Database Quiz #2

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12) Which of the following is a type of network security? A) Authentication of the client workstation B) Password naming conventions C) Guidelines for frequency of password changes D) All of the above

A) Authentication of the client workstation

7) ________ is a design goal for a distributed database, which says a user does not need to know the location of data to use the data. A) Location transparency B) Location autonomy C) Location dependency D) Distributed locatability

A) Location transparency

9) Which of the following is a function or service provided by all instances of a class? A) Operation B) Implementation C) Class group D) Query

A) Operation

27) ________ means that the same operation can apply to two or more classes in different ways. A) Polymorphism B) Inheritance C) Combined operations D) Checkpoint

A) Polymorphism

18) Which of the following is a principal type of authorization table? A) Subject B) Transaction C) View D) Index

A) Subject

9) A(n) ________ is a method that provides other objects with access to the state of an object. A) accessor method B) attribute method C) concrete method D) abstract method

A) accessor method

19) A device to measure or detect fingerprints or signatures is called a(n) ________ device. A) biometric B) view C) ink D) laser

A) biometric

3) Object-oriented languages provide a built-in mechanism for storing a persistent state of an object. This is called: A) serialization. B) persistence. C) integrity constraints. D) none of the above.

A) serialization.

26) Forward recovery is faster than restore/rerun because: A) transactions do not have to be repeated. B) security can be avoided. C) images are mirrored. D) systems are more complete.

A) transactions do not have to be repeated.

18) In the figure below, which of the following is true? A) A faculty may advise only one student. B) A faculty may advise up to a maximum of 10 students. C) A course offering may be offered for multiple courses. D) A student can have more than one advisor.

B) A faculty may advise up to a maximum of 10 students.

8) Which of the following is true of distributed databases? A) Less reliable B) Better local control C) Slower response time D) None of the above

B) Better local control

23) According to the UML Notation Guide, complete means: A) a descendant may come from more than one supertype. B) a descendant may be not descended from more than one of the subclasses. C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected. D) the list of objects is not stable.

C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected.

19) An association ________ is an association that has attributes or operations of its own. A) link B) group C) class D) body

C) class

18) A centralized strategy has ________ expandability. A) excellent B) good C) poor D) medium

C) poor

14) With a pull strategy of replication, the ________ node determines when a database is updated. A) user B) source C) target D) all of the above

C) target

1) Object-oriented databases never took off because of: A) lack of organizational inertia. B) lack of powerful query capabilities found in relational databases. C) a less sophisticated mathematical model. D) all of the above.

D

14) All of the following are object-relational mapping frameworks EXCEPT: A) (N)Hibernate. B) EclipseLink. C) JPA. D) Topdog.

D) Topdog.

38) Which of the following is NOT an area of concern when trying to maintain a well-tuned database? A) Memory usage B) CPU usage C) Input/output contention D) User interface design

D) User interface design

22) A distributed database must: A) keep track of data locations. B) present a single logical database that is physically distributed. C) provide consistency among data copies. D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

3) An information repository supplies information to: A) users. B) automated CASE tools. C) database management systems. D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

15) A(n) ________ is shown as a solid line between the participating classes. A) connector B) update C) entity D) association

D) association

16) The end of an association where it connects to a class is called a(n): A) connector. B) terminator. C) initiator. D) association role.

D) association role.

20) An advantage of the SQL query mapping framework is: A) direct access to all DBMS capabilities provided through SQL. B) SQL code generated automatically. C) database access code is easier to manage than with call-level APIs. D) both A and C.

D) both A and C.

21) A class that has direct instances is called a(n) ________ class. A) abstract B) multiplicity C) large D) concrete

D) concrete

12) An operation that creates a new instance of a class is called a(n): A) query operation. B) update operation. C) scope operation. D) constructor operation.

D) constructor operation.

8) The identity of the ________ is dealt with differently in the object-oriented and relational worlds. A) attributes B) entities C) objects D) core elements

D) core elements

31) A joining operation in which only the joining attribute from one site is transmitted to the other site is called a(n): A) attribute linkup. B) key data element transfer. C) key data element join. D) semijoin.

