EAQ 6

Which clinical manifestation would be expected in a client with hyposecretion of growth hormone? A. Lethargy B. Weight gain C. Decreased libido D. Reduced bone density

D. Reduced bone density Rationale Growth hormone deficiency changes tissue growth patterns, resulting in increasing bone destructive activity and reduced bone density. A client becomes lethargic and gains weight because of the deficiency of thyroid-stimulating hormone. Decreased libido (sexual desire) occurs as a result of the deficiency of gonadotropins.

Which condition is consistent with a client's report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upon rest? A. Crepitus B. Ankylosis C. Contracture D. Tendonitis

D. Tendonitis

Which type of joint is present in between the client's tarsal bones? A. Pivot B. Hinge C. Saddle D. Gliding

D. Gliding

Which clinical indicators are consistent with the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Emotional lability B. Dyspnea on exertion C. Abdominal distention D. Decreased bowel sounds E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

A. Emotional lability B. Dyspnea on exertion E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes Rationale Lability of mood is a psychological/emotional manifesation related to excess thyroid hormones. Dyspnea with or without exertion can occur as the body attempts to meet oxygen demands related to the increased metabolic rate associated with hyperthyroidism. Hyperactive reflexes are a neurological manifestation related to excessive production of thyroid hormones. Abdominal distention is associated with hypothyroidism; it is related to constipation and weight gain. Bowel sounds increase, not decrease, as a result of hyperperistalsis associated with the elevated metabolic rate. Hypoactive bowel sounds are related to hypothyroidism.

A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and is treated with I-131. Before discharge the nurse teaches the client to observe for signs and symptoms of therapy-induced hypothyroidism. Which signs and symptoms would be included in the teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Fatigue B. Dry skin C. Insomnia D. Intolerance to heat E. Progressive weight gain

A. Fatigue B. Dry skin E. Progressive weight gain Rationale Fatigue is caused by a decreased metabolic rate associated with hypothyroidism. Dry skin most likely is caused by decreased glandular function associated with hypothyroidism. Progressive weight gain is associated with hypothyroidism in response to a decrease in the metabolic rate because of insufficient thyroid hormone. Insomnia is associated with hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism, in response to an increase in the metabolic rate because of excessive thyroid hormone. Intolerance to heat is associated with hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism, in response to an increase in the metabolic rate because of excessive thyroid hormone.

Which length of time would the nurse teach a client regarding the incubation period of syphilis? A. 1 week B. 4 months C. 2 to 6 weeks D. 48 to 72 hours

C. 2 to 6 weeks

Which instruction would the nurse give a client while performing McMurray's test? A. To raise the leg to 60 degrees B. To abduct the arm to 90 degrees C. To flex, rotate, and extend the knee D. To flex the knee to 30 degrees and pull the tibia forward

C. To flex, rotate, and extend the knee

The laboratory reports of a client with adrenal adenoma show high urine aldosterone levels and a low specific gravity of urine. The serum potassium is 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L). Which other findings will be present on assessment? Select all that apply. One, some, responses may be correct. A. Hypernatremia B. Hypertension C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypercalcemia E. Metabolic alkalosis

A. Hypernatremia B. Hypertension E. Metabolic alkalosis Rationale Adrenal adenoma may cause primary hyperaldosteronism, which may result in high aldosterone in the urine, low specific gravity of the urine, and hypokalemia (indicated by a serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L [immol/L]). Increased aldosterone levels may result in sodium retention, which leads to hypernatremia. Sodium retention increases blood volume, which raises blood pressure and causes hypertension. High aldosterone levels may excrete hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis. Hypoglycemia is caused by a deficiency of adrenocorticotropic hormone. Hypercalcemia is associated with adrenal insufficiency.

Which laboratory finding is a characteristic feature in a client with hypercortisolism? A. Serum sodium of 150 mEg/L (150 mmol)L) B. Serum chloride of 100 mEg/L (200 mmol)L) C. Serum potassium of 4.1 mEg/L (4.1 mmol/L) D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEg/L (25 mmol/L)

A. Serum sodium of 150 mEg/L (150 mmol)L) Rationale Hypercortisolism manifests as hypernatremia, or an elevated sodium level. The normal concentration of sodium in the serum ranges between 135 and 145 mEq/L (135-145 mmol/L). A serum sodium concentration of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) is an abnormal finding that supports hypercortisolism. The normal chloride ranges between 96 and 106 mEg/L (96-106 mmol/L). The normal serum potassium concentration ranges between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5 mmol/L). The normal serum bicarbonate concentration ranges between 22 and 26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). Decreased serum calcium level occurs in hypercortisolism.

The nurse is teaching a client who has decreased production of estrogen because of menopause about self-management and prevention of complications. Which actions performed by the client would help reduce the complications? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Walking for 30 minutes per day B. Performing weight-bearing activities C. Dressing warmly in cool or cold weather D. Urinating immediately after sexual intercourse E. Keeping within 10 pounds of ideal body weight

A. Walking for 30 minutes per day B. Performing weight-bearing activities D. Urinating immediately after sexual intercourse Rationale Because decreased ovarian production of estrogen leads to low bone density, regular exercises are advised, such as walking for 30 minutes per day and performing weight-bearing activities. Decreased ovarian production of estrogen increases the risk of cystitis; therefore, female clients are advised to reduce the risk by urinating immediately after sexual intercourse. Dressing warmly in cool weather would be beneficial to a client with decreased general metabolism because they may have less tolerance to cold. Maintaining body weight within 10 pounds of ideal would be beneficial to a client with decreased glucose tolerance.

Which leukocyte is responsible for the allergic response? A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Macrophages

A. Basophils Rationale Basophils stimulate the inflammation of allergy and hypersensitivity reactions. Monocytes are responsible for the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris before maturing into macrophages. Eosinophils act against parasitic infestations and limit inflammatory reactions. The main function of the macrophages is phagocytosis.

Which hormones are responsible for altered serum calcium concentrations? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

A. Calcitonin E. Parathyroid hormone

Which clinical manifestation would the nurse observe in a client diagnosed with blackwater fever secondary to malaria? A. Dark red urine B. Low-grade fever C. Clay-colored diarrhea D. Coffee-ground emesis

A. Dark red urine

Which finding in older adult clients is associated with aging? A. Decrease in height B. Decreased neck rigidity C. Increased fine-motor dexterity D. Increased range of motion (ROM)

A. Decrease in height

Which clinical manifestation indicates a need for the nurse to contact the health care provider to increase the intravenous fluid infusion for an older client with an infection? A. Pruritus B. Erythema C. Acute confusion D. General malaise

C. Acute confusion Rationale The nurse would consider the development of dehydration if acute confusion occurs in an older client with an infection. Additional fluids would not be helpful if pruritus, erythema, or general malaise develop in a client with an infection.

Which are neurological manifestations of hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Fatigue B. Diaphoresis C. Blurred vision D. Exophthalmos E. Shallow respirations

C. Blurred vision D. Exophthalmos Rationale Blurred vision and exophthalmos are the neurological manifestations of hyperthyroidism. Fatigue is the metabolic manifestation of hyperthyroidism. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is the skin manifestation of hyperthyroidism. Shallow respirations are the cardiopulmonary manifestation of hyperthyroidism.

In addition to being highly infectious, which additional fact would the nurse teach the client with gonorrhea? A. Easily cured B. Occurs very rarely C. Can produce sterility D. Limited to the external genitalia

C. Can produce sterility

Which nursing intervention would the nurse implement when providing care for pediatric clients with leukemia on chemotherapeutic protocols? A. Prevention of physical activity during this time B. Checking the clients' vital signs every 2 hours C. Having them avoid contact with infected persons D. Reducing unnecessary stimuli in their environment

C. Having them avoid contact with infected persons

Which surgery will a client undergo if pituitary gland must be removed? A. Mastectomy B. Prostatectomy C. Thyroidectomy D. Hypophysectomy

D. Hypophysectomy Rationale A hypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland or its tumor. A mastectomy is the surgical removal of breast tissue. A prostatectomy is the surgical removal of the prostate gland. A thyroidectomy is the surgical removal of the thyroid gland.

Which change in the joint may result in joint pain for older adults? A. Dehydration of discs B. Loss of muscle mass C. Decreased elasticity in the ligaments D. Increased cartilage erosion

D. Increased cartilage erosion

Which intervention would the nurse add to the care plan for a client who is to undergo electromyography? A. Encourage the client to sleep quietly during the procedure. B. Prepare the client to stay in a sitting position during the procedure C. Inform the client that the procedure is both painless and noninvasive. D. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 24 hours before the procedure.

D. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 24 hours before the procedure.

