EMT - ALL Questions (Chapter 1-15)
Four Types of Shock:
1) Cardiogenic 2) Distributive 3) Hypovolemic 4) Obstructive
h
Hour
Duplex
The ability to transmit and receive simultaneously.
End-Tidal CO2
The amount of carbon dioxide present at the end of an exhaled breath.
hepat/o
liver
pulmon/o
lungs
-plasty
plastic surgery
toxo
poison
glyc-
sugar
CSF
Cerebro-spinal fluid
CVA
Cerebro-vascular accident
The use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
Concealment
Contraindications
Conditions that make a particular medication or treatment inappropriate because it would not help, or may actually harm, a patient.
DON
Director of nursing
What is the most appropriate method for oxygen delivery to an adult patient experiencing breathing difficulty? Nasal cannula at 2 to 6 L/min Nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min Venturi mask at 8 L/min BVM at 15 L/min
In an adult patient with breathing difficulty, you should administer high-flow oxygen at 15 L/min through a nonrebreathing mask.
Trauma Emergencies
Emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patient's body; injuries.
Resource detailing common hazards and proper responses
Emergency Response Guidebook
ER
Emergency room
Defamation that is spoken is known as libel. TrueFalse
False Correct. Defamation that is spoken is known as slander.
Oropharynx
Forms the posterior portion of the oral cavity, which is bordered superiorly by the hard and soft palates, laterally by the cheeks, and inferiorly by the tongue.
Subcutaneous (SC) Injection
Injection into the fatty tissue between the skin and muscle; a medication delivery route.
Tonsil Lips
Large, semirigid suction tips recommended for suctioning the pharynx; also called the Yankauer tips.
Each EMS system has a physician called _____ who authorizes the EMTS in the service to provide medical care in the field
Medical Director
Who authorizes you, as an EMT, to provide emergency care to a patient?
Medical Director
NS
Normal saline
NSR
Normal sinus rhythm
NA, N/A
Not applicable
NRB, NRBM
Nonrebreathing mask
VHF (very high frequency)
Radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz; the VHF spectrum is further divided into "high" and "low" bands.
UHF (ultra-high frequency)
Radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz.
ROM
Range of motion/rupture of membranes
SL
Sublingual
Tidal Volume
The amount of air (in milliliters) that is moved in or out of the lungs during one breath.
Adventitious Breath Sounds
Abnormal breath sounds such as wheezing, stridor, rhonchi, and crackles.
Agonal Gasps
Abnormal breathing pattern characterized by slow, gasping breaths, sometimes seen in patients in cardiac arrest.
Untoward Effects
Actions that can be harmful to the patient.
Inspiratory Reserve Volume
The amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation; the amount of air that can be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume.
Dose
The amount of medication given on the basis of the patient's size and age.
Joint Capsule
The fibrous sac that encloses a joint.
Appendicular Skeleton
The portion of the skeletal system that comprises the arms, legs, pelvis, and shoulder girdle.
Cervical Spine
The portion of the spinal column consisting of the first seven vertebrae that lie in the neck.
A tonsil-tip catheter is the best kind of catheter for infants and children. TrueFalse
True Correct. A tonsil-tip catheter is the best kind of catheter for infants and children.
Backboards are commonly used for patients who are found lying down. TrueFalse
True Correct. Backboards are commonly used for patients who are found lying down.
Evaluation and continuous quality improvement are factors in writing a PCR. T/F
True Correct. Evaluation and continuous quality improvement are factors in writing a PCR.
Never suction the mouth or nose of a child for more than 15 seconds. TrueFalse
True Correct. You should not suction a child for longer than 10 seconds.
