Control Panel, then click Network, File and Print Sharing

In My Computer, right-click the CD-ROM icon, then click Sharing Under My Computer, right-click the CD-ROM icon, then click Sharing Incorrect Answers: The other paths are made up and incorrect.

When Eddie first walks into an onsite job, he should: · Introduce himself and ask the customer if they are ready for him to start working. · Introduce himself and review the customer's safety rules. · Have a meeting with all of the managers to introduce himself. · Immediately start to repair the problem.

Introduce himself and ask the customer if they are ready for him to start working. Correct Answer: Just because you are there doesn't mean the customer is ready for you. Always first ask permission to begin working. Incorrect Answers: Don't start fixing things right away, since they might not be ready for you. Introducing yourself and reviewing the safety rules is a nice idea, but that's not the first thing you should do. Having a meeting with the managers is probably a little overkill.

Mike installed a new external DVD drive. The installation program required a reboot. As the system rebooted, Mike got a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) error before Windows fully rebooted. He shut off the system and disconnected the external DVD drive. What should he try next? Last Known Good Configuration Repair Install Recovery Console Safe Mode

Last Known Good Configuration holds all the critical information from the last successful boot. If Mike tries this FIRST, there's a good chance the system will return to its exact state before he installed the DVD drive. If he already rebooted successfully and THEN has the BSOD, the Last Known Good Configuration would not be useful. Incorrect Answers: Safe Mode loads generic drivers for mouse, keyboard, mass storage, and system services. Since the issue occurred before Windows fully rebooted, switching to Safe Mode would have little impact. The Recovery Console is a command-line utility and is best at fixing the MBR, reinstalling the boot files and rebuilding BOOT.ini. The issue occurred after installing a new DVD drive. As a result, using the Recovery Console would not be the most likely solution. Repair Install is a function of Windows installations and has nothing to do with installing DVD drives.

What is the term for a piece of software which no longer has technical support, software updates, or security updates? Retired End-of-life Past due Limited

OBJ-1.1: End-of-life is the term used to refer to any software which can no longer receive technical support, software updates, or security updates from the manufacturer. For example, Microsoft provides support for each of its operating systems for a limited time. As of January 14, 2020, Windows 7 is considered end-of-life, and all systems running Windows 7 should be updated to a more recent and supported version of Windows, like Windows 10.

A user with an older laptop running Windows XP has only 2 GB of RAM, 32 GB of SSD, and a 1.7 GHz 64-bit processor. The user would like to upgrade to a newer OS since Windows XP is now end-of-life. Which of the following operating systems should the technician recommend to ensure the BEST performance on this computer? Windows 10 Windows 8.1 Windows 7 Windows 8

OBJ-1.2: All four of these versions of Windows have the same minimum requirements. For a 32-bit operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space. For a 64-bit operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 20 GB of hard drive space. Since all four have the same minimum requirements, it is recommended that the user install the most modern operating system on this laptop for the best support for updates in the long-term.

A user recently bought a used Windows laptop. When they booted up the computer, they were not greeted with a normal desktop but instead will a screen filled with tiles. Which version of Windows is the laptop MOST likely running? Windows 8 Windows 7 Windows 10 Windows 8.1

OBJ-1.2: Microsoft did not support setting Windows 8 to boot straight to the Desktop and skip the new Start screen that displays the tiles. Windows 8 was not widely accepted by end-users, and Microsoft quickly added the Desktop back in Windows 8.1 and Windows 10.

Which version of Windows supports Virtual Desktops? Windows 10 Windows 7 Windows 8.1 Windows 8

OBJ-1.2: Windows 10 added support for Virtual Desktops like those long seen on Linux and Mac OS X. These allow users without multi-monitor setups to create multiple virtual desktops that are handy for splitting usage between work and leisure work into projects, or whatever you require.

Which version of Windows 10 does not support BitLocker for full disk encryption? Enterprise Pro Home Education

OBJ-1.2: Windows 10 has support for BitLocker in every version except the Windows 10 Home edition. BitLocker provides support for full disk encryption using AES with a 128-bit or 256-bit key.

Which version of Windows 10 does NOT support joining a domain or using Group Policy management? Pro Home Education Enterprise

OBJ-1.2: Windows 10 has support for domains and Group Policy management in every version except the Home edition. If you are using the Pro, Education, and Enterprise edition, you can join a domain and use Group Policy management.

You have been asked to help a user upgrade their laptop from Windows 8 to Windows 10. The user has asked that all of their applications, user profiles, documents, and PST files be preserved during the upgrade. Which of the following types of upgrades or installations should you perform on this laptop? In-place upgrade Unattended installation Clean installation Reset upgrade

OBJ-1.3: An in-place upgrade will preserve all of the user's files and applications during the upgrade process from Windows 8 to Windows 10. A clean installation will completely format the hard drive (losing all of the files and applications) and install a new copy of Windows 10. A reset upgrade will keep the user's data files, but not the applications on the system. An unattended installation is used to perform a clean install and use the configurations from an answers file instead of an interactive session with the installer.

Which type of installation would require an answer file to install the operating system? Clean Repair Upgrade Unattended

OBJ-1.3: An unattended installation is a traditional method of deploying a Windows operating system in a large enterprise environment. Unattended installations use an answer file that contains user input to various GUI dialog boxes that would otherwise appear during the installation process. Unattended installation is the most practical way to install Windows when the client computers have different hardware components, and an image file cannot be used. Unattended installations save deployment time and can be used either for clean installs or in-place upgrades.

Gina just installed a 4 TB HDD into her Windows 10 computer and wants to assign the drive letter "M" to store her media files. Which type of partition should Gina use if she wants to use all of the drives for a single partition? ISO MBR FAT32 GPT

OBJ-1.3: GPT is a newer way to partition disks that allow for partition sizes over the 2 TB limit imposed by MBR.

When using an MBR, which of the following types of partitions can only have a limit of four partitions? Swap Extended Primary Logical

OBJ-1.3: Primary partitions are limited to only four primary partitions on a system using MBR. To overcome this limitation, extended partitions can be used.

Another technician tells you that they are PXE booting a computer. What is the technician MOST likely doing with the computer? Using a multiboot configuration Conducting a system repair An in-place upgrade of the OS Installing an image to the computer over the network

OBJ-1.3: The Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE) specification describes a standardized client-server environment that boots a software assembly, retrieved from a network, on PXE-enabled clients. It allows a workstation to boot from a server on a network before booting the local hard drive's operating system. It is usually used to install an image to the computer over the network.

Which file system type is most commonly used on a macOS (OS X) system? NTFS FAT32 HFS NFS

OBJ-1.3: The macOS system uses HFS and HFS+. The original HFS was supported in Mac OS 8.0 and earlier. Since shifted to OS X, Apple's computers all support HFS+ by default. Modern Windows systems use NTFS by default, and older Windows systems used FAT32. NFS is the network file system and was created by Sun Microsystems for network file shares.

Which command is used to create a new disk partition on a Windows system? diskpart dd chkdsk format

OBJ-1.4: DiskPart is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Microsoft operating systems. You can use it to view, create, delete, and modify a computer's disk partitions.

A Windows laptop is malfunctioning, and you believe that some system files are missing or corrupted. Which of the following commands should you use to verify this and, if needed, repair the files? xcopy gpupdate sfc chkdsk

OBJ-1.4: If some Windows functions aren't working or Windows crashes, then you can use the System File Checker (SFC) to scan Windows and restore your system files.

Your company is concerned about the possibility of theft of sensitive information from their systems. The IT Director has directed that access to all USB storage devices be blocked on all corporate workstations to prevent this. The workstation should still use other USB devices, like scanners, printers, keyboards, and mice, though. Which of the following command-line tools should you use to install a Group Policy (GPO) to all workstations across the network to disable the use of USB storage devices? gpupdate gpresults diskpart sfc

OBJ-1.4: The gpupdate command refreshes a computer's local Group Policy, as well as any Active Directory-based group policies. This command works on Windows 10, 8, 7, Vista, and XP. The gpupdate command can be used to restrict access to USB removable storage devices (like USB thumb drives and hard drives). In some organizations, USB storage devices are blocked for security reasons to prevent security leakage of confidential data and the penetration of viruses into the internal corporate network.

You are troubleshooting an issue with a Windows desktop and need to display the machine's active TCP connections. Which of the following commands should you use? netstat ping net use ipconfig

OBJ-1.4: The netstat command is used to display active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols) on a Windows machine. This is a useful command when determining if any malware has been installed on the system and maybe maintaining a remote connection with a command and control server.

You have been asked to install a new hard drive in a Windows 10 system. You have already installed the hard drive and booted the system up. Which tool should you use to create the new partitions on the hard drive? Disk Defragmenter Data Sources DxDiag Disk Management

OBJ-1.5: The Disk Management tool is used to display the drive status, mount the drive, initialize the drive, and create/split/extend/shrink drive partitions.

A user is complaining that every time they reboot their computer, a music application loads up. Which of the following commands would you use to disable the program from starting up each time Windows reboots? Task Manager Event Viewer MSCONFIG Services.msc

OBJ-1.5: The MSCONFIG utility has 5 tabs: General, Boot, Services, Startup, and Tools. If you click on the Startup tab, you will see every program configured to start up when Windows is booted up. This can be used to disable unwanted programs from launching during the boot-up process.

Your company wants to ensure that users cannot access USB mass storage devices. You have conducted some research online and found that if you modify the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\UsbStor key, it will prevent USB storage devices from being used. Which of the following tools should you use to modify this key? MSCONFIG MMC MSTSC RegEdit

OBJ-1.5: The Registry Editor (RegEdit) allows you to view and make changes to system files and programs that you wouldn't be able to access otherwise. The registry is a database made up of hives and keys that control various settings on a Windows system. Incorrectly editing the Registry can permanently damage your computer, so it is important to be very careful when modifying the registry using RegEdit.

Mark's laptop is running Windows 10 and appears to become slower and slower over time with use. You decide to check the current CPU utilization and observe that it remains in the 95% to 100% range fairly consistently. You close three of Mark's open applications and recheck the CPU utilization. You notice the utilization dropped to the 30% to 35% range. A week later, Mark calls you again and says the computer is extremely slow. Which of the following tools can you use to check the CPU utilization and manage any high-resource processes? PerfMon Task Manager MSTSC MSCONFIG

OBJ-1.5: The Task Manager is an advanced Windows tool that provides several tabs that allow users to monitor the applications, processes, services, and CPU utilization on a computer. The Processes tab more than anything else because it lets you quickly see how system resources are utilized, which can help troubleshoot applications or find out why the computer is suddenly performing slowly. The Task Manager can identify and stop processes that use excessive system resources and keep the computer operating at high speeds.

A technician wants to conduct a vulnerability scan on a server every morning at 3:00 am. Which of the following tools should the technician use? Task Scheduler Services.msc Event Viewer Data Sources

OBJ-1.5: The Task Scheduler is a tool included with Windows that allows predefined actions to be automatically executed whenever a certain set of conditions is met. For example, you can schedule a task to run a backup script every night or send you an email whenever a certain system event occurs.

A Windows 2019 server is crashing every evening at 2:35 am, but you are not sure why. Which of the following tools should you use to identify the cause of the system crash? Windows Firewall Advanced Security Event Viewer Explorer

OBJ-1.5: The Windows Event Viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It's a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems. If you use the Event Viewer, you can identify what was occurring at or around 2:35 am each day before the server crashed and use this to troubleshoot the problem.

Which low power mode is used with laptops to save power, but it takes longer to turn back on and resume where the user left off? Sleep Balanced Hibernate Power saver

OBJ-1.6: Hibernate mode uses less power than sleep mode and is usually available for laptops. It takes a bit longer to resume than sleep mode does, but it will resume everything where you left off once the laptop is powered back on. Hibernate mode should be used when you won't be using your laptop for an extended period of time.

