EMT 115 FINAL STUDY GUIDE
In general, a maximum of _____ dose(s) of nitroglycerin is/are given for any one episode of chest pain.
3
Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. Fructose. b. Actidose. c. LiquiChar. d. InstaChar.
a. Fructose.
What medication form does oral glucose come in? Select one: a. Gel b. Liquid c. Suspension d. Fine powder
a. Gel
Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: a. the opinions of physicians b. EMS research c. the experiences of EMTs d. an EMS agency's fiscal resources
b. EMS research
Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: a. Increased cardiac output b. Cardiopulmonary arrest c. Anaerobic metabolism d. Excessive ventilation
a. Increased cardiac output
Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: a. assess the scene for potential hazards. b. determine if you need additional help. c. request a paramedic unit for assistance. d. gain immediate access to the patient.
a. assess the scene for potential hazards.
____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: a. Affect b. Behavior c. Neurosis d. Psychosis
b. Behavior
What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: a. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." b. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. c. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. d. Everyone has some form of mental illness.
a. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."
A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. Select one: a. 18% b. 27% c. 36% d. 45%
a. 18%
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: Select one: a. 200 psi. b. 500 psi. c. 1,000 psi. d. 1,500 psi.
a. 200 psi.
If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. Select one: a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70
a. 40
Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: a. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances b. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients c. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building d. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity
a. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: a. A seizure that begins in one extremity b. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly c. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura d. A generalized seizure without incontinence
a. A seizure that begins in one extremity
Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: a. Alcohol withdrawal b. Elevated blood glucose c. Dimly lit environment d. Limited physical contact
a. Alcohol withdrawal
_____ is a sign of hypoxia to the brain. Select one: a. Altered mental status b. Decreased pulse rate c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Delayed capillary refill time
a. Altered mental status
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: a. Alveoli b. Trachea c. Bronchi d. Capillaries
a. Alveoli
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? Select one: a. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min b. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min c. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min
a. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min
When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: a. DCAP-BTLS b. AVPU c. SAMPLE d. OPQRST
a. DCAP-BTLS
Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: a. EMT b. EMR c. AEMT d. Paramedic
a. EMT
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: a. Engorged jugular veins b. Widening pulse pressure c. Diminished breath sounds d. A rapid, irregular pulse
a. Engorged jugular veins
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: a. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. b. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. c. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. d. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
a. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
At 0500 hours, you respond to the home of a 76-year-old man complaining of chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient states that he had been sleeping in the recliner all night due to indigestion, when the pain woke him up. He also tells you he has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. His vital signs are as follows: respirations, 16 breaths/min; pulse, 98 beats/min; blood pressure, 92/76 mm Hg. He is still complaining of chest pain. What actions should you take to intervene? Select one: a. Provide high-flow oxygen. b. Administer a third nitroglycerin tablet. c. Apply an AED. d. Begin chest compressions.
a. Provide high-flow oxygen.
Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? Select one: a. The 1:1000 concentration should be used. b. The preferred injection site is the upper arm. c. The IM route should not be used in children. d. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg.
a. The 1:1000 concentration should be used.
Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? Select one: a. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. b. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival. c. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. d. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED
a. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.
Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? Select one: a. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. b. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. c. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. d. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound.
a. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of nasopharyngeal airways in children is correct? Select one: a. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year. b. It is the recommended adjunct for children with head trauma. c. They are usually not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex. d. Blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement.
a. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year.
Which of the following signs or symptoms would MOST likely cause the EMT to mistake a head injury for an abdominal injury in a child? Select one: a. Vomiting b. Restlessness c. Lethargy d. Tachycardia
a. Vomiting
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. a narcotic overdose. b. a respiratory infection. c. an overdose of aspirin. d. high blood glucose levels.
a. a narcotic overdose.
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: a. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. b. a progressively lowering blood pressure. c. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. d. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.
a. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: a. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. b. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. c. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. d. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.
a. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: Select one: a. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. b. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. c. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. d. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
a. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: a. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. b. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. c. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. d. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
a. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: a. allow full chest recoil b. remove your hands from the chest c. check for a pulse d. administer a breath
a. allow full chest recoil
You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: Select one: a. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. b. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. c. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. d. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.
a. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: a. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. b. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. c. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. d. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.
a. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: a. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). b. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). d. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate.
a. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: a. at the feet. b. at the head. c. in the ambulance. d. en route to the hospital.
a. at the feet.