You should repeat suctioning only after the patient has been adequately ventilated and reoxygenated. TrueFalse
True Correct. You should repeat suctioning only after the patient has been adequately ventilated and reoxygenated.
varic/o
dilated vein
When acknowledging the death of a child, reactions vary, but ______ is common
disbelief
path(o)-
disease
path/o
disease
-pathy
disease or a system for treating disease
dist/o
distant, away
cili
eyelid
chlor/o
green
trich/o
hair
hemi-
half
semi-
half, partial
hemi-
half; one sided
semi-
half; partial
scler/o
hard
scler-
hard, sclera (eye)
Your safety is the most important consideration at a
hazardous materials incident
cephal/o
head
acou/o; acoust/o
hear
cardi-
heart
Ch 2L: The abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease is called a(n)
infection
multi-
many
poly-
many
myel/o
marrow or spinal cord
Ch 2L: A(n) is a microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.
pathogen
stern(o)-
sternum (breastbone)
What Year was the white paper, ADD (Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society published?)
1966
Head Tilt-Chin Lift Maneuver
A combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients.
Larynx
A complex structure formed by many independent cartilaginous structures that all work together; where the upper airway ends and the lower airway begins; also called the voice box.
Carbon Dioxide Retention
A condition characterized by a chronically high blood level of carbon dioxide in which the respiratory center no longer responds to high blood levels of carbon dioxide.
Gastric Distention
A condition in which air fills the stomach, often as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation.
Hypoxic Drive
A condition in which chronically low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; seen in patients with chronic lung diseases.
Hypoxia
A condition in which the body's cells and tissues do not have enough oxygen.
Shock
A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to enable every body part to perform its function; also called hypoperfusion.
Hypothermia
A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95 F (35 C).
Hypothermia
A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C) after exposure to a cold environment.
Oxygen Toxicity
A condition of excessive oxygen consumption resulting in cellular and tissue damage.
Distributive Shock
A condition that occurs when there is widespread dilation of the small arterioles, small venules, or both.
Renal Pelvis
A cone-shaped area that collects urine from the kidneys and funnels it through the ureter into the bladder.
Nitroglycerin
A medication that increases cardiac perfusion by causing blood vessels to dilate; EMTs may be allowed to assist the patient to self-administer the medication.
Epinepherine
A medication that increases heart rate and blood pressure but also eases breathing problems by decreasing muscle tone of the bronchiole tree.
Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic Acid or ASA)
A medication that is an antipyretic (reduces fever), analgesic (reduces pain), anti-inflammatory (reduces inflammation), and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation (clumping).
Duty to Act
A medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.
Lactic Acid
A metabolic by-product of the breakdown of glucose that accumulates when metabolism proceeds in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic metabolism).
AVPU Scale
A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process.
Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH)
A method of delivering health care which involves providing health care within the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital.
OPQRST
A mnemonic used in evaluating a patient's pain: Onset, Provocation/palliation, Quality, Region/radiation, Severity, and Timing.
Emergency Move
A move in which the patient is dragged or pulled from a dangerous scene before assessment and care are provided.
Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
A multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts of several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.
Vagina
A muscular distensible tube that connects the uterus with the vulva (the external female genitalia); also called the birth canal.
Diaphragm
A muscular dome that forms the undersurface of the thorax, separating the chest from the abdominal cavity. Contraction of the diaphragm (and the chest wall muscles) brings air into the lungs. Relaxation allows air to be expelled from the lungs.
Recovery Position
A side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are breathing adequately.
Oral Glucose
A simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream; it is carried on the EMS unit.
Exposure
A situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.
Bradycardia
A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats/min.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
A slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and alveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction.
Appendix
A small tubular structure that is attached to the lower border of the cecum in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen.
Ureter
A small, hollow tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
Repeater
A special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
Dedicated Line
A special telephone line that is used for specific point-to-point communications; also known as a hotline.
Wheeled Ambulance Stretcher
A specially designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground. A collapsible undercarriage allows it to be loaded into the ambulance. Also called the stretcher or an ambulance stretcher.
Lymph
A thin, straw-coloree fluid that carries oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the cells and carries waste products of metabolism away from the cells and back into the capillaries so that they may be excreted.
Rapport
A trusting relationship that you build with your patient.