D) semijoin.

32) A(n) ________ is a procedure for acquiring the necessary locks for a transaction where all necessary locks are acquired before any are released. A) record controller B) exclusive lock C) authorization rule D) two-phase lock

D) two-phase lock

33) A state represents how an object acts.

FALSE

35) A class diagram shows the dynamic structure of an object-oriented model.

FALSE

13) Which type of operation has side effects? A) Update B) Append C) Query D) Scope

A) Update

26) A ________ is the implementation of an operation. A) meta-operation B) method C) query D) constructor

B) method

15) A persistent solution that hides the underlying storage technology is called: A) object persistence. B) translucent persistence. C) transparent persistence. D) object permanence.

C) transparent persistence.

38) A constructor operation does not alter an instance of a class.

FALSE

39) Users of distributed database systems always need to know the location of the data.

FALSE

46) The goal of database security is the protection of data from accidental or intentional threats to its integrity and access.

TRUE

48) A view can be built to present only the data to which a user requires access.

TRUE

48) One way to generate messages for near-real-time replication is through the use of database triggers.

TRUE

50) A trigger can be used for security purposes to prohibit inappropriate actions, such as changing a salary value outside of a business day.

TRUE

50) Horizontal partitioning offers increased efficiency because data are close to use areas.

TRUE

2) Storing the state of an object between application execution sessions is called providing ________ to the object. A) stateness B) persistence C) quality D) data

B) persistence

43) Replicated databases usually result in tightly coupled nodes

FALSE

20) In the figure below, which of the following is true? A) Students use various software tools for different courses. B) Students can only register for one course. C) Students use only one type of software. D) Each course uses specific software.

A) Students use various software tools for different courses.

1) Which of the following is a reason for using an object-oriented design? A) The analysis model is not formal enough to be implemented in a programming language. B) The actual system must be adapted to the environment in which the system will actually be implemented. C) The analysis results can be validated using object-oriented design. D) All of the above.

A) The analysis model is not formal enough to be implemented in a programming language.

22) According to the UML Notation Guide, overlapping means: A) a descendant may be descended from more than one of the subclasses. B) a descendant may not be descended from more than one of the subclasses. C) all subclasses have been specified, and no others are expected. D) the list of objects is stable, but relationships will change.

A) a descendant may be descended from more than one of the subclasses.

12) Results from a call-level application program interface query are returned as: A) a set of rows consisting of untyped columns. B) an SQL query. C) a cursor. D) a record set.

A) a set of rows consisting of untyped columns.

3) The Unified Modeling Language: A) is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented analysis or design model. B) allows one to capture design decisions of a system. C) promotes communication among key personnel involved in development. D) all of the above.

A) is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented analysis or design model.

18) One advantage of the call-level API approach to providing persistence is: A) low overhead. B) ability to not write a lot of detailed code. C) SQL code is generated automatically. D) does provide transparent persistence.

A) low overhead.

5) The conceptual gap between the object-oriented approach to application design and the relational model is often labeled as a: A) mismatch. B) schism. C) void. D) goal.

A) mismatch.

5) A(n) ________ encompasses an object's properties and the values of those properties. A) state B) attribute C) method D) behavior

A) state

10) ________ is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view. A) Grouping B) Encapsulation C) Classification D) Mining

B) Encapsulation

10) ________ has been an industry standard for a call-level application program interface with which Java programs can access SQL databases. A) ODBC B) JDBC C) XML D) SOAP

B) JDBC

17) ________ indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship. A) Bound B) Multiplicity C) Role D) Relationship

B) Multiplicity

6) Which of the following refers to a set of objects that share common structures and behaviors? A) Supertype B) Object class C) Model D) Entity group

B) Object class

11) Which of the following operations does NOT alter the state of an object? A) Update B) Query C) Constructor D) None of the above

B) Query

13) ________ is/are a category of tools which use relational databases to provide object persistence by linking classes to parameters and results of SQL queries. A) Query mapping parameters B) SQL query mapping frameworks C) Object-relational mapping frameworks D) .Net

B) SQL query mapping frameworks

7) A diagram that shows the static structure of an object-oriented model is called a(n): A) structure diagram. B) class diagram. C) entity diagram. D) none of the above.

