CST REVIEW: AST Practice Exams 1-6
130. Which knife blade should be placed on the knife handle when preparing the Mayo stand for a knee arthroscopy?
#11 he surgeon usually uses a #11 knife blade to make the initial stab incision for placement of the trocars.
Which of the following can be achieved with the use of electrocautery? A. Coagulation B. Ablation C. Dessication D. Fulguration
A. Coagulation
The normal range of intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy is?
12-15mm Hg
How often is a medication prescribed as QID to be taken per day?
4 times
The fraction 1/4 is equal to: A. 0.25 B. 0.5 C. 0.75 D. 1
A. 0.25
A patient with indirect and direct hernia has what type of hernia? A. Pantaloon B. Sliding C. Ventral D. Femoral
A. Pantaloon
Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus? a. Broad ligament b. Suspensory ligament c. Levator muscle d. Pubic symphysis
A. Broad ligament
The colon begins at the: A. Cecum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Sigmoid
A. Cecum
The prefix "pseudo-" means: A. False B. Again C. Under D. With
A: False
Which structure articulates with the head of the femur?
Acetabulum
When is it acceptable to open surgical dressing sponges?
After the final count
A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:
Allow for use of pulse oximeter
Where do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
Ampulla of Vater. The pancreatic ducts join at the ampulla of Vater.
What drug classification is Demerol?
Analgesic
Elevated IOP in a glaucoma patient is a result of excess what?
Aqueous humor
Which of the following is not a type of sterilizing agent?
Boiling water
What is the most abundant ion in the body?
Calcium
A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is:
Catabolism
Thought processes take place in the:
Cerebral cortex
Brachytherapy is performed to treat:
Cervical cancer
What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments?
Cryotherapy unit
The instrument below is used to: a. Split muscle b. Resect tendon c. Extend incision d. Cut bone (page 164)
D. Cut bone The Lambotte osteotome is available in varying widths and lengths and has a sharp end making it ideal for cutting bone.
What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site?
Clippers with disposable heads
Which of the following would have a positive effect on wound healing? A. Radiation therapy B. Use of steroids C. Deficiency in vitamin K D. Early ambulation
D. Early ambualtion
92. The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit that allows the flow of free electrons is called the what?
Conductor. Materials that allow the flow of free electrons are called conductors and include copper, aluminum, brass and carbon.
In which of the following cases might the surgeon use a Gigli saw?
Craniotomy
The number of pairs of cranial nerves is: A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12
D. 12
A clamp used for occluding a peripheral vessel is which of the following?A. DuvalB. AllenC. KocherD. DeBakey
DeBakey
125. Air or fluid accumulation due to poorly approximated wound edges could result in what?
Dead space
102. Which heals by contraction, granulation and connective tissue?
Delayed closure. Third intention or delayed primary closure heals by contraction, granulation and connective tissue repair.
What procedure involves a series of treatments that result in permanent placement of prosthetic teeth?
Dental implants
What does the term dys- mean?
Difficult
What type of heart rate does tachycardia describe?
Fast
Which of the following is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?
Ellik
What procedure is performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia?
Endarterectomy
170. The inner lining of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of what type of tissue?
Epithelial
Which method of sterilization requires an aeration cycle?
EtO
The structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx is the:
Eustachian tube
Which catheter is used for an angioplasty?
Fogarty
What is the name of the suction tip shown above?
Frazier
Which type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser?
Halon
What does hypertension mean?
High blood pressure
Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells?
Hyperplasia
The pulse rate of pregnant patients:
Increases
What drug is used to treat hypotension and shock?
Levophed
Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:
Infection
162. What does the suffix -itis mean?
Inflammation
Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?
Iridectomy
An emergency drug given to stabilize ventricular fibrillation is what?
Isoproterenol
Catabolism of fats produces what?
Ketone bodies
Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with:
Lidocaine
Which of the following incisions would be performed for repair for a liver laceration?
Midline
Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?
Mydriatics. Mydriatics are used to dilate the pupil for examination of the retina, refraction testing, or easier removal of the lens.
What is the chemical abbreviation for sodium chloride?
NaCl
A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a:
Needle biopsy
Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place?
OSHA
What does the term 'os' mean?
Opening
Which of these drugs is a miotic?
Pilocarpine
Which surgical procedure may require a suprabubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder?
Prostatectomy
What muscle is commonly used for TRAM reconstruction in a mammoplasty?
Rectus abdominis
Which of the following veins would be harvested during a CABG?
Saphenous
which of the following sutures is contraindicated in the presence of infection?
Silk
Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?
Sodium bicarbonate
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but typically do not destroy:
Spores
In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used?
Stapedectomy
Use of Van Buren sounds might be necessary for urethral catheterization in patients with which of the following?A. Ureteral calculiB. Urethral calculiC. Ureteral strictureD. Urethral stricture
Urethral stricture
The medial malleleolus is part of which bone?
Tibia
During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate:
Tissue approximation
what is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time?
Tissue necrosis
Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy?
To avoid injury to the bladder
What is the principle reason for performing a preoperative skin prep?
To remove transient flora and reduce resident flora
During which of the following procedures is it imperative that the surgical tech maintain the sterility of the back table and mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR?
Tonsillectomy
The instrument shown below would be used during a:
Tonsillectomy
A large, bony process found on the femur is a :
Trochanter
What procedure should be followed for securing consent for surgery for an unconscious patient requiring emergency surgery whose family members or guardian cannot be contacted?
Two consulting physicians agree
Sound waves travel through the external auditory canal and strike the what?
Tympanic membrane
Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?
U-drape. A u-drape is a type of nonfenestrated split sheet. The tails are created by a U-shape in the center of the drape.
Which of the following utilizes the process of cavitation?A. Washer-sterilizerB. Ultrasonic cleanerC. Washer-decontaminatorD. Steam sterilizer
Ultrasonic cleaner
Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?
Ultrasonic washer. The ultrasonic cleaner uses the process of cavitation to remove small organic particles and soil from the areas of instrumentation that can't be accomplished through manual or mechanical cleaning.
53. Which preoperative diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy?
Ultrasound. An ultrasound is performed to confirm fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
which technique is not acceptable when draping?
Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
174. Which of the following applies to a patient who suffers a burn due to improper placement of the patient return electrode?
Unintentional tort. Patient burns are usually considered an unintentional tort or, in other words, an error that is reported as an adverse patient incident.
When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologists should:
Use a clean mop head
Healthcare-acquired infections (HAI) are most commonly associated with which of the following?A. Prolonged bed restB. Use of urinary cathetersC. Surgical site contaminationD. Prescribed antibiotic therapy
Use of urinary catheters
Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of Meniere's disease?
VIII (8 Eight)
89. The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is what? A. V B. VIII C. XI D. XII
VIII (8th). The vestibulocochlear (VIll) is the cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as balance.
The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on which of the following?A. TuboplastyB. Vaginal hysterectomyC. LaparoscopyD. Simple vulvectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy
The instrument above is used during what procedure?
Vaginal hysterectomy
2-27. What procedure is performed to decrease gastric secretions?
Vagotomy To aid in controlling gastric secretions, a vagotomy is performed.
Which of the following instruments would be used to dilate the male urethra?A. PrattB. BakesC. Van BurenD. Hegar
Van Buren
The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an:
Varicocelectomy
Which of the following statements concerning peel-packs is correct?
When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side
The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the:
X (10 Ten)
To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
cecum
Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
incus
What is another name for the Kraske position?
jackknife
The closing sponge count should be initiated at the:
operative field
What type of catheter is used for continuous irrigation and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP? A. Robinson B. Double J C. Mushroom D. 3- way Foley
D. 3- way Foley
Which position is used when performing a gynecologic laparoscopy? A. prone B. sitting C. lateral D.lithotomy
D. A patient is placed in the lithotomy position for a gynecologic laparoscopy in order to gain access to the vaginal opening in which to insert instruments in order to manipulate the cervix during the procedure.
In which of the following surgical procedures would a low-lithotomy position be used? A.pyloromyotomy B. omphalocele repair C. inguinal herniorrhaphy D. abdominoperineal resection
D. An abdominoperineal resection is performed for a lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal incision. It is performed when an anastomosis is not possible. The patient is placed in a low-lithotomy position.
What is the pharmacological action of hydrocortisone? A. Miotic B. Sedative C. Anti-histamine D. Anti-inflammatory
D. Anti-inflammatory
Which division of the nervous system controls involuntary muscle contractions? A. Afferent B. Central C. Somatic D. Autonomic
D. Autonomic
Which of the following surgical instruments is required for repair of a nasal fracture? A. Eve snare B. Pillar retractor C. Hurd disesector D. Bayonet forceps
D. Bayonet forceps. bayonet forceps, speculum, and rasp are all surgical instruments used for repair of a nasal fracture.
Prior to being placed in the Eto sterilizer, items must: a. Not be heat sensitive b. Be lubricated with oil c. Have residual water on their surface d. Be completely dry
D. Be completely dry
The structure connecting the spinal cord with the brain is the: A. Hypothalamus B. Diencephalon C. Cerebellum D. Brain stem
D. Brain stem
Which of the following ligaments suspends the uterus? A. Falciform B. Cruciate C. Treitz D. Broad
D. Broad
The use of silk suture in urinary or biliary tract may result in: A. Emboli B. Stricture C. Dehisence D. Calculi
D. Calculi
Which laser should not be used in the presence of clear fluid? A. Holmium: YAG B. Nd: YAG C. Argon D. Carbon dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide
Where is cerebrospinal fluid formed? A. Auricles B. Superior sagittal sinus C. Cerebellum D. Choroid plexuses
D. Choroid plexuses
The term staphylococcus is the arrangement of: A. Cocci in chains B. Bacilli in clusters C. Bacilli in chains D. Cocci in clusters
D. Cocci in clusters
Which of the following types of fractures result in several bony fragments? A. Spiral B. Greenstick C. Transverse D. Comminuted
D. Comminuted
The mucous membrane covering the eye is called the: A. Choroid B. Retina C. Sclera D. Conjunctiva
D. Conjunctiva
A triangular muscle that abducts the arm and covers the shoulder is the: A. Rhomboideus B. Lastissimus C. Trapezius D. Deltoid
D. Deltoid
A projection on the surface of a bone located above the condyle is called a: A. Tubercele B. Medial condyle C. Tuberosity D. Epicondyle
D. Epicondyle
Streptokinase is uses as a/an: A. Antibiotic B. Coagulant C. Anticoagulant D. Fibrinolytic
D. Fibrinolytic
The prefix "hemi-" means: A. Beneath B. Between C. Not D. Half
D. Half
The only non-articulating bone in the body is the: A. Mastoid B. Vomer C. Sphenoid D. Hyoid
D. Hyoid
The cranial nerve that may be damaged during carotid endarterectomy is the: A. Facial (VII) B. Vagus (X) C. Spinal accessory (XI) D. Hypoglossal (XII)
D. Hypoglossal (XII)
A clinical symptom of shock is: A. Hypervolemia B. Hypoventilation C. Hyperthermia D. Hypotension
D. Hypotension
Which of the following glands regulates body temperature? A. Thalamus B. Adrenal C. Pituitary D. Hypothalamus
D. Hypothalamus
Stat means: A. Delayed B. As necessary C. As directed D. Immediately
D. Immediately
The type of fracture that is caused by forcing one bone upon another is called: A. Oblique B. Greenstick C. Simple D. Impacted
D. Impacted
What is the main element of hemoglobin? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Carbon D. Iron
D. Iron; is the main element contained in hemoglobin
In which surgical procedure would blunt needles be used? A. Face lift B. Eye enucleation C. Valve replacement D. Liver resection
D. Liver resection
Which syringe is the most appropriate for administering a local anesthetic? A. Bulb B. Toomey C. Asepto D. Luer-Lok
D. Luer-Lok
When opening sterile supplies and instruments, where should the gown and gloves for the first scrub surgical technologist be opened? A. Case cart B. OR table C. Backtable D. Mayo stand
D. Mayo stand
Which agent is used to perform a chromotubation? A. Barium sulfate B. Indigo carmine C. Gentian violet D. Methylene blue
D. Methylene blue
What cellular organelle serves as the site of protein synthesis? A. Vacuoles B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria
D. Mitochondria
What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy? A. Ultrasound transducer b. Mass spectrometer c. Dopper probe d. Nerve stimulator
D. Nerve stimulator
Endorphins, enkephalins, dopamine, and serotonin are examples of: A. Electrolytes B. Catecholamines C. Hormones D. Neurotransmitters
D. Neurotransmitters
What does the abbreviation NPO mean? A. No liquids B. Only clear liquids C. No food after midnight D. Nothing by mouth
D. Nothing by mouth
The passage of fluid and dissolved material into the thin membrane of a cell wall is: A. Commensalism B. Diffusion C. Symbiosis D. Osmosis
D. Osmosis
Topical administration of drugs includes all of the following, except: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Buccal D. Parenteral
D. Parenteral
Which of the following is the most common cause of a surgical site infection: A. Incorrect surgical prep B. Improper sterilization process C. Hole in the surgeons glove D. Patients endogenous flora
D. Patients endogenous flora
Which of the following come as numbered sets frequently used in neurosurgical procedures? A. Lacrimal probes B. Hegar dilators C. Van Buren sounds D. Penfield dissectors
D. Penfield dissectors; are used to separate the dura mater from the cranium during a craniotomy. The Penfield is atraumatic and its use prevents tearing the dura mater.
The vascular, fibrous covering of bone is the: a. Endosteum b. Epiphysis c. Aponeurosis d. Periosteum
D. Periosteum
Which of the following is the medical term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus covering the cervical internal os? A. dystocia B. abruptio C. reflexa D.previa
D. Placenta previa is the term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus and prevents delivery of the fetus; therefore, a cesarean section is performed.
Which nerve could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position? a. Peroneal b. Tibial c. Brachial d. Radial
D. Radial
What nerve is at greater risk during a thyriodectomy? a. Cervical sympathetic chain b. Inferior laryngeal c. Vagus d. Recurrent laryngeal
D. Recurrent laryngeal
The folds of the lining of the stomach are: A. Plicae circulares B. Microvilli C. Cristae D. Rugae
D. Rugae
The presence of pathogenic microorganisms int he blood or tissues is called: A. Necrosis B. Toxicity C. Abscess D. Sepsis
D. Sepsis
The preoperative medication used to neutralize stomach acidity is: A. Diazepam (Vallum) B. Propofol (Diprivan) C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) D. Sodium citrate (Bi-Citra)
D. Sodium citrate (Bi-Citra)
What monitoring device is used to obtain indirect arterial blood pressure? A. ECG lead B. Swan Ganz C. Pulse oximeter D. Sphygmomanometer
D. Sphygmomanometer
Sperically-shaped bacteria that occur in chains are referred to as: A. Diplococci B. Coccobacilli C. Staphylococci D. Streptococci
D. Streptococci
Which of the following terms refers to the level of honesty and integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care? A. Primum non nocere B. Sterile technique C. Respondeat superior D. Surgical conscience
D. Surgical conscience
What is known as the measure of force required to break a suture? A. Gauge B. Yield power C. Pliability D. Tensile strength
D. Tensile strength
The structure anterior to the esophagus and extending from the larynx to T-5 is the: A. Bronchus B. Epiglottis C. Pharynx D. Trachea
D. Trachea
In which anatomical structure does an inguinal hernia defect occur? A. Pubic tubercle B. Spermatic cord C. Cooper's ligament D. Transverse fascia
D. Transverse fascia
What procedure is performed to correct talipes valgus or talipes varus? A. externalfixation B. total arthroplasty C. tibial osteotomy D. triple arthrodesis
D. When a patient suffers from severe talipes valgus or varus, the procedure that is performed is a triple arthrodesis to relieve the pain, aid in correcting the stance and walking of the patient, and to immobilize the ankle.
Which procedure involves the excision of lymphoid tissue superior to the soft palate to facilitate breathing? A. tonsillectomy B. parotidectomy C. mastoidectomy D. adenoidectomy
D. adenoidectomy
What does the A represent in a V-A shunt procedure for hydrocephalus? A. abdominal B. aotic C. axillary D. atrial
D. atrial
Which of the following self-retaining retractors has the most parts/attachments? A. balfour B. burford C. beckman D. bookwalter
D. bookwalter
A Keller arthroplasty or McKeever procedure is performed to treat which of the following? A. dislocation B.fracture C. arthritis D. bunion
D. bunion
What is the name of this needle holder? A. Mayo- Hegar B. Webster C. Collier D. Castroviejo
D. castroviejo
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens to accommodate vision? A. Rectus B. Oblique C. Circular D. Ciliary
D. ciliary muscle alters the shape of the lens to accomodate near or far vision.
Which instrument is used during a keratoplasty? A. #11 knife blade B. sphenoidal punch C. Westcott scissors D. corneal trephine
D. corneal trephine
Why is an A-V fistula performed for long-term dialysis? A. prevent aneurysm B. accelerate clotting C. eliminate ischemia D. decrease thrombosis
D. decrease thrombosis
Salping/o is the root word for which anatomical structure? A. ovary B. uterus C. cervical os D. fallopian tube
D. fallopian tube
Which positioning device must be attached to the table when the procedure is performed in reverse Trendelenburg? A. stirrup B. Wilson frame C. kidney braces D. footboard
D. footboard
Which of the following terms describes abnormal excessive development of the male breast? A. hypotrophy B. mastitis C. hyperplasia D. gynecomastia
D. gynecomastia
What term means lack of control of urination? A. Elimination B. Retention C. Micturition D. incontinence
D. incontinence
Which of the following defines enuresis? A. pain B. toxicity C. infection D. incontinence
D. incontinence
In order to expand the abdominal cavity with CO2 prior to a laparoscopic procedure, the surgeon must use a/an: A. Aspiration unit B. infusion pump C. tissue expander D. insufflator machine
D. insufflator machine; that infuses the CO2 gas into the abdominal cavity is called an insufflator.
What part of the three-layer dressing absorbs wound secretions? A. outer B. inner C. drainage D. intermediate
D. intermediate
What is the congenital abnormality that is characterized by the presence of cerebrospinal fluid and spinal nerves in a sac, protruding dorsally? A. meningocele B. omphalocele C. hydrocele D. myelomeningocele
D. myelomeningocele
Which of the following conditions results from an uneven curvature of the cornea? A. astigmatism B. presbyopia C. strabismus D. myopia
D. myopia
Which part of the microscope is most proximal to the patient? A. beam splitter B. fiberoptics C. binoculars D. objective lens
D. objective lens
What is the purpose of applying cricoid pressure? A. open the airway B. prevent distension C. paralyze the patient D. occlude the esophagus
D. occlude the esophagus
Which instrument would be used during a dacryocystorhinostomy? A. Buckle B. Keratome C. scleral hooks D.oscillating saw
D. oscillating saw; During a dacryocystorhinostomy, the ostium is created using one of the following: punches, small oscillating saw or a powered burr.