You are trying to locate a protected .dll file to edit, but you cannot see it under the System32 folder. Which Control Panel utility should you use to find the file? System Folder Options Indexing Options Display

OBJ-1.6: The "View hidden files" option is located under the Folder Options utility in the Windows Control Panel.

Your company has just installed a new proxy server and has asked you to configure all of the Windows workstations to use it. Which of the following Internet Options tabs in the Windows Control Panel should you configure? General Connections Privacy Content

OBJ-1.6: The Connections tab in the Internet Options is used to set up the dial-up and VPN settings and the LAN settings. Under the LAN settings, you can configure the proxy server settings for the system.

Jason took home a company-issued Windows 8.1 laptop home to do some work. He successfully connected it to his home's wireless network and verified he could access the internet and browse his favorite websites. Unfortunately, Jason cannot access any of the network's shared files from his home network's media server. Which of the following may be why Jason is unable to access the network shares in his home network? The laptop's gateway is not properly configured The laptop has an IP conflict The laptop's DNS configuration is not properly setup The laptop must join the HomeGroup

OBJ-1.6: The HomeGroup for the home network must be joined for the laptop to access the local network's shared files from the network's media server. The rest of the options can be dismissed since the laptop can access the internet successfully and browse the web.

Which of the following should be configured if a user wants to allow another computer to connect to their system using a Remote Desktop Connection? HomeGroup Remote settings System protection Sync center

OBJ-1.6: With Remote Desktop Connection, you can connect to a computer running Windows from another computer running Windows that's connected to the same network or the internet. For example, you can use all of your work computer's programs, files, and network resources from your home computer, and it's just like you're sitting in front of your computer at work. To enabled it, the Remote Desktop must be enabled, and the "Remote settings" must be properly configured on the computer you want to allow remote connections into.

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows 10 on a 32-bit system? 8 GB 1 GB 4 GB 2 GB

OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

What is the minimum amount of hard drive space needed to install Windows 10 on a 64-bit system? 16 GB 20 GB 32 GB 10 GB

OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 20 GB of hard drive space.

Judith is trying to install Windows 10 (64-bit) on a virtual machine on her Mac OS X laptop. The installation is continually failing and producing an error. You look at the virtual machine's specifications and see that Judith has configured a VM with a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 2 GBs of memory, a 15 GB hard drive, and a 1024x768 screen resolution. What would you recommend increasing to fix the installation issues being experienced? Number of CPU cores The screen resolution Amount of memory Amount of hard drive space

OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 20 GB of hard drive space. Since the virtual machine only has 15 GB of hard drive space allocated, this causes errors with the installation and must be increased.

What is the minimum amount of hard drive space needed to install Windows 8.1 on a 32-bit system? 10 GB 16 GB 32 GB 20 GB

OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 8.1 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of hard drive space.

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed to install Windows 8.1 on a 64-bit system? 8 GB 4 GB 2 GB 1 GB

OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 8.1 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 20 GB of hard drive space.

Michael, a salesman, is on a business trip and is trying to access his corporate email over the hotel's Wi-Fi network. Michael's laptop appears to be connected to the hotel's wireless network, but his email client cannot download any new messages and states, "Network Offline." Michael contacts the help desk for assistance. What action should the help desk technician tell Michael to perform to solve the issue? Open a web browser, enter google.com, and see if a redirect page is displayed Disconnect and reconnect to the hotel's wireless network Perform a full system scan for malware on his laptop Disable and reenable the wireless network adapter on his laptop

OBJ-1.8: Many hotels use a captive portal with a redirect page with their wireless networks. When users connect to the wireless network, they have to open a web browser and are then redirected to the hotel's Acceptable Use Policy page. Until the user accepts the terms and conditions, none of their network traffic will be routed to the internet. If the redirect page is shown, Michael can then accept the terms and conditions, and his email client will be able to download his mail again.

Jason is out of town on a business trip and needs to access the share drive on his company's corporate network. Which of the following types of network connections should he use to access the share drive from his hotel room? VPN Wireless Wired Dial-up

OBJ-1.8: Our goal is to connect remotely through a VPN to access the company's shared drive and shared resources. To do this, it is necessary to use a VPN connection. The VPN connection can be established over a wired, wireless, cellular, or dial-up connection, but without the VPN connectivity established, Jason will not access the corporate resources.

You are working as a technician for a small company and recently moved some files from one server to another to free up some storage capacity on the existing server. Now, multiple users have begun reporting that they cannot access some of their previous shares on the file server. If a user attempts to open one of the shares, they get an "Access Denied" error. You have verified that all users are located in the correct security groups, and their access permissions are correct. Still, the users cannot access the network shares. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue with the users accessing the network shares? Users are trying to access the shares via their previously mapped drive letters The network shares require administrative permissions The proxy settings on the users' computers are disabled The users are trying to access the shares during Group Policy restricted hours

OBJ-1.8: Since the data is moved from one network share to another, the users will need to remap their network drive letters to the new file paths. Using the existing drive mapping, they will still be pointing to the old server (which no longer has the files and is presenting an "Access Denied" error message).

Which of the following network configurations is used to identify your computer's individual host identifier and your computer's network identifier? Subnet mask WINS Gateway DNS

OBJ-1.8: The subnet mask is used to identify the host identifier and the network identifier uniquely in combination with the IP address. The subnet mask is used by the TCP/IP protocol to determine whether a host is on the local subnet or a remote network.

You have been asked to install a computer in a public workspace. Only an authorized user should use the computer. Which of the following security requirements should you implement to prevent unauthorized users from accessing the network with this computer? Remove the guest account from the administrators group Issue the same strong and complex password for all users Require authentication on wake-up Disable single sign-on

OBJ-1.8: To prevent the computer from being used inadvertently to access the network, the system should be configured to require authentication whenever the computer is woken up. Therefore, if an authorized user walks away from the computer and goes to sleep when another person tries to use the computer, it will ask for a username and password before granting them access to the network.

A developer uses a MacBook Pro when working from home, but they need access to both a Windows and macOS system to test their programs. Which of the following tools should be used to allow both operating systems to exist on their MacBook Pro? Boot Camp Image recovery Terminal Mission Control

OBJ-1.9: Boot Camp is used to allow dual booting on a Macintosh computer. It allows the user to boot into either macOS (OS X) or Windows as the computer is rebooted.

Which command on a macOS or Linux system is used to change the permissions of a file? chmod chown sudo pwd

OBJ-1.9: The chmod command is used to change a file or directory's permissions from the command line or terminal. The chown command is used to change the owner of the file, but not its permissions. The sudo command allows a command to be executed as the superuser (root) instead of the current user. The pwd is used to display the path to the present working directory (current directory) to the terminal or display.

Which command would be used to display the IP address and subnet mask for the wired network connection on a macOS or Linux system? ipconfig iwconfig netstat ifconfig

OBJ-1.9: The ifconfig command is used to display information about the current wired network connection on a macOS or Linux system, including its IP address, subnet mask, and MAC address.

You are helping to set up a backup plan for your organization. The current plan states that all of the organization's servers must have a daily backup conducted. These backups are then saved to a local NAS device. You have been asked to recommend a method to ensure the backups will work when needed for restoration. Which of the following should you recommend? Frequently restore the server from backup files to test them Create an additional copy of the backups in an off-site datacenter Attempt to restore a test server from one of the backup files to verify them Set up scripts to automatically reattempt any failed backup jobs

OBJ-1.9: The only way to fully ensure that a backup will work when needed is to restore the files from the backups. To do that, it is best to restore them to a test server since this will not affect your production environment.

Which command is used on a macOS or Linux system to change their password? passwd ps chown pwd

OBJ-1.9: The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts. A normal user may only change the password for their own account, while the superuser may change the password for any user. The pwd command displays the present working directory (current directory) path to the terminal or display.

Natalie's iMac has been infected with malware. The malware has caused numerous files to be deleted from the system, and the operating system is now corrupted. Natalie needs to access some of her files from the computer that have been deleted by the malware. Which of the following built-in utilities should be used to restore access to those files? Snapshot System Restore Time Machine Boot Camp

OBJ-1.9: Time Machine is the built-in backup feature of the Mac OS X operating system. It can be used to automatically back up all of the system's files, including apps, music, photos, email, documents, and system files. Once a user has a valid backup in Time Machine, they can restore files from the backup if the original files are ever corrupted or deleted on their Mac or if the hard disk (or SSD) is erased or replaced.

Dion Training has an open wireless network so that their students can connect to the network during class without logging in. The Dion Training security team is worried that the customers from the coffee shop next door may be connecting to the wireless network without permission. If Dion Training wants to keep the wireless network open for students but prevents the coffee shop's customers from using it, which of the following should be changed or modified? Default SSID Signal strength or power level MAC filtering Firewall

OBJ-2.10: Since Dion Training wants to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to reduce the signal strength of the network's power level. This will ensure the wireless network can only be accessed from within its classrooms and not from the coffee shop next door. Changing the SSID won't prevent the coffee shop's customers from accessing the network. While MAC filtering could be used to create an approved whitelist of MAC addresses for all of Dion Training's students, this would also require it to be continuously updated with each class of students that is very time-intensive and inefficient. Therefore, the BEST solution is to reduce the signal strength.

Dion Training has an open wireless network called "InstructorDemos" for its instructors to use during class, but they do not want any students connecting to this wireless network. The instructors need the "InstructorDemos" network to remain open since some of their IoT devices used during course demonstrations do not support encryption. Based on the requirements provided, which of the following configuration settings should you use to satisfy the instructor's requirements and prevent students from using the "InstructorDemos" network? QoS MAC filtering Signal strength NAT

OBJ-2.10: Since the instructors need to keep the wireless network open, the BEST option is to implement MAC filtering to prevent the students from connecting to the network while still keeping the network open. Since the instructors would most likely use the same devices to connect to the network, it would be relatively easy to implement a MAC filtering based whitelist of devices that are allowed to use the open network and reject any other devices not listed by the instructors (like the student's laptops or phones). Reducing the signal strength would not solve this issue since students and instructors are in the same classrooms. Using Network Address Translation and Quality of Service will not prevent the students from accessing or using the open network.

You are configuring a wireless access point (WAP) in a large apartment building for a home user. The home user is concerned that their neighbor may try to connect to their Wi-Fi and wants to prevent it. Which THREE of the following actions should you perform to increase the wireless network's security? Disable the SSID broadcast Enable WPA2 encryption Reduce the transmission power Disable the DHCP server Enabled WEP encryption Reduce the channel availably

OBJ-2.10: To BEST secure this wireless network in a large apartment building, you should first reduce the transit power. This will ensure the network's radio frequency signals remain within the apartment itself. You should then disable the SSID broadcast since this will prevent the home user's neighbor from seeing the network as available. Finally, the home user should use WPA2 encryption since it is the stronger method of encryption available for Wi-Fi networks.

Your home network is configured with a long, strong, and complex pre-shared key for its WPA2 encryption. You noticed that your wireless network has been running slow, so you checked the list of "connected clients" and see that "Bob's Laptop" is connected to it. Bob lives downstairs and is the maintenance man for your apartment building. You know that you never gave Bob your password, but somehow he has figured out how to connect to your wireless network. Which of the following actions should you take to prevent anyone from connecting to your wireless network without the WPA2 password? Disable WPA2 Disabled WPS Enable WPA Disable SSID broadcast

OBJ-2.10: WPS was created to ease the setup and configuration of new wireless devices by allowing the router to automatically configure them after a short eight-digit PIN was entered. Unfortunately, WPS is vulnerable to a brute-force attack and is easily compromised. Therefore, WPS should be disabled on all wireless networks. If Bob could enter your apartment and press the WPS button, he could have configured his laptop to use your wireless network without your WPA2 password.

