Denver Fire Engineer
You are pumping into a pre-piped tower operating 80 feet above your pump with a 1 3/8 inch tip. You have connected two 3-inch lines, 100 feet in length, with a siamese to the aerial. What is you discharge pressure? A. 192 B. 187 C. 212 D. 182
A. 192
What hundred block is Boulder St? A. 2600 B. 2700 C. 2100 D. 2000
A. 2600
What hundred block east is Detroit? A. 2800 B. 2700 C. 2500 D. 2900
A. 2800
What hundred block west is Fox? A. 600 B. 700 C. 500 D. 650
A. 600
You officer just pulled 250 feet of 2 1/2 static line with a 1 1/8 tip smooth bore nozzle. What is your pump discharge pressure? A. 85 B. 92 C. 150 D. 110
A. 85
The deck gun mounted to the engine has a 1 1/2 inch tip. What is the pump discharge pressure? A. 90 B. 80 C. 110 D. 60
A. 90
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for a locked wheel skid? A. Braking too hard at high speed B. Braking intermittently at low speed C. Braking while turning the wheels more than twenty degrees D. Braking while turning the wheels more than forty-five degrees
A. Braking too hard at high speed
Which of the following is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections? A.Minimize mechanical failure B. Justify additional shift hours C. Keep warranties from lapsing D. Maintain discipline in the department
A.Minimize mechanical failure
Which of the following can occur when pumping at a low residual pressure while being supplied by other apparatus? A. Cavitation of the pump B. Friction loss becomes too significant to overcome C. Firefighters may be unable to handle the supply hose D. Intake pressure from the supply source may be reduced to a point that may damage the pump
A. Cavitation of the pump
Which of the following should be done to prevent water hammer? A. Close all valves slowly. B. Close all valves quickly. C. Avoid closing valves during operations. D. Close valves half-way, wait, then close fully.
A. Close all valves slowly.
Which of the following types of apparatus is preferred when placing one or more firefighters at the position where the elevated master stream is going to be deployed? A. Elevating platform B. Telescoping ladder C. Articulating water tower D. Telescoping ladder with a pinnable waterway
A. Elevating platform
Which of the following is the formula for friction loss? A. FL = CQ2L B. FL=CL2Q C. FL=CQ2L x 2 D. FL=CQ2/L
A. FL = CQ2L
In order to produce fire fighting foam, what three items must be educated or injected in correct ratios? A. Foam concentrate, water, air B. Hydrocarbons, foam solution, and air C. Foam solutions, gelling agent, and water D. Polar solvents, foam concentrate, and water
A. Foam concentrate, water, air
Which of the following can BEST assist the driver/operator when operating an aerial device in high wind conditions? A. Load chart B. Weather map C. Level reading equipment D. Hydraulic calculation handbook
A. Load chart
What should a driver/operator do immediately upon indication that the water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted? A. Notify officer or Incident Commander B. Call for backup pumpers to arrive at the scene C Wait several minutes and see if the problem corrects itself D. Attempt to correct the problem before notifying anyone
A. Notify officer or Incident Commander
Which of the following is the correct customary formula for determining pump discharge pressure? A. Nozzle pressure plus total pressure loss B. Nozzle pressure divided by total pressure loss C. Elevation loss plus friction loss minus nozzle pressure D. Friction loss plus elevation multiplied by total pressure loss.
A. Nozzle pressure plus total pressure loss
Which of the following BEST describes the process of climbing an aerial device and device operations? A. Personnel may climb once device is positioned. B. Personnel should climb while positioning the device C. Personnel should climb to the tip before positioning the device. D. Personnel may climb and/or ride while extending the ladder
A. Personnel may climb once device is positioned.
Which of the following is one of the three main portions of an aerial ladder to which firefighters and driver/operators commonly refer? A. Rungs B. Foot pad C. Pail shield D. Holster top
A. Rungs
Which of the following BEST determines the most advantageous position for an attack pumper? A. Size-up B. Mutual aid C. Experience of crew D. Time of day or night
A. Size-up
Which of the following would MOST likely be exempt when emergency vehicles have their audible and visual warning lights on? A. Speed limits B. Use of seat belts C. Use of turn signals D. Yielding to pedestrians
A. Speed limits
Which of the following refers to any pressure less than atmospheric pressure? A. Vacuum B. Head pressure C. Static pressure D. Perfect vacuum
A. Vacuum
Total pressure loss includes friction loss and elevation pressure loss combined with the loss associated with: A. appliances. B. evaporation. C. variation in temperatures. D. improper use of equipment
A. appliances
When spotting an apparatus at a structure fire incident, driver/operators should be the MOST aware of: A. falling debris B. dead-end accesses. C. hazardous materials. D. passing motor vehicles.