As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: a. be alert for personal hazards. b. look for drug paraphernalia. c. observe the scene for drug bottles. d. quickly gain access to the patient.
a. be alert for personal hazards.
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: Select one: a. bleeding in the brain. b. multiple open fractures. c. intra-abdominal hemorrhage. d. fracture of the cervical spine
a. bleeding in the brain.
When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-valve mask, the EMT should: Select one: a. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. b. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant. c. use a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. d. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.
a. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise.
His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. bronchiolitis. b. pertussis. c. epiglottitis. d. croup.
a. bronchiolitis.
Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: a. can create delays in patient care. b. need less-explicit verbal direction. c. often work better under pressure. d. are unable to accomplish their tasks.
a. can create delays in patient care.
Children with N. meningitides would MOST likely present with: Select one: a. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. b. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. c. hypothermia and an irregular pulse. d. a generalized rash with intense itching.
a. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash.
You are attending to a 46-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. Shortly after you begin to render care, an ALS unit arrives and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to start an intravenous line and administer medication. You should: Select one: a. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient. b. move out of the ALS provider's way and clear the scene. c. ensure that enough assessments have been done to justify the decision. d. acknowledge that it is no longer your patient and stand back, allowing the ALS provider to work.
a. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient.
Often the most important intervention for a sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with a staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. Select one: a. comforting reassurance b. excellent assessment skills c. bandaging skills d. emotional sympathy
a. comforting reassurance
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: a. deteriorate over time b. improve over time c. come back automatically when needed d. become part of your muscle memory
a. deteriorate over time
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: a. determine if she was injured when she fainted. b. provide emotional support regarding her sister. c. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. d. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.
a. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
The accumulation of ketones and fatty acids in blood tissue can lead to a dangerous condition in diabetic patients known as: Select one: a. diabetic ketoacidosis. b. insulin shock. c. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma. d. hypoglycemia.
a. diabetic ketoacidosis.
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: Select one: a. external respiration. b. cellular metabolism. c. pulmonary ventilation. d. alveolar ventilation.
a. external respiration.
You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: a. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing. b. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. c. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. d. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
a. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: a. have chronic hypertension. b. regularly take illegal drugs. c. have had a stroke in the past. d. are older than 40 years of age
a. have chronic hypertension.
Blood in the urine is known as: Select one: a. hematuria. b. hemotysis. c. hematocrit. d. hemoglobin.
a. hematuria.
The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: Select one: a. immediate reassessment following the intervention. b. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. c. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after 10 minutes. d. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.
a. immediate reassessment following the intervention.
Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: a. immune system. b. endocrine system. c. respiratory system. d. cardiovascular system.
a. immune system.
Headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and seizures are all considered early signs of: Select one: a. increased intracranial pressure. b. decreased intracranial pressure. c. increased extracranial pressure. d. decreased extracranial pressure.
a. increased intracranial pressure.
"Nerve gases" overstimulate normal body functions that are controlled by parasympathetic nerves, causing: Select one: a. increased salivation. b. pupil dilation. c. decreased urination. d. decreased lacrimation.
a. increased salivation.
Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: a. ingestion b. injection c. inhalation d. absorption
a. ingestion
If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: Select one: a. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. b. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. c. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. d. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.
a. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
Airborne substances should be diluted with: Select one: a. oxygen. b. syrup of ipecac. c. activated charcoal. d. an alkaline antidote.
a. oxygen.
A 2-year-old child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: Select one: a. perform abdominal thrusts. b. visualize the child's airway. c. perform a blind finger sweep. d. give oxygen and transport at once.
a. perform abdominal thrusts.
Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: a. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. b. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. c. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. d. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.
a. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: a. plasma. b. platelets. c. whole blood. d. red blood cells.
a. plasma.
A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: a. protect her airway from aspiration. b. keep her supine and keep her warm. c. rapidly transport her to the hospital. d. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.
a. protect her airway from aspiration.
You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: Select one: a. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering. b. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding. c. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. d. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure.
a. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering.
You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: Select one: a. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. b. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations. c. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. d. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.
a. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.
You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: Select one: a. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. b. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. c. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. d. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.
a. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport.
"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: a. respiratory patients b. cardiac patients c. stroke patients d. seizure patients
a. respiratory patients
The optic nerve endings are located within the: Select one: a. retina. b. sclera. c. pupil. d. cornea.
a. retina.