Oropharynx
A tubular structure that extends vertically from the back of the mouth to the esophagus and trachea.
Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care
A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity.
Expressed Consent
A type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
Focused Assessment
A type of physical assessment typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part.
Postconventional Reasoning
A type of reasoning in which a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what he or she wants.
Conventional Reasoning
A type of reasoning in which a child looks for approval from peers and society.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
A virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia. RSV is highly contagious and spread through droplets.
Influenza
A virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and infected humans and that kills thousands of people every year.
Health Care Directive
A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions. Also known as an advance directive or a living will.
Tort
A wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit.
Infant
A young child age 1 month to 1 year.
Toddler
A young child age 1 to 3 years.
Adolescent
A young person age 12 to 18 years.
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. B. a collapsible undercarriage. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
A. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
Midsaggital Plane (Midline)
An imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and umbilicus (navel) to the floor, dividing the body into equal left and right halves.
Fowler Position
An inclined position in which the head of the bed is raised.
What is an index of suspicion? An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist An outcome of scene size-up that indicates whether law enforcement should be called The ability to determine how contagious an infectious disease is A level of understanding whereby you can determine multiple NOIs
An index of suspicion is the awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist.
You are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. What would anxiety be considered? Indication Contraindication Side effect Intended effect
An indication is the therapeutic uses for a specific medication. In this case, the Xanax is being used to treat anxiety.
Breath Sounds
An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope.
Paramedic
An individual who has extensive training in advanced life support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)
An individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.
Advanced EMT (AEMT)
An individual who has training in specific aspects of advanced life support, such as intravenous therapy, and the administration of certain emergency medications.
Sucking Reflex
An infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when his or her lips are stroked.
Moro Reflex
An infant reflex in which, when an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things.
Palmar Grasp
An infant reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infant's palm; the infant grasps the object.
Diphtheria
An infectious disease in which a membrane forms, lining the pharynx; this lining can severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx.
Pneumonia
An infectious disease of the lung that damages lung tissue.
Meningococcal Meningitis
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; can be highly contagious.
Meningitis
An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; it is usually caused by a virus or a bacterium.
Croup
An inflammatory disease of the upper respiratory system that may cause a partial airway obstruction and is characterized by a barking cough; usually seen in children.
Intravenous (IV) Injection
An injection directly into a vein; a medication delivery route.
Intramuscular (IM) Injection
An injection into a muscle; a medication delivery route.
Intraosseous (IO) Injection
An injection into the bone; a medication delivery route.
Carbon Monoxide
An odorless, colorless, tasteless, and highly poisonous gas that results from incomplete oxidation of carbon in combustion.
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Select one: A. causes direct coronary vasodilation. B. dissolves the coronary artery clot. C. prevents the aggregation of platelets. D. reduces the associated chest pain.
C. prevents the aggregation of platelets.
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular relaxation. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular filling.
C. ventricular contraction.
Ch 1: As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. the transport time to the hospital. B. an order from a paramedic. C. the patient's condition. D. medical director approval.
D. medical director approval.
According to the terminal drop hypothesis: Select one: A. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years. B. most late-stage adults retain high brain function until 1 month before death. C. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one. D. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death.
D. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death.
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. refraining from objective statements. B. using coded medical language. C. withholding medical history data. D. not disclosing his or her name.
D. not disclosing his or her name.
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. mastoid B. sphenoid C. occiput D. orbit
D. orbit
Type of Shock: Distributive - Anaphylactic Treatment:
- Manage the airway - Assist ventilations - Administer high-flow oxygen - Determine cause - Assist with administration of epinephrine - Transport promptly - Consider ALS
Nasal Cannula
An oxygen-delivery device in which oxygen flows through two small, tubelike prongs that fit into the patient's nostrils; delivers 24% to 44% supplemental oxygen depending on the flow rate.
Tripod Position
An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward.
Sniffing Position
An upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open.