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the client suspected of having rabies? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Diarrhea B. Forgetfulness C. Urinary stasis D. Nuchal rigidity E. Pharyngeal spasm

D. Nuchal rigidity E. Pharyngeal spasm

Which assessment finding in a client signifies a mild form of hypocalcemia? A. Seizures B. Hand spasms C. Severe muscle cramps D. Numbness around the mouth

D. Numbness around the mouth Rationale A numbness or tingling sensation around the mouth or in the hands and feet indicates mild to moderate hypocalcemia. Seizures, hand spasms, and severe muscle cramps are associated with severe hypocalcemia.

Which finding would the nurse document as a muscle strength score of 4? A. No detection of muscular contraction B. A barely detectable flicker or trace of contraction C. Active movement against gravity and some resistance D. Active movement against gravity only, not against resistance

C. Active movement against gravity and some resistance

Which dietary changes would the nurse suggest to the client with diarrhea associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. 'Eat more fatty food' B. "Eat much less roughage. C. "Drink two cups of coffee daily!' D. "Eat more spicy and sweet food' E. "Drink plenty of fluids between meals!

B. "Eat much less roughage. E. "Drink plenty of fluids between meals!

Which hormonal deficiency would increase the client's risk for fractures? A. Growth hormone B. Follicle-stimulating hormone C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A. Growth hormone Rationale Growth hormone deficiency causes decrease in bone density, thereby increasing the risk of fractures. Follicle-stimulating hormone deficiency causes amenorrhea, decreased libido, and infertility in women and impotence in men. Thyroid-stimulating hormone deficiency causes menstrual abnormalities and hirsutism. Adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency causes hypoglycemia and hyponatremia.

A client reports their lips feel thicker, and they have joint pain and coarse facial features. The nurse would suspect an excessive secretion of which hormone? A. Growth hormone B. Prolactin hormone C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

A. Growth hormone Rationale Thickened lips, joint pain, and coarse facial features are the symptoms of acromegaly, which is caused by pituitary gland hyperfunction leading to excessive secretion of growth hormone. Prolactin hormone hypersecretion can cause hypogonadism, which is loss of sexual characteristics. Thyroid-stimulating hormone hypersecretion can result in increases in both plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone and thyroid hormone levels. Adrenocorticotropic hormone hypersecretion can cause Cushing disease characterized by increased plasma cortisol levels.

Which joint is an example of a gliding joint? A. Wrist B. Elbow C. Shoulder D. Sacroiliac

D. Sacroiliac

To ensure antibody- mediated immunity, which actions would the nurse instruct an older client to implement? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Obtain a shingles vaccination, B. Receive a tetanus booster injection, C. Obtain the pneumococcal vaccination, D. Receive annual testing for tuberculosis, E. Receive an annual influenza vaccination, F. Avoid obtaining the pertussis vaccination,

A. Obtain a shingles vaccination, B. Receive a tetanus booster injection, C. Obtain the pneumococcal vaccination E. Receive an annual influenza vaccination

Which bones are examples of a client's flat bones? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Sacrum B. Scapula C. Sternum D. Humerus E. Mandible

B. Scapula C. Sternum

In which order would the assisting nurse expect to observe a health provider performing the steps of an arthrocentesis? 1. Apply local anesthesia 2. cleanse the client skin 3. withdraw fluid from the joint 4. insert an 18-gauge or larger needle into the joint 5. inject corticosteroids using the intra-articular route

2, 1, 4, 3, 5

Which bursae are between the client's elbow and the skin? A. Olecranon B. Prepatellar C. Subacromial D. Trochanteric

A. Olecranon

Which is the first-line treatment for Paget's disease? A. Oral alendronate B. Oral calcium C. Intravenous pamidronate D. Intravenous zoledronic acid

A. Oral alendronate

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary gland? A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin C. Growth hormone D. Luteinizing hormone

A. Oxytocin Rationale Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland, which acts on the uterus and mammary glands. Prolactin, growth hormone, and luteinizing hormone are produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

Which hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin C. Corticotropin D. Antidiuretic hormone E. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

A. Oxytocin D. Antidiuretic hormone Rationale Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Prolactin, corticotropin, and melanocyte stimulating hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

While caring for a client in traction, which actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Padding traction connections B. Determining correct body alignment C. Assessing complications associated with immobility D. Teaching the client about range-of-motion (ROM) exercises E. Assisting the client with passive and active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises

A. Padding traction connections E. Assisting the client with passive and active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises

On reviewing the x-ray report of a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse learns that three small joints are involved. Which score will the nurse assign the client for joint involvement? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

B. 2

Which phrase describes a greenstick fracture? A. More than two fragments B. Incomplete with one side bent C. Spontaneous, at the site of bone disease D. Across the longitudinal axis of the bone shaft

B. Incomplete with one side bent

Which factor may cause neck pain in a client? A. Headache B. Poor posture C. Low body weight D. Sedentary lifestyle

B. Poor posture

Identify the role of plasma cells in the antigen-antibody response. A. Makes an antigen harmless without destroying it B. Produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen C. Produces antibodies after an exposure to a known antigen D. Clumps antibody-antigens linkages together to form immune complexes

B. Produces antibodies against the sensitizing antigen

Which diagnostic study is used to determine bone density? A. Diskogram B. Standard x-ray C. Computed tomography (CT) scan D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

B. Standard x-ray

The registered nurse teaches a 70-year-old client with kyphosis about self-care measures. Which statement made by the client indicates effective learning? A. "I should take warm baths! B. 'I should do isometric exercises. C. "I should sit in supportive armchairs' D. "I should position myself quickly!

C. "I should sit in supportive armchairs'

Which medication is used in the treatment of a client with intervertebral disc disease? A. Etidronate B. Zoledronic acid C. Cyclobenzaprine D. Salmon calcitonin

C. Cyclobenzaprine

Which hormone aids in regulating intestinal calcium and phosphorous absorption? A. Insulin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Parathyroid hormone

C. Glucocorticoids

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse observe when reviewing examination and diagnostic data about a client with malaria? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Polyuria B. Leukopenia C. Hyperthermia D. Splenomegaly E. Erythrocytosis

C. Hyperthermia D. Splenomegaly

A client scheduled for surgery reports a history of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a healed surgical site from 9 months ago. Which action would the nurse implement? A. Notify the infection control officer and obtain blood cultures. B. Inform the operating room of the MRSA infection. C. Obtain an order for a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) screen. D. Call the surgeon for an infectious disease consultation.

C. Obtain an order for a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) screen.

Which criteria would the nurse consider when determining if an infection is a health care-associated infection? A. Originated primarily from an exogenous source B. Is associated with a medication-resistant microorganism C. Occurred in conjunction with treatment for an illness D. Still has the infection despite completing the prescribed therapy

C. Occurred in conjunction with treatment for an illness

Which musculoskeletal abnormality would the nurse suspect in a client who exhibits short steps and drags a foot? A. Torticollis B. Pes planus C. Spastic gait D. Steppage gait

C. Spastic gait

In which order do events occur in stage I of the inflammatory process? A. Capillary leak causes pain B. Edema from plasma leaking protects further injury C. cytokines is released to produce more white blood cells D. blood vessel changes cause redness and tissue warmth E. increased blood flow causes swelling at the site of injury

D, E, A, B, C

Which term would the nurse use in a report to describe the absence of menstrual periods in a 35-year-old nonpregnant client? A. Rhinorrhea B. Menopause C. Amenorrhea D. Dyspareunia

C. Amenorrhea Rationale The absence of menstrual periods in a nonpregnant client younger than 55 years old is called amenorrhea. Rhinorrhea is an allergic state that is manifested by a runny nose. Menopause is cessation of menstruation after 55 years of age. Dyspareunia is pain during sexual intercourse.

Which nursing action helps reduce the development of health care associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (HA-MRSA)? A. Applying triple antibiotic ointment to puncture sites B. Bathing clients every other day with soap and tepid water C. Bathing clients with chlorhexidine gluconate,(CHG) solution D. Performing hand hygiene with soap and water after removing gloves

C. Bathing clients with chlorhexidine gluconate,(CHG) solution

A client exhibits dysphasia, dry mouth, drooping eyelids, blurred vision, vomiting, and diarrhea. Within 24 hours, the client develops bilateral cranial nerve impairment and descending weakness. Which bioterrorism agent presents with these clinical manifestations? A. Plague B. Anthrax C. Botulism D. Smallpox

C. Botulism

A client suspected to have hyperpituitarism is sent by the primary health care provider to undergo a suppression test. Which laboratory value would indicate a positive result? A. 3 ng/mL B. 4 ng/mL C. 5 ng/mL D. 6 ng/mL

D. 6 ng/mL Rationale When the growth hormone level in a suppression test is more than 5 ng/mL, this indicates a positive result, which means the client is suffering from hyperpituitarism. Therefore, 6 ng/mL indicates a positive suppression test. When growth hormone level falls to 5 ng/mL or less, this indicates a negative result, which means the client is not suffering with hyperpituitarism. Therefore, 3 ng/mL, 4 ng/mL, and 5 ng/mL indicate negative results, and the client does not have hyperpituitarism.