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: a. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. b. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. c. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. d. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
a. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: a. side effect. b. untoward effect. c. therapeutic effect. d. unpredictable effect.
a. side effect.
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: a. spleen. b. bladder. c. ureters. d. stomach.
a. spleen.
You should not use tweezers or forceps to remove an embedded stinger because: Select one: a. squeezing may cause the stinger to inject more venom into the wound. b. the stinger may break off in the wound. c. the tweezers are not sterile and may cause infection. d. removing the stinger may cause bleeding.
a. squeezing may cause the stinger to inject more venom into the wound.
The purpose of defibrillation is to: Select one: a. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. b. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. c. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. d. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.
a. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.
When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: a. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. b. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. c. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. d. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs.
a. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: Select one: a. swelling. b. guarding. c. crepitus. d. ecchymosis.
a. swelling.
Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. wheezing. b. a weak cough. c. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal. d. stridorous breathing.
a. wheezing.
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? a. Vertical-position flowmeter b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter c. Ball-and-float flowmeter d. Pressure-compensated flowmeter
b. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Select one: a. Anxiety b. Cyanosis c. Tachycardia d. Restlessness
b. Cyanosis
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? Select one: a. 90 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120
b. 100
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: a. 50 lb b. 100 lb c. 150 lb d. 200 lb
b. 100 lb
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: a. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree b. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed c. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet d. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma
b. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: a. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job b. A person violently attacking family members c. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself d. A person who is experiencing a panic attack
b. A person violently attacking family members
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: a. Thoracic aortic aneurysm b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Uncontrolled hypertension d. Obstructive lung disease
b. Acute myocardial infarction
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: a. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. b. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. c. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. d. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
b. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: a. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. b. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. c. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. d. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.
b. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: a. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. b. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. c. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. d. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.
b. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
You are called to a home and find a 56-year-old woman supine in her bed. She appears alert, but has slurred speech. Her family tells you she has a history of TIAs and hypertension. You ask the patient, "What day is it today?" Her reply is, "Butterfly." Which area of the brain is likely affected? Select one: a. Occipital lobe b. Left hemisphere c. Cerebellum d. Right hemisphere
b. Left hemisphere
During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? Select one: a. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. b. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. c. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. d. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.
b. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.
Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: a. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. b. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. c. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation. d. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.
b. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: Select one: a. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange. b. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. c. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. d. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.
b. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: a. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. b. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. c. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. d. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.
b. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: Select one: a. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. b. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. c. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. d. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.
b. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: Select one: a. regenerates brain cells after they have been damaged. b. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. c. delivers oxygen directly to the CNS. d. produces leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.
b. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: Select one: a. an obstructed airway. b. adequate air exchange. c. respiratory difficulty. d. respiratory insufficiency
b. adequate air exchange.
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Select one: a. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. b. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. c. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. d. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.
b. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.
You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: a. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. b. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. c. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. d. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.
b. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.
Online medical control requires __________. Select one: a. written protocols approved by medical control b. phone or radio contact with the medical director c. the presence of an advanced-level provider d. a physician's presence on the scene of the call
b. phone or radio contact with the medical director
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: a. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. b. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. c. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. d. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
b. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS: Select one: a. discourage the family from observing. b. allow the family to observe if they wish. c. a law enforcement officer must be present. d. give detailed updates to the infant's parents.
b. allow the family to observe if they wish.
When, for a brief period of time, heart tissues do not get enough oxygen, the pain is called: Select one: a. acute myocardial infarction. b. angina. c. ischemia. d. coronary artery disease.
b. angina.
A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: a. kidney stones. b. aortic aneurysm. c. strangulated hernia. d. acute pancreatitis.
b. aortic aneurysm.
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: a. apply pressure to the brachial artery. b. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. c. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. d. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
b. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: Select one: a. are found supine and have stable vital signs. b. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. c. require prompt extrication from an automobile. d. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.
b. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: Select one: a. obtain baseline vital signs. b. begin ventilatory assistance. c. attach the AED immediately. d. apply a nonrebreathing mask.
b. begin ventilatory assistance.
Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: a. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. b. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. c. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. d. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances.
b. binds to the substance and prevents absorption.
Bone marrow produces: Select one: a. cartilage. b. blood cells. c. lymphocytes. d. electrolytes.
b. blood cells.