Your company's wireless network was recently compromised by an attacker who utilized a brute force attack against the network's PIN to gain access. Once connected to the network, the attacker modified the DNS settings on the router and spread additional malware across the entire network. Which TWO of the following configurations were most likely used to allow the attack to occur? Router with outdated firmware WPS enabled Default administrative login credentials WPA2 encryption enabled Guest network enabled TKIP encryption protocols

OBJ-2.10: Wireless networks that rely on a PIN to connect devices use the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS). It is a wireless network security standard that tries to make connections between a router and wireless devices faster and easier. WPS relies on an 8-digit PIN, but it is easily defeated using a brute force attack due to a poor design. Once connected to the network using the WPS PIN, the attacker may have logged into the router using the default administrative login credentials and then modified the DNS of the router/gateway. Commonly, many network administrators forget to change the default username/password of their devices, leaving this an easy vulnerability for an attacker to exploit.

Your company wants to increase the security of its server room. Which TWO of the following should they install or use? Biometric lock Cable lock Privacy window shades Strong passwords Bollard Badge reader

OBJ-2.1: A badge reader and biometric lock can be used on a server room door to provide multifactor authentication. Cable locks are used for laptops, not servers or server rooms. A bollard is used in the parking lot or the front of a building. Strong passwords and privacy windows shades could be used, but they are not the BEST choices for increased server room security.

Samantha works in the human resource department in an open floorplan office. She is concerned about the possibility of someone conducting shoulder surfing to read sensitive information from employee files while accessing them on her computer. Which of the following physical security measures should she implement to protect against this threat? Badge reader Privacy screen Hardware token Biometric lock

OBJ-2.1: A privacy screen is a filter placed on a monitor to decrease the viewing angle. This prevents the monitor from being viewed from the side and can help prevent shoulder surfing. The standard type of anti-glare filter consists of a coating that reduces the reflection from a glass or plastic surface.

You are working for a government contractor who requires all users to use a PIV device when sending digitally signed and encrypted emails. Which of the following physical security measures is being implemented? Cable lock Smart card Key fob Biometric reader

OBJ-2.1: A smart card is used in applications that need to protect personal information and/or deliver fast, secure transactions, such as transit fare payment cards, government, and corporate identification cards, documents such as electronic passports and visas, and financial payment cards. Often, smart cards are used as part of a multifactor authentication system where the smart card and a PIN needs to be entered for system authentication to occur.

Dion Training has set up a lab consisting of 12 laptops for students to use outside of normal classroom hours. The instructor is worried that a student may try to steal one of the laptops. Which of the following physical security measures should be used to ensure the laptop is not stolen or moved out of the lab environment? USB locks Biometric locks Entry control roster Cable locks

OBJ-2.1: The Kensington lock is a small hole found on almost every portable computer or laptop made after 2000. It allows a cable lock to be attached to a portable computer or laptop to lock it to a desk and prevent theft. These locks often use a combination lock or padlock type of locking system. These locks do not affect the user's ability to use the laptop or device. It only prevents them from moving the laptop from the area.

Your company recently suffered a small data breach caused by an employee emailing themselves a copy of the current customer's names, account numbers, and credit card limits. You are determined that something like this shall never happen again. Which of the following logical security concepts should you implement to prevent a trusted insider from stealing your corporate data? MDM Strong passwords DLP Firewall

OBJ-2.2: Data loss prevention software detects potential data breaches/data ex-filtration transmissions and prevents them by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data while in use (endpoint actions), in-motion (network traffic), and at rest (data storage). Since the user was an authorized user (employee), changing your password policy, reconfiguring the firewall, or setting up an MDM solution would not solve this problem. Instead, a DLP solution must be implemented.

A new corporate policy dictates that all access to network resources will be controlled based on the user's job functions and tasks within the organization. For example, only people working in Human Resources can access employee records, and only the people working in finance can access customer payment histories. Which of the following security concepts is BEST described by this new policy? Least privilege Blacklists Directory permissions Permission creep

OBJ-2.2: Least privilege is the concept and practice of restricting access rights for users, accounts, and computing processes to only those resources absolutely required to perform routine, legitimate activities. Privilege itself refers to the authorization to bypass certain security restraints.

A corporate workstation was recently infected with malware. The malware was able to access the workstation's credential store and steal all the usernames and passwords from the machine. Then, the malware began to infect other workstations on the network using the usernames and passwords it stole from the first workstation. The IT Director has directed its IT staff to develop a plan to prevent this type of issue from occurring again in the future. Which of the following would BEST prevent this from reoccurring? Monitor all workstations for failed login attempts and forward them to a centralized SYSLOG server Install a Unified Threat Management system on the network to monitor for suspicious traffic Install a host-based intrusion detection system on all of the corporate workstations Install an anti-virus or anti-malware solution that uses heuristic analysis

OBJ-2.2: The only solution that could STOP this from reoccurring would be to use an anti-virus or anti-malware solution with heuristic analysis. The other options might be able to monitor and detect the issue but not stop it from spreading. Heuristic analysis is a method employed by many computer anti-virus programs designed to detect previously unknown computer viruses and new variants of viruses already in the wild. This is behavior-based detection and prevention, so it should detect the issue in the scenario provided and stop it from spreading throughout the network.

Which TWO of the following would provide the BEST security for both computers and smartphones? Enforcing trusted software sources Enabling data loss prevention Utilizing access control lists Using a cable lock Enabling multifactor authentication Configuring organizational units

OBJ-2.2: The use of multifactor authentication is considered an industry best practice for both computers and smartphones. Additionally, any software being installed should come from a trusted source to prevent malware infections.

Bradley has been authorized to work from home every Friday. Normally, he can use his work laptop home from home while still accessing the company's internal network shares, but for some reason, it isn't working today. What is MOST likely the cause of Bradley's issue today? Outdated anti-malware software Missing OS security patches An inactive VPN connection The corporate MDM policy

OBJ-2.2: To connect from Bradley's home to the corporate internal network, Bradley would need to use a VPN connection. A VPN connection will create a secure tunnel from Bradley's laptop over the internet to the corporate internal network, which will make his laptop act as if he is connected directly to the office network. If the VPN connection is inactive, then Bradley's laptop is simply connecting directly to the internet and cannot access any of the company's internal network resources (like the network shares).

A small doctor's office has asked you to configure their network to use the highest levels of wireless security and desktop authentication. The office only uses cloud-based SaaS applications to store their patient's sensitive data. Which TWO of the following protocols or authentication methods should you implement for the BEST security? RADIUS WPA2 WPS SSO Multifactor WEP

OBJ-2.3: Since everything is being stored within a cloud-based SaaS application, the doctor's office needs to ensure their network connection uses the highest level of encryption (WPA2), and their desktop authentication should use a multifactor authentication system. Multifactor authentication relies on using at least 2 of the following factors: something you know (password or pin), something you have (smart card or key fob), something you are (fingerprint or retinal scan), or something you do (draw a pattern or how you sign your name).

Maria is trying to log in to her company's webmail and is asked to enter her username and password. Which type of authentication method is Maria using? Multifactor TACACS+ RADIUS Single-factor

OBJ-2.3: Single-factor authentication (SFA) is a process for securing access to a given system, such as a network or website, that identifies the party requesting access through only one category of credentials (something you know, something you have, something you are, or something you do). The most common example of single-factor authentication occurs when a user is prompted to enter their username and password to authenticate.

Which of the following are the LEAST secure wireless security and encryption protocol? WPA AES WPA2 WEP

OBJ-2.3: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol, specified in the IEEE Wireless Fidelity (Wi-Fi) standard, 802.11b, that is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of security and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN. It is the oldest form of wireless security and the weakest form. WEP can be cracked with brute force techniques in less than 5 minutes with a normal end-user computer.

Your company wants to provide a secure SSO solution for accessing both the corporate wireless network and its network resources. Which of the following technologies should be used? RADIUS WEP WPA2 WPS

OBJ-2.3: With RADIUS and SSO configured, users on the network can provide their user credentials one time (when they initially connect to the wireless access point or another RADIUS client) are automatically authenticated to all of the network's resources.

Several users have contacted the help desk to report that they received an email from a well-known bank stating that their accounts have been compromised and they need to "click here" to reset their banking password. Some of these users are not even customers of this particular bank, though. Which of the following best describes this type of attack? Brute force Phishing Spear phishing Whaling

OBJ-2.5: This is an example of a phishing attack. Phishing is the fraudulent practice of sending emails and pretending to be from a reputable company to trick users into revealing personal information, such as passwords and credit card numbers. This email appears to be untargeted since it was sent to both customers and non-customers of this particular bank; it is best classified as phishing. Spear phishing requires the attack to be more targeted and less widespread.

Your company's Security Operations Center (SOC) is currently detecting an ongoing DDoS attack against your network's file server. One of the cybersecurity analysts has identified forty internal workstations on the network conducting the attack against your network's file server. The cybersecurity analyst believes these internal workstations are infected with malware and places them into a quarantined network area. The analyst then submits a service desk ticket to have the workstations scanned and cleaned of the infection. What type of malware was the workstation likely a victim of based on the scenario provided? Botnet Ransomware Spyware Rootkit

OBJ-2.4: A botnet is many internet-connected devices, each of which is running one or more bots. Botnets can be used to perform distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, steal data, send spam, and allow the attacker to access the device and its connection. A zombie (also known as a bot) is a computer or workstation that a remote attacker has accessed and set up to forward transmissions (including spam and viruses) to other computers on the internet.

A computer was recently infected with a piece of malware. Without any user intervention, the malware is now spreading throughout the corporate network and infecting other computers that it finds. Which type of malware MOST likely infected these computers? Virus Trojan Worm Ransomware

OBJ-2.4: A computer worm is a standalone malware computer program that replicates itself to spread to other computers. Often, it uses a computer network to spread itself, relying on security failures on the target computer to access it. A worm can spread on its own, whereas a virus needs a host program or user interaction to propagate itself.

A computer is infected with malware that has infected the Windows kernel to hide. Which type of malware MOST likely infected this computer? Ransomware Botnet Rootkit Trojan

OBJ-2.4: A rootkit is a clandestine computer program designed to provide continued privileged access to a computer while actively hiding its presence. A rootkit is generally a collection of tools that enabled administrator-level access to a computer or network. They can often disguise themselves from detection by the operating system and anti-malware solutions. If a rootkit is suspected on a machine, it is best to reformat and reimage the system.

A user has reported that their workstation is running very slowly. A technician begins to investigate the issue and notices a lot of unknown processes running in the background. The technician determines that the user has recently downloaded a new application from the internet and may have become infected with malware. Which of the following types of infections does the workstation MOST likely have? Rootkit Trojan Ransomware Keylogger

OBJ-2.4: A trojan is a type of malware that looks legitimate but can take control of your computer. A Trojan is designed to damage, disrupt, steal, or in general, inflict some other harmful action on your data or network. The most common form of a trojan is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT), which allows an attacker to control a workstation or steal information remotely. To operate, a trojan will create numerous processes that run in the background of the system.

A hospital's file server has become infected with malware. The files on the server all appear to be encrypted and cannot be opened. The network administrator receives an email from the attacker asking for 20 bitcoin in exchange for the decryption key. Which type of malware MOST likely infected these computers? Spyware Rootkit Ransomware Keylogger

OBJ-2.4: Ransomware is a type of malware designed to deny access to a computer system or data until a ransom is paid. Ransomware typically spreads through phishing emails or by unknowingly visiting an infected website. Once infected, a system or its files are encrypted, and then the decryption key is withheld from the victim unless payment is received.

Which of the following types of attacks are usually used as part of a man-in-the-middle attack? DDOS Spoofing Brute force Tailgating

OBJ-2.5: A man-in-the-middle attack (MITM) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. One example of a MITM attack is active eavesdropping. The attacker makes independent connections with the victims and relays messages between them to make them believe they are talking directly to each other over a private connection. In fact, the entire conversation is controlled by the attacker. The attacker must intercept all relevant messages passing between the two victims and inject new ones. Spoofing is often used to inject the attacker into the conversation path between the two parties.