Which cytokine increases growth and maturation of myeloid stem cells? A. Interleukin-2 B. Thrombopoietin C. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor D. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor

D. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor Rationale Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor is a cytokine that increases growth and maturation of myeloid stem cells. Interleukin-2 is a cytokine that increases growth and differentiation ofT lymphocytes. Thrombopoietin is a cytokine that increases growth and differentiation of platelets. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor is a cytokine that increases numbers and maturity of neutrophils.

Which sexually transmitted infection causes condylomata acuminate? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Herpes simplex D. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

D. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Which condition would the nurse suspect in the client who reports a burning sensation and sharp pain on the sole of a foot? A. Torticollis B. Pes planus C. Crepitation D. Plantar fasciìtis

D. Plantar fasciìtis

Which dient is at risk for Achilles tendon rupture? A. Gentamicin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Cefazolin D. Tobramycin

B. Ciprofloxacin

Which client's joint fluid examination report indicates a normal finding? A. Presence of uric acid crystals in the fluid B. Floating fat globules in the fluid C. Thick, purulent fluid D. Transparent, straw-colored fluid

D. Transparent, straw-colored fluid

The nurse is teaching a client who underwent a hypophysectomy for hyperpituitarism about self-management. Which actions performed by the client could cause complications on the second postoperative day? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Blowing the nose B. Brushing teeth C. Bending forward D. Breathing through the mouth E. Lying itya semi-Fowler position

A. Blowing the nose B. Brushing teeth C. Bending forward Rationale After a hypophysectomy a drip pad is placed under the nose of the client for 2 to 3 days. Clients should not blow their nose, brush their teeth, or bend forward because these activities can increase intracranial pressure and delay healing. Because of the nasal packing, clients are advised to breathe through their mouth. Lying in a semi-Fowler position will not interfere with the nasal packing; therefore, it will not cause any complication.

Which clinical manifestations are associated with tuberculosis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Fatigue B. Nausea C. Weight gain D. Low-grade fever E. Increased appetite

A. Fatigue B. Nausea D. Low-grade fever

Which client would the nurse suspect may have Parkinson's disease? Client Findings Signs and symptoms A. Festinating gait. Trunk and knee flexes when the body is rigid B. Short-leg gait. Limping C. Spastic gait. Uncoordinated, cross-knee (scissor) movement D. Steppage gait. Increased hip and knee flexion to make a step

A. Festinating gait. Trunk and knee flexes when the body is rigid

When obtaining the blood pressure of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which action must the nurse implement? A. Wear clean gloves. B. Use barrier techniques. C. Put on a mask and gown. D. Wash hands thoroughly.

D. Wash hands thoroughly.

Which diagnostic test is used for the direct visualization of ligaments, menisci, and articular surfaces of joints? A. Arthroscopy B. Muscle biopsy C. Ultrasonography D. Electromyography

A. Arthroscopy

The health care provider suspects a client has tuberculosis and prescribes a purified protein derivative (PPD) test, chest x-ray, and sputum culture. Prioritize implememitation of the ordered interventions. 1. Obtain a sputum specimen 2. Institute airborne precautions 3. have a chest x-ray performed 4. notify the department of health 5. perform a PPD intradermal skin test

2, 3, 5, 1, 5

In which order would the nurse explain the process of phagocytosis? 1. Attraction 2. adherence 3. recognition 4. degradation 5. cellular ingestion 6. exposure/invasion 7. phagosome formation

6, 1, 2, 3, 7, 5, 6 Rationale 6. Exposure and invasion occur as the first step in response to injury or invasion. 1. Attraction is the second step because phagocytosis can occur only when the white blood cell comes into direct contact with the target. 2. Adherence allows the phagocytic cell to bind to the surface of the target. 3. Recognition occurs when the phagocytic cell sticks to the target cell and 'recognizes' it as nonself. 7. Phagosome formation 5. Cellular ingestion is needed because phagocytic destruction occurs inside the cell. 6. Degradation is the final step. The enzymes in the phagosome digest the engulfed target.

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint? A. Wrist joint B. Elbow joint C. Shoulder joint D. Sacroiliac joint

A. Wrist joint

Which clinical manifestation occurs in a client with vasopressin deficiency? A. Impotence B. Hypotension C. Amenorrhea D. Decreased libido

B. Hypotension Rationale Vasopressin regulates fluid level and blood pressure. A vasopressin deficiency causes hypotension. Impotence, amenorrhea, and decreased libido in both men and women are clinical manifestations of luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormone deficiencies.

A mother diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) states she has been caring for her baby even though she has not been feeling well. Which important information would the nurse determine regarding the care provided by the mother? A. If she has ever kissed the baby and how B. If the mother is breast-feeding her baby C. When the baby last received antibiotics D. How long she has been caring for the baby

B. If the mother is breast-feeding her baby

Which metabolic manifestations are likely to be observed in a client with hypothyroidism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Impaired memory B. Intolerance to cold C. Difficulty breathing D. Decreased blood pressure E. Decreased body temperature

B. Intolerance to cold E. Decreased body temperature Rationale Cold intolerance and decreased body temperature are the metabolic manifestations observed in a client with hypothyroidism. Impaired memory is the neuromuscular manifestation of hypothyroidism. Difficulty in breathing is the pulmonary manifestation observed in the client with hypothyroidism. Decreased blood pressure is the cardiovascular manifestation observed in the client with hypothyroidism.

Which structures protect a client's internal organs, support blood cell production, and store minerals? A. joints B. Bones C. Muscles D. Cartilages

B. Bones

Which statement regarding calcitonin is correct? A. It is secreted by follicular cells B. Its actions are opposite to that of parathyroid hormone. C. It decreases phosphorous levels by increasing bone resorption. D. It works along with thyroid hormone to maintain normal calcium levels in blood.

B. Its actions are opposite to that of parathyroid hormone. Rationale Calcitonin reduces serum calcium levels, whereas parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium levels. The actions of calcitonin are opposite to that of parathyroid hormone. Calcitonin is secreted by parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. Calcitonin decreases calcium and phosphorus levels by decreasing bone resorption. Calcitonin works along with parathyroid hormone to maintain calcium levels in blood.

Which statements made by the client indicate effective learning about management of low back pain? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I should sleep in a prone position. B. "I should sleep with my legs out straight. C. "I should keep a check on my body weight. D. "I should stop exercising if the pain becomes severe E. "I should exercise by leaning forward without bending the knees

C. "I should keep a check on my body weight. D. "I should stop exercising if the pain becomes severe

Which client would the nurse anticipate to be diagnosed with pes planus? A. Pain in the posterior leg from heel to knee B. Flabby appearance of the muscles C. Abnormal flatness of the sole and arch of the foot D. General pain and tenderness in the muscles

C. Abnormal flatness of the sole and arch of the foot

Which antitubercular medication may be responsible for a client's reported changes in vision? A. Isoniazid B. Rifampin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

D. Ethambutol Rationale Ethambutol, an antitubercular medication, can cause optic neuritis when given in high doses. Isoniazid may cause liver toxicity, and the client may report darkening of urine. Rifampin reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, and the client may have to use an additional method of contraception. Pyrazinamide may cause kidney problems.

The parents of a child diagnosed with hepatitis A express concern that other family members may contract hepatitis because they only have one bathroom. Which response would the nurse reply? A. "I suggest you buy an individual commode seat to use exclusively for your child's bathroom needs. B. Your child may use the bathroom, but you need to use disposable toilet seat covers. C. 'You will need to clean the bathroom from top to bottom every time a family member uses it. D. 'All family members, including your child, need to wash their hands after using the bathroom.

D. 'All family members, including your child, need to wash their hands after using the bathroom.

Which diagnostic study is used to detect deep vein thrombosis in the client's lower extremities? A. Thermography B. Plethysmography C. Duplex venous Doppler D. Somatosensory evoked potential

C. Duplex venous Doppler

Which muscle-strength rating would the nurse record for a client who can complete range of motion with some resistance? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4

Which term describes synovial joint movement away from the midline of the body? A. Inversion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Abduction

D. Abduction

Which type of joint is present in the client's shoulders? A. Pivotal B. Saddle C. Condyloid D. Spheroidal

D. Spheroidal

Which synovial joint movement is described as turning the sole away from the midline of the body? A. Pronation B. Eversion C. Adduction D. Supination

B. Eversion

When would the client have a tuberculin skin test with purified protein derivative (PPD) read? A. 1 week B. Within 12 hours C. 24 to 48 hours D. 48 to 72 hours

D. 48 to 72 hours

Which client statements indicate effective teaching about an automatic epinephrine injector to self-treat reactions to insect stings? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I will inject the medication into my thigh! B. "I will call 911 before I inject the medication. C. "I will store the medication in the refrigerator! D. I will keep the medication with me at all times. E. "I will replace the medication when the expiration date is approaching.