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: a. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. b. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. c. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. d. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.
b. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: a. total loss of function in a bone. b. break in the continuity of the bone. c. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. d. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
b. break in the continuity of the bone.
The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: a. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. b. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. c. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. d. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury.
b. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.
Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: a. appendicitis b. cholecystitis c. a hernia d. kidney stones
b. cholecystitis
Ischemic heart disease is defined as: Select one: a. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. b. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. c. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. d. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.
b. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: a. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma b. diabetic ketoacidosis c. hypoglycemic crisis d. hyperglycemic crisis
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
When documenting abnormal behavior, it is important to: Select one: a. document restraints only when leather restraints are used. b. document everything that happened on the call. c. avoid quoting the patient's own words. d. interject your interpretations of the patient's thoughts.
b. document everything that happened on the call.
Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: a. extreme restlessness. b. drooling or congestion. c. skin that is cool and dry. d. acute respiratory distress
b. drooling or congestion.
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: a. aphasia. b. dysarthria. c. dysphagia. d. paraplegia.
b. dysarthria.
The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract. Select one: a. vagus b. phrenic c. hypoglossal d. vestibulocochlear
b. phrenic
A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: Select one: a. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. b. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. c. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. d. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.
b. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport.
Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of a semiconscious infant or child, you must: Select one: a. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. b. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions. c. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. d. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.
b. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions.
When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: a. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. b. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. c. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. d. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.
b. have a female EMT remain with her if possible.
Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: Select one: a. an oral airway has been inserted. b. his or her tidal volume is adequate. c. his or her respirations are shallow. d. he or she is breathing inadequately.
b. his or her tidal volume is adequate.
Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. infection. b. hyperglycemia. c. electrolyte imbalances. d. poisonings or ingestion
b. hyperglycemia.
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: a. severe stress. b. hypertension. c. heavy exertion. d. diabetes mellitus.
b. hypertension.
Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): Select one: a. epidural hematoma. b. intracerebral hematoma. c. subdural hematoma. d. subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. intracerebral hematoma.
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: Select one: a. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. b. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. c. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. d. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.
b. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: Select one: a. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia. b. lung tissue injury and gastric distention. c. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury. d. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia.
b. lung tissue injury and gastric distention.
The onset of hypoglycemia can occur within: Select one: a. seconds. b. minutes. c. hours. d. days.
b. minutes.
A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: Select one: a. mild dehydration. b. moderate dehydration. c. severe dehydration. d. hypovolemic shock.
b. moderate dehydration.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: a. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. b. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. c. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. d. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
b. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: a. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. b. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. c. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. d. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.
b. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: a. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. b. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. c. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. d. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
b. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: a. renal system. b. nervous system. c. respiratory system. d. cardiovascular system.
b. nervous system.
After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: Select one: a. assume the child is hypertensive. b. not rule out compensated shock. c. conclude that the child is stable. d. assess his or her respiratory effort.
b. not rule out compensated shock.
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: Select one: a. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. b. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. c. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. d. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
b. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: a. ecstasy. b. oxycodone (Percocet). c. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). d. crack cocaine.
b. oxycodone (Percocet).
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: Select one: a. bruising only. b. pain and distention. c. widespread ecchymosis. d. significant hypotension.
b. pain and distention.
While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: a. deliver 5 rescue breaths. b. palpate for a carotid pulse. c. categorize him as deceased. d. categorize him as immediate.
b. palpate for a carotid pulse.
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: a. EMT. b. paramedic. c. AEMT. d. EMR.
b. paramedic.
Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: Select one: a. separating the child from his or her parents. b. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation. c. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. d. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity.
b. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation.
If the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes: Select one: a. normally. b. rapidly and deeply. c. slower and less deeply. d. fast and shallow.
b. rapidly and deeply.
When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: Select one: a. will most likely be thrown over the steering column. b. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. c. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. d. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard.
b. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: a. the brain stem inhibits respirations. b. respirations increase in rate and depth. c. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. d. respirations decrease in rate and depth.
b. respirations increase in rate and depth.
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: a. a drug overdose. b. respiratory arrest. c. severe chest trauma. d. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
b. respiratory arrest.
Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: Select one: a. tenting. b. retracting. c. hyperpnea. d. accessory muscle use.
b. retracting.
The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: Select one: a. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. b. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. c. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. d. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.
b. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle.