B) class diagram.

24) A(n) ________ is an attribute of a class that specifies a value common to an entire class. A) completion attribute B) class-scope attribute C) overall descriptor D) summary descriptor

B) class-scope attribute

6) All of the following are elements of the object-relational impedance mismatch EXCEPT: A) nature and granularity of data types. B) methods of assessing non-persistent data. C) architectural styles. D) structural relationships.

B) methods of assessing non-persistent data.

19) All of the following are disadvantages of using the call-level API approach to providing persistence EXCEPT: A) little reuse of code. B) moderate to high overhead. C) need to write a lot of detailed code. D) proliferation of code related to database connectivity.

B) moderate to high overhead.

10) All of the following are disadvantages of data replication EXCEPT: A) storage requirements. B) reduced network traffic at prime time. C) complexity and cost of updating. D) none of the above.

B) reduced network traffic at prime time.

20) A credit-card sized plastic card with an embedded microprocessor chip with the ability to store, process and output electronic data in a secure manner is called a(n): A) smart chip. B) smart card. C) e-credit card. D) secure card.

B) smart card.

23) A discrete unit of work that must be processed completely or not at all within a computer system is called a: A) change control device. B) transaction. C) before image. D) journalizing facility.

B) transaction.

17) Microsoft's ________ query is a tool for integrating data access directly into object-oriented environments. A) Visual Basic B) Visual C++ C) Language Integrated D) Visual Studio

C) Language Integrated

25) A(n) ________ defines the form or protocol of an operation, but not its implementation. A) meta-operation B) inquisitor C) abstract operation D) operation descriptor

C) abstract operation

11) A mechanism that provides an application program with access to an external service such as a database management system is called a(n): A) API. B) ADO. C) call-level application program interface. D) WSDL.

C) call-level application program interface.

14) An operation that applies to a class rather than an object instance is a(n): A) constructor operation. B) query operation. C) class-scope operation. D) update operation.

C) class-scope operation.

31) A part object which belongs to only one whole object and which lives and dies with the whole object is called a(n): A) dependent. B) weak entity. C) composition. D) declarative.

C) composition.

2) All of the following are benefits of object-oriented modeling EXCEPT: A) the ability to tackle more challenging problem domains. B) increased consistency among analysis, design, and programming activities. C) decreased communication among the users, analysts, designers, and programmers. D) reusability of analysis, design, and programming results. AACSB: Use of Information Technology

C) decreased communication among the users, analysts, designers, and programmers.

29) When an object is an instance of more than one class, it is called: A) multiplicity. B) polymorphism. C) multiple classification. D) multiple associations.

C) multiple classification.

8) A graph of instances that are compatible within a class diagram is called a(n): A) object group. B) method chart. C) object diagram. D) ERD.

C) object diagram.

7) The property of an object that separates it from other objects based on its existence is called: A) object orientation. B) object persistence. C) object identity. D) matrix of objects.

C) object identity.

4) A technique to define structural relationships between object-oriented and relational representations of data is called: A) object-oriented relational database management systems. B) persistence. C) object-relational mapping. D) relation object mapping.

C) object-relational mapping.

11) Guidelines for server security should include all of the following EXCEPT: A) securing the network between client and server. B) guidelines for password lengths. C) password naming conventions. D) guidelines for frequency of password changes.

C) password naming conventions.

30) In the figure below, what relationship is shown? A) Overlaps B) Disjoints C) Rejoinders D) Aggregation

D) Aggregation

34) A repository of information about a database that documents data elements of a database is called a: A) schema. B) subschema. C) view. D) data dictionary.

D) data dictionary.

16) A structure that defines the relationships between domain classes in the object-oriented model and relations in a relational model is called: A) domain mapping schema. B) domain logistic class hierarchy. C) relational-domain model. D) declarative mapping schema.