When lifting a backboard, you should use which of the following? Lateral lift Diamond carry Dead lift Power lift
Diamond carry A patient on a backboard or stretcher can be lifted and carried by four providers in a diamond carry, with one provider at the head end of the device, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient's torso.
What is the best way to care for your patient once he tells you he does not want to go to the hospital? Get the police involved. Ask him to sign a refusal form, releasing you from liability. Order him to go to the hospital against his wishes. Encourage him to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens.
Encourage him to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens. Since the patient is competent to refuse care, the best thing you can do is to encourage him to call 9-1-1 again if his condition worsens.
List three signs/symptoms found in an anxious patient?
Emotional upset Sweaty and cool skin (diaphoretic) Rapid breathing (hyperventilating) Fast pulse (tachycardia) Restlessness Tension Fear Shakiness (tremulous)
The most common form of COPD is ________. Asthma Bronchitis Emphysema Pneumonia
Emphysema Correct. Emphysema is the most common form of COPD.
Rx
Prescription
Ch.1 Public health examines the health needs of entire populations. In the United States, public health focuses on education and what else? Prevention Treatment Surveillance Evaluation
Prevention
Public health examines the health needs of entire populations. In the US, public health focuses on education and what else?
Prevention. Education and Prevention
The primary ________ area is the main area in which an EMS agency operates
Primary Service area
Obstructive Shock
Shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body's tissues.
Which of the following is an indication of poor air exchange? Wheezing Gastric distention Stridor Pneumothorax
Stridor is an indication of poor air exchange
subcut
Subcutaneous
Bronchioles
Subdivision of the smaller bronchi in the lungs; made of smooth muscle and dilate or constrict in response to various stimuli.
Symptom
Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient.
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver
Technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward; used for patients who may have a cervical spine injury.
Trunking
Telecommunication systems that allow a computer to maximize utilization of a group of frequencies.
What structure of the brain is responsible for the level of consciousness and maintenance of vital signs? Frontal lobe Limbic system Brain stem Occipital lobe
The brain stem is responsible for the level of consciousness and maintenance of vital signs.
Trade Name
The brand name that a manufacturer gives a medications; the name is capitalized.
After opening a patient's airway and confirming spontaneous respirations, you check for a pulse on his neck just lateral to the trachea. What artery are you palpating? Radial Carotid Femoral Brachial
The carotid artery is the major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain.
Thorax
The chest cavity that contains the heart, lungs, esophagus, and great vessels.
dors/o
back
re-
back
retro-
backward, behind
bacteri/o
bacteria
mal-
bad or abnormal
BLS
basic lifesaving interventions, such as CPR
Which of the following describes a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character and conscience? Ethics Morality Bioethics Applied ethics
morality Ethics is the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
oro-
mouth
stomat/o
mouth
my(o)-
muscle
my/o
muscle
NGT
nasogastric tube
para-
near, beside, beyond, apart from
cervic/o
neck
neur/o
nerve
neo-
new
noct-
night
nona-
nine
ODT
orally disintegrating tablet
-plegia
paralysis
-esthesia
pertaining to sensation or perception
-phasia
pertaining to speech
-emia
pertaining to the presence of a substance in the blood
PASG
pneumatic anti-shock garment
toxic/o
poisonous
burs/o
pouch or sac
ede
swelling
deca-
ten
episi/o
vulva
sept/o
wall, divider; also seven
carp/o
wrist
cirrh/o
yellow-orange
Ch 1: You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the state motor vehicle department b. law enforcement personnel c. the receiving nurse or doctor d. your medical director
c. the receiving nurse or doctor
chondr/o
cartilage
chrondr-
cartilage
cartil/o
cartilage, gristle
sinus
cavity, channel, or hollow space
-cyte
cell
cyt-
cell
cyt/o
cell
elast/o
change shape
bucc/o
cheek
thorac
chest
thorac/o
chest
paed
child
ped/o
child or foot
chrom/o
color
Ch 2L: .A(n) can be spread from one person or species to another.