The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: a. left in place and covered. b. scraped away from the skin. c. squeezed with tweezers and removed. d. irrigated with copious amounts of water.
b. scraped away from the skin.
A _____ is an opening that connects the trachea directly to the skin. Select one: a. tracheostomy b. stoma c. laryngectomy d. None of these answers are correct.
b. stoma
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: a. the clothes drag. b. the four-person log roll. c. the use of a scoop stretcher. d. the direct patient carry.
b. the four-person log roll.
Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: Select one: a. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. b. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. c. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. d. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.
b. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: Select one: a. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. b. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. c. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. d. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.
b. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. Select one: a. two b. three c. four d. five
b. three
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: a. diffusion. b. ventilation. c. respiration. d. oxygenation.
b. ventilation.
You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. b. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. c. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. d. inflammation of the bronchioles.
b. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: Select one: a. warm, dry skin. b. weak distal pulses. c. a rapid heart rate. d. brisk capillary refill.
b. weak distal pulses.
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: a. who have taken up to two doses. b. who have experienced a head injury. c. with a history of an ischemic stroke. d. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
b. who have experienced a head injury.
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: a. until a radial pulse is felt. b. with one or two hands. c. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. d. 80 to 100 times per minute.
b. with one or two hands.
The stinger of the honeybee is _____, so the bee cannot withdraw it.
barbed
No matter what the fuel source of a crashed vehicle is, one common practice remains the same—the need to disconnect the _____.
battery
The __________ controls the most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and pupil constriction.
brainstem
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Select one: a. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. b. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. c. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. d. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.
c. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
Suctioning the oral cavity of an adult should be accomplished within: Select one: a. 5 seconds. b. 10 seconds. c. 15 seconds. d. 20 seconds.
c. 15 seconds.
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: a. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis b. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor c. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin d. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
c. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? Select one: a. Supine with the legs elevated b. Maintaining SpO2 at 90% c. 30-degree elevation of the head d. Increasing the patient's body temperature
c. 30-degree elevation of the head
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: Select one: a. 24%. b. 35%. c. 44%. d. 52%.
c. 44%.
After ___________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is very likely. Select one: a. 0 to 4 b. 4 to 6 c. 6 to 10 d. more than 10
c. 6 to 10
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. Select one: a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 100
c. 90
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: a. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations b. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume c. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing d. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
c. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: a. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen b. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee c. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin d. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
c. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? Select one: a. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. b. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. c. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. d. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.
c. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse.
You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? Select one: a. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. b. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route. d. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.
c. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.
A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: a. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds b. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg d. Pulse rate greater than 120/min
c. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: a. Back blows b. Finger sweeps c. Chest thrusts d. Abdominal thrusts
c. Chest thrusts
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: a. Celiac sprue b. Multiple sclerosis c. Cystic fibrosis d. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
c. Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: a. Early administration of high-flow oxygen b. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids c. Decompression of the injured side of the chest d. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
c. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: a. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. b. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. c. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. d. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.
c. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? Select one: a. Head injury b. Severe infection c. Hyperglycemia d. Spinal cord injury
c. Hyperglycemia
You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position? Select one: a. It's the preferred position of comfort for patients. b. It helps to protect the patient's cervical spine when injuries are hidden. c. It helps to maintain a clear airway. d. It's easier to load the patient onto the cot from this position.
c. It helps to maintain a clear airway.
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: a. Radio b. Online c. Off-line d. Direct
c. Off-line
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: a. Liver b. Spleen c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder
c. Pancreas
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: a. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. b. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. c. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. d. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
c. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? Select one: a. Local blood vessels begin to dilate b. Red blood cells separate from plasma c. Platelets collect at the injury site d. Red blood cells become less sticky
c. Platelets collect at the injury site
Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? Select one: a. Mother younger than 20 years b. Low birth weight c. Putting a baby to sleep on his or her back d. Mother smoked during pregnancy
c. Putting a baby to sleep on his or her back
Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: a. Tachycardia b. Hypertension c. Slow respirations d. Extreme agitation
c. Slow respirations
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: a. Total lack of appetite b. Weight gain and edema c. Weight loss and polyuria d. Low blood glucose level
c. Weight loss and polyuria
When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: a. What time did the ingestion occur? b. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? c. Why did your child ingest the poison? d. Do you know what substance was ingested?
c. Why did your child ingest the poison?