A. falling debris
All aerial device movement should be slow, smooth, and controlled because of the: A. force being generated. B. static water pressure build up. C. likelihood of overheating the engine. D. number of firefighters located inside the building.
A. force being generated.
An apparatus that is equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders, is BEST referred to as a: A. quint. B. midi-pumper. C. mini-pumper. D. rescue apparatus.
A. quint.
When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, pressure shown on intake gauge is: A. static pressure. B. residual pressure C. atmospheric pressure D. the pressure from previous operations
A. static pressure.
When giving a hand signal, the spotter crosses both forearms into a large X. This means: A. stop the apparatus B. continue backing slowly C. slow down the apparatus d. pull forward and reestablish backing.
A. stop the apparatus
A solid stream nozzle produces a fire stream that has a: A. tight stream and little spray or shower effect B. variable stream with little spray or shower effect C. wide stream with intermittent spray or shower effect D. tight stream that has significant spray or shower effect
A. tight stream and little spray or shower effect
The operation of a centrifugal pump is based on the principle that a rapidly revolving disk tends to throw water introduced at its center: A. toward the outer edge of the disk. B. toward the inside edges of the disk. C. in a very tight circle around the center of the disk D. intermittently toward the outer and inner edges of the disk.
A. toward the outer edge of the disk.
During response to a possible hazardous material incident, the apparatus should approach from: A. uphill and upwind B. uphill and downwind C. uphill and downhill D. downhill and downwind
A. uphill and upwind
Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) will have: A. very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke B. The same exhaust emissions as all other apparatus C. Exhaust emissions 25% cleaner than most apparatus D. Exhaust emissions 30% cleaner than most apparatus
A. very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke
What hundred block is Market St.? A. 1200 B. 1400 C. 1600 D. 1500
B. 1400
You have two lines operating at the same time. The first line is 300 feet of 2 1/2 inch with a 1 1/8 tip. The second line is 300 feet with a 185 gpm fog nozzle. What is your pump discharge pressure? A. 92 B. 234 C. 216 D. 209
B. 234
What hundred block is Mansfield? A. 2900 B. 3900 C. 4400 D. 4300
B. 3900
If 300 gpm is flowing from a nozzle, what is the total pressure loss due to friction for 400 feet of 2 1/2 inch hose? A. 80 B. 72 C. 18 D. 60
B. 72
On an aerial apparatus, which of the following refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where front tries touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus? A. Breakover angle B. Angle of approach C. Angel of departure D. Angle of culmination
B. Angle of approach
What street is 1200 south? A. Mississippi B. Arizona C. Florida D. Jewell
B. Arizona
What location is generally considered the safest position for apparatus placement should a structure collapse occur? A. Middle of the structure B. Corners of the structure C. Slightly to the front of the structure D. One-third the distance from the middle of the structure
B. Corners of the structure
When would be the BEST time to develop apparatus placement procedures involving access to occupancies and overhead obstructions? A. At the pre scene B. During preincident planning C. When en route to a fire scene D. When a new aerial apparatus is purchased
B. During preincident planning
Which of the following factors is MOST likely to affect the degree of expansion in foam solution? A. Biodegradability B. Rate of application C. Method of aeration D. Decomposition rate
B. Rate of application
After the driver/operator perceives the need to stop the vehicle, the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the break pedal is: A. Braking distance B. Reaction distance C. Total stopping distance D. Complete stopping distance
B. Reaction distance
Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to: A. Problems with the apparatus breaks B. Skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer C. Increased road traction, causing decreased ability for speed. D. Inability of the apparatus to navigate normal road conditions.
B. Skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer
Which of the following must all riders be doing, in addition to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion? A. Wearing helmets B. Wearing seat betls C. Wearing universal precaution equipment D. carrying extra personal protective clothing
B. Wearing seat betls
When possible, the driver/operator should position an aerial apparatus at the: A. side of the building. B. corner of the building. C. side with the largest window. D. side with the most visible fire.
B. corner of the building.
If discharge flow volume is increased too much when operating from the pressurized water source: A. the area may become flooded. B. it may lead to cavitation of the pump. C. the supply hose may collapse, interrupting the water supply. D. intake pressure from the supply source may be reduced to a point that may damage the pump.