Which component of the electrical circuit is responsible for conducting the electrical current back to the electrosurgical unit? A. generator B. foot pedal C. ESU pencil D. patient return electrode
D. patient return electrode
To obtain direct arterial pressure, the catheter is inserted into which artery? A. brachial B. subclavian C. ulnar D. radial
D. radial
The nerve that is at greatest risk for injury during a thyroidectomy is the: A. Facial B. Vagus C. Trigeminal maxillary D. recurrent laryngeal
D. recurrent laryngeal
Which of the following is one of four defects involved in tetralogy of Fallot? A. atrial septal defect B. coarctation of the aorta C. Tricuspid artresia D.right ventricle hypertrophy
D. right ventricle hypertrophy
Which of the following is a non-crushing vascular clamp? A. pean B. mixter C. kocher D. satinsky
D. satinsky
For which of the following do burr holes provide adequate exposure? A. meningocele B. encephalocele C. cranialdysraphism D. subdural hematoma
D. subdural hematoma
The amount of applied tension necessary to break a suture is known as: A. memory B. elasticity C. knot strength D. tensile strength
D. tensile strength
Which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle? A. poupart B. round C. retzius D. treitz
D. treitz
Where are carpal bones found? A. shoulder B. ankle C. knee D. wrist
D. wrist
How many millimeters does one meter equal? A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 1,000
D: 1,000
Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults causes: A. Hepatomegaly B. Pituitary Dwarfism C. Splenomegaly D. Acromegaly
D: Acromegaly
Agar is a/an? A. Disease-causing microbe B. Microscope used for studying bacteria C. Plastic dish used for growing microorganisms D. Agent used to solidify growth media in the microbiology laboratory
D: Agent used to solidify growth media in the microbiology laboratory
Which statement concerning sterile technique is false? A. Only the surface level of a table with a sterile cover is considered sterile B. Flaps on peel-packs must be pulled apart, never torn C. The last flap of a sterile package wrapped envelope style should be opened toward the unsterile person D. An opened sterile bottle of saline or water may be recapped carefully
D: An opened sterile bottle of saline water may be recapped carefully
Which of the following nerves innervates the breast? A. Pudendal B. Brachial plexus C. Axillary D. Anterior thorax
D: Anterior thorax
Cefazolin is a/an: A. Diuretic B. Steroid C. Mydriatic D. Antibiotic
D: Antibiotic
Surgical puncture of the joint space with a synovial fluid drainage is called: A. Arthroscopy B. Arthroplasty C. Arthography D. Arthocentesis
D: Arthocentesis
All of the following are inhalant agents except: A. Ethrane B. Nitrous oxide C. Fluothane D. Atropine
D: Atropine
What is the function of hemoglobin? A. Regulate temperature B. Fight infection C. Initiate clotting D. Carry oxygen
D: Carry oxygen
Diatrizoate megulmine (Hypaque or Renografin) or lothalamute meglumine (Conray) are examples of: A. Staining Agents B. Diuretics C. Dyes D. Contrast Media
D: Contrast Media
Lasix is a/an: A. Antibiotic B. Steroid C. Coagulant D. Diuretic
D: Diuretic
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristic is: A. Progesterone B. Inhibin C. Prolactin D. Estrogen
D: Estrogen
Which of the following sutures is a polyester fiber suture? A. Dexon B. Vicryl C. Nurolon D. Ethibond
D: Ethibond
The finger-like projections on the end of the fallopian tubes are: A. Phalanges B. Cilia C. Metacarpals D. Fimbriae
D: Fimbriae
The upper portion of the stomach is called the: A. Rugae B. Antrum C. Body D. Fundus
D: Fundus
The anatomical landmark located at the proximal, lateral portion of the femoral shaft is the: A. Lateral Epicondyle B. Medial Condyle C. Lesser Trochanter D. Greater Trochanter
D: Greater Trochanter
What does the term cephalagia mean? A. Pelvic pain B: Intestinal pain C. Backache D. Headache
D: Headache
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is called: A. Pernicious anemia B. Tay-Sach's disease C. Erythroblastosis fetalis D. Hemophilia
D: Hemophilia
The adrenal cortex secretes: A. Urine B. Insulin C. Epinephrine D. Hormones
D: Hormones
The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain of children is known as: A. Huntington's chorea B. Meningocele C. Spina bifida D. Hydrocephalus
D: Hydrocephalus
Which class of surgical wound has the highest rate of infection? A. I B. II C. III D. IV
D: IV
Which of the following is a parenteral route of drug administration? A. Topical B. Rectal C. Oral D. Intravenous
D: Intravenous
Where are the malleus, incus, and stapes located? A. Mastoid sinus B. Tympanic membrane C. Bony labyrinth D. Middle ear
D: Middle ear
A relationship between two kinds of organisms that live together for mutual benefit is called: A. Parasitism B. Commensalism C. Phagocytosis D. Mutualism
D: Mutualism
Oophorectomy is the surgical removal of the: A. Fallopian Tube B. Corpus Luteum C. Uterus D. Ovary
D: Ovary
Childbirth labor may be induced by: A. Lidocaine B. Diazoxide C. Ergonovine D. Oxytocin
D: Oxytocin
The process by which leukocytes engulf and destroy bacteria is called: A. Pinocytosis B. Commensalism C. Parasitism D. Phagocytosis
D: Phagocytosis
What is the name of the condition when the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted to normal position? A. Epispadias B. Hydrocele C. Cryptorchidism D. Phimosis
D: Phimosis
Bolsters are used with retention sutures to: A. Facilitate easy removal B. Prevent unequal tension C. Facilitate visualization D. Prevent skin laceration
D: Prevent skin laceration
A drug used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants is: A. Narcan B. Fentanyl C. Morphine D. Prostigmin
D: Prostigmin
A combining form meaning kidney is: A. Ur/o B. Cyst/o C. Rhin/o D. Ren/o
D: Ren/o
Which of the following is not an action of stapling devices? A. Anastomose B. Transect C. Ligate D. Retract
D: Retract
The pectoral girdle is formed by the: A. Scapula and glenoid B. Coxal bones C. Clavicle and humerus D. Scapula and clavicale
D: Scapula and clavicale
The suffix "-malacia" refers to: A. Enlargement B. Seizures C. Hardening D. Softening
D: Softening
A thick-walled, highly resistant body formed within a bacterial cell is a/an: A. Cyst B. Nucleus C. Capsule D. Spore
D: Spore
Which of the following has the highest tensile strength but poor handling qualities? A. Silk B. Polyester fiber C. Dacron D. Stainless steel
D: Stainless steel
The true ribs articulate with the: A. Pectoral girdle B. Scapula C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Sternum
D: Sternum
Which of the following vertebrae have ribs attached? A. Cervical B. Lumbar C. Sacral D. Thoracic
D: Thoracic
The enzyme extracted from bovine blood that is used as a topical hemostatic agent is: A. Collagen B. Tannic acid C. Oxytocin D. Thrombin
D: Thrombin
Rickettsial diseases of humans are transmitted by: A. Infected human contact B. Contaminated food consumption C. Rodent contact D. Tick bite
D: Tick bite
The thorax is formed posteriorly by the: A. Sternum B. Twelve pair of ribs C. Diaphragm D. Twelve thoracic vertebrae
D: Twelve thoracic Vertebrae
Enlargement of the veins of the spermatic cord is a: A. Hydrocele B. Rectocele C. Cystocele D. Variocele
D: Variocele
Atrophy means: A.Death of tissue B. Increase in muscle fiber size C. Without D. Wasting away
D: Wasting away
What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?
Detergent-disinfection
The agent used to expand blood plasma volume is what?
Dextran
68. A type of bone-holding forceps is:
Dingman. There are several types of bone holding clamps that vary in size. One type is the Dingman that has a single tooth on the end for grasping the bone.
A hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle is a/an what?
Direct
2-28. A patient who underwent an appendectomy enters the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation and vomiting. Which of the following is occurring?
Obstructed bowel. The patient most likely is experiencing an obstructed bowel due to the formation of postoperative adhesions.
70. According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn when?
On all cases
126. What is the 1st step of opening a small, sterile wrapped package when establishing the sterile field?
Open the first flap away from self The first step in opening a sterile package is to open the first flap away from the body, side flaps next and last flap toward body.
Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures?
Operating microscope
Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts?
Operative field
Which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine?
Opthalmology
110. What procedure corrects testicular torsion?
Orchiopexy. Orchiopexy is performed to treat testicular torsion, position a retracted testicle or undescended testicle.
After the patient is extubated, which device is often used to maintain the airway around the relaxed tongue?
Oropharyngeal airway
Which surgeon might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transphenoidal approach to the sell turcica?
Otorhinolaryngologist
What is the definition of otosclerosis?
Otosclerosis is the formation and hardening of spongy bone in the ear.
2-10. Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure?
Ovary. Oophor/o is the root word for ovary.
2-20. Which of the following elements primarily make up the body's mass?
Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen. 96% of the body's mass is made up of oxygen, carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen.
105. What mesh is contraindicated in the presence of infection is?
PTFE. PTFE is nonabsorbable and should not be used when an infection is present.
175. Which graft material does not require pre-clotting for placement during an abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy?
PTFE. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is a non- absorbable flexible material that is used for grafting during an AAA; it does not require preclotting.
The instrument shown below is used to:
Dissect periosteum from bone
134. What decision should the OR team make when treating a minor who requires a blood transfusion, but the family religion is Jehovah's Witness?
Do not give transfusion The religious values and standards of Jehovah's Witness should be recognized and upheld by the surgery team including no transfusion of blood. There are other blood replacement products available.
What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery?
Do not transport patient; inform surgeon
What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit?
Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel
What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterilized rigid instrument container is opened and condensation is observed?
Don't use, return to Sterile Processing Department
Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split thickness skin graft?
Donor site first
The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an:
Doppler
Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency?
Doppler ultrasound
122. During a TRAM procedure, what is used to identify and preserve the superior epigastric arteries?
Doppler. A sterile Doppler probe will be used to identify the superior and inferior epigastric arteries; the superior vessels must be preserved.
Which ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease?
Dorsal carpal
72. Which piece of equipment is required for administration of a Bier block?
Double-cuffed tourniquet. A double-cuffed tourniquet is used. One cuff is inflated, and if it becomes uncomfortable for the patient, the other cuff is inflated and the first deflated.
2-30. During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly?
Drill. To facilitate placement of the sutures in the hard palate, the surgeon may use a drill with drill bit.
2-29. What organ shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedure?
Duodenum. The head of the pancreas shares the same arterial supply with the duodenum. Since the Whipple procedure is performed for caner of the head of the pancreas, the duodenum must be removed.
106. Which of the following provides additional protection to prevent contamination of a sterile package?
Dust cover. Sterile packages can be placed inside a protective plastic wrap/bag called a dust cover to provide additional barrier protection.
36. Which of the following preoperative diagnostic tests would be administered to a patient with a brain injury?
EEG. Electroencephalography is a recording of the electrical activity of the brain used to help diagnose seizure disorders, brain tumors, epilepsy, and injuries to the brain.
41. Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position?
Elbow pads. One of the pressure points of the supine position is the elbows; gel pads or foam should be used for protection.
Which of the following assesses the electrical activity of the nervous system?A. SpirometryB. ElectroencephalogramC. Peripheral nerve stimulatorD. Electrocardiogram
Electroencephalogram
2-26. The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is what?
Electron theory. The principles that govern the movement of electrons is the electron theory that serves as the basis for the design of all types of electrical equipment.
Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
Ellik evacuator. The Ellik evacuator is filled with irrigation solution by the first scrub surgical technologist. It is used by the surgeon for the irrigation/evacuation of the bladder to remove prostatic tissue during a TURP.
40. A Fogarty catheter is used during a/an what?
Embolectomy. The balloon-tipped Fogarty catheter is inserted through an arteriotomy to facilitate removal of an embolus.
49. When the surgeon makes a McBurney's incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fiber?
External oblique. When using the McBurney's incision for an appendectomy, the first muscle encountered is the external oblique which is bluntly divided in the direction of its fibers.
What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?
Extractions. The removal of a tooth or teeth is an extraction procedure. The resection of the soft tissue and excision of the bone surrounding the tooth prior to the removal is called odontectomy.
37. Which of the following is a type of fenestrated drape?
Extremity. The extremity drape has an opening, called a fenestration, for placing over an extremity.
An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to:
Facilitate respiration
An identification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the:
Facility
Fertilization normally occurs in the:
Fallopian tube
To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR:
Feet first
Which structure, during a total hip arthroplasty, requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of a prosthesis?
Femoral canal
What is the instrument above and which procedure would it be used for? A. D&C B. TAH C. MMK D. LAVH
Ferris-Smith tissue forcepsTAH
140. During a radical neck dissection with mandibulectomy, which bone is harvested for the graft?
Fibula. The fibula is commonly used to obtain a composite graft to reconstruct the mandible.
What is the purpose of polymethyl methacrylate during a cranioplasty?
Filling cranial defects
In an opthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is safely performed?
Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel
The appropriate location when placing the grounding pad is over a what?
Fleshy area
What organelle is responsible for packaging of proteins?
Golgi complex
A second intention wound heals by:
Granulation
Which of the following sterilizers operates with condition, exposure, exhaust and dry cycles?
Gravity air displacement
47. Which surgical specialty most often uses the instrument shown above?
Gynecologic. The Sims retractor is used most often in gynecologic surgery.
Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
HCG. Blood or a urine sample should be given preoperatively by a premenopausal woman to check for human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which is an indicator for pregnancy.
Which of the following is a correct statement when using the closed-gloving technique?
Hand must not extend beyond cuffs
What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR?
Hand off the sterile field and isolate
What is the proper procedure for turning the sterile gown?
Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
The roof of the mouth is formed by the:
Hard and soft palates
39. Which type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue?
Harmonic. The ultrasonic scalpel (Harmonic scalpel) uses a single-use titanium blade attached to a handpiece and connected to a generator that causes the blade to move by rapid ultrasonic motion to cut and coagulate.
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy?
Harrington
What is the first federal act to establish patient privacy standards?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
137. During a suprapubic prostatectomy, which needle holder may be used when reconstructing the bladder outlet?
Heaney To facilitate placement of the sutures in the prostatic fossa to control bleeding and reconstruct the bladder outlet, the surgeon may use a Heaney needle holder.
The laboratory test that determines the ration of erythrocytes to whole blood is:
Hematocrit
The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:
Hemopoiesis
What is the major side effect of thrombolytics?
Hemorrhage
Which procedure would utilize the instrument shown above?
Hemorrhoidectomy
What are varicosities of the rectum and anus?
Hemorrhoids
The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is?
Heparin. Heparinized saline is an irrigating solution used to flush the inside of an artery.
What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG?
Heparinized saline
Which vein drains the small intestine?
Hepatic portal
The suffix meaning blood condition is: A. -emia B. -osis C. -oma D. -ectomy
A. -emia
Which kind of cast completely immobilizes a femoral shaft fracture? A. A hip spica B. short leg C. long leg D. body jacket
A. A hip spica cast is applied to provide complete immobilization of a fracture of the femoral shaft.
The type of surgical laser is determined by its: A. Active medium B. Resonator cavity C. Semi-conductor D. Pump source
A. Active medium
What does the prefix "contra-" mean? A. Against, opposite B. Down, inferior C. Thorough, complete D. Difficult, abnormal
A. Against, opposite
The colon ends at the: A. Anal canal B. Ascending colon C. Ileocecal valve D. Cecum and transverse colon
A. Anal canal
Cephalosporins are a/an: A. Antibiotic B. CNS depressant C. Mydriatic D. Steroid
A. Antibiotic
Which of the following is a portion of the stomach? A. Antrum B. Hilum C. Isthmus D. Diaphragm
A. Antrum
What term means a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate? A. BPH B. BUN C. PID D. PSA
A. BPH
Which of the following procedures requires preoperative high-level disinfection of the endoscope? a. Bronchoscopy b. Laparoscopy c. Mediastinoscopy d. Thoracoscopy
A. Bronchoscopy
Filiforms are used to: A. Bypass urethral obstruction B. Perform urethrogram C. Stent the ureter D. remove ureteral stones
A. Bypass urethral obstruction; Filiforms are used to bypass an obstruction
Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the brain? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Aorta D. Femoral
A. Carotid
Cramplike pains in the lower leg caused by poor blood circulation to the lower leg muscles is called: A. Claudication B. Embolism C. Ischemia D. Thrombosis
A. Claudication
The local freezing of diseased tissue to facilitate removal without bleeding is: a. Cryosurgery b. Electrocautery c. Diathermy d. harmonic scalpel
A. Cryosurgery
Removal of necrotic tissue is called: A. Debridement B. Excoriation C. Z-plasty D. Dermabrasion
A. Debridement
Which area is prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin grafting procedure? a. Donor site b. Only recipient site c. Both sites together d. Recipient site
A. Donor site
The purpose of the Foley catheter is to: A. Drain the bladder to avoid injury B. Secure vagianl packing postoperatively C. Estimate the patient's bladder capacity D. Verify the position of the uterers
A. Drain the bladder to avoid injury
What is the correct order of the layer of the meninges anterior to posterior? A. Dura, arachnoid, pia B. Pia, arachnoid, dura C. Arachnoid, dura, pia D. Dura, pia, arachnoid
A. Dura, arachnoid, pia
hepatomegaly is: A. Enlarged liver B. Small kidney C. Cancer of the liver D. Enlarged spleen
A. Enlarged liver
Which term refers to the end of a bone? A. Epiphysis B. Trochanter C. Condyle D. Diaphysis
A. Epiphysis
What is the name of the elastic rolled bandage designed to exsanguinate an extremity before a tourniquet cuff is inflated? A. Esmarch B. Kerlix C. Kling D. Ace
A. Esmarch
The longest bone in the body is the: A. Femur B. Humerus C. Tibia D. Pelvis
A. Femur
Which of the following are eucaryotic? A. Fungi B. Cyanobacteria C. Bacteria D. Viruses
A. Fungi
The abnormal enlargement of the male breast is called: A. Gynecomastia B. Mammoplasty C. Adenopathy D. Matodynia
A. Gynecomastia
The largest ball-and-socket joint the the: A. Hip B. Shoulder C. Elbow D. Knee
A. Hip
The abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the underside of the penis is referred to as: A. Hypospadias B. Epispadias C. Cystocele D. Phimosis
A. Hypospadias
Which term refers to low blood volume? A. Hypovolemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypothermia D. Hypoglycemia
A. Hypovolemia
A curved, tapered surgical needle is used most often on what type of tissue? A. Intestine B. Skin C. Tendon D. Eye
A. Intestine
What type of scar formation is considered hypertrophic? A. Keloid B. Cicatrix C. Dermoid D. Adhesion
A. Keloid
Immediately after receiving a medication, the surgical technologist in the scrub role should: A. Label the medication B. Administer the medication C. Measure and fill the syringe D. Cover the medication cup to avoid contamination
A. Label the medication
What type of procedure is performed to correct panfacial fractures? A. Le Fort II B. Odontectomy C. Dental implants D. palatoplasty
A. LeFort II and III are performed to correct panfacial fractures
Millimeter (mm) is a unit used to measure: A. Length B. Weight C. Time D. Volume
A. Length
Which of the following is used to perform Schiller's test? A. Lugol's solution B. Methylene blue C. Acetic acid D. Indigo carmine
A. Lugol's solution
The foramen magnum is an opening in which bone? A. Occipital B. Parietal C. Sphenoid D. Temporal
A. Occipital
Which of the following is used for powered orthopedic equipment? A. Nitrogen B. Nitrous oxide C. Helium D. Carbon Dioxide
A. Orthopedic power equipment is run by nitrogen.
Softening of the bone is called: A. Osteomalacia B. Osteopenia C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteomyelitis
A. Osteomalacia
Which of the following are found in the ventricles of the heart? A. Papillary muscles B. Ligamentum arteriosum C. Pectinate muscles D. Fossa ovalis
A. Papillary muscles
The kneecap is also known as the: A. Patella B. Tibia C. Popliteal D. Fibula
A. Patella
Intestinal motility is called: A. Peristalsis B. Digestion C. Enteritis D. Stasis
A. Peristalsis
Which of the following diseases is caused by a pathogen? A. Pneumonia B. Rickets C. Scurvy D. Diabetes
A. Pneumonia. Pneumonia is caused by streptococcus pneumonaie.
Which non-absorbable suture may be used in the presence of infection? A. Polypropylene B. Plain gut C. Silk D. Polyglactic acid
A. Polypropylene
Which of the following is the most inert in tissue? A. Polypropylene B. Nylon C. Polyster D. Chromic
A. Polypropylene
Craniosynostosis is a/an? A. Premature closure of cranial sutures B. Infection of the subdural space C. Improper absorption of CSF D. Congenital collection of abnormal vessels
A. Premature closure of cranial sutures
1. Which of the following clips is used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures? A. Raney b.Filshie c. Hemoclip d. Backhaus
A. Raney
Which of the following makes up the inner tunic of the eye and receives images? A. Retina B. Rods C. Cones D. Cilliary body
A. Retina
Which preoperative drug is delivered transdermally to prevent postoperative nausea? A. Scopolamine B. Bupivicaine C. Fentanyl D. Propofol
A. Scopolamine
Which of the following is the outer layer of the colon: A. Serosa B. Submucosa C. Muscularis D. Mucosa
A. Serosa
Which of the following is a sharp endometrial curette? A. Sims B. Pratt C. Gaylor D. Thomas
A. Sims curettes have an oval shaped end that is sharp and are used to obtain uterine tissue during a D and C.
What pathogen is most commonly associated with surgical wound infections? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Klebsiella pneumonia C. Bacteroides fragillis D. Clostridium tetani
A. Staphylococcus aureus; is a common flora of the skin and also thrives in the nares of the nose which are the primary source of the microorganism in the operating room.