A. "I will inject the medication into my thigh! D. I will keep the medication with me at all times. E. "I will replace the medication when the expiration date is approaching.

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess in the newborn diagnosed with tetanus? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Restlessness B. Muscular rigidity C. Atony of facial muscles D. Respiratory tract spasms E. Spastic voluntary muscle contractions F. Uninhibited weight gain if breast-fed

A. Restlessness B. Muscular rigidity D. Respiratory tract spasms E. Spastic voluntary muscle contractions

170-year-old client is diagnosed with cartilaginous degeneration. Which action would the nurse take? A. Advise the client to take warm showers. B. Teach the client isometric exercises. C. Provide the client with supportive armchairs. D. Demonstrate weight-bearing exercises to the client.

A. Advise the client to take warm showers.

Which reaction is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Anaphylaxis B. Serum sickness C. Contact dermatitis D. Blood transfusion reaction

A. Anaphylaxis Rationale An example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis. Serum sickness is a type Ill immune complex reaction. Contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. A blood transfusion reaction is type I cytotoxic reaction.

Which statements are true regarding chondrosarcoma? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Chondrosarcoma can arise from benign bone tumors. B. Chondrosarcoma develops in the medullary cavity of long bones. C. Chondrosarcoma is mostly treated by radiation and chemotherapy. D. Chondrosarcoma occurs mostly in young males between ages 10 and 25 years. E. Chondrosarcoma most commonly occurs in cartilage in the arm, leg, and pelvic bones.

A. Chondrosarcoma can arise from benign bone tumors. E. Chondrosarcoma most commonly occurs in cartilage in the arm, leg, and pelvic bones.

After initiating antibiotic therapy on a client with syphilis, the nurse suspects a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. Which clinical manifestations support the nurse's suspicion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Fever with shaking chills B. Hypertensive crisis C. Vasoconstriction D. Generalized aches E. Pain at the injection site

A. Fever with shaking chills D. Generalized aches E. Pain at the injection site

Which type(s) of hepatitis most commonly spread by consuming contaminated food and water, or by fecal contamination? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D E. Hepatitis E

A. Hepatitis A E. Hepatitis E

Which type of continuing care would a client expect if discharged home with an infusion device to continue treatment for a leg wound? A. Home care B. Rehabilitation C. Skilled nursing care D. Outpatient therapy

A. Home care

A client with a parathyroid disorder reports nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Which electrolyte disturbance would be responsible for the client's clinical manifestations? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hyperphosphatemia

A. Hypercalcemia Rationale High levels of calcium in the serum cause nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and epigastric pain (pain in the upper abdomen). The client may have hypercalcemia. Hypernatremia is manifested as altered cerebral functioning. Hypermagnesemia is manifested as bradycardia, peripheral vasodilation, and hypotension. Hyperphosphatemia is manifested as hypocalcemia that results when serum phosphorus levels increase.

Which drug acts as an abortifacient in female clients? A. Mifepristone B. Metyrapone C. Cyproheptadine D. Aminoglutethimide

A. Mifepristone Rationale Mifepristone is an antiprogesterone that blocks the progesterone receptors and acts as an abortifacient. Metyrapone, cyproheptadine, and aminoglutethimide are used to treat hyperfunctioning of the adrenal glands (Cushing disease/syndrome).

Which leukocyte values determine the adequacy of a client's response to inflammation? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils C. Plasma cells D. T-helper cells E. Macrophages

A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils E. Macrophages

Which hormone has both inhibiting and releasing action? A. Prolactin B. Somatostatin C. Somatotropin D. Gonadotropin

A. Prolactin Rationale Prolactin secreted by the hypothalamus has both inhibiting and releasing action. Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of growth hormone. Somatotropin and gonadotropin are releasing hormones.

Which hormones are most commonly produced in excess with hyperpituitarism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone C. Luteinizing hormone D. Antidiuretic hormone E. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone Rationale The most common hormones produced in excess with hyperpituitarism are prolactin and growth hormone. Excessive stimulation of luteinizing hormone and antidiuretic hormone is also associated with hyperpituitarism, but less commonly than prolactin and growth hormone. Secretion of melanocyte-stimulating hormone stimulates adrenocorticotropic hormone, which indirectly stimulates the pituitary gland, thus leading to hyperpituitarism.

Which nursing action is beneficial for the client who has pain due to muscle spasm? A. Providing heat compresses at the site B. Providing a massage to the affected area C. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises D. Encouraging the client to do active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises

A. Providing heat compresses at the site

Identify the clinical manifestations associated with the release of histamine during a type I rapid hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Pruritus B. Erythema C. Fibrotic changes D. Nasal mucus secretion E. Conjunctival mucus secretion F. Hematuria

A. Pruritus B. Erythema D. Nasal mucus secretion E. Conjunctival mucus secretion

Which assessment findings indicate a client is experiencing an allergic reaction to antibiotic therapy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Pruritus B. Confusion C. Wheezing D. Muscle aches E. Bronchospasm

A. Pruritus C. Wheezing E. Bronchospasm

Which observations by the nurse indicate a client with pneumonia is able to use an incentive spirometer correctly? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Records the volume of the air inspired B. Performs 10 breaths per session Every hour C. Inhales air fully before inserting the mouthpiece D. Takes a long, slow, deep breath keeping the mouthpiece in place E. Exhales deep breaths with the mouth piece in their mouth

A. Records the volume of the air inspired B. Performs 10 breaths per session Every hour D. Takes a long, slow, deep breath keeping the mouthpiece in place Rationale The use of incentive spirometry is to improve inspiratory muscle action and to prevent or reverse atelectasis in clients with pneumonia. The client would exhale fully, then A insert the mouthpiece and inhale. Having the client inhale the air before inserting the mouthpiece may cause harm to the client and needs correction. After the process is completed, the volume of air inspired is recorded. A client with pneumonia is instructed to perform 10 breaths per session every hour while awake. Taking a long, slow, deep breath keeping the mouthpiece in place helps improve inspiratory muscle action.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for a client with syphilis. In which stage would the nurse teach the client that syphilis is not considered contagious? A. Tertiary stage B. Primary stage C. Secondary stage D. Incubation stage

A. Tertiary stage

Which treatment is beneficial for a client with muscle spasm? A. Thermotherapy B. Muscle massage C. Frequent position changes D. Muscle-strengthening exercise regimen

A. Thermotherapy

For which purpose is a goniometer used? A. To assess range of motion B. To reduce phantom limb sensation C. To prevent hip flexion contractures D. To immobilize a joint during fracture

A. To assess range of motion

Which is the causative organism for syphilis? A. Treponema pallidum B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Trichomonas waginalis D. Chlamydia trachomatis

A. Treponema pallidum

Which clinical manifestation occurs in a client with adrenal insufficiency? A. Vitiligo B. Moon face C. Hypertension D. Truncal obesity

A. Vitiligo Rationale Adrenal insufficiency is clinically manifested as patchy white areas on the skin (vitiligo). Moon face, hypertension, and truncal obesity are clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome.

Which reason would the nurse document as 'nonadherence' for the client not adhering to the prescribed antibiotic therapy? A. 'I skipped some doses because I just don't like to take pills!' B. 'I left my pills in the bedroom and I forgot to take them with breakfast' C. 'I saw all the side effects on television and decided to not take the pills' D. 'I had to choose between getting my prescription filled and paying the heating bill'

B. 'I left my pills in the bedroom and I forgot to take them with breakfast' Rationale Nonadherence is accidental failure to take a medication. Noncompliance is deliberately failing to take a medication as might be done when skipping doses because of not liking to take pills, choosing to not take a medication because of information seen on television, or not being able to afford medication.

The nurse reviews the thyroid profiles of four clients. Which client's finding indicates the possibility of a thyroid tumor? Serum thyroglobulin level A. 2 ng/mL (2 ug/L) B. 89 ng/mL (89 ug/L) C. 53 ng/mL (53 ug/L) D. 31 ng/mL 31 (ug/L)

B. 89 ng/mL (89 ug/L) Rationale With a level of 89 g/mL of thyroglobulin, client B shows signs of having thyroid cancer. The normal range of thyroglobulin lies between 0.5 and 53 ng/mL (0.5-53 HE/L) Abnormally increased levels of thyroglobulin indicate thyroid cancer; 2 ng/mL (2 HE)L), 31 ng/mL (31 Mg/L), and 53 ng/mL (53 ug/L) are all normal.