B. it may lead to cavitation of the pump.
During pumping operations driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure on the master intake gauge: A. of at least 10 psi B. of at least 20 psi C. that is exactly 40 psi D. between 20 pi and 40 psi
B. of at least 20 psi
When pinnable waterways are operated in the rescue mode, the master stream nozzle is; A. at the tip of the aerial device. B. one aerial section lower than the tip. C. attached to the cab on the aerial device. D. mounted to a stand secured to the ground.
B. one aerial section lower than the tip.
When a pumper is discharging water the intake gauge displays: A. static pressure. B. residual pressure C. atmospheric pressure D. average or median pressure.
B. residual pressure
Which of the following customary formulas would be used to conduct elevation pressure loss calculations on the fireground? A. 0.10 x Height in feet B. 0.25 x Height in feet C. 0.5 x Height in feet D. 1.0 x Height in feet
C. 0.5 x Height in feet
If a sprinkler system is to be supplied at the fire department connections and no specific information is available, the general guideline is to discharge: A. 5o psi into the FDC B. 75 psi into the FDC C. 15o psi into the FDC D. 25o psi into the FDC
C. 15o psi into the FDC
What is the pump discharge pressure for a multiversal master stream with a 2-inch tip and two 3-inch lines, 400 feet in length flowing into it? A. 192 B. 197 C. 202 D. 172
C. 202
In order for apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take: A. 15% more distance that it does on dry pavement B. 25% more distance that it does on dry pavement C. 3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement. D. 6 to 25 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
C. 3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement.
Solid stream nozzels on handlines should be operated at a maximum of: A. 20 psi nozzle pressure B. 30 psi nozzle pressure C. 50 psi nozzle pressure D. 80 psi nozzle pressure
C. 50 psi nozzle pressure
According to NFPA 1901, fire department pumpers should have a minimum pump capacity of: A. 250 gpm B. 500 gpm C. 750 gpm D. 2,000 gpm
C. 750 gpm
What hundred block is Yosemite? A. 7300 B. 9600 C. 8900 D. 8000
C. 8900
When performing a walk-around inspection, the driver/operator begins inspection at the: A. Rear of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern. B. Front of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a counterclockwise pattern. C. Driver's door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern. D. passenger's door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
C. Driver's door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
When examining tire condition, driver/operators should check: A. Tire color B. Tire diameter C. Excessive wear on the side walls D. Distance between top of tire and apparatus body.
C. Excessive wear on the side walls
What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements for licensing a driver? A. National Fire Academy (NFA) B. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) C. Federal Department of Transportation (DOT) D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
C. Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)
In the "inside/outside" method when would an attack pumper be positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and the aerial apparatus be placed outboard of the pumper? A. If the building is not totally engulfed B. If the building is high value property C. If building is less than five floors tall D. If the building is less than ten floors tall
C. If building is less than five floors tall
Which of the following statement about rescue tools is MOST accurate? A. Power systems are always portable. B. Power systems are always apparatus mounted. C. Power systems may be portable or apparatus mounted. D. Power systems on pumping apparatus are not adequate for rescue tools
C. Power systems may be portable or apparatus mounted.
Which consideration would MOST likely be taken into account when positioning an aerial apparatus fire pump? A. Time of day B. Direction of the Wind C. Reach of the aerial device D. Number of available personnel
C. Reach of the aerial device
Which of the following displays engine speed in revolution per minute? A. Ammeter B. Voltmeter C. Tachometer D. Pumping engine throttle
C. Tachometer
How is the pumper position to supply a fire department connection best determined? A. At the incident scene B. As the incident progresses C. Through pre-incident planning D. During post-incident analysis and critique
C. Through pre-incident planning
Why should firefights open the bleeder valve or drain valve between the control valve and cap? A. To prevent loss of water pressure B. To ensure tasks are done in order C. To ensure any trapped pressure is release D. To prevent valves from threading incorrectly
C. To ensure any trapped pressure is release
When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, the should travel: A. at least 50 to 150 feet (15 to 45m) apart. B. at least 100 to 300 feet (30 to 90m) apart. C. at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150m) apart. D. at least 700 to 900 feet (210 to 270m) apart.
C. at least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150m) apart.
Using an aerial device as an exterior standpipe to upper floors is a tactic that: A. requires an additional fire apparatus. B. increases the weight load capacity of the apparatus. C. can eliminate difficult hose lays up interior stairwells. D. Increases the amount of pressure needed to deliver the water.
C. can eliminate difficult hose lays up interior stairwells.
When pumping in the parallel (Volume) position: A. each impeller must flow 100 percent of rated capacity. B. only the fire impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. C. each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. D. all water from intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller.