D) declarative mapping schema.

30) The step in which a distributed database decides the order in which to execute the distributed query is called: A) decomposition. B) localization. C) step optimization. D) none of the above.

D) none of the above.

4) A(n) ________ is a concept, abstraction, or thing that has a state, behavior, and identity. A) relationship B) attribute C) key D) object

D) object

28) The process of replacing a method inherited from a superclass by a more specific implementation of the method in a subclass is called: A) inheritance. B) encapsulation. C) polymorphism. D) overriding.

D) overriding.

40) Local autonomy means that data are not accessible from remote sites.

FALSE

41) Databases are generally the property of a single department within an organization.

FALSE

32) An object encapsulates both data and behavior.

TRUE

34) A distributed database is not just a collection of files.

TRUE

34) An object class is a set of objects that share a common structure and behavior

TRUE

36) An operation is a function or service that is provided by all of the classes.

TRUE

37) Encapsulation is the technique of hiding the internal implementation details of an object from its external view.

TRUE

37) In a homogeneous environment, the same DBMS is used at each location.

TRUE

39) A class-scope operation applies to a class rather than an object instance

TRUE

40) An association role is the end of an association where it connects to a class.

TRUE

12) Snapshot replication is most appropriate for: A) a data warehouse application. B) an application where the processing of data follows a workflow across the business units. C) a transaction processing system. D) none of the above.

A) a data warehouse application.

8) An organization should have one data warehouse administrator for every: A) 100 users. B) 100 gigabytes of data in the enterprise data warehouse. C) department. D) processor.

B) 100 gigabytes of data in the enterprise data warehouse.

2) ________ is a technical function responsible for database design, security, and disaster recovery. A) Data administration B) Database administration C) Tech support D) Operations

B) Database administration

6) Which of the following functions model business rules? A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database design D) Operations

B) Database analysis

5) Which of the following supports a simple path to other databases, without the benefits of one logical database? A) Linked; differential B) Gateways C) Autonomous; cross-linked D) Federated; nonautonomous

B) Gateways

14) The W3C standard for Web privacy is called: A) the Web privacy act. B) Platform for Privacy Preferences. C) Freedom of Web Information Act. D) the Magna Carta.

B) Platform for Privacy Preferences.

6) Which of the following characterizes homogeneous environments? A) Contains simple pathways B) Same DBMS used at all locations C) Some users require only local access D) Cross-linked systems easily communicate

B) Same DBMS used at all locations

29) The actions that must be taken to ensure data integrity is maintained during multiple simultaneous transactions are called ________ actions. A) logging B) concurrency control C) transaction authorization D) multiple management

B) concurrency control

29) A design goal for distributed databases that states that although a distributed database runs many transactions, it appears that a given transaction is the only one in the system is called: A) linear run. B) concurrency transparency. C) transaction CPU transparency. D) location transparency.

B) concurrency transparency.

1) A(n) ________ is a database stored on multiple computers in multiple locations that are NOT connected by a data communications link. A) distributed database B) decentralized database C) unlinked database D) data repository

B) decentralized database

20) An integrated partition strategy is ________ to manage. A) excellent B) difficult C) easy D) medium

B) difficult

31) A(n) ________ prevents another transaction from reading and therefore updating a record until it is unlocked. A) record controller B) exclusive lock C) authorization rule D) shared lock

B) exclusive lock

35) A(n) ________ stores metadata about an organization's data and data processing resources. A) DBA B) information repository C) organizational system catalog D) data dictionary

B) information repository

27) An optimization strategy that allows sites that can update to proceed and other sites to catch up is called: A) read-only commit. B) lazy commit. C) sequenced commit. D) linear set up.

B) lazy commit.

24) A ________ is a DBMS module that restores the database to a correct condition when a failure occurs. A) backup facility B) recovery manager C) restart facility D) transaction logger

B) recovery manager

13) One way to generate store and forward messages for completed transactions to be broadcast across a network is through the use of: A) stored procedures. B) triggers. C) functions. D) SQL statements.