You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: a. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. b. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. c. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. d. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.
c. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother.
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: a. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. b. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. c. after receiving approval from the incident commander. d. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
c. after receiving approval from the incident commander.
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: a. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. b. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. c. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. d. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
c. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: Select one: a. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. b. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. c. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. d. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.
c. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
It would be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing: Select one: a. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes. b. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion. c. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest. d. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep.
c. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest.
Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: Select one: a. of more than 2°F to 3°F per hour. b. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. c. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. d. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.
d. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.
It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: a. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. b. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. c. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. d. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.
c. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
Ketone production is the result of: Select one: a. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. b. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. c. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. d. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.
c. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial or ________ pulse. Select one: a. radial b. carotid c. femoral d. popliteal
c. femoral
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: a. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. b. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. c. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. d. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.
c. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: Select one: a. his or her baseline blood pressure. b. the part of the body injured. c. how rapidly he or she bleeds. d. how fast his or her heart beats.
c. how rapidly he or she bleeds.
A 2-month-old infant was found unresponsive in his crib by his mother. When you arrive, you determine that the infant is apneic and pulseless. His skin is pale and cold and his arms are stiff. You should: Select one: a. begin high-quality CPR and transport immediately. b. request the medical examiner to perform an autopsy. c. inform the child's mother that her son is deceased. d. begin high-quality CPR and request an ALS ambulance.
c. inform the child's mother that her son is deceased.
You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: a. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. b. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. c. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. d. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
c. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.
You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: a. oxygen. b. glucagon. c. insulin. d. dextrose.
c. insulin.
Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: Select one: a. spinal cord injury. b. airway compromise. c. intracranial bleeding. d. a fracture of the skull.
c. intracranial bleeding.
With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: Select one: a. head is proportionately smaller than an adult's. b. thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's. c. legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's. d. arms are proportionately larger than an adult's.
c. legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's.
A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: a. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. b. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. d. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.
c. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: Select one: a. observe the chest for rise and fall. b. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. c. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall. d. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90%.
c. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall.
You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: a. an increased heart rate b. peripheral vasodilation c. peripheral vasoconstriction d. hypothermia
c. peripheral vasoconstriction
Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: a. indicators of a severe sprain. b. only seen with open fractures. c. positive indicators of a fracture. d. most common with dislocations.
c. positive indicators of a fracture.
A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: a. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. b. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. c. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. d. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.
c. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: a. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. b. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. c. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. d. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
c. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: a. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. b. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. c. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. d. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
d. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: Select one: a. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. b. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. c. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. d. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.
c. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: Select one: a. irritability of the left ventricle. b. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia. c. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. d. acute hypoxia and tachycardia.
c. severe hypoxia and bradycardia.
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: a. prepares the body to handle stress. b. causes an increase in the heart rate. c. slows the heart and respiratory rates. d. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.
c. slows the heart and respiratory rates.
If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: Select one: a. result in tachycardia. b. push the tongue anteriorly. c. stimulate the vagus nerve. d. become obstructed by mucus.
c. stimulate the vagus nerve.
Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: Select one: a. logistics operations. b. EMS operations. c. support operations. d. law enforcement.
c. support operations.
The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: a. severe enough to warrant transport b. controlled directly by the patient c. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation d. not caused by traumatic injury
c. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation
When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: Select one: a. angina usually occurs after an AMI. b. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. c. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. d. angina and AMI present identically.
c. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field.
The proper technique for sizing an oropharyngeal airway before insertion is to measure the device from: Select one: a. the tip of the nose to the earlobe. b. the bridge of the nose to the tip of the chin. c. the corner of the mouth to the earlobe. d. the center of the jaw to the earlobe.
c. the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: a. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. b. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. c. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. d. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
c. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: a. the right side of the face. b. heart rate and pupil reaction. c. the right side of the body. d. breathing and blood pressure
c. the right side of the body.
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: Select one: a. the growth plate is commonly injured. b. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. c. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. d. twisting injuries are more common in children.
c. their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: a. administering high-flow oxygen. b. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. c. transporting the patient without delay. d. positioning the patient on his or her side.
c. transporting the patient without delay.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: Select one: a. uterus. b. ovaries. c. urinary bladder. d. fallopian tubes.
c. urinary bladder.