C. each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge.
The component in a load management system that turns on various lights at specified intervals so the electrical load for all devices does not occur at the same time is called the: A. load monitor B. load delineator C. load sequencer D. load alignment indicator
C. load sequencer
If the building has been exposed to severe fire conditions, it is MOST advisable to park: A. on a grade. B. in a jackknifed position. C. outside of the buildings collapse zone. D. alongside multiple apparatus on the same span.
C. outside of the buildings collapse zone.
In general, pumps supplying a relay operation or master stream are used to supply large amounts of water and therefore require: A. multiple settings of the transfer valve B. use of a series (pressure) setting of the transfer valve. C. use of a parallel (volume) setting of the transfer valve. D. the transfer valve to switch between series and parallel.
C. use of a parallel (volume) setting of the transfer valve.
When an emergency medical incident requires a driver/operator to position apparatus in a street or highway: A. turn on all warning lights and sirens B. position the vehicle so it takes up as little room as possible C. use the vehicle as a shield between work area and oncoming traffic D. conduct operations as quickly as possible with speed as the main priority
C. use the vehicle as a shield between work area and oncoming traffic
Which of the following is the purpose of a four-way hydrant valve in making a lay? A. Allows for as many lines as necessary B. Enables firefighters to more easily turn on/off the main control valve C. Allows the driver/operator to configure multiple types of lays easily and efficiently D Allows a second arriving pumper to connect without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line
D Allows a second arriving pumper to connect without interrupting the flow of water to the original supply line
Your static pressure is 80 and residual pressure is 70. You are currently flowing 500gpm. What is the approximate number of additional gallons per minute that the water supply will provide. A. 500 B. 750 C. 1500 D. 1000
D. 1000
You have connected to a dry standpipe with two 3-inch lines, 100 feet in length each. Your crew is operating on the 5th floor with 200 feet of 2-inch light weight hose with a 1-inch tip. What is your pump discharge pressure? A. 137 B. 132 C. 160 D. 157
D. 157
What hundred block south is Cedar? A. 150 B. 250 C. 100 D. 200
D. 200
What is the pump discharge pressure for 300 feet of 1 3/4 hose with a 15/16-inch smooth bore nozzle? A. 159 B. 150 C. 234 D. 209
D. 209
What hundred block west is Eliot? A. 2700 B. 2600 C. 2300 D. 2900
D. 2900
What hundred block north is Albrook Dr at Peoria? A. 5600 B. 4800 C. 5300 D. 4700
D. 4700
Which of the following BEST describes the main feature of relief valves? A. Ability to regulate amount of water flowing B. Ability to allow pump to handle excessive pressure C. Ability to warn firefighters when supply is at capacity D. Ability to relieve excessive pressure within the pump discharge
D. Ability to relieve excessive pressure within the pump discharge
When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus? A. During weekly inspections B. During monthly inspections C. Whenever it changes from day or night D. Any time driving responsibilities change from one individual to another.
D. Any time driving responsibilities change from one individual to another.
Which of the following is a function of antilock breaking systems (ABS)? A. Enables the driver/operator to stop much more quickly B. Warn the driver/operator about oncoming vehicles and hidden hazards in the roadway C. Allows the driver/operator to observe the road and not worry about the breaking system D. Assist the driver/operator in keeping apparatus in a straight trajectory during heavy or emergency breaking
D. Assist the driver/operator in keeping apparatus in a straight trajectory during heavy or emergency breaking
When strobe lights (emitters) mounted on apparatus are used to activate sensors in traffic lights, the signal: A. cause a red light in all directions. B. cause either a red or green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel. C. cause a red light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a green light in all other direction. D. Cause a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.
D. Cause a green light for the fire apparatus direction of travel, and a red light in all other directions.
Which of the following actions would MOST likely be considered reckless when driving an apparatus? A. Driving while talking to a passenger B. Using both visual and auditory warnings C. Taking short cuts to the emergency incident scene D. Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles
D. Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles
Which of the following is a main use for aerial ladders? A. Powering scene lighting and extrication tools B. Providing continuous rotation on a horizontal plane C. Providing an emergency escape route for firefighters D. Gaining access to upper levels of an emergency scene.
D. Gaining access to upper levels of an emergency scene.
Which of the following statements about checking fluid levels is MOST accurate? A. Most checks can be conducted while the engine is running. B. Unless gauges have been inaccurate, they can be relied upon for inspections. C. Fluid level measurements should be the same whether the engine is hot or cold. D. Never rely solely on warning lights or gauges; all fluid levels should be inspected.