What is used to inflate the Foley catheter balloon? A. Sterile water B. Normal saline C. Compressed air D. Antibiotic solution
A. Sterile water; A foley catheter is used to measure urinary output. A syringe is used to inflate the balloon with sterile water.
Which of these terms describes the surgical correction of a deviated septum? A. Septoplasty B. antrostomy C. rhinoplasty D. turbinectomy
A. Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a septoplasty
The bone that articulates with the distal tibia and fibula is the: A. Talus B. Femur C. Patella D. Calcaneus
A. Talus
The diencephalon is composed of the: A. Thalamus and hypothalamus B. Medulla and spinal cord C. Midbrain and thalamus D. Pons and midbrain
A. Thalamus and hypothalamus
Which two drug classifications are combined to produce neuroleptanalgesia? A. Tranquilizer and narcotic B. Cholinergic and amtimuscarinic C. Anti-histamine and sedative D. Adrenergic and diuretic
A. Tranquilizer and narcotic
The fifth cranial nerve is also called the: A. Trigeminal B. Vagus C. Vestibulocochlear D. Trochlear
A. Trigeminal
The olecranon process is part of which bone? A. Ulna B. Scapula C. Radius D. Humerus
A. Ulna
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is: A. Unbroken skin B. Immune response C. Phagocytosis D. Cellular response
A. Unbroken skin
Heparin is measured in: A. Units B. Cubic centimeters C. Millimeters D. Micrograms
A. Units
What type of dilators is used for male urethral dilation? A. Van Buren B. Jackson C. Bakes D. Hegar
A. Van Buren
When two chest tubes are inserted into the pleural cavity after an open cardiovascular procedure, what does the superior tube evacuate? A. air B. pus C. blood D. mucous
A. air
The prostate gland secretes: A. alkaline fluid B. semen C. testosterone D. inhibin hormone
A. alkaline fluid
Aqueous humor of the eye is found within the: A. anterior chamber B. macula C. posterior cavity D. cornea
A. anterior chamber
Which surgical procedure is performed to fuse a joint? A. arthrodesis B. arthropexy C. arthrplasty D. arthroscopy
A. arthrodesis
Which of the following types of needles would be used for repair of the liver? A. blunt B. taper C. side cutting D. reverse cutting
A. blunt
Which of the following agents is a mechanical method of hemostasis? A. bone wax B. silver nitrate C. argon plasma D. oxidized cellulose
A. bone wax
If a sterile package wrapped in pervious woven material drops to the OR floor, the surgical technologist should: A. break the integrity of the package and discard the item B. leave it on the floor until the procedure is completed C. examine the package for tears and open onto the backtable D. check the integrity of the package and place back in case cart
A. break the integrity of the package and discard the item
What cardiac drug increases myocardial contractility? A. calcium chloride B. dantrolene sodium C. sodium bicarbonate D. isoproterenol hydrochloride
A. calcium chloride
A colposcopy may be performed for which of the following conditions? A. cervical carcinoma B. ectopic pregnancy C. endometriosis D. menorrhagia
A. cervical carcinoma; A colposcopy is performed to evaluate patients whose pap smear results are abnormal.
The internal mammary artery retractor would be used in which of the following procedures? A. coronary artery bypass with graft B. femorofemoral bypass C. abdominal aortic bypass D. carotid endarectomy
A. coronary artery bypass with graft
Which of the following surgical instruments would be found on a nasal setup? A. cottle speculum B. rhoton elevator C. bonney forceps D. potts scissors
A. cottle speculum
How would the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention classify a disease that is constantly present in a community? A. endemic B.social C.pandemic D.communicable
A. endemic
Third-degree burn tissue with a charred and pearly white appearance is called: A. eschar B. necrotic C. ischemic D. denuded
A. eschar
Which burn degree classification involves erythema without blisters? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
A. first degree; A sunburn usually only involves the epidermis (first degree) and is characterized by erythema, but not blisters.
Which of the following surgical instruments would be used to dilate the cervix? A. hegar B. bougie C. sims D. bakes
A. hegar
What personal protective equipment would the surgical technologist wear during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy? A. lead apron B. sterile gloves C. plume mask D. splash guard
A. lead apron
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors? A. liver B. heart C. spleen D. pancreas
A. liver
Which procedure involves the surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum? A. orchiopexy B. orchiotomy C. orchiectomy D. orchioplasty
A. orchiopexy
Which of the following is an indication for a total hip arthroplasty? A. osteoarthritis B. femoral fracture C. effusion D. pelvic fracture
A. osteoarthritis
Dupuytren's disease is characterized by contraction of the: A. palmar fascia B. median nerve C. dorsal tendon D. ulnar nerve
A. palmar fascia
For which of the following conditions would a posterior repair be performed? A. rectocele B. cystocele C. varicocele D. hydrocele
A. rectocele
Where is central venous pressure measured? A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle
A. right atrium
The procedure of choice for a detached retina is a: A. scleral buckling B. radial keratotomy C. lens phacoemulsification D. phototherapeutic keratectomy
A. scleral buckling
Sperm is produced in the: A. semiferous tubules B. ejaculatory duct C. epididymis D. prostate
A. semiferous tubules
Which type of cast would be appropriate for a fractured metacarpal? A. Short arm B. Long arm C. cylinder D. spica
A. short arm cast; A short arm cast is applied from below the elbow to the metacarpal heads and is used for fractures of the wrist and metacarpals.
Which device could be used when placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy? A. Shoulder roll B. Chest roll C. Bean bag D. Axillary roll
A. shoulder roll; can be used to slightly hyper extend the region to facilitate making the incision and exposing the thyroid.
What is removed during a glossectomy? A. tongue B. polyp C. turbinectomy D. soft palate
A. tongue
The area of the bladder that is formed by the two ureteral orifices and the urethral orifice is known as the: A. trigone B. detrusor C. apex D. rugae
A. trigone
Coagulation with the harmonic scalpel is accomplished by the use of: A. ultrasonic energy B. electrical energy C. solar power D. argon gas
A. ultrasonic energy; The harmonic scalpel uses a generator that converts electrical energy into ultrasonic energy which causes the blade to rapidly move which simultaneously cuts and coagulates tissue.
The total number of vertebrae in the adult is: A. 26 B. 29 C. 33 D. 37
A: 26
Which suture size would be used for opthalmic procedures? A. 8-0 B. 2-0 C. 0 D. 2
A: 8-0
A foreign substance that stimulates the production of antibodies is a/an: A. Antigen B. Androgen C. Endotoxin D. Exotoxin
A: Antigen
Hemostasis means to: A. Arrest blood flow B. Create blood flow C. Bypass an occluded blood vessel D. Maintain within normal limits
A: Arrest blood flow
Which part of the neuron conducts impulses away from the cell body? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Soma D. Ganglion
A: Axon
Multiplication of a cell into two separate cells is known as: A. Binary fission B. Fusion C. Pleomorphism D. Separatism
A: Binary fission
The tail-like distal fibers of the spinal cord form the: me A. Cauda equina B. Conus medullaris C. Lumbar plexus D. Filum terminate
A: Cauda equina
The ability of a microbe to move by itself can be provided by: A. Cilia B. L-form C. Capsule D. Exotocin
A: Cilia
When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from Trendelenburg to dorsal recumbent, he/she should be moved slowly top prevent: A. Circulatory depression B. Hypothermia C. Hypertension D. Muscle strain
A: Circulatory depression
Disruption of previously sutured tissue layers is: A. Dehiscence B. Sinus Tract C. Prolapse D. Fistula
A: Dehiscence
What is the pharmacological classification of Furosemide? A. Diuretic B. Adrenergic C. Hormone D. Hemostatic
A: Diuretic
Which of the following is a "basic right" for correct drug handling? A. Drug and dosage B. Manufacturer C. Type of syringe D. Who mixed the drug
A: Drug and dosage
What type of stapling device is used to perform low anterior anastomosis? A. EEA B. GIA C. TA D. LDS
A: EEA
Which of the following is an electrical recording of heart activity? A. Electrocardiogram B. Electrocephalogram C. Ventriculogram D. Myelogram
A: Electrocardiogram
Which of the following is a commonly used type of anesthesia for obstetrics and perineal procedures? A. Epidural B. Topical C. Cryoanesthesia D. Bier Block
A: Epidural
Hemorrhaging that occurs between the skull and outer meningeal covering is a/an: A. Epidural hematoma B. Intracerebral hematoma C. Subdural hematoma D. Subarachnoid hematoma
A: Epidural hematoma
What drug is added to a local anesthetic to decrease bleeding: A. Epinephrine B. Cocaine C. Thrombin D. Hyaluronidase
A: Epinephrine
Growth in a long bone occurs at the: A. Epiphyseal plate B. Perpendicular plate C. Femoral canal D. Medullary canal
A: Epiphyseal plate
The rounded portion of the uterus superior to the uterine tubes is called the: A. Fundus B. Isthmus C. Cervix D. Body
A: Fundus
Which of the following bones does not articulate with another bone? A. Hyoid B. Ulna C. Temporal D. Parietal
A: Hyoid
Which agent is used to perform an intraoperative cholangiogram? A. Hypaque Meglumine B. Acetic Acid C. Indigo Carmine D. Methylene Blue
A: Hypaque Meglumine
The motor-sensory cranial nerve that innervates the tongue is the: A. Hypoglossal B. Facial C. Vestibulocochlear D. Olfactory
A: Hypoglossal
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? A. I B. II C. III D. IV
A: I
For which tissue type would a cutting needle be contraindicated? A. Intestine B. Eye C. Tendon D. Skin
A: Intestine
Which of the following is a type of degenerative joint disease? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteosarcoma
A: Osteoarthritis
Which of the following are cells of the bone? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoblastoma C. Osteoclasts D. Osteoblasts
A: Osteocytes
Which of the following would affect normal wound healing? A. Peripheral vascular disease B. Skin prep C. Penicillin allergy D. Clean wound
A: Peripheral vascular disease
A miotic drug is: A. Pilocarpine B. Scopolamine C. Homatropine D. Atropine
A: Pilocarpine
What is an external mechanical method of hemostasis? A. Pneumatic tourniquet B. Ultrasonic scalpel C. Cotton pledgets D. Hemostatic clamp
A: Pneumatic tourniquet
Air in the pleural cavity is: A. Pneumothorax B. Pleurisy C. Atelectasis D. Hemothorax
A: Pneumothorax
What shape are bacilli? A. Rod-shaped B. Round C. Curved D. Spiral
A: Rod-shaped
What type of bone are carpal bones? A. Short B. Flat C. Sesamoid D. Irregular
A: Short
In which of the following processes does destruction of spores occur? A. Sterilization B. Gestation C. Disinfection D. Decontamination
A: Sterilization
Misalignment or deviation of the eye is: A. Strabismus B. Cataracts C. Entropion D. Astigmatism
A: Strabismus
Which term refers to voluntary skeletal muscle? A. Striated B. Cardiac C. Visceral D: Smooth
A: Striated
The primary mode of airborne bacteria in the operating room is the: A. Surgical team B. Patient C. Endotracheal tube D. Instruments
A: Surgical team
The prefix "para-" means: A. Surrounding B. Through C. Near, Beside D. Many, Much
A: Surrounding
A direct or indirect inguinal hernia indicates a tear in: A. Transversalis Fascia B. Cooper's Ligament C. Scarpa's Fascia D. Fascia Lata
A: Transversalis Fascia
What molecule is broken down when body cells require energy?
ATP
Use of a one-step applicator with little or no pressure on skin would be indicated in which of the following conditions?A. Pleural effusionB. Herniated lumbar discC. Abdominal aortic aneurysmD. Cholecystitis with cholelithiasis
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
136. Which surgical procedure uses the instrument shown above? A. Thoracotomy B. Abdominal hysterectomy C. Total hip arthroplasty D. Gastrectomy
Abdominal hysterectomy The O'Sullivan-O'Connor self-retaining retractor is commonly used during total abdominal hysterectomy.
What type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape?
Abdominoperineal resection
Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?
Absorbable collagen
2-24. The function of the small intestine is what?
Absorption of nutrients. The functions of the small intestine are digestion and absorption.
A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to:
Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect
Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?
Acromioclavicular joing to iliac crest
Which of the following would be the least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?
Acute phlebitis
Wound dressings should be opened:
After the last count is completed.
At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a knee arthroscopy?
After the tourniquet has been inflated
In the OR, HEPA is a type of:
Air filter
When used as a skin prep, which of the following should be allowed to thoroughly dry if electrocautery will be used?A. Aqueous solutionsB. achloropheneC. Alcohol and tincturesD. Iodophor solutions
Alcohol and tinctures
154. Which of the following substances are absorbed in the stomach?
Alcohol. Most substances are not absorbed into the blood from the stomach; the absorption takes place in the small intestine. However, some substances that are absorbed from the stomach are water, electrolytes, some drugs and alcohol.
For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pacreaticojeunostomy?
Alcoholic pancreatitis
129. A blood pH of 7.5 indicates what?
Alkalosis The pH level of a solution or other liquid such as blood refers to its acidity versus alkalinity levels.
What types of treatment does a patient authorize when signing a general consent form?
All routine treatments or procedures
Which of the following positioning devices would be used for an LAVH?A. Padded footboardB. Mayfield headrestC. Allen stirrupsD. Kidney brace
Allen stirrups
Which of the following is not a function of the trachea?A. Carry air to and from the lungsB. Amplify speechC. Filter secretions and particulatesD. Humidify inspired air
Amplify speech
What is done to the common bile duct during a choledochojejunostomy?
Anastomosed
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation is:
Anectine
The patient is never positioned until who gives permission?
Anesthesia provider gives permission
75. The introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/an what?
Angiography. Angiography is the primary diagnostic procedure performed for the evaluation of peripheral vascular disease.
2-2. Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels?
Angioscope. The angioscope is used for visualization of the heart and major vessels.
Which of the following preoperative procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient
Antiembolic stockings placed on patient
Which chemical substance causes the immune system to form antibodies?
Antigens
A substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a/an:
Antiseptic
Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a Bartholin's cystectomy?
Anus
Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
Aperture. A fenestrated drape is a drape with an opening, such as an aperture drape commonly used to drape eyes.
113. To prevent a cerebral aneurysm from rupturing, the surgeon will do what?
Apply a specialty designed clip at base of aneurysm. A straight, curved or angled aneurysm clip is placed across the neck of the aneurysm.
What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture?
Arch bar application
What laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
Argon. The argon laser beam can travel through clear fluids and tissues.
Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
Argon. The argon laser is used because the beam travels through clear tissues without heating it, making it ideal for use on retinal disorders.
Gerota's fascia is located where?
Around the kidney
Which of the following arises from the left ventricle of the heart?A. Ascending aortaB. Pulmonary veinC. Descending aortaD. Pulmonary artery
Ascending aorta
2-13. Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens?
Aseptic. Aseptic means without sepsis or no pathogens are present.
A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:
Aspiration
Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non-English speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in English, but does not fully understand it?
Assault and battery
2-9. Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?
Autonomic. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) conducts impulses to the cardiac muscles.
Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?
Avitene
Which of the following is proper technique when applying a grounding pad?A. Avoid placing pad on buttocksB. Apply pad before patient is positionedC. Apply gel to padD. Reuse pad that is repositioned
Avoid placing pad on buttocks
When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner:
Away from self
1cc of solution is equivalent to: A. 1L B. 1mL C. 100mL D. 10mL
B. 1mL
A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to: a. 4 inches b. 2 inches c. 3 inches d. 5 inches
B. 2 inches 2.54 centimeters is equal to 1 inch; therefore 5 centimeters is about 2 inches.
The combining form meaning gland is: A. Myom/o B. Aden/o C. Sarc/o D. Arthro/o
B. Aden/o
Which of the following bacteria requires oxygen? A. Gram positive B. Aerobic C. Anaerobic D. Gram negaitve
B. Aerobic
Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction? A. Toxic shock B. Anaphylaxis C. Urticaria D. Tachyphylaxis
B. Anaphylaxis
When opening an envelope-folded wrapper containing a sterile item the first flap is opened: A. According to preference B. Away from self C. Toward self D. To the side
B. Away from self
Which procedure involves reattachment of the anterior capsule of the shoulder to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures? A. arthrosesis B. Bankart C. mumford D. ORIF
B. Bankart procedure involves reattachment of the anterior capsule of the shoulder to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures.
What does the prefix "inter-" mean? A. Within B. Between C. Below D. Above
B. Between
Which of the following is a uterine dressing forceps? A. Schubert B. Bozeman C. Staude D. Ballantine
B. Bozeman forceps; are long with a double curve and are included in a D and C instrument set.
Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during a laparoscopic procedure? A. Nd: YAG B. CO2 C.Helium D. Argon
B. CO2
Emulsification of abnormal tissue during neurosurgical procedures is accomplished by the use of: A. laser B. CUSA C. ESU D. PET
B. CUSA
All of the medications inhibit blood coagulation, except: A. Warfarin B. Calcium C. Heparin D. Aspirin
B. Calcium
When are sponge and sharp counts performed in the OR? A. At the beginning and end of the surgical procedure B. Before the incision, closure of cavity and skin closure C. as soon as the procedure begins and throughout the case D. Before establishing the sterile field and the application of dressings
B. Counts for sponges and sharps are performed before the incision, closure of the cavity and skin closure.
An example of a flat bone is the: A. Zygoma B. Cranial C. Calcaneous D. Vertebra
B. Cranial
The peripheral nervous system contains: A. Spinal cord and spinal nerves B. Cranial and spinal nerves C. Cranial nerves and spinal cord D. Brain and spinal cord
B. Cranial and spinal nerves
Which of the following is a type of inflammatory bowel disease with chronic inflammation of the intestine? A. Pilonidal B. Crohn's C. Mesenteric D. Diverticular
B. Crohn's
What classification is a Bake surgical instrument? A. Clamping B. Dilating C. Grasping D. Cutting
B. Dilating
Pancreatic digestive secretions are collected in the: A. Acinar cells B. Duct of Wirsung C. Common bile duct D. Islets of Langerhans
B. Duct of Wirsung
Which stapling device would be used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection? a. GIA b. EEA c. TA d. LDS
B. EEA
Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart cause by bacteria is known as: A. Chondritis B. Endocarditis C. Gastritis D. Pericarditis
B. Endocarditis
What instrument is used to remove plaque during a carotid endarterectomy? A. Allis B. Freer C. Ferris-Smith D. Potts-Smith
B. Freer; During an endarterectomy, loosely attached plaque can be removed from the carotid artery with the use of a freer elevator.
Which of the following is a hypertrophic scar formation? A. Keloid B. Granulation C. Dead space D. Cicatrix
B. Granulation
What is used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture? a. Broach b. Guide pins c. Canal reamer d. ruler
B. Guide pins
What should be done with a perforating towel clip that has been applied and removed from a sterile drape? A. Place on sterile backtable B. Hand off the field to the circulator C. Place back on drape in other area D. Discard in sharps container
B. Hand off the field to the circulator; The tips of the towel clip are considered contaminated since they punctured the draping material and should not be reused. The clip should be handed off the sterile field by the first scrub surgical technologist to the circulator without touching the tips.