The spouse of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) received a tuberculin skin test. The nurse examined the skin test and identified an area of induration greater than 10 mm. Which response to this finding would the nurse implement? A. No further action is required at this time. B. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status. C. Immediately repeat the skin test for confirmation. D. Results are positive, indicating an active infection.

B. Additional tests are necessary to determine infection status.

Which intervention is most likely to decrease mortality in the septic client? A. Oxygen B. Antibiotics C. Vasopressors D. Intravenous fluids

B. Antibiotics

During a follow-up visit, the nurse finds increased intracranial pressure in a client who has undergone nasal hypophysectomy for hyperpituitarism. Which action taken by the client is responsible for this condition? A. Using stool softeners B. Blowing the nose and sneezing C. Performing deep-breathing exercises D. Bending the knees and lowering the body to pick up objects

B. Blowing the nose and sneezing Rationale A client who underwent hypophysectomy should be taught to perform activities that reduce intracranial pressure. Blowing the nose and sneezing can increase intracranial pressure. Constipation may result in increased intracranial pressure. The client should be advised to take stool softeners and change to a high-fiber diet to prevent the risk of increased intracranial pressure. Performing deep-breathing exercises can reduce intracranial pressure. Bending the knees and lowering the body to pick up objects reduces the risk of intracranial pressure.

Which observation would correspond to a muscle-strength rating of 3? A. No evidence of muscle contractility B. Can complete range of motion (ROM) against gravity C. No joint motion and slight evidence of muscle contractility D. Can complete ROM against gravity with some resistance

B. Can complete range of motion (ROM) against gravity

Which medications are useful to relieve pain associated with muscle spasms? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Cefazolin B. Carisoprodol C. Fondaparinux D. Methocarbamol E. Cyclobenzaprine

B. Carisoprodol D. Methocarbamol E. Cyclobenzaprine

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is most commonly reported? A. Syphilis B. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. Human immunodeficiency virus

B. Chlamydia

Which client with complications of fracture would the nurse expect may be treated with a fasciotomy? A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome B. Compartment syndrome C. Venous thromboembolism D. Fat embolism syndrome

B. Compartment syndrome

A client with scleroderma reports difficulty chewing and swallowing. Which intervention would the nurse recommend to facilitate eating safely? A. Liquefy food in a blender. B. Eat a mechanical soft diet. C. Take frequent sips of water with meals. D. Use a local anesthetic mouthwash before eating.

B. Eat a mechanical soft diet. Rationale Scleroderma causes chronic hardening and shrinking of the connective tissues of any organ of the body, including the esophagus and face; a mechanical soft diet includes foods that limit the need to chew and are easier to swallow. Liquefied foods are difficult to swallow; esophageal peristalsis is decreased, and liquids are aspirated easily. Taking frequent sips of water with meals will not help; it is equally difficult to swallow solids and liquids, and aspiration may result. Using a local anesthetic mouthwash before eating is not necessary; oral pain is not associated with scleroderma.

Which prescribed medications would the nurse anticipate initiating for a client with a Clostridium difficile-associated disease (DAD)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Penicillin B. Fidaxomicin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metronidazole E. Vancomycin

B. Fidaxomicin D. Metronidazole E. Vancomycin

A client reports fever, cough, muscle aches, night sweats, and chest pain. The client's laboratory report indicates the presence of Coccidioides organisms in the respiratory tract. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to this client? A. Oseltamivir B. Fluconazole C. Pyrazinamide D. Cephalosporin

B. Fluconazole

When planning a teaching program for clients with acute salpingitis, which condition would the nurse include? A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Hydatidiform mole D. Spontaneous abortion

B. Gonorrhea

Which type of cast or splint will the nurse expect to see on a child with a fractured femur? A. Cinder B. Hip spica C. Prefabricated knee D. Robert Jones

B. Hip spica

Which cause of Cushing syndrome would the nurse consider before assessing a client for physiological responses? A. Pituitary hypoplasia B. Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex C. Deprivation of adrenocortical hormones D. Insufficient adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production

B. Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex Rationale Hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex leads to increased secretion of cortical hormones, which causes signs of Cushing syndrome. Pituitary hypoplasia is a malfunction of the pituitary that will result in Simmonds disease (panhypopituitarism), which has clinical manifestations similar to those for Addison disease. Cushing syndrome results from excessive cortical hormones. ACTH stimulates production of adrenal hormones. Inadequate ACTH will result in Addisonian signs and symptoms.

Which joint would be palpated by the nurse to identify genu valgum? A. Hip B. Knee C. Temporomandibular D. Metacarpophalangeal

B. Knee

Which test is the nurse performing when flexing the client's knee to 30 degrees and pulling the tibia forward while stabilizing the femur? A. Drop arm test B. Lachman's test C. McMurray's test D. Straight-leg-raising test

B. Lachman's test

Which condition is characterized by infection of a client's bone or bone marrow? A. Osteomalacia B. Osteomyelitis C. Herniated disc D. Spinal stenosis

B. Osteomyelitis

Which statement reflects a client's active immunity response to an infection acquired from traveling abroad? A. Protein antigens are formed in the blood to fight invading antibodies. B. Protein substances are formed within the body to neutralize antigens. C. Blood antigens are aided by phagocytes in defending the body against pathogens. D. Sensitized lymphocytes from an immune donor act as antibodies against invading pathogens.

B. Protein substances are formed within the body to neutralize antigens.

Which assessment in a female client suggests an abnormal endocrine finding? A. Facial hair B. Protruding eyes C. Pulse of 90 beats per minute D. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg

B. Protruding eyes Rationale Protruding eyes are a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism, wherein the fluid accumulates in the eye and retro-orbital tissue. Hyperthyroidism is a problem of the endocrine system. Protrusion of the eyes in the client helped the nurse in arriving at this conclusion. Presence of facial hair is common in women. However, an increase suggests an endocrine abnormality. A heartbeat of 90 beats per minute is a normal finding. A blood pressure value of 120/80 mm Hg is normal.

The primary health care provider instructs the client to increase their intake of seafood and protein in the diet. Which rationale would prompt this instruction? A. The client has vitiligo. B. The client has hypothyroidism. C. The client has diabetes mellitus. D. The client has a urinary infection.

B. The client has hypothyroidism. Rationale Nutritional deficiencies as a result of inadequate diet, especially decreases in protein and iodine intake, may be a cause for certain endocrine disorders, such as hypothyroidism. To meet nutritional requirements, clients with hypothyroidism are instructed to increase the intake of seafood and proteins to 60 mg/day. Because of hypofunction of the adrenal gland, clients with skin pigmentation conditions, such as vitiligo, are mainly instructed to consume more water. To improve metabolism, clients with diabetes mellitus are advised to add high-fiber food to their diet. A client with a urinary infection may not be advised to add seafood and proteins to their diet.

A client with a urinary catheter in place was admitted to the hospital and has a diagnosis of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the urine. No private rooms are available. Which room assignment would be appropriate for this client? A. A roommate who has a urinary catheter without any infectious illness B. A roommate who is bedridden and uses a bedpan for urination C. A roommate who has MRSA in the urine, is ambulatory, and is confused D. A roommate who is alert and oriented, has pneumonia, and practices good hygiene

C. A roommate who has MRSA in the urine, is ambulatory, and is confused

While reviewing the client's laboratory reports, the nurse finds that there is an elevation in the client's growth hormone levels. Which key physical changes would the nurse expect to find if acromegaly is suspected? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Facial shape B. Body weight C. Chest shape D. Lip thickness E. Length of hands

C. Chest shape D. Lip thickness E. Length of hands Rationale Acromegaly may occur as a result of overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary gland, which results in a few physical changes. The client with acromegaly would experience a barrel-shaped chest, thickened lips, and enlarged hands and feet. Clients who have hyperfunction of adrenocorticotropic hormone have weight gain and changes in facial shape called 'moon face.

The intravenous (IV) line infiltrates and needs restarting on a client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which precautions would the nurse take when restarting the IV? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Mask B. Gown C. Gloves D. Face shield E. Hand hygiene

C. Gloves E. Hand hygiene

Which nursing interventions are required for hepatitis A? A. Private room with the door closed B. Gown, mask, and gloves for all persons entering the room C. Gown and gloves when handling articles contaminated by urine or feces D. Gowns and gloves only when handling the client's soiled linen, dishes, or utensils

C. Gown and gloves when handling articles contaminated by urine or feces

Which manifestation indicates tertiary syphilis? A. Chancre B. Alopecia C. Gummas D. Condylomata lata

C. Gummas Rationale Gummas are chronic, destructive lesions affecting the skin, bone, liver, and mucous membranes occur durin; tertiary syphilis. A chancre appears during primary syphilis. Alopecia and condylomata lata occur during secondary syphilis.