When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: Select one: a. place padding under the child's head. b. ensure that his or her neck is hyperextended. c. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. d. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
d. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
When dealing with an avulsed tooth, handle it by its _____ and not by the _____.
crown, roots
The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: a. on the dorsum of the foot. b. between the trachea and the neck muscle. c. in the fossa behind the knee. d. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle.
d. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle.
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. Select one: a. 70, 28 b. 88, 30 c. 90, 50 d. 104, 40
d. 104, 40
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: a. 3:1 b. 5:1 c. 30:2 d. 15:2
d. 15:2
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: a. 4 hours. b. 8 hours. c. 10 hours. d. 16 hours
d. 16 hours
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: a. 72 hours. b. 1 week. c. 6 months. d. 21 days
d. 21 days
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: a. 30:1 b. 5:1 c. 3:2 d. 30:2
d. 30:2
The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: a. 5; 50 lb b. 6; 70 lb c. 7; 90 lb d. 8; 100 lb
d. 8; 100 lb
Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? Select one: a. Decreased resistance when ventilating b. Absence of sounds over the epigastrium c. Steady increase in the oxygen saturation d. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform
d. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: a. the Emergency Medical Services Act. b. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. c. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. d. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
d. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? Select one: a. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult b. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag c. Consistently increasing heart rate d. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
d. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
Splinting an extremity even when there is no fracture can help to: Select one: a. reduce pain. b. minimize damage to an already-injured extremity. c. make it easier to move the patient. d. All of these answers are correct.
d. All of these answers are correct
What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: a. Clotting b. Coagulation c. Vasoconstriction d. All of these answers are correct
d. All of these answers are correct
After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. To treat this patient, you will follow: Select one: a. off-line medical control. b. online medical control. c. protocols. d. All of these answers are correct.
d. All of these answers are correct.
Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Vaginal trauma c. Spontaneous abortion d. All of these answers are correct.
d. All of these answers are correct.
In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: a. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. b. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. c. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. d. All of these answers are correct.
d. All of these answers are correct.
Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: a. Myocardial contusion b. Pulmonary contusion c. Aortic dissection d. Aortic ruptur
d. Aortic ruptur
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? Select one: a. Pulse b. Activity c. Grimace d. Body size
d. Body size
Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? Select one: a. The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood b. Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants d. Burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating
d. Burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: a. ataxic respirations. b. agonal respirations. c. eupneic respirations. d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? Select one: a. History of cigarette smoking b. History of previous heart attack c. Presence of personal risk factors d. Family history of hypertension
d. Family history of hypertension
Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Chlamydia c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Gonorrhea
d. Gonorrhea
What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: a. Arteries, veins, capillaries b. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets c. Heart, brain, lungs d. Heart, blood vessels, blood
d. Heart, blood vessels, blood
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: a. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. b. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. c. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. d. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
d. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? Select one: a. Because of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults. b. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis. c. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae. d. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head.
d. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head
Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: a. Visualization of the vocal cords b. Placement of the endotracheal tube c. Suction under direct laryngoscopy d. Preoxygenation with a BVM
d. Preoxygenation with a BVM
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: a. High-flow oxygen administration b. Full immobilization of her spine c. Intravenous fluid administration d. Rapid transport to a trauma center
d. Rapid transport to a trauma center
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? Select one: a. Intravenous fluid administration b. Early administration of oxygen c. Elevation of the lower extremities d. Rapid transport to a trauma center
d. Rapid transport to a trauma center
A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation? Select one: a. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher b. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital c. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat d. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance
d. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? Select one: a. Cardiac b. Skeletal c. Striated d. Smooth
d. Smooth
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: a. Rupture of the diaphragm b. Exacerbation of his COPD c. Acute pulmonary embolism d. Spontaneous pneumothorax
d. Spontaneous pneumothorax
Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: a. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis. b. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours. c. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. d. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
d. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: a. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask b. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway c. Suctioning to clear the airway d. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation
d. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: a. excessive tearing. b. moist oral mucosa. c. bulging fontanelles. d. absent urine output.
d. absent urine output.
A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: a. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. b. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. c. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. d. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.
d. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.
Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: a. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min. b. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen. c. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil. d. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.
d. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.
Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: Select one: a. hyperventilate him with a BVM and monitor his oxygen saturation. b. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. c. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. d. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.
d. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.