What is the name of the retractor shown below? a. Deaver b. Harrington c. Kelly d. Richardson see page 163 for photo
B. Harrington
The normal pouches of the large intestine are called: A. Taniae coli B. Haustra C. Polyps D. Diverticula
B. Haustra
What organ of the body contains both striated and smooth muscle? A. Liver B. Heart C. Kidney D. Colon
B. Heart
Which of the following refers to the ability of the body to maintain a normal internal environment? A. Metabolism B. Homeostasis C. Syncope D. Glycolysis
B. Homeostasis
Viruses reproduce by: A. Mitosis B. Host cell metabolism C. Binary fission D. Meiosis
B. Host cell metabolism
Laser light travels: A. According to the Earth's curvature B. In a straight line C. In an arc D. According to the pull of gravity
B. In a straight line
The invasion of pathogens within the tissues of a host is called: A. Infestation B. Infection C. Intussusception D. Inflammation
B. Infection
The vertebra are examples of what type of bone? A. Long B. Irregular C. Flat D. Short
B. Irregular
Which of the following is a large vein that drains the head? A. Saphenous B. Jugular C. Subclavian D. Brachial
B. Jugular
Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps? a. Antrum rasp b. Krause nasal snare c Knight nasal scissors d. Gruenwald nasal forceps
B. Krause nasal snare
Retinal detachment is due to: A. Fibrovascular growth of conjunctiva B. Leakage of liquid from vitreous cavity C. Excessive scar tissue D. Obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct
B. Leakage of liquid from vitreous cavity
What is the primary function of the islets of Langerhans? A. Breakdown of fat B. Maintain blood sugar level C. Maintain urinary glucose level D. Increase oxygen level in blood
B. Maintain blood sugar level
Which of the following drains is inserted during a cholecystostomy? A. Robinson B. Malecot C. Penrose D. T-tube
B. Malecot
Which intravenous drug would be used to reduce intracranial pressure during a craniotomy? A. Sorbitol B. Mannitol C. Papaverine D. Epinephrine
B. Mannitol; During a craniotomy, Mannitol is used to reduce intracranial pressure.
Which directional term refers to the middle of the body? A. Lateral B. Medial C. Caudal D. Proximal
B. Medial
Which nerve is affected by carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Radial D. Brachial
B. Median
The inferior portion of the brain stem is the: A. Midbrain B. Medulla C. Hypothalamus D. Pons
B. Medulla
Microorganisms that grow best with a low level of oxygen supply are: A. Facultative B. Microaerophiles C. Aerotolerant anaerobes D. Spores
B. Microaerophiles
Which of the following types of dressings is used when frequent wound inspections are necessary? A. pressure B. Montgomery straps C. stent D. ostomy bags
B. Montgomery straps
Which of the following is a narcotic antagonist? A. Protamine sulfate B. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) C. Vecuronium (Norcuron) D. Benzodiazepine (Valium)
B. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
One of the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are: A. Saprophytic hosts B. Obligate intracellular parasites C. Nonpathogenic Microorganisms D. Gram-positive microorganisms C. Nonpathogenic Microorganisms
B. Obligate intracellular parasites
The roof of the mouth is called the: A. Alveolus B. Palate C. Uvula D. Oropharynx
B. Palate
Which of the following is a passive drain that allows fluid to exit by capillary action? A. T-tube B. Penrose C. Hemovac D. Jackson-Pratt
B. Penrose
Before donning the sterile gown and gloves the surgical technologist must: A. Sterilize the hands B. Perform a surgical hand and arm scrub C. Disinfect the hands and arms D. Remove all resident flora from hands and arms
B. Perform a surgical hand and arm scrub
Which of these surgical instruments would be used during a tonsillectomy? A. Gerald forceps B. Pillar retractor C. Cottle osteotome D. Vienna speculum
B. Pillar retractor; Yankauer suction tip, Hurd dissector, Pilar retractor, and palate retractor are all included on a tonsillectomy instrument set.
Which of the following absorbable sutures offers the longest duration of wound support? A. Polyglactin 910 B. Polydioxanone C. Polyglyconate D. Poliglecaprone 25
B. Polydioxanone
The wavelength of laser light: A. Is never visable B. Ranges from infrared to deep ultraviolet C. Is always visible D. Ranges red to violet
B. Ranges from infrared to deep ultraviolet
The inner most layer of the eye is called the: A. Choroid B. Retina C. Cornea D. Sclera
B. Retina
What is the function of the Bartholin's glands? A. Produce oocytes B. Secrete lubrication C. Stimulate ovulation D. Secrete hormones
B. Secrete lubrication
A method of anesthesia in which anesthetic medication is injected into the subarachnoid space is a/an: A. Bier block B. Spinal block C. Nerve block D. Field block
B. Spinal block
Which of the following is the staining characteristic of gram-negative organisms? A. Stain colorless B. Stain red C. Do not consistently stain D. Stain purple
B. Stain red
What does the suffix "-stasis" mean? A. Hardening B. Stopping, standing still C. Drooping, prolapse D. Treatment
B. Stopping, standing still
Turning the hand so that the palm is upward is referred to as: A. Pronation B. Supination C. Rotation D. Inversion
B. Supination
What is the classification of Surgilon? A. Synthetic absorbable monofilament B. Synthetic nonabsorbable multifilament C. Natural absorbable monofilament D. Natural nonabsorbable multifilament
B. Synthetic nonabsorbable multifilament
Muscle is attached to bone by: A. Fascia B. Tendon C. Ligament D. Cartilage
B. Tendon
What clotting factor does fibrinogen react with to form fibrin during the clotting process? A. Plasma B. Thrombin C. Collagen D. Serotonin
B. Thrombin
What is another term for intractable pain due to irritation of the fifth cranial nerve? A. Craniosynostosis B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Bell's palsy D. Encephalitis
B. Trigeminal neuralgia; is the result of irritation and compression of the fifth cranial nerve that can result in severe chronic, intractable pain.
Which type of drain is normally used following orthopedic procedures? A. pleur- evac B. Hemovac C. penrose D. T-tube
B. When drainage is expected after a major orthopedic procedure a Hemovac is the most common closed-wound drainage system used.
Irregular shaped bones that develop in the sutures of the skull are called: A. Flat B. Wormian C. Vomer D. Seasamoid
B. Wormian
Which member of the surgical team is responsible for supporting the head and neck of the patient during positioning? A. circulating person B. anesthesia provider C. surgical assistant D. surgeon
B. anesthesia provider
Cephalosporins are what classification of drug? A. Amnesiacs B. antibiotics C. analgesics D. antagonists
B. antibiotics
Which of the following congenital conditions is an atypical communication of intracranial vessels? A. patent ductus arteriosus B. arteriovenous malformation C. craniosynostosis D. myelomeningocele
B. arteriovenous malformation
Which of the following surgical instruments is a vaginal speculum? A. bozeman B. auvard C. doyen D. heaney
B. auvard
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution? A. colon B. calculi C. tonsils D. uterus
B. calculi
Glaucoma results from blockage of the: A. hyaloid canal B. canal of schlemm C. retinal artery D. optic chiasma
B. canal of schlemm
Which fixation device is indicated for a femoral neck fracture? A. intramedullary rod B. cannulated screw C. gamma nail D. kirshner wire
B. cannulated screw
The instruments show below are used to dilate the: a. urethra b. cervix c. Coronary artery d. Intranasal antrostomy (See page 162 for picture)
B. cervix
Sterile dressing materials should be opened onto the sterile backtable by the: A. surgeon B. circulator C. surgical technologist D. surgical first assistant
B. circulator
Which procedure is performed to correct the congenital deformity cheiloschisis? A. arch bar application B. cleft lip repair C. dental implants D. dental extractions
B. cleft lip repair
Which duct carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the duodenum? A. cystic B. common bile C. wisung D. common hepatic
B. common bile
What is the procedure for surgical repair of a cranial defect? A. craniectomy B. cranioplasty C. craniotomy D. craniotonoscopy
B. cranioplasty
Which of the following is commonly used in the treatment of retinal detachment? A. Electrosurgical unit B. cryotherapy unit C. CO2 laser D. Cell saver
B. cryotherapy unit is used to seal tears and holes for the treatment of retinal detachment.
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the: A. arachnoid B. dura mater C. pia mater D. galea
B. dura mater
The principle of personal liability is a legal rule that: A. applies only to someone employed outside of a hospital B. holds everyone legally responsible for their own negligent acts C. maintains the hospital is responsible for negligence D. prevents malpractice suits against hospital employees
B. holds everyone legally responsible for their own negligent acts
Sterile water is used for irrigation during a mastectomy, because it is categorized as which of the following? A. hypotonic B. hypertonic C. isometric D. isotonic
B. hypotonic solution; A hypotonic solution causes cells to burst due to the excessive intake of water by the cell.
Where are intestinal anastomosis instruments placed when using bowel technique? A. on backtable B. in separate basin C. on mayo tray D. off the sterile field
B. in separate basin
The plicae circulares, micro villi and villi: A. Produce bacteria B. Increase absorption area C. Secrete digestive enzymes D. Initiate peristalsis
B. increase the surface area for absorption and digestion in the small intestine
Intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia? A. recovery B. induction C. emergency D. maintenance
B. induction
The funnel-shaped distal opening of a fallopian tube is the: A. fimbriae B. infundibulum C. cervical os D.isthmus
B. infundibulum
The middle muscular layer of the uterus is the: A. peritoneum B. myometrium C. endometrium D. perineum
B. myometrium
In which instrument tray would this retractor be located? A. Ob-Gyn B. orthopedic C. thoracic D. plastic
B. orthopedic
The organ that is divided into head, neck, body and tail which lies posterior to the stomach is the: A. liver B. pancreas C. spleen D. kidney
B. pancreas
Which scissors are commonly used to extend an arteriotomy? A.knight B. potts- smith C. mayo stille D. jorgenson
B. potts- smith
Polyglycolic acid suture falls into which classification? A. natural absorbable B. synthetic absorbable C. natural nonabsorbable D. synthetic nonabsorbable
B. synthetic absorbable
For which of the following procedures would a HUMI cannula be used? A. hysteroscopy B. tuboplasy C. salphingectomy D. cystotomy
B. tuboplasy
Which of the following incisions divides the linea alba? A. right subcostal B. vertical midline C. paramedian rectus D. midabdominal transverse
B. vertical midline
A patient with pain during mastication might require surgical decompression of which cranial nerve? A. IV B.V C.XI D.XII
B.V, trigeminal neuralgia
The small intestine is divides into how many sections? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
B: 3
A dilation of the arterial wall is called: A. Atherosclerosis B. Aneurysm C. Fistula D. Embolism
B: Aneurysm
Omnipaque, a water soluble iodine-based contrast medium is used for: A. Schiller's Test B. Angiography C. Isotope Scanning D. Chromotubation
B: Angiography
Heparin is classified as a/an: A. Coagulant B. Anticoagulant C. Antibiotic D. Muscle relaxant
B: Anticoagulant
The 126 bones that compose the upper and lower extremities of the body is called the: A. Vertebral column B. Appendicular skeleton C. Pelvic girdle D. Axial Skeleton
B: Appendicular skeleton
Another name for spongy bone is: A. Callus B. Cancellous C. Cortical D. Compact
B: Cancellous
Which of the following types of anaerobic bacteria is the cause of gas gangrene? A. Fusobacterium B. Clostridium perfingens C. Clostridium botulinum D. Bacteroides fragillis
B: Clostridium perfingens
Which of the following describes spherically shaped bacteria? A. L-form B. Cocci C. Prion D. Bacilli
B: Cocci
What type of tissue is cartilage: A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Nervous D. Muscle
B: Connective
The inner lining of the heart is called the: A. Myocardium B. Endocardium C. Pericardium D. Epicardium
B: Endocardium
Red blood cells are also known as: A. Leukocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Thrombocytes
B: Erythrocytes
The major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is: A. Prokaryotic cells have a well-define nucleus membrane whereas eukaryotic cells do not B. Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nuclear membrane whereas prokaryotic cells do not C. Eukaryotic cells are usually found in pathogenic bacteria D. There is very little difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
B: Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nuclear membrane whereas prokaryotic cells do not
What term means the rupture of a wound with protrusion of abdominal contents? A. Dehiscence B. Evisceration C. Disruption D. Herniation
B: Evisceration
The seventh cranial nerve is called the: A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Optic
B: Facial
The suffix "-pexy" means: A. Rule, Order B. Fixation, To put in place C. Eat, Swallow D. Attraction for
B: Fixation, To put in place
An inanimate object upon which pathogens may be conveyed is referred to as a: A. Bioburden B. Fomite C. Flora D. Vector
B: Fomite
Which of the following is the medical term for the calf muscle? A. Plantaris B. Gastrocnemius C. Sartorius D. Quadriceps
B: Gastrocnemius
Which virus is the precursor to Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome? A. HBV B. HIV C. HPV D. HAV
B: HIV
The most common side effect of drugs include all of the following except: A. Diarrhea and constipation B. Hemorrhage and edema C. Dizziness and drowsiness D. Nausea and vomiting
B: Hemorrhage and edema
Which of the following is an action of antimicrobials? A. Inhibit the microbial immune system B. Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis C. Promote cell metabolism D. Promote protein synthesis
B: Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
The term pharmacodynamics means: A. Excretion of drugs B. Interaction between drugs and target cells C. Absorption and distribution of drugs D. Metabolism of drugs
B: Interaction between drugs and target cells
A dissociative drug that produces a short-term, trance-like state and hallucinations is: A. Sodium pentathol B. Ketamine C. Succinylcholine D. Fentanyl
B: Ketamine
Pulse oximetry involves the noninvasive measurement of which of the following arterial blood saturation levels? A. Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Nitrous oxide D. Propofol
B: Oxygen
The bending of the foot downward at the ankle joint is called: A. Eversion B. Plantar Flexion C. Inversion D. Dorsiflexion
B: Plantar Flexion
The acromion process is part of which bone? A. Clavicle B. Scapula C. Humerus D. Ulna
B: Scapula
When the vertebral column develops an abnormal lateral curve, the condition is called: A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Spondylosis D. Kyphosis
B: Scoliosis
Which intention of healing occurs in a wound with a large loss of tissue? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
B: Second
The prefix "brady-" means: A. Two B. Slow C. Down D. Against
B: Slow
Organisms are highly resistant to destruction and can survive a harsh environment are: A. Cocci B. Spores C. Aerobes D. Anaerobes
B: Spores
Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response? A. Visceral B. Sympathetic C. Parasympathetic D. Somatic
B: Sympathetic
What does the thymus gland produce for the immune response? A. Antigens B. T-cells C. Lymphocytes D. Interferon
B: T-cells
What is the trade name for polyglactic 910? A. Ethibond B. Vicryl C. PDS D. Dexon
B: Vicryl
Which of the following medications inhibits blood coagulation? A. Calcium B. Warfarin C. Vitamin k D. Neosynephrine
B: Warfarin
Which cranial nerve arises from the medulla and innervates the cervical, thoracic, and abdominal regions? A. IX B. X C. XI D. XII
B: X
The initial result of fertilization of gametes is a/an? A. Fetus B. Zygote C. Blastocyst D. Embryo
B: Zygote
143. Which clamp is most often used to grasp the appendix?
Babcock. The Babcock clamp is the primary traumatic instrument for grasping the appendix during an appendectomy.
161. Which microorganisms is used within the biological indicator for ethylene oxide sterilization?
Bacillus atropaheus. B. atrophaeus in spore form is placed within the EtO BI.
The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled used of biological indicators containing the organism?
Bacillus searothermophilus. B.stearothermophilus, in spore form, is highly resistant to destruction by steam sterilization, but does not cause disease in humans.
2-21. Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes?
Bailey. The Bailey Rib contractor is positioned over two ribs and tightened to bring them together to facilitate suturing.
Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
Bakes. Bakes common duct dilators are used to dilate the common bile duct during an exploration for gallstones.
Which specialized retractors are used during a rotator cuff repair?
Bankart
When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following?
Basin with sterile water
When preparing a double basin for sterilization, the:A. Basins should be separated by a porous, absorbent towelB. Sponges should be placed in the top basinC. Wrapped package should be laid flat on the shelf of the sterilizing cartD. Bottom basin should contain a residual of distilled water
Basins should be separated by a porous, absorbent towel
172. If a surgeon performs a surgical procedure without the patient having signed the consent form, the surgeon can be charged with what?
Battery
When is the surgical consent typically signed?
Before preoperative medications are administered
Which of the followingincisions may be used for the repair of a zygomatic fracture?
Below lower eyelid
What is the name of this retractor?
Bennett
Which of the following retractors would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?A. HarringtonB. CharnleyC. BennettD. Richardson
Bennett
2-31. The muscle that flexes and supinated the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the what?
Biceps brachii. The biceps brachii flexes and supinates the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm.
The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the:
Bicuspid
What does the term chole/ refer to?
Bile
What is the most commonly used thermal method of hemostasis in cranial neurosurgery?
Bipolar electrosurgery
107. The stripes on steam chemical indicators change to what color upon exposure to sterilization parameters?
Black. The diagonal stripes on the steam autoclave tape and the stripe on the chemical indicator strip should change to black when exposed to the steam sterilization parameters.
Which of the following instruments would be used during a suprapubic prostatectomy?A. Wertheim pedicle clampB. Iglesias resectoscopeC. Bladder retractorD. Stamey needle
Bladder retractor
2-12. During a cesarean section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury?
Bladder. Before the incision is made in the uterus, the bladder is dissected free from the uterus and retracted inferiorly.
46. What surgical procedure uses the instrument shown above?
Blepharoplasty. The Stevens tenotomy scissors are used during delicate procedures, such as eye surgery.
114. The ophthalmologist tells the surgical technologist to place 2 drops atropine sulfate OU. What does this mean?
Both eyes dilated. A. OU (oculus uterque) is the abbreviation for both eyes. Atropine sulfate is a commonly used mydriatic drug that dilates the pupil and is instilled preoperatively for cataract surgery
43. What instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy?
Bowel. The surgical technologist should always anticipate strangulated or incarcerated bowel when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy and have the bowel instruments in the room in case a bowel resection has to be performed.
Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees?
Brachial plexus
50. What maintains the position of the uterus?
Broad ligament. The broad, uterosacral and cardinal ligaments maintain the position of the uterus.
2-1. Which of the following is a type of tissue forceps?
Brown-Adson. The Brown-Adson tissue forceps are used during minor procedures to grasp tissue.
119. The conducting fibers that extend from the AV node to the interventricular septum form the what?
Bundle of His. The conducting fibers that run from the atrioventricular (AV) node down the inteventricular septum is referred to as the bundle of His.
2-33. What is the purpose of inserting a ureteral stent catheter?
Bypass calculi obstruction. The ureteral catheter stent is implanted to bypass partial or total obstructions of the ureter due to ureteral tumors, calculi
Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
Iliac
What is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft?
Iliac crest
Frozen sections are sent to pathology:
Immediately without preservative
What is the telescoping of the intestines in neonates that requires immediate surgical intervention?
Intussusception. Intussusception is the most common emergency surgery for neonates when the portion of the bowel slides into another segment and causes obstruction. The motion is like a telescope.
Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye?
Iris
The essential element of hemoglobin is:
Iron
Which of the following is an intermediate-level disinfectant?A. Isopropyl alcoholB. GlutaraldehydeC. Paracetic acidD. Hydrogen peroxide
Isopropryl alcohol
Which of the following agents should not be used to disinfect endoscopes?A. Distilled waterB. GlutaraldehydeC. Enzymatic solutionD. Isopropyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the ;
Isthmus
Why would the hair of a patient undergoing craniotomy be bagged, labeled and saved?
It is patient property
What drainage device is preferred for a radical neck dissection?
Jackson-Pratt
Which closed wound drainage requires being connected to a bulb evacuator?
Jackson-pratt
159. A surgeon indicates that she may place a shunt during a carotid endarterectomy. What should the surgical technologist have available in the OR?
Javid. The Argyle and Javid are two types of shunts used during a carotid endarterectomy.
Which of the following vitamins is essential for the clotting proccess?
K
In order to minimize mucosal irritation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in what?
K-Y jelly
166. Which of the following would be used to remove the lamina during a laminectomy?
Kerrison Rongeur. A Kerrison rongeur is used to excise the lamina followed by the pituitary rongeur to remove disk material.
138. When performing a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon removes the osteophytes from the rim of the femur and tibia with a what?
Kerrison. The osteophytes are removed with a Kerrison rongeur.
Isopropyl alcohol is bactericidal, which means it:A. Inhibits the growth of bacteriaB. Sterilizes surfacesC. Destroys sporesD. Kills bacteria
Kills bacteria
What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
Kitner (peanut)
What is the name of the instrument show below?
Kocher
Which of the following incisions is oblique?
Kocher. The kocher is a type of oblique incision used for exposing the biliary tract (right side) or spleen (left side).
A ventilation system that provides a unidirectional positive-pressure air flow at a high air exchange rate in the OR is what?
Laminar air flow
A postoperative anesthesia complication when extubating a patient is what?
Laryngospasm
An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:
Laser plume
In what position would a patient be placed following a tonsillectomy?
Lateral
During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on which muscle?
Lateral rectus
78. When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed?
Lateral ventricle The multi-holed ventricular catheter is placed in the laterai ventricle of the brain.
55. What position allows optimal exposure of the retroperitoneal area of the flank?
Lateral. The lateral kidney position provides optimal exposure to the retroperitoneal area of the flank for a transverse incision.