You are working as a penetration tester and have discovered a new method of exploiting a vulnerability within the Windows 10 operating system. You conduct some research online and discover that a security patch against this particular vulnerability doesn't exist yet. Which type of threat would this BEST be categorized as? Brute force DDOS Zero-day Spoofing

OBJ-2.5: A zero-day attack happens once that flaw, or software/hardware vulnerability, is exploited, and attackers release malware before a developer has an opportunity to create a patch to fix the vulnerability, hence the term zero-day.

A cybersecurity analyst from BigCorp contacts your company to notify them that several of your computers were seen attempting to create a denial of service condition against their servers. They believe your company has become infected with malware, and those machines were part of a larger botnet. Which of the following BEST describes your company's infected computers? Zero-day Monsters Bugs Zombie

OBJ-2.5: A zombie is a computer connected to the internet that has been compromised by a hacker, computer virus, or trojan horse program and can be used to perform malicious tasks of one sort or another under remote direction. Botnets of zombie computers are often used to spread email spam and launch denial-of-service attacks (DoS attacks).

A cybersecurity analyst notices that an attacker is trying to crack the WPS pin associated with a wireless printer. The device logs show that the attacker tried 00000000, 00000001, 00000002 and continued to increment by 1 number each time until they found the correct PIN of 13252342. Which of the following type of password cracking was being performed by the attacker? Rainbow table Hybrid Brute-force Dictionary

OBJ-2.5: Brute-force attack when an attacker uses a set of predefined values to attack a target and analyze the response until he succeeds. Success depends on the set of predefined values. If it is larger, it will take more time, but there is a better probability of success. In a traditional brute-force attack, the passcode or password is incrementally increased by one letter/number each time until the right passcode/password is found.

Which attack method is MOST likely to be used by a malicious employee or insider trying to obtain another user's passwords? Man-in-the-middle Phishing Tailgating Shoulder surfing

OBJ-2.5: While all of the methods listed could be used by a malicious employee or insider to obtain another user's passwords, shoulder surfing is the MOST likely to be used. Shoulder surfing is a type of social engineering technique used to obtain information such as personal identification numbers (PINs), passwords, and other confidential data by looking over the victim's shoulder. Since a malicious employee or insider can work in close proximity to their victims (other users), they could easily use this technique to collect the passwords of the victimized users.

You are working in a doctor's office and have been asked to set up a kiosk to allow customers to check-in for their appointments. The kiosk should be secured, and only customers to access a single application used for the check-in process. You must also ensure that the computer will automatically log in whenever the system is powered on or rebooted. Which of the following types of accounts should you configure for this kiosk? Remote Desktop User Power User Guest Administrator

OBJ-2.6: A Windows guest account will let other people use your computer without being able to change PC settings, install apps, or access your private files. The Guest account from Windows is a standard, local user account with minimal permissions. The Guest account can only use applications installed on the computer/kiosk before the Guest account was enabled.

David is a brand new help desk technician. To perform his job, he needs to install programs and printers but should not have full access to change everything on a Windows workstation. Which of the following types of user accounts should David be given to perform his job as a help desk technician? Power User Administrator Remote Desktop User Guest

OBJ-2.6: By default, the rights and permissions that are granted to the Power Users group include those rights and permissions that are required to allow members of the Power Users group to modify computer-wide settings, to install drivers, and to run (or install) non-certified programs. They have many of the permissions of an administrator but without the ability to change everything in a Windows workstation.

Which of the following describes the security method used when a user enters their username and password only once and gains access to multiple applications? Inheritance Permission propagation Multifactor authentication SSO

OBJ-2.6: Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication process that allows users to access multiple applications with one set of login credentials. SSO is a common procedure in enterprises, where a client accesses multiple resources connected to a local area network (LAN).

Dion Training will be hiring 10 college students as interns to work over the summer. Each year, the same interns will work for the company for 8 weeks, but then they will return to school. Next summer, they will return to the company and will need to reaccess their accounts. What is the BEST policy to use so that the interns can use the accounts during the summer but cannot log in during the school year? Reset the user accounts at the end of each summer Delete the user accounts at the end of each summer Restrict the user accounts using login hours Disable the user accounts at the end of each summer

OBJ-2.7: If the accounts are disabled at the end of the summer, the interns will be unable to log in again until their accounts are enabled again when they return next summer. This is the best method since deleting the accounts would require the interns to get new accounts each summer, and they would lose all their data and configurations.

A cybersecurity analyst is auditing your company's network logs and identifies that a USB mass storage device was previously inserted into many of the company's servers. The logs also showed dozens of failed login attempts before a successful login occurring on the servers. Which TWO of the following actions are recommended to eliminate the vulnerabilities identified by the cybersecurity analyst? Lockout the account after 3 failed login attempts Change the default credentials on the servers Modify the AutoRun settings Install a host-based firewall on the servers Remove administrative permissions Install the operating system security updates

OBJ-2.7: Since the USB mass storage device was used to connect to the servers, it is recommended to modify the AutoRun settings. To prevent the password guessing attacks used, the servers should be configured to lock out any account after 3 failed login attempts.

A small business network was recently infected by a piece of malware from a USB drive that copied sensitive data from a computer, infected the system, and then spread across the network by infecting other systems. Which of the following actions could have prevented this type of attack from occurring? Enforcing the use of complex passwords Replacing the default credentials on the system Enabling full disk data encryption Disabling AutoRun on the computer

OBJ-2.7: The Windows AutoRun feature is turned on by default on most Windows versions, allowing programs to run from an external device as soon as it is attached to a computer. Malware can exploit the AutoRun feature and allow it to spread its payload from your external USB device to a computer. For this reason, users should disable the AutoRun feature.

our company failed a recent security audit. The IT Directory has issued a new policy dictating that all workstations must be locked when not in use for more than 2 minutes. A password must be entered before booting up the operating system, and that the hard drive is fully encrypted. You have been asked to configure the corporate workstations to enforce these new security measures. Which THREE of the following should you configure FIRST? Enable BitLocker Enable strong passwords Require multifactor authentication Enable a UEFI password Require the use of smart cards Enable a screen lock

OBJ-2.7: These requirements can be met by enabling BitLocker to encrypt the hard drive, enable a UEFI password to require a password to be entered before booting an operating system, and enabling a screen lock that turns on after 2 minutes of inactivity.

Regardless of what website Michelle types into her browser, she is being redirected to "malwarescammers.com." What should Michelle do to fix this problem? Reset the web browser's proxy setting Rollback the application to the previous version Restart the network services Update the anti-virus software and run a full system scan

OBJ-3.2: When a browser redirect occurs, it usually results from a malicious proxy server setting being added to the browser. Michelle should first check her web browser's configuration for any malicious proxies under the Connections tab. Next, she should check the hosts.ini file to ensure that no single sites are being redirected.

Your supervisor has requested remote access to a particular server to check on specific data and processes in the evenings and weekends. You are concerned that the server could become infected and want to take some precautions. Which of the following is the MOST important thing to do before granting remote access to the server to your supervisor? Educate your supervisor on safe internet browsing techniques Set the server's anti-virus software to automatically update itself and perform a full scan every Saturday night Disable internet access from the server outside of normal business hours Install the latest security updates and patches to the server

OBJ-2.7: To prevent infection, it is important that all servers and workstations remain patched and up to date on their security updates. After that, the next best thing would be to set up the anti-virus to automatically update itself daily and run a full scan nightly. Beyond that, educating your supervisor would be a good idea, as well.

Chris just downloaded a new third-party email client for his smartphone. When Chris attempts to log in to his email with his username and password, the email client generates an error messaging stating that "Invalid credentials" were entered. Chris assumes he must have forgotten his password, so he resets his email username and password and then reenters them into the email client. Again, Chris receives an "Invalid credentials" error. What is MOST likely causing the "Invalid credentials" error regarding Chris's email client? His smartphone has full device encryption enabled His email account is locked out His email account requires multifactor authentication His email account requires a strong password to be used

OBJ-2.8: If a user or system has configured their email accounts to require two-factor authentication (2FA) or multifactor authentication, then even if they enter their username and password correctly in the third-party email client, they will receive the "Invalid credentials" error message. Some email servers will allow the user to create an Application Specific Password to bypass the multifactor authentication requirement to overcome this. The user will have to use an email client that supports multifactor authentication.

A business owner's smartphone contains a lot of her customer's PII. Unfortunately, the business owner refuses to set up the phone to automatically wipe the data if the phone is lost or stolen because the data is precious. Based on the business owner's refusal to allow automatic wiping of the data, which of the following is the next BEST method of securing the phone? Enable a passcode lock on the device Enable a swipe lock on the device Enable a PIN lock on the device Enable a fingerprint lock on the device

OBJ-2.8: Out of the options provided, the use of a fingerprint lock would be considered the best or strongest protection. This would ensure that only the user who owns the phone can unlock it since the swipe, PIN, or passcode lock could be compromised since they rely only on the knowledge of a secret pattern or code. By requiring a fingerprint, it ensures the user is present with the device to unlock it.

SecureCorp is worried about the security of the data on their corporate smartphones if they are lost or stolen. The Chief Security Officer has instructed that the devices be configured so that unauthorized users cannot access the data. Which TWO of the following settings would provide the BEST security and protection for the corporate smartphones' data? Enable device lockouts after 3 failed attempts Enable full device encryption Require complex passwords Configure the ability to perform a remote wipe Disable the installation of application from untrusted sources Enable a pattern lock

OBJ-2.8: The BEST protections for the data would involve enabling full disk encryption and configuring the ability to perform a remote wipe. Even if the device is lost or stolen, the device's data would be unreadable if it was using full disk encryption. Additionally, by configuring the ability to wipe the device's storage remotely, the data would be erased before a thief can access it.

Your company works as a contractor to the military and has just finished replacing about 500 workstations across its secure network. You have been asked to properly dispose of the workstations and destroy the data on their hard disk drives. Which of the following methods would be the MOST effective? Conduct a low-level format of each hard drive Degauss each of the hard drives Physically destroy the drives by drilling each HDD's platter Fully format each hard drive with a series of 0s

OBJ-2.9: Degaussing is the process of erasing/wiping a hard disk drive or magnetic tape. When exposed to the powerful magnetic field, the magnetic data on a hard disk is neutralized or erased. Degaussing is the guaranteed form of hard drive erasure and is considered fast and efficient, especially with many hard drives. While the other options will erase or delete the data, they are much more time consuming since each drive must be formatted or destroyed individually. With an industrial degausser, multiple hard drives can be destroyed at once, and they take less than a minute to degauss the hard drives.

You have been asked to recycle 20 of your company's old laptops. The laptops will be donated to a local community center for underprivileged children. Which of the following data destruction and disposal methods is MOST appropriate to allow the data on the drives to be fully destroyed and the drives to be reused by the community center? Low-level formatting of the HDDs Standard formatting of the HDDs Drill/hammer the HDD platters Degaussing of the HDDs

OBJ-2.9: Low-level formatting is a hard disk operation that should make recovering data from your storage devices impossible once the operation is complete. It sounds like something you might want to do if giving away a hard disk or perhaps discarding an old computer that may have contained useful and important private information. Standard formatting of the drives could allow the data to be restored and make the data vulnerable to exposure. Drilling or hammers the HDD platters would physically destroy the drives and the data, making the laptops useful for the community center. Degaussing the drives would also render the drives useless to the community center. Therefore, the safest method is a low-level format since it fully destroys the data and allows the drives to be reused by the community center.

Your company wants to get rid of some old paper files. The files contain PII from previous customers, including their names, birth dates, and social security numbers. Which of the following are the appropriate data destruction and disposal techniques that should be utilized for these papers? Cross-cut shredder Recycling bin Micro-cut shredder Strip-cut shredder

OBJ-2.9: The three most common types are; strip-cut, cross-cut, and micro-cut. The strip-cut machines shred long vertical pieces, as cross-cut adds horizontal cuts to make the shred pieces even smaller. Micro-cut machines shred to an even higher level of security, essentially converting your documents into tiny particles.

Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation's memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message they see displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed? NTLDR not found Operating system not found BIOS ROM checksum error No boot device available

OBJ-3.1: "No boot device available" is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were "Operating system not found" or "NTLDR not found," this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The "BIOS ROM checksum error" would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.

Your Windows 10 machine has just crashed. Where should you look to identify the cause of the system crash and how to fix it? MAC BSOD MITM DDOS

OBJ-3.1: A stop error, commonly called the blue screen of death, blue screen, or BSoD, is an error screen displayed on a Windows computer system following a fatal system error. It indicates a system crash, in which the operating system has reached a condition where it can no longer operate safely. Each BSOD displays a "stop code" that can research the cause of the error and how to solve it.

Whenever you reboot your domain controller, you notice it takes a very long time to boot up. As the server is booting, you hear noises that sound like a steady series of clicks coming from the hard drive. Which of the following is the BEST action to help speed up the boot time of the server? Defragment the hard drive Perform a Disk Cleanup Terminate processes in the Task Manager Remove unnecessary applications from startup

OBJ-3.1: Defragging is a simple process when file fragments are put together to speed up file access. File fragments are put together, and quality defragmentation utilities also assemble the free space into a single block to prevent future fragmentation. By defragmenting the hard drive, the server doesn't have to spend as much time accessing the information, and it can boot up faster. Based on the series of clicking noises, it sounds like the system has to access many parts of the drive to load the files.

A user's computer was running out of storage space, so they decided to install a new second 1 TB hard disk drive (HDD) into their Windows 10 computer. Whenever they attempt to boot up the computer, an error of "No Operating System Found" is displayed on their screen. You unplugged the new 1 TB HDD, and then the computer boots up without any errors. You have just reconnected the 1 TB HDD. What step should you attempt NEXT to fix this issue? Reinstall Windows to the 1 TB HDD Verify the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI Reboot the computer into safe mode Format the 1 TB HDD

OBJ-3.1: If more than one hard drive is connected to the computer, it is important to verify the correct boot order is listed in the BIOS/UEFI. In this scenario, it sounds like the system is configured to boot first from the 1 TB HDD and then from the original HDD. If this order is switched in the boot order, then the system would boot without generating the error message.

A user is complaining that their profile is taking too long to load on their Windows 10 system. Which of the following is the BEST solution to this problem? Disable unnecessary programs from automatically starting up Rebuild your Windows profile Reinstall Windows Reboot the system into Safe Mode

OBJ-3.1: Sometimes, a Windows profile can be corrupted over time, making it slow (or even impossible) to load. If this happens, you should re-create or rebuild the user profile and migrate the user's personal data into the new profile.

You have decided that you wanted to install a second operating system on your computer. After installing the OS and rebooting the computer, you see the "Operating System Not Found" error on your display. You verify that the boot.ini file is configured properly, but the error still appears. What is MOST likely causing this error? Windows Startup services are not properly running An unsupported version of Linux is installed An incompatible partition is marked as active The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally

OBJ-3.1: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

Your son just attempted to start up three programs at once on his Windows 10 Home laptop. The system appears to be unresponsive, and a spinning circle has replaced his mouse cursor on the screen. What is the BEST solution to this problem? Disable the application startup Reboot the system Restart the network services Kill the unresponsive task

OBJ-3.1: When an application becomes unresponsive, it is best to either wait or kill the process. To kill a task or process, open the Task Manager, and click More Details. Then, select the unresponsive task and click End Task.

Peter is attempting to print to his office printer, but nothing comes out. Yesterday, his printer was working just fine. Peter does not notice any errors on the taskbar's printer icon. Which of the following actions should Peter try FIRST to solve this issue? Check that the printer is not offline Cancel all documents and print them again Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer Check the status of the print server queue

OBJ-3.1: When this issue occurs, it is often because the system properly sent the print job to the print queue, but the print queue has become stuck. If no error is shown in the taskbar's printer icon, the user should open the print queue to determine if the print job has become stuck. If it is, then the print queue can be emptied or reset.

Your Windows 10 system is booting up very slowly. Which of the following should you do to speed up the boot process? Reboot the system into Safe Mode Disable unnecessary programs from automatically starting up Rebuild your Windows profile Reinstall Windows

OBJ-3.1: While many of these solutions may decrease boot time, the BEST (and first) thing to attempt is to disable unnecessary applications from automatically starting up. This can be configured from the MSCONFIG tool under the Startup tab.

A workstation was patched last night with the latest operating system security update. This morning, the workstation only displays a black screen. You restart the computer, but the operating system fails to load. What is the NEXT step you should attempt to boot this workstation? Reboot the workstation into safe mode and disable Windows services/applications Reboot the workstation into safe mode and roll back the recent security update Reboot the workstation into the BIOS and reconfigure boot options Reboot the workstation into safe mode, open RegEdit, and repair the Windows Registry

OBJ-3.1: While security updates are designed to make your system more secure, sometimes they can cause issues and make the system unable to boot up fully. If this occurs, the system should be rebooted into safe mode, and the most recent security update should be "rolled back." To roll back an update, hit Windows+I to open the Settings app and then click the "Update & security" option. Then, click "Recovery," "Get started," and "Go back to an earlier build" to uninstall the latest update.

One of your Windows services is failing to start when you boot up your laptop. You have checked the service in the Windows Services tool and verified it is set to Automatic. What should you attempt to do NEXT to get the service to startup? Update the operating system Reboot into Safe Mode and see if the service starts Restore from backup Run chkdsk on the system

OBJ-3.1: Windows Services are applications that typically start when the computer is booted and run quietly in the background until it is shut down. For the Windows operating system to run smoothly, Windows Services must start when required. Many times, non-Microsoft services or Drivers can interfere with the proper functioning of System Services.

Barbara received a phone call from a colleague asking why she sent him an email with lewd and unusual content. Barbara doesn't remember sending the email to the colleague. What is Barbara MOST likely the victim of? Hijacked email Phishing Ransomware Spear phishing

OBJ-3.2: Barbara is MOST likely the victim of hijacked email. Hijacked email occurs when someone takes over your email account and sends out messages on your behalf. Hijacked email can occur after a system is taken over by an attacker. The victim usually finds out about it when someone asks about an email the victim sent them, or the victim sees an automated out of office reply from one of the recipients of the victim's emails.

A home user contacts the help desk and states that their desktop applications are running very slowly. The user also says that they have not received any emails all morning, but they normally get at least 5-10 emails each day. The help desk technician gets permission from the home user to remotely access their computer and runs some diagnostic scripts. The technician determines that the CPU performance is normal, the system can ping the local router/gateway, and the system can load websites slowly, or they fail to load completely. During the diagnosis, the technician also observes the remote connection dropping and reconnecting intermittently. Which of the following should the technician attempt to perform NEXT to resolve the user's issue? Boot into the BIOS setup, enable TPM, reboot into safe mode, and perform a System Restore Empty the web browser's cache, send a test email to the technician's personal account, and open the Explorer to check the file system Update the anti-virus software, run a full scan of the system, and verify the web browser's and email client's settings Reboot into safe mode, uninstall the last OS update, and run a CHKDSK against the hard

OBJ-3.2: Based on the symptoms, it appears that the system may be infected with malware. Therefore, it would be best to attempt to remediate the system by updating the anti-virus, performing a full system scan, and verifying that the web browser and email client's settings are correct.

When Jonathan opens the web browser on his computer, the initial page loads up to a search engine that he does not recognize. Jonathan attempts to use the search engine, but the results are abysmal, and the browser creates numerous pop-ups. Jonathan asks for your assistance in fixing this issue. Which TWO of the following actions do you recommend Jonathan perform first? Uncheck any unapproved applications from the Startup tab in MSCONFIG Reset the web browser to the default settings and configuration Tell Jonathan to switch to a different web browser Delete the web browser's cache, temporary files, and cookies Reboot Jonathan's computer and install a second anti-virus program Update Jonathan's web browser to the latest version

OBJ-3.2: Browser redirection and pop-ups are a common symptom of malware being installed on a computer. It is recommended that the web browser be reset to its default settings and configurations to remove any redirection settings that the malware may have made to the browser. Additionally, any unapproved applications should be unchecked from the Startup tab in MSCONFIG to ensure the malware isn't reloaded during the next reboot.

A customer brought in a computer that has been infected with a virus. Since the infection, the computer began redirecting all three of the system's web browsers to a series of malicious websites whenever a valid website is requested. You quarantined the system, disabled the system restore, and then perform the remediation to remove the malware. You have scanned the machine with several anti-virus and anti-malware programs and determined it is now cleaned of all malware. You attempt to test the web browsers again, but a small number of valid websites are still being redirected to a malicious website. Luckily, the updated anti-virus you installed blocked any new malware from infecting the system. Which of the following actions should you perform NEXT to fix the redirection issue with the browsers? Reformat the system and reinstall the OS Verify the hosts.ini file has not been maliciously modified Perform a System Restore to an earlier date before the infection Install a secondary anti-malware solution on the system

OBJ-3.2: Browser redirection usually occurs if the browser's proxy is modified or the hosts.ini file is modified. If the redirection occurs only for a small number of sites or is occurring in all web browsers on a system, then it is most likely a maliciously modified hosts.ini file. The hosts.ini file is a local file that allows a user to specify specific domain names to map to particular addresses. It works like a very basic DNS server and can be used to redirect a system's internet connection. For example, if your children are overusing YouTube, you can change YouTube.com to resolve to YourSchool.edu for just your child's laptop.

Your company has just installed 50 new LCD monitors to replace some ancient CRT monitors. How should you properly dispose of the old CRT monitors? Give them to charity Haul them to the landfill Recycle them In accordance with local government regulations and handling procedures

OBJ-4.4: When disposing of a CRT monitor, cellphone, tablets, toner, and batteries, you should follow your local government regulations for the proper disposal of these items as they are considered "toxic waste." They may be recycled or reused, but consult your local regulations before making that decision.

Susan is installing several updates on a Windows computer. Nine of the updates were installed without any issues, but one update produced an error and failed to install. Susan restarts the computer as part of the troubleshooting process, and the computer automatically attempts to install the failed update again. Again, the update fails to install. What should Susan do NEXT? Download the update from a third-party website like Source Forge and install it Review the Event Viewer to determine the cause of the failure Manually download and install the failed update Research the error number for the failed update and determine if there is a known issue with this update

OBJ-3.2: If an automated system update fails to install, you should research the error number for the failed update to determine if the issue is a known error. Based on the error code, you can then determine the best method to overcome the issue. For example, a common cause of errors is inadequate space on the hard disk. If a technician needs to determine how to solve this issue best, researching the error code at Microsoft.com can help.

A user receives the following error message: "Windows Update cannot currently check for updates because the service is not running." The user calls the help desk to report the error they received. A support technician uses a remote connection tool to log in to the computer remotely, quickly identifies the issue, and fixes the issue. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? Register the Windows Update service's DLL files Reboot the computer Rollback the device drivers Restart the network services

OBJ-3.2: If any of the .DLL files involved with Windows Update are not correctly registered, you may also encounter this problem. To solve it, open services.msc and stop the Windows Update service. Then, open a Command Prompt as the administrator and use regsvr32 for each of the 6 Windows Update DLL files (wuapi.dll, wuaueng.dll, wups.dll, wups2.dll, wuwebv.dll, and wucltux.dll). Then, open services.msc and restart the Windows Update service. Finally, restart your computer for these changes to take effect.

Madison is trying to open up her anti-malware solution to run a full system scan because she suspects her computer has become infected. When she attempts to run the tool, she receives an error of "Access denied." What security issue is MOST likely occurring? Rogue anti-virus Renamed system files File permission change Disappearing files

OBJ-3.2: If the user receives an "access denied" error message, it indicates that the file permissions have been changed. If the system files were renamed or the files disappeared, an error of "file not found" would be seen instead.