D. Never rely solely on warning lights or gauges; all fluid levels should be inspected.
Which of the following is a characteristic of master stream nozzles? A. Designed to be used from mobile position B. Require considerable personnel for operations C. Generate little nozzle reaction even at higher flow rates D. Offer ability to operate at a greater distance from the fire
D. Offer ability to operate at a greater distance from the fire
Apparatus equipped with pressure governors should be set in: A. RPM mode when acting as the attack pumper and while working as a relay pumper. B pressure mode when acting as the attack pumper and while working as a relay pumper. C. RPM mode when acting as the attack pumper and pressure mode while working as a relay pumper. D. Pressure mode when acting as the attack pumper and RPM mode while working as a relay pumper.
D. Pressure mode when acting as the attack pumper and RPM mode while working as a relay pumper.
Which of the following is a main factor that influences a centrifugal fire pump's discharge pressure? A. Ambient temperature B. Age of the centrifugal fire pump C. Experience of those operating the fire pump D. Pressure of water when it enters pump from a pressurized source
D. Pressure of water when it enters pump from a pressurized source
Which of the following BEST describes the function of a pressure governor? A. Regulates engine speed to best use available fuel supply. B. Regulares engine speed to match load carrying requirements. C. Regulates water flow to match pump discharge pressure. D. Regulates engine speed to match pump discharge pressure.
D. Regulates engine speed to match pump discharge pressure.
For which of the following is a nozzle pressure of 80 psi a safe and efficient nozzle pressure? A. Fog nozzle B. Low pressure for nozzle C. Solid stream nozzle (handline) D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)
D. Solid stream nozzle (master stream)
Which of the following factors MUST be balanced against positioning an apparatus at a safe distance from the structure? A. The location of the staging area B The weather conditions at the incident C. The distance to the incident command post D. The distance of the fire stream to reach the target.
D. The distance of the fire stream to reach the target.
If water is not flowing for an extended period of time during fire attack, why might a circulator, bypass, or booster cooling valve be opened on a pump? A. To bleed off excess are B. To increase water pressure C. To decrease water pressure D. To prevent the pump from overheating
D. To prevent the pump from overheating
Nozzle reaction occurs as water is discharged from a nozzle a given pressure and: A. a forward pressure pulls firefighters operating the hoseline. B. the resulting vibration of water against the nozzle damages the hose. C. firefighters anticipating the water discharge hold the nozzle stationary. D. a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline
D. a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline
For a multistage centrifugal fire pump, switching from volume to pressure. A. has little immediate effect on the discharge pressure. B. results in immediate lowering of the previous discharge pressure. C. results in a slight interruption of the current discharge pressure. D. can result in immediate doubling of previous discharge pressure.
D. can result in immediate doubling of previous discharge pressure.
Pressure for standpipes operations for fire departments may be: A. kept with building maintenance. B. listed on the building entrance information. C. posted on entry and exit passageways in the building. D. labeled on the faceplate of the fire department connection
D. labeled on the faceplate of the fire department connection
The current formula for friction loss accounts for the diameter of the hose, the volume of water flowing and the: A. expected time. B. level of elevation. C. distance of fire stream. D. length of the hose layout.
D. length of the hose layout.
While driving a vehicle equipped with anti-breaks: A. push the pedal to the floor B. intermittently pump the pedal and apply pressure C. pump the pedal repeatedly until apparatus comes to a complete stop. D. maintain a steady pressure on the break pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop
D. maintain a steady pressure on the break pedal until apparatus comes to a complete stop
When stabilizing an aerial apparatus: A. the aerial device should be elevated partially B. chocks should be placed on the side of stabilizers. C. always set up on soft surfaces to allow the apparatus to set in place. D. never set up on slopes exceeding the manufacturer's recommendations.
D. never set up on slopes exceeding the manufacturer's recommendations.
Generally, the maximum flow for a handline is 350 gpm (1400L/min) because greater flows will: A. cause the nozzle to malfunction B. require the nozzle to be replaced during fire fighting efforts c. place too much strain on the water supply system and nozzle itself D. produce a nozzle reaction that is difficult or dangerous for firefighters to handle
D. produce a nozzle reaction that is difficult or dangerous for firefighters to handle
In most jurisdictions, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding they must: A. continue driving, but at much reduced speeds. B. continue driving as normal so as not to disrupt traffic. C. pull to the left, stop, continue through intersections, and remain motionless. D. pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.
D. pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless.
Newer operators should avoid full-speed operations until: A. Their training has been completed. D. the manufactured gives their approval. C. they have completed 120 hours of operations. D. they are very familiar with the operations of the aerial device.
D. they are very familiar with the operations of the aerial device.