B) triggers.

25) ________ is used to undo unwanted database changes. A) Rollback B) Rollforward C) Restart D) Encryption

A) Rollback

9) Which of the following is true of data replication? A) Additional storage requirements B) Faster response C) Node decoupling D) All of the above

D) All of the above

5) Which of the following functions develop integrity controls? A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database implementation D) Database design

D) Database design

16) Which of the following is true about horizontal partitioning? A) Data can be stored to optimize local access. B) Data are less secure. C) There is consistent access speed. D) None of the above.

A) Data can be stored to optimize local access.

4) Which of the following functions do cost/benefit models? A) Database planning B) Database analysis C) Database design D) Operations

A) Database planning

9) An open-source DBMS is: A) a free source-code RBMS that provides the functionality of an SQL-compliant DBMS. B) a beta release of a commercial RDBMS. C) an object-oriented database management system. D) source code for a commercial RDBMS.

A) a free source-code RBMS that provides the functionality of an SQL-compliant DBMS.

15) While views promote security by restricting user access to data, they are not adequate security measures because: A) an unauthorized person may gain access to a view through experimentation. B) all users can read any view. C) a view's data does not change. D) none of the above.

A) an unauthorized person may gain access to a view through experimentation.

22) A DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals through the use of a: A) checkpoint facility. B) backup facility. C) recovery manager. D) database change log.

A) checkpoint facility.

19) A synchronized replication strategy has a(n) ________ reliability. A) excellent B) good C) fair D) medium

A) excellent

24) With ________, users can act as if all the data were located at a single node. A) location transparency B) local autonomy C) client-based control D) all of the above

A) location transparency

32) The sequence of instructions required to process a transaction is called the: A) unit of work. B) logical program unit. C) rollback. D) commit.

A) unit of work.

33) An optimistic approach to concurrency control is called: A) versioning. B) denormalization. C) deadlock resolution. D) none of the above.

A) versioning.

36) Which of the following is not a component of a repository system architecture? A) An informational model B) The repository engine C) A data transformation process D) The repository database

C) A data transformation process

28) ________ ensures that a transaction is successfully completed or else it is aborted. A) Failure protocol B) TCP/IP protocol C) Commit protocol D) None of the above

C) Commit protocol

3) Which of the following environments uses the same DBMS at each node with a central or master DBMS coordinating database access across nodes? A) Centralized; maximum B) Centralized; minimum C) Homogeneous; nonautonomous D) Federated; nonautonomous

C) Homogeneous; nonautonomous

10) Which of the following threats involves outside parties using information to embarrass a company? A) Accidental loss B) Theft and fraud C) Loss of confidentiality D) Loss of data integrity

C) Loss of confidentiality

33) A ________ allows a single SQL statement to refer to tables in more than one remote DBMS. A) distributed UOW B) join SQL statement C) distributed request D) data transfer command

C) distributed request

26) With ________, all of the actions of a transaction are either committed or not committed. A) location transparency B) replication transparency C) failure transparency D) commit transparency

C) failure transparency

23) In a distributed database, a transaction that requires reference to data at one or more nonlocal sites is called a ________ transaction. A) link B) tight C) global D) loose

C) global

39) A(n) ________ is submitted by a DBA to test the current performance of a database or predict the response time for queries. A) elusive query B) performance test C) heartbeat query D) none of the above

C) heartbeat query

30) The extent of the database resource that is included with each lock is called the level of: A) impact. B) management. C) lock granularity. D) none of the above.

C) lock granularity.

25) A design goal for distributed databases to allow programmers to treat a data item replicated at several sites as though it were at one site is called: A) location transparency. B) replication accessibility. C) replication transparency. D) data accessibility.

C) replication transparency.

13) Security measures for dynamic Web pages are different from static HTML pages because: A) dynamic Web pages are built "on the fly." B) static Web pages contain more sensitive data. C) the connection requires full access to the database for dynamic pages. D) all of the above.