During an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) education class a client states, 'Petroleum jelly works great when I use condoms. Which conclusion about the client's knowledge of condom use would the nurse draw from this statement? A. An understanding of safer sex through proper use of condoms B. An ability to assume self-responsibility and protection of others C. Lack of knowledge related to correct condom application and use D. Ignorance regarding transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

C. Lack of knowledge related to correct condom application and use

Which hormones are released by the hypothalamus? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Melanocyte-inhibiting hormone (MIH) D. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) E. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

C. Melanocyte-inhibiting hormone (MIH) D. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) E. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) Rationale The hypothalamus is a small area of nerve and endocrine tissue located beneath the thalamus in the brain. MIH, CRH, and GHRH are released by the hypothalamus. FSH and TSH are released by the anterior pituitary gland.

Why is an infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae particularly troublesome for a female client? A. The medication is expensive. B. The infection is difficult to treat with antibiotics. C. Symptoms are often overlooked. D. Treatment has many adverse effects.

C. Symptoms are often overlooked.

A client had an annual tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) test, and the area of induration was 10 mm within 48 hours after planting. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's response to this diagnostic? A. The client has contracted clinical tuberculosis. B. The client has passive immunity to tuberculosis. C. The client has been exposed to the tubercle bacillus. D. The client has developed a resistance to the tubercle bacillus.

C. The client has been exposed to the tubercle bacillus.

Which intervention would the nurse implement to prevent cross-contamination of herpes genitalis from one client to another? A. Institute droplet precautions with this client. B. Arrange transfer of the client to a private room. C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing direct care. D. Close the door and wear a mask when in the room.

C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing direct care.

A client reports pain in the posterior leg while walking and running, Which condition would the nurse suspect? A. Crepitation B. Paresthesia C. Plantar fasciitis D. Achilles tendonitis

D. Achilles tendonitis

Which client response is consistent with a score of 3 on the muscle-strength scale? A. Absence of muscular contraction B. Active movement against full resistance C. Barely detectable contraction with palpation D. Active movement against gravity but not against resistance

D. Active movement against gravity but not against resistance

Which client action would the nurse score as 3 on the muscle-strength scale? A. Active movement against gravity and some resistance B. Active movement of body part with elimination of gravity C. Active movement against full resistance without evident fatigue D. Active movement against gravity only and not against resistance

D. Active movement against gravity only and not against resistance

Which hormonal imbalance would the nurse suspect in a client who has low serum sodium levels? A. Epinephrine B. Glucagon C. Calcitonin D. Aldosterone

D. Aldosterone Rationale Aldosterone is mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex that maintains sodium and water balance. Reduced sodium levels in the client indicate a cortisol imbalance. Additionally, depleted sodium levels in a client indicate hyponatremia. Epinephrine is a catecholamine, which helps in maintaining homeostasis. Glucagon increases blood glucose levels and does not play a role in maintaining electrolyte balance. Calcitonin helps in regulating serum calcium levels.

Which client's plan of care needs revision? A. Shin splints. Treatment. Use of proper shoes and gradual increase in the activity B. Rotator cuff tear. Rest and gradually add strengthening exercises C. Ligament injury. Protection of affected extremity by use of brace D. Anterior cruciate. Apply cool ice compresses and ligament (ACL) tears perform balance exercises

D. Anterior cruciate. Apply cool ice compresses and ligament (ACL) tears perform balance exercises

While providing care for a client with acute malaria, which potential complication would concern the nurse? A. High blood sugar B. Impaired peristalsis C. Tonic-clonic seizures D. Electrolyte imbalances

D. Electrolyte imbalances

Which client has findings consistent with rheumatoid arthritis? A. Uric acid 8.5 mg/dL B. C-reactive protein (CRP) 800 mcg/dL C. Anti-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) antibody 90 IU/mL D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 65 mm/hr

D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 65 mm/hr

When evaluating the white blood cell count differential, which statement indicates the meaning of 'a shift to the left? A. Heightened phagocytosis B. Functioning bone marrow C. Infection is being contained D. Increased immature neutrophils

D. Increased immature neutrophils

Which type of synovial joint movement is involved in moving the client's first and fifth metacarpals anteriorly from the flattened palm? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Abduction D. Opposition

D. Opposition (cupping)

A client visits a primary health care provider with a report of burning and a sharp pain in the sole of the foot that intensifies in the morning. Which condition would the nurse plan to explain to the client? A. Torticollis B. Pes planus C. Tenosynovitis D. Plantar fasciitis

D. Plantar fasciitis

Which condition is suspected in the client who reports a burning, sharp pain along the sole of the foot in the morning? A. Kyphosis B. Pes planus C. Tenosynovitis D. Plantar fasciitis

D. Plantar fasciitis

At which joint would the nurse be able to palpate spongy swelling caused by excess synovial fluid? A. Biaxial joint B. Pivotal joint C. Synovial joint D. Temporomandibular joint

D. Temporomandibular joint

A client receiving calcitonin therapy reports a stinging sensation in the hands and feet. Which finding will the nurse observe in the client's laboratory results if the client is experiencing a side effect of calcitonin therapy? A. Serum sodium of 139 mEq/L (mmol/L) B. Serum creatinine of 0.4 mg/dL (35.36 umol/L) C. Blood urea nitrogen of 17 mg/dL (6.07 mmol/L) D. Total serum calcium of 8 mg/dL (2 mmol/L)

D. Total serum calcium of 8 mg/dL (2 mmol/L) Rationale Calcitonin therapy is associated with the risk of hypocalcemia, which is manifested by tingling or numbness in the muscles. Normal levels of total calcium lie between 9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25-2.75 mmol/L). Because the client's total serum calcium concentration is 8 mg/dL (2 mmol/L), the nurse would conclude that the client has hypocalcemia. All the other values will not cause tingling or numbness in the muscles. The normal range of sodium in the serum ranges from 135 to 145 mEq/L (135-145 mmol/L). The normal level of serum creatinine ranges from 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53.04-106.08 mol/L); although 0.4 mg/dL (35.36 umol/L) is low, it will not cause stinging sensation in the hands and feet. The normal range of blood urea nitrogen lies between 7 and 20 mg/dL (2.5-7.14 mmol/L), and 17 mg/dL (6.07 mmol/L) is considered normal.

The nurse is evaluating the actions of a caregiver for a client with a lower extremity cast. Which action of the caregiver indicates the nurse needs to provide additional instruction? A. Using a towel to blot dry the cast B. Moving joints above and below the cast regularly C. Elevating the injured part above heart level for 48 hours D. Wrapping the client's cast with a plastic cover for 36 hours

D. Wrapping the client's cast with a plastic cover for 36 hours

Which actions would the nurse expect to take for a client who has compartment syndrome? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Assisting with splitting the cast B. Monitoring urine output C. Evaluating pain using a pain scale D. Applying splints to the injured part E. Placing cold compresses to the affected area

A. Assisting with splitting the cast B. Monitoring urine output C. Evaluating pain using a pain scale

Arrange the steps required to stimulate antibody mediated immunity in its correct sequence. 1. Neutralization or elimination of the antigen 2. Invasion of new antigens in the body 3. Production of antibodies by B lymphocytes 4. Sensitization of B lymphocyte to the new antigen 5. Interaction of the macrophage and helper T cells to recognize the antigen 6. Binding of antibodies to the antigen and formation of immune complex

2, 5, 4, 3, 6, 1 Rationale Antibody-mediated immunity reaction is stimulated when a new antigen invades the body. The antigen is recognized in the body by the interaction of macrophage and helper T cells. Then sensitization of B lymphocytes to the new antigen occurs. Antibodies against the antigens are produced by B lymphocytes. These antibodies bind to the antigen, and the immune complex is formed, which causes cellular events that result in neutralization or elimination of the antigen.

The nurse finds that the client has normal knees with a space between the client's medial malleoli of 4.5 cm. Which conditions could cause this finding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Arthritis B. Poliomyelitis C. Cerebral palsy D. Congenital deformity E. Peroneal nerve injury

A. Arthritis B. Poliomyelitis D. Congenital deformity

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a low white blood cell (WBC) count. Which client statements indicate understanding of the content? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "'My roommate will take care of our cat's litter box" B. "I will rinse my toothbrush in bleach once a week. C. "I will use a different cup every time I have a drink. D. "I will eat at least one piece of fresh fruit every day.! E. "I will walk at the mall twice a week to keep up my strength." F. "I will wash my hands thoroughly after shaking hands with anyone.

A. "'My roommate will take care of our cat's litter box" B. "I will rinse my toothbrush in bleach once a week. C. "I will use a different cup every time I have a drink. F. "I will wash my hands thoroughly after shaking hands with anyone.