A macOS user is browsing the internet in Google Chrome when they see a notification that says, "Windows Enterprise Defender: Your computer is infected with a virus, please click here to remove it!" What type of threat is this user experiencing? Worm Pharming Rogue anti-virus Phishing

OBJ-3.2: Rogue anti-virus is a form of malicious software and internet fraud that misleads users into believing there is a virus on their computer and to pay money for a fake malware removal tool (that actually introduces malware to the computer). It is a form of scareware that manipulates users through fear and a form of ransomware. Since the alert is being displayed on a macOS system but appears to be meant for a Windows system, it is obviously a scam or fake alert and most likely a rogue anti-virus attempting to infect the system.

Sally was checking her email when she noticed that she has several automated replies from emails she doesn't remember sending. What type of attack was Sally MOST likely the victim of? Hijacked email Phishing Spear phishing MITM

OBJ-3.2: Sally is MOST likely the victim of hijacked email. Hijacked email occurs when someone takes over your email account and sends out messages on your behalf. Hijacked email can trigger automated replies indicating that the intended recipient's messages were rejected or that the recipient was out of the office. These "bounce back" emails can indicate to the victim that they have lost control of their email account.

Sam and Mary both work in the accounting department and use web-based software as part of their job. Sam cannot log in to the website using his credentials from his computer, but Mary can log in with her credentials on her computer. Sam asks Mary to login into her account from his computer to see if the problem is with his account or computer. When Mary attempts to log in to Sam's computer, she receives an error. Mary noticed a pop-up notification about a new piece of software on Sam's computer when she attempted to login to the website. Which TWO of the following steps should Mary take to resolve the issue with logging in from Sam's computer? Install a new web browser, reboot Sam's computer, and attempt to log on to the website again from Sam's computer Verify Sam's computer has the correct web browser configuration and settings Have Sam attempt to log on to another website from Sam's computer to see if it works Ask Sam for his username/password in order to log on to the website from Mary's computer Ask Sam about the pop-up notification and determine what new programs he installed on his computer Have Sam clear his browser cache on his computer and then attempt to log on to the website again

OBJ-3.2: Since Mary was able to log in to the website from her computer but not from Sam's, this indicates an issue with Sam's computer and/or web browser. The pop-up notification about the new program being installed indicates that something exists on Sam's computer that doesn't exist on Mary's computer. Therefore, it could be the cause and should be investigated further. Additionally, the browser's configuration should be checked to ensure the correct settings are being used.

A user reports that every time they try to access https://www.diontraining.com, they receive an error stating "Invalid or Expired Security Certificate." The technician attempts to connect to the same site from other computers on the network, and no errors or issues are observed. Which of the following settings needs to be changed on the user's workstation to fix the "Invalid or Expired Security Certificate" error? Date and time User access control Logon times UEFI boot mode

OBJ-3.2: There are two causes of the "Invalid or Expired Security Certificate." The first is a problem with your computer, and the second occurs when the certificate itself has an issue. Since the technician can successfully connect to the website from other computers, it shows that the error is on the user's computer. One of the common causes of an Invalid or Expired Security Certificate error is the clock on the user's computer being wrong. The website security certificates are issued to be valid within a given date range. If the certificate's date is too far outside the date on the computer, the web browser will give you an invalid security certificate error because the browser thinks something is wrong. To fix this, set the computer's clock to the correct date and time.

Edward has just returned to his office after a two-week vacation. When he logs into his email client to access his company email, he notices that he cannot see the shared Customer Service inbox folder in his email client. He contacts the help desk, and they verify that his account is still connected to the domain controller and that it can still send and receive emails successfully. What is the MOST likely happened during Edward's vacation that caused the missing inbox folders in the email client? The internet security options in his email client have been modified The network file share's permission has been modified Edward's user account permission has changed The operating system was updated

OBJ-3.2: While Edward was on vacation, the network file share's permissions have likely been modified. Based on the fact that Edward's account is connected to the domain and can send/receive emails, it cannot be his user account's permissions causing the issue. The internet security options would also prevent him from sending/receiving mail, so that can be eliminated. Even if the operating system were updated, that would not affect the shared inboxes since they reside on the network file shares and not Edward's computer.

Two weeks ago, David's computer was infected with a virus. A technician performed the malware removal process on the machine and removed the infection from the system. Now, many of the symptoms have returned on David's computer. Which of the following steps of the malware removal procedure did the technician MOST likely forget to perform as part of the original remediation? Educate the end-user about how to avoid malware in the future Update the anti-virus software and run a full system scan Quarantine the infected system by removing its network connectivity Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows)

OBJ-3.3: If a technician neglects to educate the end-user about avoiding malware in the future, they will likely get their computer infected again. For example, educating the user on best practices like being cautious when opening an attachment or clicking a link in an email, instant message, or post on social networks can prevent future infections.

A factory worker suspects that a legacy workstation is infected with malware. The workstation runs Windows XP and is used as part of an ICS/SCADA system to control some industrial factory equipment. The workstation is connected to an isolated network that cannot reach the internet. The workstation receives the patterns for the manufactured designs through a USB drive. A technician is dispatched to remove the malware from this workstation. After its removal, the technician provides the factory worker with a new USB drive to move the pattern files to the workstation. Within a few days, the factory worker contacts the technician again to report the workstation appears to be reinfected with malware. Which of the following steps did the technician MOST likely forget to perform to prevent reinfection? Quarantine the infected system Update the anti-malware solution Disable System Restore (in Windows) Identify and research malware symptoms Remediate the infected systems Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows)

OBJ-3.3: Since the workstation is isolated from the internet, the anti-malware solution will need to be manually updated to ensure it has the latest virus definitions. Without the latest virus definitions, the system can easily become reinfected.

Matt has identified that a user's system contains malware. According to the malware removal procedures, what should Matt do NEXT? Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows) Quarantine the infected system by removing its network connectivity Update the anti-virus software and run a full system scan Educate the end-user about how to avoid malware in the future

OBJ-3.3: The seven steps of the malware removal procedures are (1) Identify and research malware symptoms, (2) Quarantine the infected systems, (3) Disable System Restore (in Windows), (4) Remediate the infected systems, update the anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques (safe mode, pre-installation environment), (5) Schedule scans and run updates, (6) Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows), and (7) Educate the end-user.

What is the FIFTH step of the seven-step malware removal process? Remediate the infected systems Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows) Schedule scans and run updates Identify and research malware symptoms

What is the FIRST step of the seven-step malware removal process? Quarantine the infected system Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows) Update the applications and the operating system Identify and research malware symptoms

What is the SEVENTH step of the seven-step malware removal process? Enable System Restore and create a restore point (in Windows) Educate the end-user Quarantine the infected system Update the applications and the operating system

Nicole's smartphone works fine when she is at work or the mall, but she has limited bandwidth on the device when she is at home. Nicole has asked you to help her. What is the FIRST step you should take in troubleshooting this issue? Reset the smartphone's wireless network settings Reset the data usage statistics on the smartphone Update the smartphone's applications or OS Verify the smartphone is connected to the correct SSID

OBJ-3.5: Most likely, Nicole's smartphone is connecting to a neighbor's wireless network instead of her own. This network likely has a lower signal strength since it is outside her home, and this is causing the limited or slow bandwidth. Therefore, you should first verify that Nicole is connected to the proper wireless network before conducting any additional troubleshooting.

You have just run an anti-virus scan on a workstation, discovered about 25 different malicious items, and successfully removed them. You have scheduled a daily scan of the workstation, enabled the System Restore function, and created a new restore point. What is the NEXT step in the malware removal process? Quarantine the infected system Update the applications and the operating system Remediate the infected systems Educate the end-user

A user is complaining that their touchscreen on their smartphone is not responding to their touch. What is the FIRST step you recommend to solve this issue? Reinstall the OS Have the user restart the device Replace the defective touchscreen Enable and disable airplane mode

OBJ-3.4: If a smartphone's touchscreen is unresponsive, the first step is to restart (or reboot) the device. This will cause the operating system and its device drivers to be reloaded and normally restore the touchscreen's functionality if it is a software issue.

Your boss from work just sent you an important email, but you are not in the office. You tried to open the email from your smartphone, but it is encrypted and won't open. What should you do? Ask your boss to resend the email in an unencrypted format Verify the digital certificate is installed on the device Ask your boss to resend the email to your Gmail account instead Open the email using your device's web browser and your corporate webmail

OBJ-3.4: If an encrypted email does not open in your mail app, you most likely need to verify that your digital certificates are properly installed on the device as these are used to decrypt encrypted emails.

Your Android device's battery is advertised to last 12 hours, but it drains almost completely within 90 minutes. What should you do FIRST to try and solve this problem? Enable airplane mode to save battery Dim your phone's display Check which apps are using the most battery life Reboot your phone

OBJ-3.4: If your battery is dying faster than in the past, see whether apps are using too much battery. You can force stop or uninstall problem apps. If your device is infected with malware, this can also drastically reduce your battery life, and the malware should be removed.

An Android user recently cracked their screen and had it replaced. If they are in a dark room, the phone works fine. If the user enters a room with normal lights on, then the phone's display is dim and hard to read. What is MOST likely the problem? Faulty ambient light sensor Auto-brightness is disabled Low battery Defective display

OBJ-3.4: The ambient light sensor appears to be broken or malfunctioning. The ambient light sensor may be too sensitive as it is taking in more light than usual. This can occur if the sensor is faulty or if the screen was replaced incorrectly, and the technician forgot to install the black gasket around the ambient light sensor.

A user is having an issue with a specific application on their Android devices. The user works for LearnCorp, and every employee has the exact same model of smartphone issued by the company. Whenever the user attempts to launch the application, the app fails and generates an error message. Which of the following should the technician attempt FIRST to solve this issue? Reinstall the malfunctioning application Roll back the application to the previous version Update the operating system of the two smartphones Clear the local application cache

OBJ-3.4: To solve an issue with a mobile application, you should normally attempt the following steps. First, clear the application cache since this locally stored information can become glitchy and cause an app to crash. If you have two of the same smartphones having the same issue, it is unlikely to be the application cache causing the issue. In this case, the technician would then attempt to update the OS of the smartphones. Updating the operating system can minimize compatibility issues and fix crashing applications. Third, you can try reinstalling the application if the other two options don't work.

A smartphone user notices that their phone gets very hot, and their battery is draining quickly. Even when the phone is in their pocket, the phone gets hot to the touch. What is likely the problem? The touchscreen is faulty The battery is depleted The smartphone is infected with malware and using a lot of processing power The charging port is faulty

OBJ-3.4: When a smartphone is being heavily used (runaway processes, GPS, heavy data transfer), it generates more heat. If the device is generating a lot of heat and the battery is draining quickly, even with the phone in "sleep mode" in your pocket, this could indicate that the phone is infected with malware. If the phone is powered down and still generates a lot of heat, this could be a faulty battery.

Christina recently purchased a new Android smartphone and is going on a trip. At the airport, she found a public wireless network called "FreeAirportWiFi" and connects to it. She noticed a question mark (?) icon showing in the toolbar next to the Wi-Fi icon. Christina attempts to open a webpage but gets an error of "The page cannot be displayed." She begins to troubleshoot the device by verifying that the airplane mode is disabled, Bluetooth is enabled, and tethering is enabled. Next, Christina attempts to make a phone call, which works without any issues. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue with Christina's smartphone? The smartphone is connected to the FreeAirportWifi but is not unauthenticated yet The smartphone does not have a valid data plan enabled The smartphone can only support 3G data networks The smartphone's SIM card is deactivated

OBJ-3.4: When an Android smartphone is connected to the Wi-Fi but shows a question mark (?) next to the Wi-Fi's radio icon, this indicates that there is a lack of internet connectivity on the current wireless network. It appears that Christina's smartphone is fully connected to the FreeAirportWiFi, but she has not completed the authentication. These types of public wireless networks often have a captive portal or redirect page with the Acceptable Use Policy that must be accepted before giving the smartphone full connectivity to the internet. Once the acceptance is made to the captive portal, the smartphone is logically connected to the internet, and the question mark will be removed.