communicable disease
-ia
condition of
Ch 2L: is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
contamination
tom/o
cut
annter/o
front
mening/o
membrane, usually refers to the meninges
blast/o
germ, bud, developing cell
aden/o
gland
The quickest source of energy is ______, however, this can last less than a day
glucose
poli/o
gray
cardi/o
heart
hr
hour
in-
in, into, not, without
atel/o
incomplete
bio-
life
bi
life; also two
phot/o
light
olig(o)-
little, deficient
pneum(o)-
lung
pneumo(n)/o
lung
pneum(at)/o
lungs, air
andr/o
man, male
psych/o
mind
men/o
month, menstruation
Basket Stretcher
A rigid stretcher commonly used in technical and water rescues that surrounds and supports the patient yet allows water to drain through holes in the bottom. Also called a Stokes litter.
Aneurysm
A swelling or enlargement of a part of an artery, resulting from weakening of the arterial wall.
Capillary Refill
A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.
ADL, ADLs
Acrivities of daily living
The spread of an organism via droplets or dust ○ (cold) Coughing and sneezing Cough and sneeze in your arm
Airborne Transmission
Oropharyngeal (Oral) Airway
Airway adjunct inserted into the mouth of an unresponsive patient to keep the tongue from blocking the upper airway and to facilitate suctioning the airway, if necessary.
Nasopharyngeal (Nasal) Airway
Airway adjunct inserted into the nostril of a unresponsive patient or a patient with an altered level of consciousness who is unable to maintain airway patency independently.
AO x 4, A/O x 4
Alert and oriented to person place time and self
Pons
An organ that lies below the midbrain and above the medulla and contains numerous important nerve fibers, including those for sleep, respiration, and the medullary respiratory center.
A&P
Anatomy and physiology
is a response to the anticipation of danger.
Anxiety
Side Effects
Any effects of a medication other than the desired ones.
Protected Health Information (PHI)
Any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual. This is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient's medical record or payment history.
Noise
Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message.
The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________. Select one: A. too slow B. normal C. too shallow D. too fast
B. normal
BSA
Body surface area
At what point should you make a preliminary transport decision? During scene size-up Once the preliminary assessment is complete After secondary assessment During reassessment
Once the preliminary assessment is complete Once you have completed the primary assessment, you should have enough information to make a preliminary transport decision.
Cerebellum
One of the three major subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the "little brain"; coordinates the various activities of the brain, particularly fine body movements.
Ischium
One of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
Cumulative Stress Reactions
Prolonged or excessive stress.
Is the simplest yet most effective way to control disease transmission
Proper handwashing
What is the most common characteristic found in patients with mental health problems?
Regression
_______ is the process of gas exchange. Respiration Residual volume Diffusion Ventilation
Respiration
Rh
Rhesus blood factor/ rhodium
RLL
Right lower lobe of the lung
Which of the following are the functional parts of the nervous system? Autonomic Central Peripheral Somatic
The autonomic (involuntary) and somatic (voluntary) nervous systems are functional components.
Primary Service Area (PSA)
The designated area in which the EMS service is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.
Anaerobic Metabolism
The metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the principal product is lactic acid.
Tunica Media
The middle and thickest layer of tissue of a blood vessel wall, composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells that allow the vessel to expand or contract in response to changes in blood pressure and tissue demand.
Ch2L: Which of the following involves the spread of infection by animals or insects that carry an organism from one person or place to another? Bloodborne pathogens Airborne transmission Foodborne transmission Vector-borne transmission
Vector-borne transmission
VD
Venereal disease
VF/V fib
Ventricular fibrillation
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. patient-assisted B. EMT-administered C. peer-assisted D. paramedic-administered
C. peer-assisted
An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. B. hands are held close to the legs. C. force is exerted straight down the spine. D. back is bent forward at the hips.