Which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Insulin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

A. Insulin C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone

Which actions could the registered nurse (RN) assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) caring for the client with a cast or traction? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Monitoring skin integrity around the cast B. Marking circumference of any drainage on the cast C. Teaching the client and caregiver range-of-motion (ROM) exercises D. Instructing family members on assisting the client with cast care E. Checking color, temperature, capillary refill, and pulses distal to the cast

A. Monitoring skin integrity around the cast B. Marking circumference of any drainage on the cast E. Checking color, temperature, capillary refill, and pulses distal to the cast

Which information indicates a nursing student's accurate understanding about skeletal muscles? A. Skeletal muscle accounts for about half of a human being's body weight. B. Skeletal muscle contraction propels blood through the circulatory system. C. Skeletal muscle contraction is modulated by neuronal and hormonal influences. D. Skeletal muscle occurs in the walls of hollow structures such as airways and arteries.

A. Skeletal muscle accounts for about half of a human being's body weight.

An older client who has been undergoing months of treatment for osteomyelitis reports perianal itching and diarrhea. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to identify? A. Whitish-yellow lesions in the oral cavity B. Presence of glucose and ketones in urine C. Flexion contracture of the lower extremities D. Overgrowth of genital wart-like lesions

A. Whitish-yellow lesions in the oral cavity

Which assessment findings would the nurse consider as abnormal? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Joint crepitation B. Muscular atrophy C. Muscle strength of 5 D. Tenderness of the spine E. Full range of joint motion

A. Joint crepitation B. Muscular atrophy D. Tenderness of the spine

A client receiving chemotherapy develops a temperature of 102.2°F (39°C). The temperature 6 hours ago was 99.2°F (37.3°C). Which nursing intervention is the priority in this case? A. Assess the amount and color of urine; obtain a specimen for a urinalysis and culture. B. Administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change. C. Note the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. D. Obtain the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure when rechecking the temperature in 1 hour.

B. Administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change.

A client in the emergency department states, 'I was bitten by a raccoon while repairing a water pipe under my house. Which intervention would be an effective first-aid treatment for the nurse to implement for this client? A. Administer an antivenin. B. Maintain a pressure dressing. C. Cleanse the wound with soap and water. D. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.

C. Cleanse the wound with soap and water.

Which condition would the nurse anticipate in a client who complains of weight gain and has purplish-blue striae on the abdomen? A. Hypothyroidism B. Addison disease C. Cushing syndrome D. Pheochromocytoma

C. Cushing syndrome Rationale Cushing syndrome occurs because of chronic exposure to excess corticosteroids. Weight gain and purplish-blue striae are the clinical manifestations of Cushing syndrome. Anemia, weight gain, and cold dry skin are the common manifestations of hypothyroidism. Weight loss and fatigue are the manifestations observed in Addison disease. Severe, pounding headache, tachycardia, and profuse sweating are the clinical manifestations observed in pheochromocytoma.

Which assessments would the nurse include for a client with spine injuries who wears a body jacket brace? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Inspection of pin sites B. Development of cast syndrome C. Signs of compartment syndrome D. Auscultation for bowel sounds E. Skin over the thoracic bony prominences

B. Development of cast syndrome D. Auscultation for bowel sounds E. Skin over the thoracic bony prominences

Which statement would the nurse recall when encountering a client reporting a recent bite from a raccoon located in an area endemic with rabies? A. It is a viral infection characterized by convulsions and difficulty swallowing. B. It is a parasitic infestation characterized by encephalopathy and opisthotonos. C. It is a bacterial septicemia resulting in convulsions and a morbid fear of water. D. It is a catalyst for an autoimmune response that results in a maculopapular rash and fever.

A. It is a viral infection characterized by convulsions and difficulty swallowing.

Which home visit observations indicate effective teaching of avoidance therapy for a client with type I rapid hypersensitivity reactions? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Pet dog sitting on the floor B. Pillows covered with ultra-mesh fabric C. Cloth drapes removed from all windows D. Air-conditioning unit running in the home E. Carpeting replaced with hard wood floors F. Stuffed dolls and animals on child's bed

B. Pillows covered with ultra-mesh fabric C. Cloth drapes removed from all windows D. Air-conditioning unit running in the home E. Carpeting replaced with hard wood floors

Which surgery is used as a prophylactic measure and as a palliative treatment for clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. Osteotomy B. Arthrodesis C. Synovectomy D. Debridement

C. Synovectomy

A client with diabetes mellitus who shows decreased glucose tolerance is at risk for which complication? A. Cystitis B. Thin and dry skin C. Decreased bone density D. Frequent yeast infections

D. Frequent yeast infections Rationale Decreased glucose tolerance may cause frequent yeast infections, but it is not associated with the risk of cystitis, thin and dry skin, and decreased bone density. The risk of cystitis, thin and dry skin, and decreased bone density are due to decreased ovarian production of estrogen.

Which finding supports the diagnosis of a hyperfunctioning of the adrenal glands? A. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) B. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L (24 mmol/L) C. Blood urea nitrogen of 12 mg/dL (4.29 mmol/L) D. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmo)/L)

D. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmo)/L) Rationale The hyperfunctioning of the adrenal gland is manifested as decreased serum potassium levels. Normal levels of serum potassium lie between 3.5 and 5 mEq/L (3.5-5 mmol/L). A serum potassium concentration of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) is abnormal and supports the diagnosis. The normal serum sodium concentration ranges from 135 to 145 mEq/L(135-145 mmol/L); although 130 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is low, hypernatremia occurs in hyperfunctioning of the adrenal glands. The normal serum bicarbonate concentration ranges from 22 to 26 mEq/L (22-26 mmol/L). The normal levels of blood urea nitrogen range from 7 to 20 mg/dL (2.5-7.14 mmol/L).

Which hormone binds to the receptor site on the surface of a target cell? A. Estrogen B. Adrenaline C. Aldosterone D. Hydrocortisone

B. Adrenaline Rationale Water-soluble hormones have receptors on the surface of a target cell. Adrenaline is a water-soluble hormone. Lipid-soluble hormones have receptors inside the target cell. Estrogen, aldosterone, and hydrocortisone are lipid-soluble hormones.

Which conditions would the nurse suspect in the male client whose laboratory report shows creatine kinase levels higher than the normal range? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoporosis C. Muscle trauma D. Skeletal muscle necrosis E. Progressive muscular dystrophy

C. Muscle trauma E. Progressive muscular dystrophy

Which interventions will be contraindicated for a client who has a fracture and compartment syndrome? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Splitting the cast in half B. Applying cold compresses C. Reducing the traction weight D. Loosening the client's bandage E. Elevating the extremity above heart level

B. Applying cold compresses E. Elevating the extremity above heart level

Which hormone is formed from cholesterol? A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Prolactin D. Growth hormone

B. Cortisol Rationale All lipid-soluble hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Cortisol, a lipid-soluble hormone, is secreted by the adrenal cortex. All water-soluble hormones are formed from amino acids. Insulin, prolactin, and growth hormone are water-soluble hormones. Insulin is secreted by the pancreas. Prolactin and growth hormone are also secreted by the pituitary gland.

Which information would the nurse include in a teaching session about osteochondroma? A. It is a common malignant tumor. B. It occurs most often in those 10 to 25 years old. C. It has a high rate of local occurrence after surgery. D. It frequently arises in cancellous ends of arm and leg bones.

B. It occurs most often in those 10 to 25 years old.

Which statement by the client, recovering from an acute case of viral hepatitis, indicates understanding of the discharge instructions presented by the nurse? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I will avoid alcohol because my liver is scarred and the alcohol causes more damage. B. "I will eat four to seven small snacks or meals per day. C. "I will take acetaminophen for pain rather than aspirin.' D. "I will eat foods high in carbohydrates, but moderate in fats and proteins. E. "I will not have to use condoms during intercourse, because I have beaten this!

A. "I will avoid alcohol because my liver is scarred and the alcohol causes more damage. B. "I will eat four to seven small snacks or meals per day. D. "I will eat foods high in carbohydrates, but moderate in fats and proteins.

Which statements indicate effective discharge teaching for a client with osteomyelitis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. "I will take the antibiotic at the same time every day. B. I will take the antibiotic regularly until my symptoms subside.!' C. "I will take the antibiotic with food if I develop gastric distress when on the antibiotic. D. "I will notify my health care provider and stop taking the medication if I develop a rash or shortness of breath. "I will need to change my diet to avoiding milk and milk products while on these antibiotics.'

A. "I will take the antibiotic at the same time every day. C. "I will take the antibiotic with food if I develop gastric distress when on the antibiotic. D. "I will notify my health care provider and stop taking the medication if I develop a rash or shortness of breath.