A user is complaining about slow data speeds when they are at home in a large apartment building. The user uses Wi-Fi when they get home, and the device works fine on other wireless networks they connect to. Which of the following actions should the user take to increase their data speeds? Increase the Wi-Fi signal being transmitted by their WAP Enable MAC filtering on their WAP Upgrade to a new smartphone Turn off Wi-Fi and rely on their cellular data plan

OBJ-3.5: Slow data speeds can be caused by too much interference or a weak signal. Try changing the channel on Wi-Fi routers to less-used channels or boost the signal being transmitted, and the performance should increase. Alternatively, if the cellular signal is too low, you can install a signal booster or microcell in the home or office.

You noticed that your personal files in your Dropbox had been accessed while you were sleeping. Which of the following threats is this an example of? Unauthorized account access Unintended Bluetooth pairing Unauthorized location tracking Unauthorized microphone activation

OBJ-3.5: Unauthorized account access can give users access to personal files and data they should not have access to. Therefore, you should closely monitor your account usage.

Your smartphone just displayed a notification stating that a new pair of headphones has connected to your device. Which of the following threats is this an example of? Unauthorized location tracking Unauthorized microphone activation Unauthorized account access Unintended Bluetooth pairing

OBJ-3.5: When anonymous devices are allowed to connect to Bluetooth-enabled devices, this is known as unintended Bluetooth pairing, and it represents a security threat. Mobile security policies should be created and enforced that prevent this from occurring.

The paparazzi have found copies of pictures of a celebrity's new baby online. The celebrity states they were never publicly released but were uploaded to their cloud provider's automated photo backup. Which of the following threats was the celebrity MOST likely a victim of? Leaked personal files Unauthorized camera activation Unintended Bluetooth pairing Unauthorized root access

OBJ-3.5: When authorized users access devices through unintended connections or unauthorized users get their hands on absconded devices, they can access data on the device(s) that they were never intended to see. Every firm should have a policy for protecting data (encryption) and dealing with leaks when they occur.

Your smartphone's battery has been draining quickly. You have looked at the applications that are causing the drain and notice that a free game runs in the background, collecting GPS data even when you aren't using it. Which of the following threats is this an example of? Unauthorized location tracking Unauthorized microphone activation Unauthorized account access Unintended Bluetooth pairing

OBJ-3.5: While location-based data can be valuable when using maps and trying to find sites, it can also give away sensitive information if accessed by someone who should not have it. You can optimize your battery life and protect yourself by turning off Location Services. On an iPhone, turn off in Settings > Privacy > Location Services. There you will see each app listed along with its permission setting. Apps that recently used location services have an indicator next to the on/off switch, and you can configure them accordingly.

Which of the following would NOT be included in a company's password policy? Password complexity requirements Password history Password age Password style

OBJ-4.1: A password policy is a set of rules designed to enhance computer security by encouraging users to employ strong passwords and use them properly. A password policy is often part of an organization's official regulations and may be taught as part of security awareness training. It contains items like password complexity, password age, and password history requirements.

Your network administrator has handed you some documentation showing you which switch ports on a patch panel you need to connect with a CAT 5e patch cable for an upcoming network upgrade. What document are you MOST likely holding? Physical network diagram Process flow diagram Logical network diagram Inventory management plan

OBJ-4.1: A physical network diagram shows the actual physical arrangement of the components that make up the network, including cables and hardware. Typically, the diagram gives a bird's eye view of the network in its physical space, like a floorplan. A logical network diagram describes the way information flows through a network. Therefore, logical network diagrams typically show subnets (including VLAN IDs, masks, and addresses), network devices like routers and firewalls, and routing protocols.

Every new employee at Dion Training must sign a document to show they understand the proper rules for using the company's computers. This document states that the new employee has read the policy that dictates what can and cannot be done from the corporate workstations. Which of the following documents BEST describes this policy? MOU SLA AUP SOW

OBJ-4.1: An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate network or the internet. For example, it may state that they must not attempt to break the security of any computer network, user, or prohibits visiting pornographic websites from their work computer.

You are a member of a project team contracted to install twenty new wireless access points (WAPs) for a college campus. Your team has already determined the locations for the new WAPs and notated them in the physical and logical network diagrams. Your team is still finalizing the change request documents for the installation. The project cannot move forward with the installation until the change request is finalized and approved. Which of the following is the MOST important thing to add to the SOW and change request before its approval? Risk analysis Backout plan End-user acceptance Plan for change

OBJ-4.2: A backout plan is an IT governance integration approach that specifies the processes required to restore a system to its original or earlier state in the event of failed or aborted implementation. Any installation or upgrade should include a backout plan as part of the change request and change plan. That way, if something goes wrong with the installation, then the team can "backout" and restore service on the legacy/previous system.

After installation or change has been implemented, which of the following is necessary before closing the change request? Risk analysis Plan for the change Change Board's approval End-user acceptance

OBJ-4.2: After the installation or implementation of the change, the end-user acceptance must be received. If the end-user hasn't approved the installation or change, then the project or ticket cannot be closed out.

A web server has a planned firmware upgrade for Saturday evening. During the upgrade, the power to the building is lost, and the firmware upgrade fails. Which of the following plans should be implemented to revert to the most recent working version of the firmware on the webserver? Alternative plan Backout plan Contingency plan Backup plan

OBJ-4.2: Since the intended change or upgrade has failed, the backout plan should be initiated. A backout plan is an IT governance integration approach that specifies the processes required to restore a system to its original or earlier state in the event of failed or aborted implementation. Any installation or upgrade should include a backout plan as part of the change request and change plan. That way, if something goes wrong with the installation, then the team can "backout" and restore service on the legacy/previous system (or older version of the firmware in this case).

You are concerned that your servers could be damaged during a blackout or brownout. Which TWO devices would protect against blackouts and brownouts? Battery backup Grounding the server rack Surge suppressor Line conditioner

OBJ-4.3: A blackout is a total loss of power in a particular area. A brownout is a reduction in or restriction on the availability of electrical power in a particular area. The irregular power supply during the brownout can ruin your computer and other electronic devices. Electronics are created to operate at specific voltages, so any fluctuations in power (both up and down) can damage them. To protect against a brownout, you can use either a battery backup or a line conditioner. To protect against a blackout, a battery backup should be used.

A flat panel television was just installed in a conference room in your office building. The facilities manager is concerned that it could be damaged during a lightning strike. The conference room is only used a few times a week, so the company is not concerned about the threat of power outages. Which of the following should be installed to BEST mitigate the facilities manager's concerns without spending too much money? Power strip Surge protector UPS Line conditioner

OBJ-4.3: A surge protector defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. A power strip will not protect against voltage spikes. A UPS or line conditioner could protect against voltage spikes, but they cost much more than a surge protector. To best meet the requirements of this question, a surge protector should be used.

Karen lives in an area that is prone to hurricanes and other extreme weather conditions. She asks you to recommend an electrical conditioning device that will prevent her files from being corrupted if the building's power is unstable or lost. Additionally, she would like the computer to maintain power for up to an hour of uptime to allow for a graceful shutdown of her programs and computer. Which of the following should you recommend? Surge protector Power distribution unit Uninterruptible power supply Line conditioner

OBJ-4.3: An uninterruptible power supply or uninterruptible power source (UPS) is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source becomes too low or the main power fails. A UPS provides near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions by using a battery backup. The on-battery run-time of most uninterruptible power sources is usually short (less than 60 minutes) but sufficient to shut down a computer system properly.

A small business recently experienced a catastrophic data loss due to flooding from a recent hurricane. The customer had no backups, and all of the hardware associated with the small business was destroyed during the flooding. As part of the rebuilding process, the small business contracts with your company to help create a disaster recovery plan to ensure this never reoccurs again. Which of the following recommendations should you include as part of the disaster recovery plan? Purchase waterproof devices to prevent data loss Backups should be conducted to a cloud-based storage solution Local backups should be conducted Local backups should be verified weekly to ensure no data loss occurs

OBJ-4.3: While losing the hardware is a problem for the small business, their insurance will replace the hardware if destroyed in a flood. The data involved is more of a concern. Therefore, backups should be the primary concern. Local backups are risky since they would be destroyed in another flood; therefore, using a cloud-based storage solution would be ideal and prevent future data loss.

Which TWO of the following devices should have a grounding wire attached to them when installed per the manufacturer's recommendations? VOIP device UPS Server rack Patch panel Desktop printer Modem

OBJ-4.4: A server rack and UPS should be installed with a grounding wire attached to them. Grounding is not required for functionality but rather for safety. Numerous issues are involved when there is no ground, including potential for electric shock, signal attenuation, and unpredictable operation.

You are going to replace a power supply in a desktop computer. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST? Verify proper cable management is being used Remove any jewelry Dispose of the power supply Use a grounding probe to discharge the power supply

OBJ-4.4: Before working on a computer or server, you should always remove your jewelry. Jewelry (like bracelets and necklaces) can dangle and come into contact with sensitive components or electrical connections and injure the components or you. Therefore, all jewelry should be removed before working on an electrical system or computer to reduce the risk of shock.

You have been asked to replace a computer's hard drive. Which of the following steps should you take FIRST to prevent an electrical hazard while working on the computer? Connect an ESD strap to yourself to prevent shock Place the computer on a grounded workbench Place the computer and its components on an ESD mat Disconnect the power prior to serving the computer

OBJ-4.4: The FIRST thing that you need to do is disconnect the power to the computer. This will eliminate many electrical hazards and prevent you from getting an electrical shock while working on the machine. After it is disconnected, it is a good idea to use an ESD strap, place the computer and its components on an ESD mat, and work on the computer on top of a grounded workbench.

You are working on upgrading the memory on your friend's laptop. After removing the old memory chips from the laptop, where should you safely store them? Ziplock bags Manila envelopes Cardboard box Antistatic bag

OBJ-4.4: To properly handle and store sensitive components, like a memory chip, you should use an ESD strap and place the components in an antistatic bag. An antistatic bag is a bag used for storing electronic components, which are prone to damage caused by electrostatic discharge (ESD). These bags are usually plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and have a distinctive color (silvery for metalized film, pink or black for polyethylene).

A user cannot open some files on a file server and contacts the help desk for support. The help desk technician troubleshoots the server and notices that all of the server's data backups are operational, but there are large portions of time missing within the event log. The technician remembers that there have been several bad thunderstorms recently during those missing time periods. What might the technician do to prevent these server issues in the future? Install a new battery backup Install a surge protector Replace the server's memory Replace the server's hard drive

OBJ-4.5: The missing time periods in the event logs indicate that the server was powered off during those periods. This is likely to have occurred due to a power loss during the thunderstorms. To prevent these power losses, it is recommended that the servers be connected to a battery backup. When a server is powered off due to a power loss, files can become corrupted and unusable.

A user has asked you for a recommendation for a word processing program for their home computer. The user doesn't want to pay for a license to be able to use the word processor. Based on this, what type of license would you recommend to the user? Enterprise license Corporate license Personal license Open license

OBJ-4.6: An open license or free license is the legal statement that allows free content and free software to be free. Since the customer doesn't want to pay for a license, the user must get a word processing program that uses an open license to not pay for their software. For example, OpenOffice is an open license-based software that provides a word processor that can be used on Windows, Linux, or OS X for free.

You have discovered that an employee has been conducting illegal activities using his workplace computer. You have taken possession of the employee's laptop according to your company's procedures and are waiting to give it to law enforcement authorities. What should you do when turning over the laptop to the police? Maintain the chain of custody Quarantine the system Document the changes Preserve the evidence

OBJ-4.6: Chain of custody (CoC), in legal contexts, is the chronological documentation or paper trail that records the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. The chain of custody must be maintained from when you arrived at the laptop until you turn it over to law enforcement officials.