A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: Select one: a. apply a cervical collar. b. obtain baseline vital signs. c. auscultate bowel sounds. d. assess for an exit wound
d. assess for an exit wound
Placenta previa is defined as: Select one: a. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. b. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. c. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. d. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
d. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: Select one: a. mid-back pain. b. a bloated feeling. c. an urge to push. d. easier breathing.
d. easier breathing.
Signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. marked deformity. b. tenderness on palpation. c. locked joint. d. ecchymosis.
d. ecchymosis.
Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. hot items on a stovetop. b. scalding water in a bathtub. c. exposure to caustic chemicals. d. entrapment in a structural fire.
d. entrapment in a structural fire.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. acute cyanosis. b. inability to speak. c. grasping the throat. d. forceful coughing.
d. forceful coughing.
According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: Select one: a. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. b. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. c. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. d. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
d. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. child abuse. b. meningitis. c. severe infection. d. hyperglycemia.
d. hyperglycemia.
EMTs are called for an unresponsive infant. When they arrive, they find the mother holding her child. She advises that the child became limp, blue, and stopped breathing. Assessment reveals that the infant is conscious and crying, and has good muscle tone and pink skin color. The mother states that she will take her child to the doctor. The EMTs should: Select one: a. advise the mother that the danger has past and that she can take the child to the pediatrician. b. allow the mother to take her child to the doctor, but inform her that the risk for SIDS is high. c. contact law enforcement personnel and advise them that they are suspicious for child abuse. d. inform that mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable.
d. inform that mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable.
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: a. is self-paced and brief. b. occurs every 24 months. c. is delivered by computer. d. involves hands-on practice
d. involves hands-on practice
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: a. massive hemothorax. b. tension pneumothorax. c. pericardial tamponade. d. laceration of the aorta.
d. laceration of the aorta.
A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: a. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. b. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. c. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. d. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
d. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: a. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway. b. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. c. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. d. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.
d. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.
Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion and associated hypovolemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. cold, clammy skin with ashen pallor. b. dizziness, weakness, or faintness. c. normal vital signs. d. normal thirst.
d. normal thirst.
A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: a. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. b. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. c. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. d. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
d. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: a. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. b. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. c. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. d. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass
d. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: a. reduces the associated chest pain. b. dissolves the coronary artery clot. c. causes direct coronary vasodilation. d. prevents the aggregation of platelets.
d. prevents the aggregation of platelets.
Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: a. scene size-up b. patient history c. secondary assessment d. primary assessment
d. primary assessment
A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Select one: a. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. b. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
d. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: a. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. b. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. c. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. d. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
d. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
Most terrorist attacks: Select one: a. are carried out by fewer than three people. b. occur within the continental United States. c. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. d. require multiple terrorists working together.
d. require multiple terrorists working together.
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: Select one: a. should be placed in Trendelenburg position. b. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. c. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. d. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
d. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: Select one: a. calm him down so you can assess him. b. be assertive and talk the patient down. c. contact medical control for instructions. d. retreat at once and call law enforcement
d. retreat at once and call law enforcement
The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. Select one: a. diplomacy b. self-confidence c. time management d. self-motivation
d. self-motivation
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: Select one: a. miosis. b. a red rash. c. bradycardia. d. skin blistering.
d. skin blistering.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: a. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. b. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. c. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. d. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
d. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Select one: a. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. b. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. c. place him in a supine position and open his airway. d. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.
d. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts
Hypoglycemia can mimic conditions such as: Select one: a. cystic fibrosis. b. myocardial infarction. c. high fever. d. stroke.
d. stroke.
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: Select one: a. altered mental status and bradycardia. b. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. c. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. d. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities
d. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities
A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: a. addiction. b. dependence. c. withdrawal. d. tolerance.
d. tolerance.
You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: a. influenza Type A. b. pneumonia. c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). d. tuberculosis.
d. tuberculosis.
A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes: Select one: a. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min. b. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. c. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. d. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg.
d. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg.
Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: a. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. b. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. c. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. d. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds
d. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. Select one: a. red b. green c. black d. yellow
d. yellow
A(n) _____ is the protrusion of a loop of an organ or tissue through an abnormal body opening.
hernia
__________ are solid crystalline masses formed in the kidney, resulting from an excess of insoluble salts or uric acid crystallizing in the urine.
kidney stones
_____ are inserted when the electrical control system of the heart is so damaged that it cannot function properly.
pacemakers
_____ is the maximum pressure exerted by the left ventricle as it contracts.
systolic blood pressure