Which roles could the nurse assign to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in caring for a client with a cast? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Applying ice to the cast B. Positioning the casted extremity above heart level C. Marking the circumference of any drainage on the cast D. Looking for clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome E. Teaching range-of-motion exercises to the client and caregiver

A. Applying ice to the cast B. Positioning the casted extremity above heart level

Which physiological changes would the nurse expect to find in a client with a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes? A. Blurry, spotty, or hazy vision B. Arthritic changes in the hands C. Hyperactive knee and ankle jerk reflexes D. Dependent pallor of the feet and lower legs

A. Blurry, spotty, or hazy vision Rationale Blurry, spotty, or hazy vision; floaters or cobwebs in the visual field; and cataracts or complete blindness can occur as a result of diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by abnormal growth of new blood vessels in the retina (neovascularization). More than 60% of clients with type 2 diabetes have some degree of retinopathy after 20 years. Arthritic changes of the hands are not a usual complication associated with diabetes mellitus. Clients who are diabetic have peripheral neuropathy, which is characterized by hypoactive, not hyperactive, reflexes. Peripheral vascular disease is indicated by dependent rubor with pallor on elevation, not dependent pallor.

Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect a client with hypothyroidism to exhibit? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Cool skin B. Photophobia C. Constipation D. Periorbital edema E. Decreased appetite

A. Cool skin C. Constipation D. Periorbital edema E. Decreased appetite Rationale Cool skin is related to the decreased metabolic rate associated with insufficient thyroid hormone, Constipation results from a decrease in peristalsis related to the reduction in the metabolic rate associated with hypothyroidism. Periorbital and facial edemas are caused by changes that cause myxederna and third-space fluid effusion seen in hypothyroidism. Decreased appetite is related to metabolic and gastrointestinal manifestations of the hypothyroidism. Photophobia is associated with exophthalmos that occurs with hyperthyroidism.

While assessing the health of a female client, the nurse suspects endocrine dysfunction. Which findings support the nurse's suspicion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Diminished pubic hair B. Yellow-colored urine C. Pulse of 74 beats per minute D. Protrusion of eyeballs E. Blood pressure of 172/80 mm Hg

A. Diminished pubic hair D. Protrusion of eyeballs E. Blood pressure of 172/80 mm Hg Rationale Diminished axillary and pubic hair, protruding eyeballs, and elevated blood pressure are signs of endocrine dysfunction. Yellow urine is a normal finding. The normal pulse rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute.

Which skin condition would the nurse expect when performing a physical assessment on a client with a history of hypothyroidism? A. Dry B. Moist C. Flushed D. Smooth

A. Dry Rationale Dry skin is caused by decreased function of sebaceous glands; a paucity of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, which control the basal metabolic rate, can alter the function of almost every body system. The skin will not be flushed; the client will appear pale. Moist, smooth skin occurs with hyperfunction of the thyroid and an increase in the basal metabolic rate.

Which effect does the parathyroid hormone have on bones? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Increased bone breakdown B. Increased serum calcium levels C. Increased sodium and phosphorus excretion D. Increased absorption of calcium and phosphorus E. Increased net release of calcium and phosphorus

A. Increased bone breakdown B. Increased serum calcium levels E. Increased net release of calcium and phosphorus Rationale Parathyroid hormone increases bone breakdown, which increases serum calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone increases net release of calcium and phosphorus from bone into the extracellular fluid. It increases sodium and phosphorus excretion by the kidneys, not in the bone, and increases absorption of calcium and phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract by using activated vitamin D. However, this increased absorption of calcium and phosphorus is not related to the bone.

Which potential clinical manifestations would the nurse associate with a client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Joint pain B. Facial rash C. Pericarditis D. Weight gain E. Hypotension

A. Joint pain B. Facial rash C. Pericarditis

Which explanation would the nurse provide the outpatient radiology staff regarding storage of radium in lead containers? A. Lead functions as a barrier. B. Radium is a heavy substance, C. Heat is produced as radium disintegrates, D. Lead prevents disintegration of the radium,

A. Lead functions as a barrier.

Which findings would support the nurse's suspicion that a client has fat embolism syndrome (FES) Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Lipid cells in the urine B. PaO2 value of 58 mm Hg (7.73 kPa) C. Hematocrit value of 30% (0.30) D. Platelet count of 160,000/uL (160 × 10 %/L) E. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds

A. Lipid cells in the urine B. PaO2 value of 58 mm Hg (7.73 kPa) C. Hematocrit value of 30% (0.30)

Which glands secrete hormones that regulate metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. A. Pancreas B. Thyroid gland C. Adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla E. Parathyroid gland

A. Pancreas B. Thyroid gland C. Adrenal cortex Rationale The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, which affects the body's metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. The thyroid gland secretes thyroid hormones T3 and T4 that regulate carbohydrates, proteins, and fat metabolism. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex that affects carbohydrates, proteins, and fat metabolism. Adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines, which do not affect metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Hormones secreted by the parathyroid gland mainly regulate calcium and phosphorus metabolism.

Which disorder is caused by the deficiency of antidiuretic hormone? A. Acromegaly B. Diabetes insipidus C. Cushing syndrome D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

B. Diabetes insipidus Rationale Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Acromegaly and Cushing syndrome are not associated with antidiuretic hormone; excessive production of growth hormone results in acromegaly and excessive production of adrenocorticotropic hormone causes Cushing syndrome. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone occurs as a result of increased production of antidiuretic hormone.

A client with a family history of goiter is experiencing changes in voice and breathing. Which diagnostic study would the nurse consider to be beneficial in confirming a diagnosis? A. Thyroglobulin B. Thyroid antibodies C. Thyroxine (free T 4), total D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

B. Thyroid antibodies Rationale Changes in voice and breathing can be seen in Hashimoto thyroiditis if the thyroid gland enlarges rapidly and constricts the trachea and laryngeal nerves. Clients with a family history of goiter may have this condition. A thyroid antibody test is used to diagnose Hashimoto thyroiditis by differentiating thyroid dysfunction from thyroiditis. Thyroglobulin is used to detect thyroid cancer. Total thyroxine (free T4) and TSH are used to evaluate thyroid function.

A client reports pain, weakness, and numbness in the neck, back, and shoulders after working long hours at a computer. Which condition found in the client's electronic medical record is congruent with those symptoms? A. Bursitis B. Meniscus injury C. Repetitive strain injury (RSI) D. Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

C. Repetitive strain injury (RSI)

Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching was effective regarding intravenous gentamicin therapy? A. "I should drink lots of water if I am retaining urine.' B. "I should use eyeglasses if I develop vision problems. C. "I should stop the medication when the symptoms have subsided.' D. "I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider.'

D. "I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider.'

A client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) states, I'm not worried because they have a cure for AIDS. Which response would the nurse use? A. 'Repeated phlebotomies may be able to rid you of the virus. B. 'You may be cured of AIDS after prolonged pharmacological therapy. C. "Perhaps you should have worn condoms to prevent contracting the virus.' D. "There is no cure for AIDS, but there are medications that can slow down the virus.

D. "There is no cure for AIDS, but there are medications that can slow down the virus.

Which complication is a result of Clostridium welchii ( Clostridium perringens) entering a elients' wound and causing, crepitus? A. Anthrax B. Tetanus C. Botulism D. Gangrene

D. Gangrene

Which tissue connects the client's tibia to the femur at the knee joint? A. Fascia B. Bursae C. Tendons D. Ligaments

D. Ligaments

The registered nurse (RN) is giving home care instructions to a client who was treated for injuries due to a fall. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional instruction? A. 'I should walk on soft scatter rugs at home.' B. 'I should drink 3000 mL of water every day. C. "I should eat fruits and vegetables six times a day! D. "I should exercise the joints above and below the cast daily.'

A. 'I should walk on soft scatter rugs at home.'

Which information would the nurse provide to the client before a myelogram? A. 'You may have a severe headache after the procedure. B. 'The machine will make loud noises during the procedure C. 'Electrodes will be applied to your skin during the procedure. D. 'There may be some blood on the knee dressing after the procedure.'

A. 'You may have a severe headache after the procedure.

The registered nurse teaches a student nurse regarding the management of increased potassium levels in a client. Which action performed by the student nurse indicates effective learning? A. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Instructing a client to increase potassium and sodium intake C. Monitoring glucose levels hourly D. Providing potassium-sparing diuretics

A. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate Rationale Increased potassium levels indicate hyperkalemia and are observed in clients with adrenal insufficiency. Administering potassium binding and excreting resin, such as sodium polystyrene sulfonate, can reduce the potassium levels. Potassium restriction should be initiated immediately to reduce the potassium levels. Monitoring glucose is required in a client with hypoglycemia, not hyperkalemia. Providing potassium-sparing diuretics may further lead to increase in potassium levels, and these diuretics should be avoided.