Your company is expanding its operations in the European Union and is concerned about additional governmental regulations that may apply. Which of the following regulations applies when processing personal data within the European Union? PCI PII GDPR PHI

OBJ-4.6: GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that applies to companies that do business in the European Union. The four forms of regulated data covered by the CompTIA A+ (220-1002) exam are PII (Personally Identifiable Information), PCI (Payment Card Industry), GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), and PHI (Protected Health Information).

You have been asked to classify a hospital's medical records as a form of regulated data. Which of the following would BEST classify this type of data? PCI PII PHI GDPR

OBJ-4.6: Hospital patient records are most accurately categorized as PHI. The four forms of regulated data covered by the CompTIA A+ (220-1002) exam are PII (Personally Identifiable Information), PCI (Payment Card Industry), GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), and PHI (Protected Health Information).

Your company is setting up a system to accept credit cards in their retail and online locations. Which of the following compliance types should you be MOST concerned with dealing with credit cards? PII GDPR PCI PHI

OBJ-4.6: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) applies to companies of any size that accept credit card payments. If your company intends to accept card payment and store, process, and transmit cardholder data, you need to securely host your data and follow PCI compliance requirements.

You are the first help desk technician on the scene of a potential data breach. What is the FIRST thing you need to do as part of the incident response? Preserve the evidence Identify the issue Report it to your supervisor Quarantine the system

OBJ-4.6: When conducting an incident response, you must (1) identify, (2) report, and (3) preserve the data/device.

A customer runs frantically into your computer repair store. He says that his smartphone fell into a puddle, and now it won't turn on. He excitedly tells you that he needs the smartphone working again "right now" and cannot wait. What should you do? When the customer leaves, post about the experience on Facebook Tell the customer to calm down, after all, it is just a phone Explain to the customer that the repairs may take several days Offer the customer the option to replace his phone

OBJ-4.7: It is important to set and meet expectations and timelines when dealing with a customer. If you cannot meet the timeline needed, you should offer different repair/replacement options (if applicable).

A user's computer is experiencing repeated BSODs and calls the service desk. The call is routed to Tier 2 support, and the Tier 2 technician is scheduled for a break in about 2 minutes when the call comes in. Which of the following actions should the technician do? Troubleshoot the issue for the user regardless of how long it takes Answer the phone, put the user on hold, and help them after their scheduled break Ask another Tier 2 technician to answer the call since it will take too long to solve Answer the phone and politely ask the user to call back later

OBJ-4.7: Since the Tier 2 technician already knows that this will take some time to resolve, it would be best to ask another technician to help the user since they are scheduled for their break. It would be improper to either ask the user to call back later or put them on a long hold. While the technician may opt to troubleshoot the user's issue right now, depending on the organization's break structure, that may not be possible. Often in large organizations, break times are scheduled, and if the technician postpones their break, it could have a cascading effect across numerous other technician's schedules.

Which of the following types of remote access technologies should NOT be used in a network due to its lack of security? SSH telnet VPN RDP

OBJ-4.8: Telnet should not be used in a network due to its weak security posture. Telnet transmits all of the data in plain text (without encryption), including usernames, passwords, commands, and data files. For this reason, it should NEVER be used in production networks and has been replaced by SSH in most corporate networks.

You have just completed a repair for a customer's smartphone that took you three days. The customer complained that the repair took too long and began to question you about the steps you took to repair the device. What should you do NEXT? Become defensive and explain why each step was necessary to repair the device Clearly tell the customer that if they had been more careful with the device then it wouldn't have needed to be fixed in the first place Provide documentation of the repair to the customer and thank them for their patience Listen to the customer's complaints with concern and then post about the crazy customer on Facebook

OBJ-4.7: When dealing with a difficult customer or situation, you should follow five key principles. (1) Do not argue with customers and/or become defensive. (2) Avoid dismissing customer problems. (3) Avoid being judgmental. (4) Clarify customer statements (ask open-ended questions to narrow the problem's scope, restate the issue, or question to verify understanding). (5) Do not disclose experiences via social media outlets. The only option provided that follows these principles is to provide documentation of the repair to the customer and thank them for their patience. The other three options all violate these principles.

A customer is complaining that her laptop is too slow. You have thoroughly checked the device but cannot find anything wrong with it. Which of the following is the best thing to say NEXT? "I don't understand what you are complaining about; this laptop seems plenty fast to me." "I found nothing wrong with this laptop that would make it slow." "Excuse me for a moment; my phone is buzzing." "Can you tell me more about the problem? What do you mean by 'it is acting slow'?"

OBJ-4.7: When dealing with a difficult customer or situation, you should follow five key principles. (1) Do not argue with customers and/or become defensive. (2) Avoid dismissing customer problems. (3) Avoid being judgmental. (4) Clarify customer statements (ask open-ended questions to narrow the problem's scope, restate the issue, or question to verify understanding). (5) Do not disclose experiences via social media outlets. The only option that follows these principles is asking the customer a more clarifying, open-ended question. The other three options all violate these principles.

Janice called the help desk to report that her computer will not boot up. The technician begins troubleshooting the issue, but after 20 minutes, the computer is still not booting up. Janice is getting frustrated with the technician, and she tells the technician that she feels that they are wasting her time since the issue isn't resolved yet. How should the technician respond to Janice's frustration? The technician should tell Janice that they are required to follow a specific troubleshooting procedure to identify the issue and solve the problem The technician should ask open-ended questions to properly identify the issue by narrowing down the possible symptoms or causes The technician should "accidentally" hang up the call so that Janice gets a different technician when she calls the help desk again The technician should recommend that Janice call back to the help desk for more assistance when she has more time available

OBJ-4.7: When dealing with frustrated customers, you should clarify the customer's statements by asking open-ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem, restate the issue, or ask questions to verify understanding. Technicians should also avoid arguing with customers, becoming defensive, dismissing customer problems, or becoming judgmental.

You are working on a customer's computer when your cellphone begins to ring. What should you do? Apologize to the customer and send the call to voicemail Answer the phone while continuing to work on the customer's computer Apologize to the customer and answer the phone Ignore the phone and let it continue ringing until it goes to voicemail

OBJ-4.7: When working on a customer's computer, you should avoid distractions. You should not take personal calls, check your text messages, talk to coworkers, or partake in other personal interruptions. It is important to remain professional.

A coworker is creating a file containing a script. You look over their shoulder and see "net use s:\\fileserver\videos" in the file. Based on this, what type of file extension should this script use? .py .bat .vbs .js

OBJ-4.8: A .bat file is used for a batch script. Batch scripts run on the Windows operating system and, in their simplest form, contain a list of several commands that are executed in a sequence. Since "net use" is a Windows command, this is a simple batch (.bat) script.

A coworker is creating a file containing a script. You look over their shoulder and see "#!/bin/bash" as the first line in the file. Based on this, what type of file extension should this script use? .sh .bat .py .vbs

OBJ-4.8: A .sh file is used for a shell script in Linux, macOS (OS X), and Unix. Since the first line says #!/bin/bash, it is a bash script.

You are writing a script that will take an employee's name as the input. Which of the following data types would the employee's name be store in? Integer Float Boolean String

OBJ-4.8: A string is a data type used in programming used to represent text rather than numbers. It is comprised of a set of characters that can also contain spaces and numbers. For example, the word "hamburger" and the phrase "I ate 3 hamburgers" are both strings.

A programmer is writing a script to calculate the disk space needed to perform a daily backup. The programming needs to store the amount of disk space in a temporary place holder within the program that can be updated and changed during the script's execution. Which of the following would be used to store the value of the disk space needed? Comment Loop Variable Constant

OBJ-4.8: A variable is a placeholder in a script containing a number, character, or string of characters. Variables in scripts do not have to be declared (unlike in programming languages) but can be assigned a value. Then, the variable name is referenced throughout the script instead of the value itself.

Your mother just heard that you passed your certification exam and became CompTIA A+ certified. She is so proud of you and needs your help. There is something wrong with her computer, but unfortunately, she doesn't know how to fix it. She asks if you can remotely connect to her computer and see if you can fix it. Which of the following technologies would BEST allow you to remotely access her computer and interact with her Windows 10 laptop? telnet VPN RDP SSH

OBJ-4.8: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol designed to facilitate application data transfer security and encryption between client user devices and a virtual network server. It enables a remote user to add a graphical interface to the desktop of another computer. Whether across the house or the country, you can now help solve your mother's computer problems anytime with RDP!

You are setting up the Remote Desktop Services on a Windows 2019 server. To increase the security of the server, which TWO of the following actions should you take? Disable log on time restrictions on the server Logically place the Windows 2019 server into the network's DMZ Block all unused ports on the switch, router, and firewall Change the default access port for the terminal server Enforce password complexity on the server Force the use of a local client certificate for authentication with the server

OBJ-4.8: To best secure the server, you should logically place the Windows 2019 server into the network's DMZ and block all unused ports on the switch, router, and firewall. Since the server will allow remote connections from across the internet to access the server directly, the server must be placed into the De-Militarized Zone (DMZ) of the network and not in the internal trusted portion of the network. Additionally, any server or services that will be forward-facing to the internet (like a Remote Desktop Services server) should have all of the unused ports blocked on the switch, router, and firewall to minimize the footprint of the network. By blocking unused ports, there are fewer ways for an attacker to get into the network and attack the server.

A client has asked a technician about drive sanitation and wants to know the difference between overwriting a drive and quick formatting a drive. Which of the following would be the best response from the technician? Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to a hard drive, replacing all the data. A quick format only clears the references to the data, so the data is only overwritten as new data is saved to the drive. Overwriting writes 1s and 0s to the drive, which replaces the user's data, but not the OS data. Quick formatting destroys the hard drive. Nothing is different. They both destroy the data so no one can recover it. Overwriting replaces all the data with a single file that fills the hard drive, destroying the data. Quick formatting erases all the data.

Overwritten data cannot be recovered, but a quick format only deletes a drive's master file table without actually deleting any data, so the data on the drive can be recovered. Incorrect Answers: None of the other answers explain the difference between overwriting a drive and performing a quick format.

Which of the following is the BEST description of Safe Mode? · Safe Mode limits system changes. · Safe Mode enables antivirus applications to safely check the system. · Safe Mode uses minimal drivers and all the default settings to aid in troubleshooting. · Safe Mode enables the Plug and Play options to load safely.

Safe Mode uses minimal drivers and all the default settings to aid in troubleshooting. Safe Mode aids in troubleshooting by loading Windows with a minimal set of drivers and default settings. Incorrect Answers: None of the other choices are valid.

On Ed's first day as the one and only IT guy for a small marketing firm, he notices that all the UTP network cable is simply running loose along the floorboards. What is his best course of action? · Tape down the cables where needed. · Hire a network cabling company and upgrade to fiber-optic. · Secure the wires using cable runways. · Abandon the wired network and go wireless.

Secure the wires using cable runways. Correct Answer: In a small network with existing cabling, it is fine to enclose exposed cables in cable runways - although a full-blown replacement to a proper structured cable system isn't a bad idea. Incorrect Answers: Taping down the cables is not very safe nor will it protect the cables. Wireless networking is not always a good option for places that experience a lot of interference. Switching out the cables for fiber-optic ones isn't a bad idea, but it does not solve the problem of loose cables.

An application has frozen on the screen, although other programs are still running. How do you go about removing the frozen program? · Use Task Manager to shut down the program. · Click the Close button in the application's window. · Use the Services Control Panel applet to shut down the program. · Use MSINFO to turn off the program.

Use Task Manager to shut down the program. Correct Answer: The Task Manager can forcibly shut down most errant applications. Incorrect Answers: The Close button cannot force a frozen program to close. The other options cannot control applications at all.

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