123. Which of the following should be accomplished when preparing an Esmarch bandage for sterilization?
Layer of Webril rolled with bandage. Rubber or Silastic items should not be folded, tightly rolled or placed in a mound because steam will either not penetrate or displace the air. The Esmarch bandage should be loosely rolled with a layer of Webril" in between.
The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an:
LeFort I
64. What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologist don prior to the start of an extracorpeal shock-wave lithotripsy procedure?
Lead apron. Fluoroscopy may be used to identify the exact location of the urinary stone; therefore, the surgical team should wear a lead apron.
Where should the grounding pad be placed on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis?
Left anterior thigh
Which incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy?
Left subcostal
Get question
Leiomyoma. Leiomyomas are a type of uterine fibroid that can cause lower abdominal pain, pelvic congestion, menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea and increased fertility. A myomectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove the fibroids.
151. What are the boundaries of the skin prep for a total hip arthroplasty?
Level of the umbilicus to the foot. The patient skin prep is level of umbilicus to the foot, including the hip region and entire circumference of the leg and entire foot.
149. Testosterone is secreted by the what?
Leydig cells. The cells of Leydig are specialized cells that secrete the male hormone testosterone.
Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope?
Light source
153. Which of the following is the main reason for wearing the OR attire?
Limit the spread of microbes. Clean scrub attire is worn to protect the patient and surgery staff by limiting the spread of microbes.
Which of the following items should not be sterilized by dry heat?
Linen packs
When preparing instruments for sterilization, all the following are completed with the exception of what?A. Maintaining the ringed instruments in an open positionB. Placing heavy instruments on the bottom of the trayC. Placing the instruments in a mesh-bottom trayD. Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper
Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper
Which of the following positions would be used for an LAVH?A. LateralB. ProneC. SittingD. Lithotomy
Lithotomy
The Harrington retractor allows for gentle elevation of which anatomical structure?
Liver
In which of the following procedures would the surgeon check for anastomatic leaks by injecting air into the rectum, looking for bubbles in the fluid-filled peritoneal cavity?A. Low anterior resectionB. Nissen fundoplicationC. Subtotal gastrectomyD. Roux-en-Y anastomosis
Low anterior resection
Which of the following is an initial incision for abdominoplasty?A. PeriumbilicalB. Upper paramedianC. Low transverseD. Midline
Low transverse
60. How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position?
Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight. A pantaloon hernia refers to the presence of a direct and indirect hernia.
What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?
Lower legs together slowing in unison
Where should the Foley indwelling catheter drainage bag be positioned after insertion of the catheter?
Lower than the level of the bladder
Which of the following is used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test?A. Lugol's solutionB. Indigo carmineC. Methylene blueD. Acetic acid
Lugol's solution
44. Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy?
Lukens tube. The Lukens tube is connected to the suction system of the bronchoscope to collect the specimens.
What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher?
Maintains sterility and integrity of backtable
During which Step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown below be used?
Make last cut to free the uterus
What is the technical term for robotic arms?
Manipulator
Untreated acute otitis media may result in:
Mastoiditis
71. Which pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis?
Meckel's diverticulum. Meckel's diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum that presents as a small bulge in the small intestine and can present signs and symptoms that are the same as acute appendicitis.
What is the term for the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with chromosome cells?
Meiosis
A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for preoperative sedation is:
Meperidine
The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?
Mesentery. The mesentery binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.
76. What anatomical structure must be approximated after a colectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents?
Mesentery. The mesentery is approximated to aid in keeping the intestine in normal anatomical position in order to prevent herniation and maintain the blood supply.
What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body?
Metastasis
What type of dye is used intravenously to verify patency of the fallopian tubes during a pelvic procedure?
Methylene blue
What approach is used for the removal of a small acoustic neuroma that is located in the internal auditory canal?
Middle fossa
What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome?
Mineral oil
Creating a positive-pressure air supply for ear OR will do what?
Minimize airborne bacteria entering the room
The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the:
Mons pubis
In large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which of the following will minimize the skin break-down?A. Steri-StripsB. Petralatum gauzeC. Liquid collodianD. Montgomery straps
Montgomery straps
What controls the arrow on your monitor?
Mouse
What precaution is utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient?
Move patient slowly
The walls of the vagina are lined with what?
Mucosa
38. The walls of the vagina are lined with what?
Mucosa. The vagina is a tubular, fibromuscular organ lined with mucous membrane.
157. Movement disorder disease caused by radiation therapy are characterized by destruction of the what?
Myelin sheath. Demyelination can occur when a patient is undergoing radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy for cancer treatment.
What is a surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media?
Myringotomy
111. What instrument is used to incise the tympanic membrane?
Myringotomy knife. The incision is made in the inferior posterior portion of the tympanic membrane with a disposable myringotomy knife.
What identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
Name, DOB, and physician
Which of the following sutures are packaged in alcohol to maintain pliability?A. Synthetic absorbableB. Natural absorbableC. Synthetic non-absorbableD. Natural non-absorbable
Natural absorbable
Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing?
Neck
Knife blades should be loaded onto the handle with:
Needle holder
132. A surgical technologist is talking with a patient in the PACU with arms folded and at a distance. This could be interpreted by the patient as what?
Negative There are several negative body language signals that should be avoided when communicating with patients, patient's family members, peers and the public including tightly folded arms, distancing oneself from patient, frowning, and tapping fingers or foot.
Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?
Nephrectomy
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the what?
Nephron
Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy?
Nerve stimulator
The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
Neuron
152. What are the abdominal skin prep perimeters for an exploratory laparotomy?
Nipple line to midthigh The skin prep boundaries are nipple line to symphysis pubis and often extended to midthigh and bilaterally.
84. Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is what?
Non-absorbable. Non-absorbable sutures become encapsulated during the healing process and remain in the tissues for many years.
Which of the following is used to expose the meatus during urethral catheterization?A. CottonballB. Sponge stickC. Non-dominant handD. Dominant hand
Non-dominant hand
What type of suture is used for vascular reanastomosis?
Nonabsorbable monofilament
Covering a sterile back table for later use is:
Not permissible under any circumstances
The anatomical structure that creates cerebrospinal fluid is the: A. Pineal gland B. Ponsand C. Choroid Plexuses D. Aqueduct of Sylvius
C. Choroid Plexuses
A solid granular mass that develops on the ovary after the release of an ovum is the: A. Graafian follicle B. Stroma C. Corpus luteum D. Zygote
C. Corpus luteum
Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet? a. Damage to tissue while removing specimen b. Contaminating the specimen c. Damaging ballistic markings d. Tearing surgical gloves
C. Damaging ballistic markings
Anticoagulants: A. Increase clotting time B. Decrease blood pressure C. Decrease clotting time D. Increase blood pressure
C. Decrease clotting time
Diuretics are used intraoperatively to: A. Increase blood volume B. Decrease urine output C. Decrease intracranial pressure D. Increase clotting time
C. Decrease intracranial pressure
Removal of an entire eyeball is called: A. Exenteration B. Evisceration C. Enucleation D. Evacuation
C. Enucleation is the removal of the entire eyeball.
What is the outermost layer of the skin? A. Adipose B. Dermis C. Epidermis D. Subcutaneous
C. Epidermis
Microorganisms that have the ability to adapt to an aerobic or anaerobic environment are: A. Aerobes B. Parasites C. Facultative D. Anaerobes
C. Facultative
Which nasal sinus is entered through and eyebrow incision? A. Sphenoid B. Ethmoid C. Frontal D. Maxillary
C. Frontal
During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient? a. Touch b. Taste c. Hearing d. Smell
C. Hearing
The purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula is for: a. Lavage b. Chemotherapy c. Hemodialysis d. Hemostasis
C. Hemodialysis
Microfibrillar collagen (Avitene) is a/an: A. Antibiotic B. CNS depressant C. Hemostatic agent D. Steroid hormone
C. Hemostatic agent
Which of the following joints permits movement in only one plane? A. Condyloid B. Saddle C. Hinge D. Gliding
C. Hinge
Healthcare associated infections refers to: A. Infections in the nasal cavity B. Infections acquired at home C. Hospital acquired infection D. An invasion of pathogenic microorganisms
C. Hospital acquired infection
Bone grafts are usually taken from the: A. Ilium B. Ischium C. Iliac crest D. Sacrum
C. Iliac crest
What does the suffix "-otomy" mean? A. Protrusion B. Excision C. Incision D. Fusion
C. Incision
Which of the following medical terms refers to the skin? A. Digestive B. Endocrine C. Integumentary D. Respiratory
C. Integumentary
Reduced blood flow to an area is: A. Hemostasis B. Extravasation C. Ischemia D. Hemorrhage
C. Ischemia
The thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the: A. Corpus callosum B. Larynx C. Isthmus D. Cricoid cartilage
C. Isthmus
What does the term hepat/o mean? A. Pancreas B. Blood C. Liver D. Iron
C. Liver
Which of the following non-invasive diagnostic techniques provides the best imaging of soft tissues? A. isotope scanning B. magnetic resonance tomography C. computed axial tomography D. Doppler ultrasonography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI); is especially useful for imaging of soft tissue. It is frequently useful for the diagnosis and evaluation of brain disorders.
Which of the following terms refers to a cancerous growth? A. Benign B. Sclerotic C. Malignant D. Hypertrophic
C. Malignant
Which of these local anesthetics is long acting? A. Cocaine B. Novacaine C. Marcaine D. Xylocaine
C. Marcaine
Narcotic analgesics produce their effects by: A. Decreasing salivation B. Stimulating the central nervous system C. Minimizing pain perception D. Increasing general anesthesia required
C. Minimizing pain perception
Which of these heart valves has two cusps? A. Pulmonary B. Tricuspid C. Mitral D. Aortic
C. Mitral
What portion of the back table is considered sterile once the sterile field has been established? A. Top of the table to within 1" edge of the drape B. Up to 2 inches below table level C. Only the top D. Entire length, width and sides of the table
C. Only the top
What is the term for a nonpathogenic organism that is capable of producing disease in an immunocompromised patient? A. Spore- forming B. Fomite C. Opportunistic D. Vector
C. Opportunistic is the microorganism that is capable of producing disease in an immunocompromised patient.
In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except? a. Myocardial ischemia b. Left ventricle hypertrophy c. Palpitations d. Angina
C. Palpitations
Which salivary gland is drained by Stensen's duct? A. Sublingual B. Tonsilar C. Parotid D. Submandibular
C. Parotid
Pedicle screws are used to correct which of these conditions? A. Anterior dislocations B. Femoral fractures C. Spinal degenerations D. Pelvic Fractures
C. Pedicle screw fixation has been used most often in degenerative processes.
The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the: A. Epicardium B. Myocardium C. Pericardium D. Endocardium
C. Pericardium
Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are: A. Formed elements of blood B. Coagulation factors C. Plasma proteins D. Hematopoietic growth factors
C. Plasma proteins
Which of the following diseases is the result of invasion by a pathogen? A. Scurvy B. Diabetes C. Pneumonia D. Rickets
C. Pneumonia
What type of suture is used for tendon repair? A. Polydioxanone B. Polyglactin 910 C. Polyethylene D. Poliglecaprone 25
C. Polyethylene
What is the general rule for prepping a contaminated area? A. Prep the surrounding are last and the contaminated area first, using a separate sponge B. No special considerations are necessary C. Prep the surrounding area first and the contaminated area last, using a separate sponge D. Contaminated areas need not be prepped
C. Prep the surrounding area first and the contaminated area last, using a separate sponge
Which of the following is a monofilament nonabsorbable suture? A. Nurolon B. Ethibond C. Prolene D. Monocryl
C. Prolene
Antibiotics given to prevent postoperative infection are considered: A. Curative B. Palliative C. Prophylactic D. Maintenance
C. Prophylactic
The small intestine begins at the: A. Stomach B. Hepatic artery C. Pylorus D. Ileocecal valve
C. Pylorus
Any instance in which a local anesthetic is injected to block or anesthetize a nerve is called: A. General anesthesia B. Monitored anesthesia care C. Regional anesthesia D. Topical anesthesia
C. Regional anesthesia
Which quadrant is the appendix located? A. Left upper B. Right upper C. Right lower D. Left lower
C. Right lower
What does the number 4 represent in the decimal 0.02457? A. Tenths B. Hundreths C. Thousandths D. Ten-thousandths
C. Thousandths
Which chemical hemostatic agent must never be injected? A. Heparin B. Papaverine C. Thrombin D. Epinephrine
C. Thrombin
Which of the procedures involves moving the ulnar nerve from one location to another? A. Neurolysis B. Neurectomy C.. Transposition D. Transfixion
C. Transposition
Which of the following defines cryptorchidism? A. Stones B. Impotence C. Undescended testes D. Undeveloped testes
C. Undescended testes; Cryptorchidism is when one or both testicles fail to descend within the first year of life.
The smallest microorganisms known are: A. Rickettsias B. Bacteria C. Viruses D. Protozoa
C. Viruses
Which retractor is used to provide exposure for a femoropopliteal bypass? A.Alm B. Meyerding C. Weitlaner D. Bookwalter
C. Weitlaner; An atraumatic Weitlaner self retaining retractor is used to facilitate exposure during a femoropopliteal bypass.
Which of the following is a nonadherent, nonpermeable, occlusive surgical dressing? A. Telfa B. Tegasorb C. Xeroform D. Tegaderm
C. Xeroform; is a type of nonpermeable, nonadherent, occlusive dressing that is used to create an airtight and watertight seal.
What drug may be used to treat an anaphylactic reaction? A. antibiotic B. anticoagulant C. antihistamine D. antiarrhythmic
C. antihistamine
What does the root word arteri/o mean? A. joint B. gland C. artery D. bronchus
C. artery
Which of the following procedures is a partial gastrectomy? A. whipple B. wertheim C. bilroth I D. zenker
C. bilroth I
Which mode of the electrosurgical unit does not require use of a patient return electrode? A. Pure cutting B. Blended current C. Bipolar D. Monopolar
C. bipolar units The bipolar units do not require a grounding pad because the inactive dispersive electrode is built into one of the tips of the forceps.
The venous sinus at the junction of the sclera and cornea is the: A. macula B. uvea C. canal of schlemm D. fovea centralis
C. canal of schlemm
Which of the following is used to instill contrast media into the biliary system intraoperatively? A. fogarty B. angiocath C. cholangiocath D. tenckhoff
C. cholangiocath
Which of the following is used for bladder retraction during a cesarean section? A. graves B. auvard C. de-lee D. heaney
C. de-lee
Padgett and Reese are types of: A. retractors B. catheters C. dermatomes D. implants
C. dermatomes; Padgett and Reese are types of dermatomes used to take skin grafts.
What is the passive process when there is a greater movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration? A. perfusion B. filtration C. diffusion D. isotonic
C. diffusion
What is the medical term for painful menstruation? A. metrorrhagia B. amenorrhea C. dysmenorrhea D. metorrhea
C. dysmenorrhea
In which surgical procedure would Glisson's capsule be encountered? A. total splenectomy B. partial gastrectomy C. hepatic lobectomy D. subtotal thyroidectomy
C. hepatic lobectomy; Glisson's capsule is the external covering of the liver and is made of dense connective tissue and would be encountered during a hepatic lobectomy.
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of plain gut suture is: A. decreased B. terminated C. increased D. not affected
C. increased
Which of the following tunica would be found in a blood vessel? A. albuginea B. vaginalis C. intima D. vasculosa
C. intima
A type of cataract extraction when the lens and its capsule are removed is: A. phacoemulsification B. extracapsular C. intracapsular D. keratoplasty
C. intracapsular
Insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump is done to treat patients with a/an: A. atrial valve defect B. mitral valve defect C. left ventricular failure D. right ventricular failure
C. left ventricular failure
Which peripheral nerve is decompressed in a carpal tunnel release? A. ulnar B. radial C. median D. peroneal
C. median
Which procedure can be performed to repair a bucket-handle tear? A. arthrotomy B. synovectomy C. meniscectomy D. hemiarthroplasty
C. meniscectomy
Which is used to increase the size of a split-thickness graft? A. Castroviejo caliper B. drum dermatome C. mesh graft device D. tissue expander
C. mesh graft device
The acronym "MAC" denotes what type of anesthesia care? A. mixed B. managed C. monitored D. manipulated
C. monitored
Which procedure restores function of a nerve by freeing it from adhesions? A. transposition B. transection C. neurolysis D. chemonucleolysis
C. neurolysis
In which structure of a eukaryotic cell is DNA contained? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi complex C. Nucleus D. Cilia
C. nucleus
Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use on bones A. bone wax B. topical thrombin C. oxidized cellulose D. absorbable collagen
C. oxidized cellulose
The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the: A. Vena Cava B.coronary C. pulmonary D. thoracic aorta