C) the connection requires full access to the database for dynamic pages.

15) Replication should be used when: A) data currency and timing don't matter. B) there is a highly heterogeneous network. C) there are no or few triggers. D) all of the above.

C) there are no or few triggers.

4) Which of the following environments uses a different DBMS at each node and supports local databases for unique data requests? A) Gateways; local B) Centralized; minimum C) Homogeneous; cross-linked D) Heterogeneous; federated

D) Heterogeneous; federated

1) Which of the following is true of poor data and/or database administration? A) Data timing problems B) Multiple entity definitions C) Unknown meanings of stored data D) All of the above

D) All of the above

11) Which of the following is an advantage to data replication? A) Reliability B) Fast response C) Node decoupling D) All of the above

D) All of the above

16) A trigger can be used as a security measure in which of the following ways? A) To prohibit inappropriate actions B) To cause special handling procedures to be executed C) To cause a row to be written to a log file D) All of the above

D) All of the above

2) Which of the following are business conditions that encourage the use of distributed databases? A) Business unit autonomy B) Data sharing needs C) Data communication reliability D) All of the above

D) All of the above

21) Which of the following are factors in deciding on database distribution strategies? A) Organizational forces B) Frequency of data access C) Reliability needs D) All of the above

D) All of the above

37) Which of the following functions are supported by a repository engine? A) Object management B) Relationship management C) Version management D) All of the above

D) All of the above

7) A data warehouse administrator has which of the following responsibilities? A) Build and administer an environment supportive of decision-support applications B) Build a stable architecture for the data warehouse C) Develop service level agreements with suppliers and consumers of data for the data warehouse D) All of the above

D) All of the above

28) When incorrect data have been introduced, the database is best recovered by: A) backward recovery, if the error has been discovered soon enough. B) human intervention for only a few errors. C) restarting from the most recent checkpoint and processing subsequent transactions. D) all of the above.

D) all of the above.

17) Controls designed to restrict access and activities are called: A) schemas. B) business rules. C) encryption controls. D) authorization rules.

D) authorization rules.

27) The preferred method of fixing an aborted transaction is: A) repairing the schema. B) switching. C) duplication of data. D) backing out the transaction.

D) backing out the transaction.

17) All of the following are advantages of vertical partitioning EXCEPT: A) efficiency. B) security. C) ease of querying. D) easier to set up than horizontal partitioning.

D) easier to set up than horizontal partitioning.

21) An audit trail of database changes is kept by a: A) change control device. B) subschema. C) before image. D) journalizing facility.

D) journalizing facility.

35) Distributed databases make data sharing more difficult because of the data communication problems.

FALSE

36) Distributed databases do not easily satisfy both transaction and analytical processing systems.

FALSE

41) With an asynchronous distributed database, all data across the network is continuously kept up to date.

FALSE

43) Specifications for transactions do not need to be reviewed quickly.

FALSE

45) Open-source software always comes with complete documentation.

FALSE

47) Loss of data integrity does not impact the quality of data in a database.

FALSE

47) Shared ownership of data is most appropriate as business activities move across time zones.

FALSE

49) A domain is a way to create a structure that acts like a table.

FALSE

49) Applications that can tolerate out-of-date data are not the best candidates for data replication.

FALSE

51) Authorization rules are controls incorporated in the data management system that restrict access to data and also restrict the actions that people may take when they access the data.

TRUE

38) In a heterogeneous environment, not all users use the same DBMS.

TRUE

40) The data administrator takes responsibility for the overall management of data resources.

TRUE

42) A distributed database may require more costly and complex software than a centralized database.

TRUE

42) The role of database administration is typically a more hands-on, physical involvement with the management of databases.

TRUE

44) Replication is often used for noncollaborative data.

TRUE

44) The role of a data warehouse administrator emphasizes integration and coordination of metadata and data across many data sources.

TRUE

45) Replication should NOT be used if timely updates are important.

TRUE

46) Applications such as decision support or data warehousing often do not require current data and are supported by periodic snapshots.

TRUE


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