C. pulmonary artery is the only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood.
What term is used to describe the back-and-forth action of a power saw blade? A. rotary B. sagittal C. reciprocating D. oscillating
C. reciprocating
What is the name of the surgical procedure that resects the dorsal root of a spinal nerve for relief of trigeminal neuralgia? A. cordotomy B. corpectomy C. rhizotomy D. rhytidectomy
C. rhizotomy
Which of the following terms refers to the removal of facial wrinkles? A. iridectomy B. blepharoplasty C. rhytidectomy D. panniculectomy
C. rhytidectomy
Which of the following clamps would not be found in an intestinal tray? A. allen B. best C. sarot D. doyen
C. sarot
In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used? A. myringotomy B. tonsillectomy C. stapedectomy D. tympanotomy
C. stapedectomy
Which of the following anatomical structures is involved in a hiatal hernia? A. rectum B. bladder C. stomach D. intestine
C. stomach
To prevent cross-contamination, masks should only be removed by the: A. sides B. front C. strings D. nose piece
C. strings
This instrument (Lahey) would most likely be used to grasp: A. bowel B. stomach C. thyroid D. gallbladder
C. thyroid
Which of the following is an endoscopic procedure of the suspension of the bladder neck for treatment of stress incontinence? A. stamey procedure B. retropubic urethrovesical suspension C. vesicourethral suspension D. tension free vaginal tape
C. vesicourethral suspension
The standard volume for an Asepto syringe is approximately: A. 60cc B. 90cc C. 120cc D. 200cc
C: 120cc
Neurons that conduct impulses to the spinal cord and brain are called: A. Peripheral B. Efferent C. Afferent D. Unipolar
C: Afferent
The primary stabilizing ligament of the knee is attached to the posterior lateral: A. Medial Collateral B. Posterior Cruciate C. Anterior Cruciate D. Lateral Collateral
C: Anterior Cruciate
The left coronary artery divides into the: A. Posterior interventricular and marginal B. Middle and marginal C. Anterior interventricular and circumflex D. Middle and great cardiac
C: Anterior interventricular and circumflex
Which portion of the sterile gown is considered non-sterile once it has been donned? A. Arms up to 2 inches above the elbow B. Table level to 2 inches below the neck line C. Axillary region D. Side tie
C: Axillary region
Tetanus and botulism are caused by organisms of the genus: A. Vibrio B. Clostridium C. Bacillus D. Streptococcus
C: Bacillus
A virus that infects a bacterial cell is called a/an: A. Viroid B. Chromatid C. Bacteriophage D. Inclusion
C: Bacteriophage
The suffix "-lysis" means: A. Tumor, Mass B. Softening C. Breakdown, Destruction D. Enlargement
C: Breakdown, Destruction
The heel bone of the foot is called the: A. Tarsal B. Phalanges C. Calcaneus D. Metatarsal
C: Calcaneus
The c-shaped rings of the trachea are composed of: A. Ligament B. Bone C. Cartilage D. Tendon
C: Cartilage
Which of the following natural sutures is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption? A. Plain gut B. Surgical silk C. Chromic gut D. Stainless steel
C: Chromic gut
An angulated fracture of the distal radius is a/an? A. Greenstick B. Spiral C. Colles' D. Potts
C: Colles'
Escherichia coli is normally present inside which of the following anatomical structures? A. Posterior pharynx B. Stomach C. Colon D. Lower esophagus
C: Colon
If a suture strand hangs or extends over the sterile table edge, the S.T. in the scrub role should: A. Watch it closely so that no one comes near it B. Use it anyway as long as nothing unsterile touched it C. Consider the suture contaminated and discard it D. Pull it back onto the table to prevent it from becoming contaminated
C: Consider the suture contaminated and discard it
Which type of needle point would be selected for use on a tendon or skin? A. Spatula B. Blunt C. Cutting D. Taper
C: Cutting
The suffix "-trophy" means: A. Wasting B. Lack of strength C. Development, Nourishment D. Fibrous connective tissue
C: Development, Nourishment
Which of the following systemic conditions affects the opthalmic system? A. Arthritis B. Lymphoma C. Diabetes D. Cirrhosis
C: Diabetes
The shaft of a bone is known as the: A. Metaphysis B. Condyle C. Diaphysis D. Endosteum
C: Diaphysis
A Microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell within a sample is called: A. Plasma cell count B. Platelet count C. Differential blood count D. Erythrocyte count
C: Differential blood count
Epidural anesthesia involves the administration of an anesthetic agent into he space surrounding the: A. Spinal Cord B. Pia Mater C. Dura Mater D. Subarachnoid Space
C: Dura Mater
The arousal from general anesthesia after cessation of the anesthetic agent is called: A. Induction B. Enticement C. Emergence D. Excitement
C: Emergence
The prefix that means above or upon is: A. Ad- B. Dia- C. Epi- D. Trans-
C: Epi-
The end of a long bone is the: A. Diaphysis B. Periosteum C. Epiphysis D. Endosteum
C: Epiphysis
The nuclear material of the bacterial cell has been found to: A. Be a combination of ATP and RNA B. Exist as two or more chromosomes C. Exist as a single molecule of DNA D. Have a distinct nuclear membrane
C: Exist as a single molecule of DNA
The suffix "-rrhea" means: A. Birth, Labor B. Breathing C. Flow, Discharge D. To pour
C: Flow, Discharge
Cholecystectomy is removal of the: A. Urinary Bladder B. Stomach C. Gallbladder D. Colon
C: Gallbladder
Lack of control over urination is called: A. Micturition B. Retention C. Incontinence D. Urinary Meatus
C: Incontinence
Which of the following condition exists is a patient has a white blood cell count of 12,500? A. Edema B. Hemophilia C. Infection D. Leukopenia
C: Infection
Antibiotics are commonly administered intraoperatively by which of the following routes? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Intravenous D. Intramuscular
C: Intravenous
Which organ produces bile? A. Small Intestine B. Gallbladder C. Liver D. Pancreas
C: Liver
Which of the following is a phase of first intention wound healing? A. Contraction B. Granulation C. Maturation D. Chronic
C: Maturation
The thick, crescent-shaped pads of cartilage that rest on the upper articular surface of the tibia are the: A. Capsules B. Bursae C. Menisci D. Condyles
C: Menisci
Following administration, most of the drugs are converted to less active or inactive substances called: A. Urea B. Ions C. Metabolites D. Compounds
C: Metabolites
The basic unit of length in the metric system is the: A. Millimeter B. Centimeter C. Meter D. Micrometer
C: Meter
A tendon is defined as a structure that attaches: A. Bone to bone B. Muscle to muscle C. Muscle to bone D. Nerve to bone
C: Muscle to bone
The scroll-like ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity are called the: A. Hard palate B. Palatine tonsils C. Nasal conchae D. Tympanic membrane
C: Nasal conchae
Which bone of the skull is most superior? A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Parietal D, Temporal
C: Parietal
Which of the following is a salivary gland? A. Pituitary B. Pineal C. Parotid D. Pancreas
C: Parotid
In which fossa is the cerebellum located? A. Medial B. Lateral C. Posterior D. Anterior
C: Posterior
Which of the following is a seminal tract accessory gland that surround the urethra? A. Ejaculatory ducts B. Testes C. Prostate D. Adrenal
C: Prostate
What is the purpose of the surgical hand scrub? A. Negate the need for wearing gown and gloves B. Remove bioburden from contaminated skin C. Reduce the microbial count D. Sterilize the hands and arms
C: Reduce the microbial count
Tubercle bacillus is found in the: A. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Intestinal tract C. Respiratory tract D. Synovial fluid
C: Respiratory tract
What is another name for a stick tie? A. Suture reel B. Free needle C. Suture ligature D. Free tie
C: Suture ligature
The medical term for the chest is: A. Diaphragm B. Pleura C. Thorax D. Mediastimum
C: Thorax
The absorption of a drug depends upon all of the following except: A. Dosage of drug B. Route of administration C. Time of the day when the drug is given D. Type of drug preparation
C: Time of the day when the drug is given
Which of the following muscles is not a component of the rotator cuff of the shoulder? A. Infraspinatus B. Subscapularis C. Trapezius D. Supraspinatus
C: Trapezius
The cranial nerve that innervated the larynx and the pharynx is the: A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Vagus D. Accessory
C: Vagus
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution?
Calculi
115. If a patient requests to see a member of the clergy upon arrival to preoperative holding. what do you do?
Call for a clergy person before the anesthesia is administered. The patient's request should be fulfilled; refusal of the request can cause anxiety and irritation in the patient who needs reassurance from the clergy person.
The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
Calyces
Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices:
Can harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made?
Canine fossa
Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy?
Carbohydrates
Which laser can be used on light and dark tissues?
Carbon dioxide
Which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye?
Carbon dioxide
Which type of laser is used to remove polymethyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?
Carbon dioxide
Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialities?
Cardiothoracic
101. If a short bone is being removed from the wrist due to arthritis, what is being removed?
Carpal. An example of a short bone are the carpal bones of the wrist; the exception is the pisiform which is a sesamoid bone.
What term describes an individual who harbors a pathogen but displays no signs or symptoms?
Carrier
Why is cardioplegia used?
Cause diastolic arrest
The basic, living structural and functional unit of the body is known as the:
Cell
Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination?
Cerebellum
What method is used to confirm that items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed?A. MechanicalB. BiologicalC. ChemicalD. Bowie-Dick
Chemical
What activity can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia?
Chewing
The term mentoplasty refers to surgery of the what?
Chin
85. If a mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the what?
Chin. Mentoplasty is reconstruction of the chin which can involve placement of a prosthesis. 86. A. Phagocytosis is the engulfment of large particles and is sometimes called cell "eating."
When performing a rhinoplasty, the exostosis in the nose is removed with what instrument?
Chisel
Which of the following skin preps is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?
Chlorhexidine
Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split thickness skin graft?
Chlorhexidine. The donor site should be scrubbed with a colorless antiseptic solution, such as chlorhexidine gluconate, to allow the surgeon the ability to evaluate the vascularity of the graft postoperatively.
During which procedure would the instrument shown above be used? A. Pancreatectomy B. Gastrectomy C. Splenectomy D. Cholecystectomy
Cholecystectomy
For which of the following diagnosis would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?
Choledocholithiasis
2-17. Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear?
Cholesteatoma. Cholesteatoma is benign tumor that invaders the mastoid cavity and destroys the mastoid air cells and can also damage the ossicles.
From where do most intracanial aneurysms arise?
Circle of willis
If a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take?
Circulator pulls off glove; surgical technologist is regloved by another sterile team member
Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?
Clean-contaminated. Clean-contaminated procedures include those when the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes. The procedure is considered clean, not sterile.
62. The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases is what?
Closed. A closed system allows complete rebreathing of expired gases; exhaled carbon dioxide is absorbed by soda lime.
Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?
Clostridium tetani
Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by:
Coagulation of protein
Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with renastomosis is performed to correct:
Coarctation of the aorta
Which of the following is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius?A. Smith'sB. Pott'sC. Colles'D. Bennett's
Colles'
145. Which type of dressing washes or wears off after several days?
Collodian. Liquid collodion is a type of chemical dressing that is applied to the wound and dries forming a seal; it is often used for pediatric procedures.
In what anatomical structure would a T-tube most likely be placed?
Common bile duct
In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent what?
Compromised ventilation
42. During a trabeculectomy, what two layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure?
Conjunctiva an tenon's capsule. The layers initially incised during a trabeculectomy procedure are the conjunctiva and Tenon's capsule.
What wound classification would be assigned to a compound fracture?
Contaminated
69. Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown above?
Coronary artery bypass. The Satinsky vena cava clamp, also called the Satinsky partial occlusion clamp, is an traumatic clamp available in various lengths used during major cardiothoracic procedures such as the CABG.
165. During a CABG procedure, the saphenous vein is sutured to the what?
Coronary artery. To reestablish blood flow and reoxygenate the heart muscle, the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery is sutured to the coronary artery to bypass the obstruction.
Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are:
Cottonoids
Which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a urethral stricture?
Coude
146. A patient requires a stat cesarean section. Which of the following might be omitted?
Counts. There are certain instances when the initial count and possibly subsequent counts may be omitted. Two examples are emergency cesarean section and ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
The needle holder shown below would be used during a:
Craniotomy
which of the following instrument sets will be needed when a frontal sinus fracture repair is performed?
Craniotomy
158. During which procedure would a Gigli saw possibly be used?
Craniotomy. A Gigli saw may be used by the surgeon to cut the cranium between the burr holes during a craniotomy.
Pneumoperitoneum is utilized during a laparoscopy to do what?
Create a safe working space
What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?
Cricoid cartilage
To determine the process for preparing surgical instruments for use on tissue and within a body cavity, they are classified as what?
Critical
Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following?
Cross-contamination
Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy?
Culdocentesis
Which of the following neurosurgical retractors is handheld?
Cushing
Which of the following procedures is performed before completing an ileal conduit?A. UreterolithotomyB. ProstatectomyC. CystectomyD. Ileostomy
Cystectomy
2-14. Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown above?
D & C. The Sims Uterine Curettes have sharp ends that graduated in size and used during a D&C to obtain endocervical and endometrial tissue specimens.
Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?
-centesis. The suffix -centesis means surgical puncture. When combined with arthrocentesis, it means surgical puncture of joint space with a needle to remove fluid.
When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become?
0.25%
What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
1 1/2 hours (90 minutes). The tourniquet should be deflated every 1 1/2 hours to allow blood flow into the leg and transport oxygen to prevent tissue necrosis.
The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is:
1 inch
2-23. What is the length of time when thrombin loses its potency?
3 hours Thrombin should be immediately used when reconstituted with saline or discarded if not used within several hours because it loses potency.
88. What is the correct order for donning OR attire? 1. Scrub suit 2. Shoe covers 3. Hair cover 4. Mask
3, 1, 4, 2. Hair covers are donned first to decrease the possibility of hair shedding on the scrub suit and decrease microbial shedding.
Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for bladder irrigation and compression?
3-way Foley
99. Which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6 degrees in Fahrenheit and what is the formula to get that number?
37 °F to °C Deduct 32, then multiply by 5, then divide by 9 °C to °F Multiply by 9, then divide by 5, then add 32 .98.6-32 = 66.6;66.6:1.8 = 37° C
135. What does 'X' equal in the proportion 3:5=9:X?
3:5=9:x; 3/5=9/X; (9)(5)=3x; 45=3x; 15=xX=15
What is the minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
4
What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
4
A wrapped instrument set that will be run in the steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270 degrees must be sterilized for a minimum of how long?
4 minutes
124. Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the colon? 1. Serosa 2. Submucosa 3. Muscularis 4. Mucosa
4, 2, 3, 1. The correct order of the four layers of the colon are mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa.
What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
55-60 degrees Celsius
How many millileters equal two (2) ounces?
60
When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?
85 degrees F. Gas sterilizers operate at a lower temperature as compared to steam sterilizers. The gas sterilizer operates between 85-145 degrees F. EtO sterilization is used for products that cannot withstand heat. An example of this is a catheter.
94. Which preoperative diagnostic test is useful in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease?
Plethysmography. Plethysmography is useful in patients with small arterial vessel disease; it records variations in the amount of blood in an extremity.
Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes?
Polyester fiber
Which of the following sutures is a nonabsorbable monofilament frequently used in vascular procedures?A. PolypropyleneB. PolydiaxononeC. Poliglecaprone 25D. Polyglactine 910
Polypropylene
160. What is the best synthetic substitute for stainless steel?
Polypropylene. Polypropylene is the suture material of choice as a substitute for stainless steel when strength and nonreactivity are required, but stainless steel is not appropriate for use in the tissue.
The large artery found posterior to the knees is the:
Popliteal
Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of?
Potassium. Potassium plays four important roles: influences the electrical excitability of cells; the amount of potassium in cells affects cell volume; potassium balance is important in maintaining the acid-base balance; the amount of potassium in cells affects cell metabolism. Hyperkalemia, an abnormal level of potassium, can be life threatening, causing cardiac irregularities.
Which of the following scissors is the best choice for extending an arterial incision?A. MetzenbaumB. JorgensonC. IrisD. Potts-Smith
Potts-Smith
Which is an acceptable antiseptic solution for a skin prep?
Povidine-Iodine
What is performed prior to implantation of a Dacron knit polyester graft?
Preclotting
83. Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for "pulling" a case?
Preference card. The surgeon's preference card lists the supplies, equipment, instrumentation, suture, dressing materials and surgeon's personal preferences for a procedure.
What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep?
Prepped separately with cotton applicators
Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG?
Presence of valves
103. Before transporting instruments to the decontamination room, what should the surgical technologist complete?
Presoak instruments in detergent solution. The first step in the decontamination process begins at the point of use in the OR. The surgical technologist is responsible for presoaking the instruments in a container of either sterile water, enzymatic or detergent solution.
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
Pressure
What type of external dressing would be used to eliminate dead space?
Pressure
Which type of sterilization requires the use of the Bowie-Dick test?
Prevaccum steam
A patient received preoperative instructions to remove nail polish to:
Prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
164. Retention bridges are used to do what?
Prevents heavy sutures from cutting into the skin. Bridges are plastic devices that are placed over the incision like a bridge; retention sutures are brought through holes in the bridge and tied in the middle.
Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?
Prion
Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis?
Slightly movable
What does the term strike-through mean?
Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:
Sodium
Which of the following must be obtained from a patient undergoing surgical procedures, fertility treatments, chemotherapy or experimental treatment?A. General written consentB. Special implied consentC. Special written consentD. General implied consent
Special written consent
Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
Spinal stenosis. A myelogram is a diagnostic procedure when radiopaque dye is injected into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture. The myelogram would diagnose spinal stenosis.
A left subcostal incision would be used to expose which of the following?A. Descending colonB. SpleenC. OvaryD. Gallbladder
Spleen
82. Which organ is the most frequently injured during a motor vehicle accident?
Spleen. The spleen is the number one organ injured during motor vehicle accidents.
Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conductive to growth and viability?
Spore formation
2-4. Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women?
Stamey. The Stamey procedure involves suspending the fascial attachments of the bladder to the rectus fascia with sutures placed through a Stamey needle.
Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?
Standard Precautions. Standard Precautions, as defined by the CDC in 1996, are a combination of Universal Precautions and body substance isiolation rules that state all body fluids and blood should be considered infectious.
81. The pathogen that most often causes postoperative surgical site infections is:
Staphylococcus aureus. The pathogen that is most commonly associated with the cause of postoperative SSls is Staphylococcus aureus.
All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs, except:
Staples are an acceptable method of closing peel packs
67. When a medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should do what?
State the name and dosage of the medication. Every time the surgical technologist passes a medication to the surgeon, he/she should verbally provide the name of the drug, strength, and amount.
Which of the following sterilization processes is most economical?
Steam
45. Which suture material would be used in the presence of infection?
Steel. Steel is the least inert material used as a suture material and is used in the presence of a wound infection.
What classification of drug reduces tissue inflammation?
Steroids
Which of the following anatomical sites would be prepped last when performing a skin prep for a colostomy reversal procedure?A. Suprapubic areaB. StomaC. UmbilicusD. Lateral borders
Stoma
Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object?
Strabismus
48. Which of the following hernias can result in necrosis of the viscera?
Strangulated. A strangulated hernia occurs when bowel is trapped within the hernia sac, and the blood supply is compromised.
66. Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient's head in the supine position?
Strap. Placement of a small pad under the patient's head in the supine position allows the strap muscles to relax and avoids neck strain.
Which of the following is a primary postoperative complication of carotid endarterectomy?A. Failure of graftB. Pulmonary embolusC. PneumoniaD. Stroke
Stroke
The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the what?
Subclavian
139. Which suture technique provides an excellent cosmetic closure?
Subcuticular. A subcuticular closure is often used during plastic surgery procedures; the technique minimizes scarring.
58. The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is what?
Succinylcholine (Anectine). Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing muscle relaxant in use; it acts rapidly but its effects must be allowed to wear off since there is no reversal agent currently available.
141. To prevent charring of bone when it is being cut or drilled, the surgical technologist should use what?
Suction irrigator. When the drill or saw is being used, it produces heat which can char and destroy the bone. A suction irrigator is used by the surgical technologist to prevent heat build-up.
A tumescent solution is used in which of the following procedures?A. Breast augmentationB. Scar revisionC. Collagen injectionD. Suction lipectomy
Suction lipectomy
Which of the following vessels empties into the right atrium?
Superior vena cava
How is the patient positioned on the OR table for a knee arthroscopy?
Supine, knee at lower break
54. How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric (hip) fracture?
Supine. A fracture table is used to position the patient in the supine position to reduce the fracture.
61. The neuroglia of the nervous system does what?
Supports and binds. The neuroglia are specialized nerve cells that provide support and protection.
63. Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning?
Surgeon. The surgeon is responsible for moving the unsplinted fracture to protect it from further injury when positioning the patient.
Which breast procedure describes a mastectomy?
Surgical removal
121. During surgical rotation, the skills of a surgical technology student may be evaluated by the:
Surgical technologist preceptor. At teaching healthcare facilities where surgical technology students complete rotation, CSTs who have an interest in teaching and working with adult learners serve in the preceptor role.
Which of the following types of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag?
Swaged monofilament
Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel?
Swan Ganz
The sutures of the adult skull are examples of what?
Synarthrosis
168. Which drain should the surgical technologist have available for insertion into the common bile duct during an exploration?
T-tube. The T-tube is used for insertion into the common bile duct to facilitate bile drainage; one arm of the "T" is placed distally, and the other arm placed proximally.
156. Which stapling device would be used during an esophagectomy to divide the esophagus?
TA. The TA linear stapling device is best used for dividing the esophagus for removal.
Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?
Tamponade. Tamponade is the compression of the heart due to a collection of blood or fluid within the pericardium.
What surgical instrument is used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?
Tap
96. The mandible articulates with which bone?
Temporal. The mandible articulates with the temporal bone.
Which of the following is a type of non-retaining catheter?A. FoleyB. MalecotC. WhistleD. Pezzer
Whistle
What must the circulating surgical technologist to when placing the patient in the supine position? a. Confirm ankles are not crossed b. Place rolls under the axillae c. Confirm chest is not compromised d. Place a pillow between the knees
a. Confirm angles are not crossed
How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted? a. Every load b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Twice-a-week
a. Every load
What route of drug administration is parenteral (with needle)? a. Intravenous b. Sublingual c. Rectal d. Transdermal
a. Intravenous
What body system aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells? a. Lymphatic b. Reproductive c. Respiratory d. Limbic
a. Lymphatic
Which space is entered during a thymectomy? a. Mediastinum b. Interstitial c. Pleural cavity d. Retroperitoneum
a. Mediastinum
Where is the anterior chamber of the eye located? a. Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris b. Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the lens c. Posterior to the iris and anterior to the lens d. Posterior to the iris and anterior to the retina
a. Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris
Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia? a.Succinylcholine b. Dantrolene c. papaverine d. Vecuronium
a. Succinylcholine (triggers malignant hyperthermia)
During a thyriodectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complications will occur? a. Tetany b. Bradycardia c. Thryoid storm d. Hemorrhage
a. Tetany (Tetany is characterized by severe cramps, convulsions and twitching of the muscles, and extreme flexion of the joints caused buy a low level of calcium)
Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the: a. Rectum b. Chest c. Knee d. Neck
a. rectum
Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
abdominal aortic. Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur chiefly below the renal arteries and between the renal and iliac arteries.
What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?
acute
Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?
adaptic. Adaptic is a type of nonadherent dressing that can be used as the inner layer of a three layer dressing.
How often should surgical masks be changed?
after each case
Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?
aid in controlling temperature. Sliding doors are usually used in the OR because they eliminate air currents caused by swinging doors, but a disadvantage is they do not aid in controlling OR temperature.
What immediate postoperative complication most often occurs with pediatric patients?
airway difficulty
The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is?
alpha-chymotrypsin. Alpha-chymotrypsin is a solution used to soften the zonules holding the lens before cataract surgery to ease extraction of the lens.
Which microbes live without oxygen?
anaerobes
Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?
anesthesia provider
What procedure should the first scrub technologist set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?
anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
Liquid agents used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin.
antiseptics
For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
appendectomy. The McBurney incision is primarily used for removal of the appendix
How are rickettsiae transmitted?
arthropod bites. Most rickettsiae are obligated intracellular parasites. They are usually transmitted by arthropod vectors.
What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
artificial active
What condition is characterized by buildup of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?
atherosclerosis. A disorder when fatty deposits form on the walls of arteries is known as atherosclerosis.
What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage? a. Ligaments b. Cervix c. Uterus d. Fallopian tubes
b. Cervix (Cervical Cerclage also called Shirodkar's procedure)
In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent: a. Consent is signed by a court of law b. Consent is signed by two consulting physicians c. No consent is required d. Consent is signed by the surgeon
b. Consent is signed by two consulting physicians
What would the preoperative diagnosis be for an infant undergoing craniotomy? a. Myelomeningocele b. Craniosynostosis c. Anencephaly d. Arteriovenous malformation
b. Craniosynostosis
To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what preoperative drug is given? a. Nitroglycerine b. Heparin c. Mannitol d. Vitamin K
b. Heparin
If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action to be taken? a. Indicates autoclave chamber needs cleaning b. Items must be immediately recalled c. No action necessary d. Sterile items should be immediately used
b. Items must be immediately recalled
Which organelle contains digestive juices? a. Ribosome b. Lysosome c. Mitochondria d. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
Which of the following is inserted into the symphonic membrane incision during a myringotomy? a. Fascial graft b. PE tube c. Tympanostomy tubes d. Speculum
b. PE tube Ventilation or pressure equalizing (PE) tube is inserted into the incision to facilitate pressure equalization
What is the lining of the thoracic cavity? a. Peritoneum b. Pleura c. Parietal d. Pericardium
b. Pleura
A suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an: a. Retention suture b. Traction suture c. Bolster suture d. Primary suture
b. Traction suture
Which of the following is part of the immune system? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Pancreas d. Thryoid
b. spleen
Which term describes a rod shaped microorganism?
bacillus
The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the?
backtable. Surgical packs should be opened on the backtable.
What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?
balanced. Balanced anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs. It is also known as neuroleptanesthesia.
What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus. If a tumor of an ovary is found to be malignant, the surgeon will excise both ovaries, both fallopian tubes, and the uterus to ensure that all cancer cells have been removed.
Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?
biological. The biological indicator (BI) contains Bacillus stearothermophilus which is killed when exposed to steam sterilization conditions. The BI is the only test that guarantees sterility.
What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridgement?
bone to bone fixation. The bone to bone fixation is first accomplished followed by reanastomosis of blood vessels and nerves.
Where should the biological indicator test be placed on the steam sterilizer cart?
bottom front
Which of the following is a type of meniscal tear?
bucket handle
Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes? a. Isopropyl alcohol b. Sodium hypochlorite c. Peracetic acid d. Glutaraldehyde
c. Peracetic acid
What incision is frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair? a. Thoracoabdominal b. Median sternotomy c. Posterolateral thoracotomy d. Anterolateral thoracotomy
c. Posterolateral thoracotomy
Femoral rasps are used for which of the following reasons: a. Expose the operative site b. File the cortical bone c. Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis d. Inject bone cement into the intramedullary space
c. Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis
The gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective if the: a. Air is removed b. Steam quality is 97% c. Temperature is below 250deg d. Packs are loosely arranged on cart
c. Temperature is below 250deg
Which of the following is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR? a. Empty contents in hopper and place in waste container b. Place container in waste disposal c. Wipe down outside of the container and place in biohazard bag for disposal d. Transport with instruments in case cart to decontamination room
c. Wipe down outside of the container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
The body's first line of defense against infection is: a. respiratory tract b. Immune response c. intact skin d. Hair follicles
c. intact skin
What type of dressing would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure? a. Wet-to-wet b. One-layer c. Pressure d. Retroperitoneum
c. pressure
When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked? a. Open b. Delete c. Save d. Enter
c. save
In what circumstances would cell saver transfusion be contraindicated?
cancer procedures. Cell saver transfusion cannot be used in the presence of cancer cells, gross contamination or infections.
Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
cardia. The cardia is the portion of the stomach that surrounds the superior opening of the stomach.
Where should the ETO biological indicator be placed in the load?
center
A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the?
cerebellum. The functions of the cerebellum include regulating the initiation and termination of voluntary movements of the body, regulating the msucle tone that is necessary for body movements and controlling the subconscious contractions of skeletal muscles.
A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is?
cerumen
The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the?
choroid. The choroid is highly vascularized and provides nutrients to the posterior surface of the retina.
Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
circulator
Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?
circumferential
which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?
clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
clostridium perfringens
The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the?
cochlea
Which implant is used for individuals with sensorineural deafness?
cochlear implant
Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
colposcopy. A binocular microscope is used during an examination of the vagina called a colposcopy. Colpo is a word root that means vagina.
What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?
commensalism
Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
compound. A compound or open fracture is one when the bone has penetrated the skin layer and protrudes through the opening.
Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?
compressed nitrogen
The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the?
cornea
Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
cottingham punch. The Cottingham punch is used to create the correct size of the donor cornea during a keratoplasty.
What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?
coude
What is the action of antagonist drugs?
counteract the action of another drug. An antagonist drug neutralizes or impedes the action of another drug, that is, reverses its effects.
Which two structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?
cystic artery and cystic duct
Which term means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?
cystocele. -cele means hernia. A cystocele is a herniation of the bladder that causes a downward bulge in the anterior vaginal wall, usually as a result of surgical trauma, age, or weakness of the supporting muscles of the bladder due to childbirth.
if the surgeon uses a knife blade to incise the oral mucosa, the preferred blade is: a. 20 B. 10 c. 11 d. 12
d. 12 One option for the cold dissection of the tonsils is the use of the #12 knife blade
Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
nasolacrimal duct. The nasolacrimal duct carries the lacrimal fluid and tears into the nasal cavity. The duct can become obstructed in pediatric patients who experience chronic URIs.
Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient's identification bracelet?
never until patient is discharged from facility
What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
notify surgeon. The surgeon should be immediately notified and a recount completed.
The apron like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the?
omentum. The greater omentum is an apron like structure that lies over the intestines.
Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?
over the thighs
The organ that is connected by a duct to to the duodenum is the?
pancreas. The pancreas lies posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach; its ducts join the CBD to form the ampulla of Vater.
What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?
parasitism
The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
parotid. The parotid glands are located inferior and anterior to the ears between the skin and masseter muscle. The parotid glands are attacked by the mumps virus.
A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?
patent ductus arteriosus. Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital defect when the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close.
Which of the following factors is used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet?
patients age
Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
penrose. The penrose drain is a passive drain made from latex that relies on gravity for wound drainage.
The larynx is located between the?
pharynx and trachea. The larynx is a small passageway between the pharynx and the trachea.
Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
pharynx. The nasopharynx is the uppermost portion of the pharynx the middle portion of the pharynx is the oropharynx and the lowest portion of the pharynx is the laryngopharynx.
Where is a Baker's cyst located?
popliteal fossa. Baker's cysts affect the popliteal fossa.
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
pressure
When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?
prior to closure of the body cavity
What is the condition characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?
pterygium
What does pneumonectomy mean?
removal of a lung
What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
reverse trendelenburg. The Reverse trendelenburg position provides good exposure of the operative site for a thyroidectomy and allows the viscera to fall away or toward the feet to provide better exposure of the gallbladder.
A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?
right colectomy
A general consent form authorizes:
routine medical treatment
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team's abilities?
safety
Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?
same side as surgeon. When using four towels for squaring off the incision site, the first towel will be passed when standing on the same side as the surgeon.
The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the?
sclera
What is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients?
separation anxiety
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the?
septum
The outer layer of the intestine is the?
serosa. The serosa is the outermost layer of most portions of the gastrointestinal tract.
34. Which of the following instruments creates the trough on the humerus to facilitate attachment to the rotator cuff?
shaver with abrader tip. Once exposure is completed the repair of a rotator cuff begins by creating a bony trough on the humerus near the tuberosity using a rongeur, curette, curved osteotome or powered burr.
Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
sigmoidectomy. Intraluminal staplers are used to anastomose tubular organs in the gastrointestinal tract. They are often used during resection and reanatomosis of the colon or rectum.
Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
skeletal. Skeletal muscle tissue is striated because the fibers contain alternating light and dark bands perpendicular to the long area of the fibers. it is considered voluntary, because it is controlled consciously.
What block involved medication being injected into the subarachnoid space?
spinal
What are spiral shaped bacteria called?
spirilli
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy what?
spores. Low level disinfectants kill most types of bacteria and some fungi and viruses, but do not kill spores and M.tuberculosis
Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
stapes. The stapes covers the opening between the middle and inner ear known as the oval window.
What is the proper method of removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand? a. Throw handle with knife blade in sharps container b. Use fingers c. Do not remove and place handle in instrument tray d. Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
d. Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a : a. Basin of water b. Jar with formalin c. Jar with methylene blue d. Container without preservative
d. container without preservative
Which of the following is a type of one-layer dressing?
steri-strips
The primary function of the gallbladder is to?
store bile. The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed in the small intestine.
A partially dislocated joint is called?
subluxation. A complete displacement of a joint or displacement of one articular surface from another is called a luxation, and a partial dislocation is called a subluxation.
What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
supine
What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
supine. The most commonly used position for neurosurgical procedures is supine since it allows exposure to the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes.
Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?
surgeon
Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?
surgical technologist
When performing the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are considered:
surgically clean
A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin?
surgically clean. The skin is rendered surgically clean when a properly performed surgical scrub is done.
When a patient's blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to?
systolic. Blood pressure is measured in 2 numbers, systolic over diastolic. The relaxation phase of the heart beat is called the diastolic blood pressure.
What structure is located in the alveolar processes?
teeth. The anesthesia provider decides when the patient is stable and ready for transport from the OR to the PACU.
A sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli is called:
tetany
What is considered the operative stage of anesthesia?
third
What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
third. The skin, along with its epithelial structures and subcutaneous tissue, is destroyed in a third degree burn.
The instrument shown below is used during a/an
thyroidectomy
What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
time, shielding, distance
Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision which of the following must be performed?
time-out
What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
transverse When the patient is placed in the lateral position, and a flank incision is made, a transverse drape will be used.
The most common cause of retinal detachment is?
trauma
What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?
trendelenburg. The trendelenburg position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head providing better exposure of the operative site when performing a lower abdominal or pelvic procedure.
Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?
trephine
Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?
upper arms, neckline and axillary region
What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?
urinary incontinence. Pulmonary embolism can be caused by fat which dislodges after fracture of a long bone or pelvis, or when performing a total hip arthroplasty.
Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to the balloon inflation by which of the following:
urine flowing out of the catheter
What does the term - scope mean?
viewing
What is the smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication?
virus
The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
vomer. The vomer forms the inferior and posterior parts of the nasal septum.
Syndactyly refers to?
webbed fingers. webbing of the digits is syndactyly.
Which of the following would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine? a. Patient received preoperative blood transfusion b. Patient is on preoperative steroids c. Sponges will be used during procedure d. Patient has cancer
d. patient has cancer
Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position? a. bolsters placed under axilllae b. Arms on arm boards parallel to bed c. Head placed on donut d. Safety belt is placed below the knees
d. safety belt is placed below the knees
How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned?
daily
The Bowie-Dick test is performed how often?
daily. The Bowie Dick test is only used for prevacuum sterilizers to check for air entrapment and is conducted daily.
Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle?
direct. Hernias that occur within Hesselbach's triangle and do not have a sac are a direct inguinal hernia.
Which of the following is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?
disseminated intravascular coagulation
What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
distilled water in lumen. Air trapped in the lumen will prevent steam from contacting the inner surface of the lumen. A residual amount of distilled water should be left inside the lumen which will boil and turn to steam to displace the air.
Which of the following ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?
doppler probe
Which is the first part of the small intestine?
duodenum. The duodenum starts at the pyloric sphincter of the stomach.
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?
ear
Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?
eardrum
When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
endotracheal intubation. Cricoid pressure occludes the esophagus to prevent regurgitation.
How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?
enter head first, exit feet first The patient should be placed in the elevator entering head first and exit feet first when being transported to the OR on the stretcher.
Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
epispadias repair. An epispadias repair is performed to correct the congenital absence of the anterior wall of the urethra and abnormal location of the urethral orifice on the dorsum of the penis.
What is the medical term for nosebleed?
epistaxis
The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the?
ethmoid sinus
What term refers to items remaining indefinitely until the wrapper is compromised?
event-related sterility
What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?
exsanguination
Which tissue are cut using curved Mayo scissors?
fascia. Curved Mayo scissors are large scissors, with thick blades used to cut tough tissue, such as fascia, tendons, and muscle.
What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
feet first, side rails up. The direction of the stretcher should be oriented feet first, side rails up when a patient is being transported to the OR on the stretcher.
Which anatomical structure is removed during a total hip arthroplasty?
femoral head
Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium lined surfaces that is open at both ends?
fistula. A fistula is an abnormal tract that is open at both ends; it most often develops after bladder, bowel and pelvic procedures.
What is the term for thread like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
flagella
When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned?
flat. Metal trays that are perforated or have a mesh bottom should be placed on the sterilizing cart flat.
Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?
formalin. Formalin is the most common preservative solution that tissue specimens are placed in.
What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
full thickness
Which portion of the stomach is superior to the esophageal sphincter?
fundus
The space between the vocal cords is called the?
glottis
At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical tech should remove the:
gown
Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
gram stain. A gram stain determines the shape and grouping characteristics of bacteria
What is another name for the electrosurgical unit's patient return electrode?
grounding pad
What is the medical term for a bunion?
hallux valgus Hallux valgus is the medical term for a bunion, which is a bony exostosis located on the medial side of the first metatarsal head of the big toe.
A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscopy, is an example of what type of infection?
healthcare-acquired infection
What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?
hysterectomy
Which portion of the small intestine joins to the large intestine?
ileum
What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
incident report. An event/incident report is completed by members of the surgical team that are witness to any unusual or adverse event that affected the care provided to the surgical patient.
Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an?
informed consent. Informed consent must be obtained from the patient before any invasive procedure can be performed. it protects the patient because it verifies that he/she understands the condition to be treated and the intervention to be performed.
Which portion of the ear is affected by Menieres syndrome?
inner. Menieres syndrome involves an increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the membranous labyrinth, located in the inner ear.
The islets of Langerhans secrete?
insulin. The islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide.
Another name for a corneal transplant procedure is:
keratoplasty
Satinsky, herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?
kidney pedicle
Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback?"
kyphosis. Kyphosis is an exaggeration of the thoracic curve of the spine, resulting in a condition commonly called hunchback.
The vocal cords are located in the?
larynx
Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?
laser. The laser provides an intense and concentrated beam of light.
What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?
lateral. The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is the lateral position with the operative site exposed.
Which of the following conditions might require use of a Silastic urethral catheter?
latex allergy
Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
ligature. Ligature, also called ties or stick ties when a needle is attached, are strands of suture material used to tie off a blood vessel to stop bleeding
Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
love
Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in?
lukewarm water. Plaster rolls used in casting should be submerged in slightly lukewarm water at approximately 70-75 degrees F
The muscle that causes strabismus is the what?
medial rectus
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the:
medulla oblongata
Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?
meningioma. A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a meningioma.
Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
microtia
Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?
mitochondria. Mitochondria produce energy rich ATP
Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
myomectomy. A myomectomy is the procedure performed for the removal of fibromyomas or fibroid tumors from the uterine wall.
169. A padded footboard is used in which surgical position?
Reverse Trendelenburg
What type of needle is used when suturing the skin?
Reverse cutting
128. Which of the following forceps would be used during a splenectomy?
Right angle Ties are loaded onto long-right angle clamps to facilitate placing around vessels.
118. When positioning the patient for a cesarean section, where is the bolster placed and why?
Right side to relieve pressure on vena cava. The patient is placed in the supine position with a bolster placed under the right side to prevent excessive pressure on the inferior vena cava.
In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker placed?
Right ventricle
2-19. Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient?
Rigid bronchoscope. Rigid Bronchoscopy is usually performed for the removal of foreign objects from the airway of children.
The pacemaker of the heart is/are the:
SA node
Which of the following is the proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape?A. Circulator holds dressing in place and removes drapeB. ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape one side to otherC. Circulator holds dressing in place; ST rolls drape head to feetD. ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet
ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet
What type of clip is a Raney?
Scalp
87. Which nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler's position?
Sciatic. The sciatic nerve is a long nerve that extends through the muscles of the thigh, leg, and foot with numerous branches. When a patient is placed in Fowler's (sitting) position, adequate padding must be provided to prevent damage to the nerve.
2-5. Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins?
Sclerotherapy. Sclerotherapy is the injection of sodium chloride, dextrose or saline solution into the small varicosities to destroy the lumen.
What are the sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field?
Scrub, gown, glove
Phagocytosis by the while blood cells is an example of which line of defense?
Second
Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
Semicircular canals
Which of the following psychosocial factors is important for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients?
Separation anxiety
Which of the following procedures is performed for cervical incompetence?
Shirodkar
The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is?
270-276 degrees F
How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F?
3
How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?
10
How long must an item be immersed in glutaraldehyde to be sterile?
10 hours
How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter?
10 mL
How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?
10. Glutaraldehyde is a liquid disinfecting and sterilizing agent. To sterilize an item, it must be submersed for 10 hours
What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?
10. When immediate use sterilization (formerly called "flash sterilization") is used to sterilize items with lumens in the gravity sterilizer, the items must be exposed to 270 degrees F for 10 minutes.
What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure?
12-15mm Hg
A linen pack to be steam sterilized must be weigh more than:
12lbs
Preoperative bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed with which of the following catheters?
14 Fr. Robinson
What is the required pressure for a steam sterilizer set at a temperature of 250degrees Fahrenheit?
15-17
What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
16 Fr
According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk?
18%
74. What is the average normal respiration for children?
18-30. The average normal respiration rate for children (1-7 years of age) is 18-30 per minute.
One of the most effective germicidals for cold sterilization is what?
2% glutaraldehyde
Which of the following is a method of high level disinfection?
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes. 2% glutaraldehyde is a type of high level disinfectant solution. The device must be completely submersed for 20 minutes at room temperature in order to be disinfected.
2-7. Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of actions completed by the ST? 1. Assist with postoperative patient care 2. Remove drapes 3. Remove gown and glove
2, 3, 1, 4. The sequence of actions completed by the surgical technologist is remove outer pair of sterile gloves, remove drapes, remove gown and gloves, don pair of non-sterile gloves, assist with immediate postoperative care of the patient, break down the Mayo stand and backtable.
During an EtO sterilization cycle, humidity is maintained at what?
20-80%
How many hours is the steam biological indicator incubated?
24
How many hours must the steam biological indicator by incubated before reading the results?
24
When incubated, the ETo biological indicator can be read after:
24 hours
When using ETO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140deg F is:
24 hours
How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?
24 hours. The steam sterilization biological indicator must be incubated for 24 hours before the reading is recorded.
77. To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed how many pounds?
25 pounds. The Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation recommends that instrument sets should not exceed 25 Ibs.
The suffix that refers to suturing is: A. -rrhagia B. -rrhea C. -rrhaphy D. -tomy
C. -rrhaphy
What degrees is 98.6 Fahrenheit equal to in Celsius? A. 35 B. 36 C. 37 D.38
C. 37
The brain contains how many ventricles? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
C. 4
The number of extrinsic ocular muscles that control eye movement is: A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
C. 6
Which instrument is used to measure intraocular pressure? A. caliper B. ocutome C. tonometer D. body jacket
C. A tonometer is used to measure the intraocular pressure in the physician's office, preoperatively and intraoperatively.
The primary function of the large intestine is: A. digestion B. secretion C. Absorption D. Compaction
C. Absorption
What pathological term refers to failure of the lower esophageal muscles to relax? A. Reflux B. Diverticula C. Achalasia D. Varices
C. Achalasia
What disease causes the overproduction of adrenaline? A. Marfna's B. Meniere's C. Addison's D. Hashimoto's
C. Addison's
Where does the exchange of gases take place in the lung? A. Bronchi B. Trachea C. Alveoli D. Larynx
C. Alveoli
Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them? A. Neodymium: YAG B. Carbon dioxide C. Argon D. Excimer
C. Argon
Atheroma within the lumen of an artery is called: A. Truncus arteriosus B. Aneurysm C. Arteriosclerosis obliterans D. Cardiomyopathy
C. Arteriosclerosis obliterans
Which of the following neuroglia are star-shaped? A. ependyna B. oligodendroglia C. astrcytes D. dermoid
C. Astrocytes; are star shaped neuroglia that attach neurons to their blood vessels.
What is the most common cause of aortic aneurysm? a. Thrombus b. Embolus c. Atherosclerosis d. Hypotension
C. Atherosclerosis
The first cervical vertebra is called the: A. Pedicle B. Axis C. Atlas D. Foramina
C. Atlas
The second cervical vertebra is called the: A. Lamina B. Atlas C. Axis D. Body
C. Axis
The gram stain differentiates between: A. Living and dead organisms B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Viruses and bacteria
C. Bacteria
Which of the following are procaryotic? A. Plants B. Molds C. Bacteria D. Protoza
C. Bacteria
the function of the sphincter of Oddi is to control the flow of: A. CSF in the spinal cord B. Acids in the stomach C. Bile in the duodenum D. Urine into the bladder
C. Bile in the duodenum
Which combining form means eyelid? A. Ophthalm/o B. Dacry/o C. Blephar/o D. Ot/o
C. Blephar/o
The purpose of the anesthesia machine soda lime canister is to absorb: A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon Dioxide D. Carbon Monoxide
C. Carbon Dioxide
The largest part of the brain is the: A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
What is the medical term for accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass that is destructive to the middle ear? A. Otosclerosis B. Otis Media C. Cholesteatoma D. Chondrolipoma
C. Cholesteatoma; is an accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms an encrusted mass that is destructive to the middle ear.
The set of teeth that erupt at about 6 months of age and are later replaced are the:
Deciduous teeth
57. The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is what?
Decortication. When blood or pus from a chest injury is not properly drained from the pleural cavity, it coagulates and forms a fibrin layer over the pleura called empyema. Decortication is dissection of the fibrin.
What is the purpose of maintaining 20% to 60% relative humidity in the OR?
Decrease static electricity
133. What describes the action of histamine (H2 blockers)?
Decreases gastric volume in the stomach H2 blockers, such as cimetidine, ranitidine and sodium citrate, inhibit hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach or neutralize stomach acid.
2-32. A surgeon tells a patient she has terminal cancer but requires prophylactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies, "This can't be happening to me." What stage of grief is the patient displaying?
Denial. Denial is the first stage of the five stages of grief when the patient doesn't accept what is happening to him/her.
2-25. The teeth are composed primarily of what?
Dentin. Teeth are composed of dentin, a calcified connective tissue.
A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is?
Depo-Medrol. Methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol) is a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after opthalmic surgery.
73. Which subcategory of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?
Emulsion. A form of liquid medication is an emulsion; the medication is mixed with water and oil and held together by an emulsifier. A common emulsion used in surgery is propofol
52. Which kind of uterine tissue can grow in abnormal locations including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine?
Endometrial. The endometrium is the inner layer of the uterus; the abnormal growth and implantation of the tissue on the outside of the uterus is called endometriosis.
The inner lining of the uterus is the:
Endometrium
144. The inner lining of the uterus is the what?
Endometrium. The inner layer of the uterus is the endometrium; the outer layer is the perimetrium, and middle layer is the myometrium.
What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?
Endoscopic carpal tunnel release
91. Which of the following is responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Endotoxin. Endotoxins cause the overstimulation of coagulating proteins, which causes systemic intravascular clotting that, in turn, results in tissue necrosis.
2-15. What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy?
Endotracheal intubation. Prior to positioning the patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy, endotracheal intubation is completed.
Which of the following must be completed preoperatively if a patient underwent a barium study of the day of surgery?
Enema
131. What is the function of phagocytic white blood cells?
Engulf and destroy bacteria Phagocytic white blood cells engulf and destroy bacteria.
What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac?
Enterocele. An enterocele is a herniation of Douglas's cul-de-sac that usually contains loops of the bowel.
104. Which solution is best for presoaking instruments in the OR at the end of a procedure?
Enzyme. An enzyme solution is best, since it removes moistened and dried debris without requiring mechanical action.
The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:
Epididymis
The large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a "trap door" over the larynx is the what?
Epiglottis
The correct sterilization times required to render specific items sterile are initially established by the:
Equipment manufacturer
Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
Escherichia Coli. Escherichia coli is a gram negative rod that is part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract of humans and is also an opportunistic bacteria.
The preoperative exsanguination of an extremity prior to inflating a tourniquet is accomplished with what?
Esmarch
95. Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization?
Ethylene oxide. EtO is the most effective sterilizing agent for items that can be eroded or corroded, because it is heat and/or moisture sensitive.
109. During a kidney transplant, the renal vein of the donor kidney is anastomosed to what vein?
External iliac vein. he renal vein of the donor kidney is attached to the external iliac vein by an end-to- side anastomosis.
Which vein of an infant patient is a central venous catheter inserted?
External jugular
What postoperative complication can result from excess or prolonged planter flexion?
Foot drop
163. To prevent peel pack pouches from opening during sterilization, the surgical technologist should do what?
Force out air from pouch. As much air as possible should be forced out of the peel pack to prevent bulging and rupture during the sterilization cycle.
173. Spores are a what?
Form assumed by bacilli. Spores are a form assumed by bacilli in order to survive adverse conditions; in this form, they are the most difficult microorganism to be destroyed by methods of sterilization.
Which instrument will the surgeon use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture?
Freer
80. The ureters enter the bladder medially where?
From the posterior aspect. The ureters enter the urinary bladder medially from the posterior aspect.
The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from:
Front to back
127. Which surgical approach is often used for a craniotomy for aneurysm repair?
Frontotemporal The patient is positioned supine with the head slightly turned away from the affected side for a unilateral frontotemporal approach.
Which of the following would be an inappropriate manner for the handling of surgical specimens?A. Permission is given by surgeon to hand specimen off sterile fieldB. Stones & teeth are placed in container without preservativeC. Cultures are sent to pathology immediatelyD. Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec sponge
Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec sponge
Which heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus does the steam sterilization biological indicator contain?
G. steaothermophilus
2-22. The largest muscle of the upper calf is the:
Gastrocnemius
Vitrectomy is the removal of the:
Gel from the eye
The first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:
Glomerular filtration
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
Glomerulus
Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves?
Gloves removed first
Which of the following is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP?
Glycine
The process by which glucose is stored as glycogen is what?
Glycogenesis
2-6. When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:
Hesselbach's. There are many anatomical triangles throughout the body to aid the surgeon and surgical team in describing the location of a pathology. A direct hernia presents through Hesselbach's triangle.
The concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits is the:
Hilum
Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?
Hip
In which of the following procedures would a tourniquet be unnecessary?A. Hip arthroplastyB. Knee arthroplastyC. Ankle fractureD. ORIF radius
Hip arthroplasty
which of the following muse be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission?
History and physical
What is the importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization?
Hydrate spores and bacteria
What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?
Hydrocelectomy. Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called a hydrocelectomy.
What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
Hypertension
Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are:A. ImmunocompromisedB. HypertensiveC. DehydratedD. Diabetic
Hypertensive
What is the part of the brain that is responsible for controlling the body temperature?
Hypothalamus
Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate?
Hypoxia
In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used?
Hysterectomy
For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?
Hysterectomy. The Trendelenburg position is best used for pelvic and lower abdominal procedures, such as an abdominal hysterectomy. The position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head for better exposure of the operative site.
Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision?
I and II (1 and 2)
An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called?
Iatrogenic injury
117. In terms of transmitting an infection, what is a fomite? A. Microorganism B. Inanimate object C. Parasite D. Active carrier
Inanimate object. A fomite is an inanimate object that is not in itself harmful, but able to harbor pathogenic organisms, thus serving as an agent for transmission of infection.
What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep?
Incision site to periphery using circular motion
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:
Increased
142. Pain, heat, redness and swelling indicate which of the following conditions?
Inflammation. The classic signs of inflammation are pain, heat, redness, swelling and loss of function in reaction to injured tissues.
What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
Inguinal
Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following?
Inhibit surgical site infection
171. What is incorrect when double peel packing an item(s) for sterilization?
Inner peel pack is folded
After the patient leaves the OR, the reusable items should be taken to the decontamination room how?
Inside a closed case cart
What is a Verres needle used for during a laparoscopy?
Instill CO2
What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter?
Instill irrigation fluids
98. Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack? A. Ring handles of clamps are placed at end B. Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack C. Open end of peel pack is sealed with autoclave tape D. inner peel pack of a double peel pack is not sealed
Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack. Rubber bands, paper clips or tape should not be used to hold items together inside a peel pack; the binding material prevents the sterilizing agent from making contact.
100. When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect?
Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled. Instruments with multiple parts, such as the Balfour retractor, should be disassembled when breaking down the backtable and Mayo stand.
97. What could result from crossing the patient's arms across his/her chest in the supine position?
Interference with respiration. In the supine position, crossing the patient's arms across his/her chest causes interference with respirations by tightening the thoracic region and not allowing full expansion of the lungs.
Which of the following vessels is harvested for use during a CABG?A. Azygous veinB. Internal mammary arteryC. Popliteal veinD. Left axillary artery
Internal mammary artery
Which of the following facilitates exposure for thyroidectomy?
Interscapular pillow
Vitamins A, D, E and K are absorbed in the what?
Intestine
The inner layer of an artery is the:
Intima
How are femoral shaft fractures in an adult repaired?
Intramedullary nailing
Which of the following describes the time from incision to the dressing application?
Intraoperative
Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
Intraventricular. A subdural hematoma is a large, encapsulated collection of blood over one or both cerebral hemispheres that causes intracranial pressure.
Which of the following arteries does not arise directly from the aorta?
Vertebral
116. If culture cannot be immediately transported from the surgery department to pathology, they should be what?
Placed in a refrigerator. If cultures are not immediately transported to the pathology department, they should be placed in a refrigerator.
The structure that facilities the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother is the:
Placenta
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle of the heart? a. Descending aorta b. Ascending aorta c. Pulmonary vein d. Pulmonary artery
d. Pulmonary artery
When the surgical technologist is breaking down the back table, instruments with ratchets should be:
Placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination
What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose?
Pancreas
59. What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?
Pantaloon. A pantaloon hernia refers to the presence of a direct and indirect hernia.
35. What secretes hydrochloric acid?
Parietal cells. Parietal cells are glands located in the stomach and secrete the digestive juice hydrochloric acid.
How is the informed consent signed if a patient is illiterate?
Patient marks an 'x'
How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?
Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies
Which of the following situations could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court?A. Patient is of legal ageB. Patient is advised of alternative treatmentsC. Patient is emancipated minorD. Patient received preoperative medications
Patient received preoperative medications
What gynecologic procedure includes removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum?
Pelvic exenteration
2-16. What is the name of the instrument shown above?
Pennington. The Pennington clamp may be used by a surgeon to grasp a hemorrhoid for excision or a small piece of the lung during a segmental resection.
What is used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphy?
Penrose drain
What nerve in the lower leg must be protected from pressure when placing the patient in the lithotomy position?
Peroneal
Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups?
Peroneal
What is the curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
Pfannenstiel. Pfannenstiel's incision is a curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen and used frequently in gynecologic surgery.
Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?
Phacoemulsification
86. Which of the following means cell "eating"?
Phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the engulfment of large particles and is sometimes called cell "eating."
The shared passageway for food and air is the:
Pharynx
Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?
Physiological and survival
What term refers to cell "drinking"?
Pinocytosis
From which laminectomy instrument would intervertebral disc fragments be cleaned?
Pituitary
Which of the following pathology would be treated by transphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure?A. Pituitary neoplasmB. Trigeminal neuralgiaC. Carotid stenosisD. Communicating hydrocephalus
Pituitary neoplasm
Which of the following is the recommended postoperative handling of reusable instruments used on a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?A. Place in biohazard bag and destroyB. Flash sterilize and transport to central sterile supplyC. Decontaminate in ORD. Transport in case cart to decontamination room
Place in biohazard bag and destroy
The principal male hormone produced in the testes is:
Prolactin
What is the second phase of wound healing?
Proliferation
What is the result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic?
Prolong anesthetic effect
Which is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical tech during a cardiac arrest in the OR?
Protect the sterile field
What dietary substance enhances the production of collagen?
Protein
A patient that has sudden onset of shortness of breath in the PACU may indicate what?
Pulmonary embolism
Which type of monitoring equipment is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood?A. ElectrocardiogramB. Bispectral IndexC. Pulse oximetryD. Capnography
Pulse oximetry
What type of suture technique is used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy?
Purse-string
The leg extensor muscle:rectus femurs, vastus laterals, vastgus medial is and the vast us intermedius are collectively called the;
Quadriceps femoris
Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia?
Radial keratotomy
120. Items that are impenetrable to x-rays are described as:
Radiopaque. Items that do not allow the passage of X-rays are referred to as radiopaque. Examples include contrast media and the radiopaque strip on sterile sponges.
108. For which fracture is the instrument shown above best used?
Radius. The Lowman bone holding clamp. nicknamed "turkey claw," is used for grasping medium-sized bones, such as the radius and ulna to reduce a fracture and hold in place.
During a total hip arthroplasty, which instrument is used after intramedullary reaming to reshape the proximal femoral canal?
Rasp
150. When a surgeon is using a Kocher subcostal incision, which muscle is divided by electrosurgery?
Rectus abdominis. The surgeon usually divides the rectus sheath and muscle with electrosurgery.
What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-29 times per hour in the OR?
Reduce microbial count
Which of the following is the least restrictive form of credentialing?A. CertificationB. LicensureC. RegistrationD. Accreditation
Registration
What does the term symbiosis mean?
Relationship between unlike species of organisms
Which of the following is the order for postoperative case management?
Remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down back table.
155. A laparotomy drape is placed on the left side inguinal area of the patient, but should have been placed on the right side. What should be done to correct the error?
Remove the drape and place a new drape on the right side
147. What is the first action to be taken following a needle stick?
Remove the needle from the sterile field. When needlestick occurs, the surgical technologist should immediately remove the needle from the sterile field.
What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine?
Renograffin
Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
Repositioning penetrating towel clip. If a towel penetrates a sterile drape, the tips of the clip must be considered contaminated, and it should not be removed until the end of the procedure.
Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?
Res ipsa loquitor. Res ipsa loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself." It refers to the harm to the patient resulting from a given act when the caregiver had sole control.
What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a TURP?
Resectoscope
2-3. The goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum?
Resident. Resident microbes habitually live in the epidermis, deep in the crevices and folds of the skin.
What should the surgical technologist wear when transporting a patient with tuberculosis from PACU to the isolation patient room?
Respirator
During a total hip arthroplasty, which type of device prevents polymethyl methacrylate from filling the medullary canal distal to the prosthesis?
Restrictor
Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of floating spots before the eyes?
Retina detachment
167. What category of instruments are a Hibbs and Hohmann?
Retractors
Which of the following is a violation of Standard Precautions during postoperative case management?A. Sterile gloves removed one layer at a timeB. Linen items not thrown into hamperC. Use of bags with biohazard symbolD. Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container
Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container
An abnormal bending backward of the uterus is called what?
Retroflexion
The kidneys are located in the:
Retroperitoneal space
In which procedure would a Bookwalter retractor be used?
Retropubic prostatectomy
56. What is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw into bone?
The correct sequence of instruments when a screw is placed in bone is drill, depth gauge, tap and screw driver; the same sequence is used for placement of all the screws.
What is a frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction?
Thiopental
2-18. When placing a swaged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped where?
Three-fourths distance from the needle point. The needle holder is clamped approximately one-third of the distance from the swaged end of the needle.
Which of the following represents a saddle joint?A. Radius and carpalsB. Thumb and trapeziumC. Femur and hipD. Ulna and radius
Thumb and trapezium
Exophthalmos due to Grave's disease is associated with which gland?
Thyroid
Which of the following accelerates the coagulation cascade?A. PapaverineB. EpinephrineC. Topical thrombinD. IV Heparin
Topical thrombin
Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?
Total knee arthroplasty
What should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy?
Tracheotomy tray
What type of procedure is performed to treat tumors of the pituitary gland?
Transphenoidal hypophysectomy
148. Which of the following drapes is used for a thyroidectomy?
Transverse. The thyroid drape is approximately the same size as a laparotomy drape and has a transverse fenestration.
3-13. In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia?
Trendelenburg
Which one of these microorganisms is least likely to be associated with wound infections?
Treponema Pallidum (normally associated with syphilis)
For which surgical procedure would bupivacaine with epinephrine be contraindicated?A. Subacromial decompressionB. Total knee arthroplastyC. Knee arthroscopyD. Trigger finger release
Trigger finger release
Which of the following needles would be used for a liver biopsy?
Tru-Cut
51. Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision?
Upper midline. A transverse colectomy is the excision of the transverse colon; an upper midline or transverse incision is made.
3-1. Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia?
V (Five).
The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
Vascular
12-11. In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated?
Vascular anastomosis. When a vascular anastomosis is being performed, it requires the ability to heal and have a long term, secure anastomosis therefore, absorbable suture would not be used.
The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a what?
Vasovasostomy
The four fluid-filled spaces of the brain are called what?
Ventricles
Which of the following procedures may require use of a manometer to check CSF pressure?
Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
2-8. What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day?
Wipe down furniture and surfaces. Prior to opening sterile supplies for the first case of the day the OR furniture, equipment, surfaces and lights should be wiped down (also referred to as "damp dusting") with a disinfectant solution.
93. At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asks for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. Where is the surgeon injecting the local drug?
Within the joint. Intra-articular refers to 'within a joint;' therefore, the surgeon will be injecting the local anesthetic inside the joint.
What defines anaerobic?
Without oxygen
112. An example of a nonadherent inner layer dressing is what?
Xeroform. The inner layer of the dressing covers the wound completely and remains in contact. A nonpermeable dressing is a fine mesh gauze that is impregnated with an emulsion; examples are Vaseline® gauze and Xeroform" gauze.
90. Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery?
Xeroform. Xeroform is a nonpermeable, occlusive dressing made of fine mesh gauze; it is commonly used as the first layer in a three-layer dressing.
Which medication can be used as a topical jelly during cystoscopy procedures?
Xylocaine
65. Another name for tonsil suction is:
Yankauer. The Yankauer is also referred to as the Tonsil suction tip. The angle of the suction tip makes it ideal for pharyngeal suctioning during a tonsillectomy.
A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an: a. Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy b. Transverse colectomy c. Nephrectomy d. Appendectomy
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
Ethylene Oxide (ETO) sterilization destroys microbes by the process of: a. alkylation b. Osmosis c. Oxidation d. Cavitation
a. Alkylation
Which of the following types of equipment would require preoperative draping by the surgical technologist?
c-arm
Which of the following surgical instruments is used to retract the lung? a. Glover b. Kocher c. Allison d. Davidson
c. Allison (The Allison lung retractor is a non-traumatic retractor that is used specifically for the lung.
Type and cross match for blood is completed: a. On all hospital patients b. In the OR, just before the incision is made c. If blood loss with replacement is anticipated d. On all surgical patients
c. If blood loss with replacement is anticipated
Which item listed below should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair? a. CUSA b. Nd: YAG laser c. Loupes d. Cryotherapy unit
c. Loupes
Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position? a. Stirrups not properly padded b. Arm boards placed beyond 90 degrees c. Safety strap is placed too tightly d. Buttocks extend past table break
d. Buttocks extend past table break
What does the suffix - ectomy mean? a. Incision b. Opening c. Anastomosis d. Excision
d. Excision
The purpose of the kidney elevator is to: a. Increase the intercostal spaces b. Stabilize the patient c. Facilitate respiration of the dependent lung d. Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
d. Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
Which of the following is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid? a. Otoplasty b. Tympanoplasty c. stapedotomy d. Myringotomy
d. Myringotomy
What is the surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer? a. Vasectomy b. Varicocelectomy c. Hydrocelectomy d. Orchiectomy
d. Orchiectomy