D. back is bent forward at the hips.
Ch 1: Online medical control requires __________. Select one: A. a physician's presence on the scene of the call B. written protocols approved by medical control C. the presence of an advanced-level provider D. phone or radio contact with the medical director
D. phone or radio contact with the medical director
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. superior venae cavae. B. pulmonary arteries. C. inferior venae cavae. D. pulmonary veins.
D. pulmonary veins.
Encouraging this patient to provide more information about his injury is an example of which therapeutic communication technique? Facilitation Reflection Clarification Interpretation
Facilitation encourages the patient to talk more or provide more information.
Negligence
Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide.
heter-
different, other
dys-
difficult, painful, abnormal
pepsia-
digestion
aur/o
ear
Medical Emergencies
emergencies that are not caused by an outside force; illnesses or conditions.
-megaly
enlargement of
iso-
equal
-scopy
examination with an instrument
primi-
first
quint-
five
cel/o
hernia, protrusion
-scope
instrument for examination
viscer/o
internal organs
IM
intramuscular
IN
intranasal
arthr/o
joint
medi/o
middle
lact/o
mild
proct
rectum
uter/o
uterus, womb
-asthenia
weakness
alb/o
white
leuk/o
white
end(o)-
within
a-
without, lack of
an-
without, lack of
gyn/o
woman, female
gyne-
woman, female
Intranasal (IN)
A delivery route in which a medication is pushed through a specialized atomizer device called a mucosal atomizer device (MAD) into the naris.
Sphygmomanometer
A device used to measure blood pressure.
Bag-Valve Mask (BVM)
A device with a one-way valve and a face mask attached to a ventilation bag; when attached to a reservoir and connected to oxygen, it delivers more than 90% supplemental oxygen.
The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? Select one: A. "sub-" and "infra-" B. "epi-" and "sub-" C. "peri-" and "circum-" D. "infra-" and "peri-"
C. "peri-" and "circum-"
The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. motor and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
C. brain and spinal cord.
Ch. 1 Which of the following is the process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care? Continuous quality improvement Certification Licensure Medical Control
Certification
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. normal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. an absence of breath sounds. D. abnormal breath sounds.
D. abnormal breath sounds.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cool and clammy skin. B. restlessness or anxiety. C. rapid, shallow breathing. D. absent peripheral pulses.
D. absent peripheral pulses.
"Chondro" in the word chondritis means: Select one: A. tendon. B. rib. C. joint. D. cartilage.
D. cartilage.
The descending aorta branches into the: Select one: A. internal carotid arteries. B. external carotid arteries. C. deep femoral arteries. D. common iliac arteries.
D. common iliac arteries.
Emergency Medical Care
Immediate care or treatment.
Barotrauma
Injury caused by pressure to enclosed body surfaces, for example from too much pressure in the lungs.
You answer a call to a restaurant where you find an unresponsive 50-year-old woman laying on the floor. She appears cyanotic and you do not detect chest rise and fall. There are no signs of traumatic injury. What should you do first? Apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask and assess vital signs. Prepare for immediate transport to a hospital. Insert an oral airway and begin ventilations with a BVM. Check the patient for any medical alert tags.
Insert an oral airway and begin ventilations with a BVM. You need to ventilate the patient.
IDDM
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
I&O
Intake and output
Fe
Iron
Scapula
The shoulder blade.
Action
The therapeutic effect of a medication on the body.
Whenever you grasp a stretcher or backboard, your hands should be at least 10 inches (25 cm) apart. TrueFalse
True Correct. Whenever you grasp a stretcher or backboard, your hands should be at least 10 inches (25 cm) apart.
pan-
all, entire
aort/o
aorta
append/o
appendix
calc/i
calcium
carcin/o
cancer
gest
carry, produce, congestion
-genic
causing
sect/o
cut
Which of the following best describes a communicable disease? The growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another A disease that is transmitted through contaminated drinking water Presence of infectious organisms on or in objects
A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another
Communicable Disease
A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another.
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)
A method of ventilation used primarily in the treatment of critically ill patients with respiratory distress; can prevent the need for endotracheal intubation.
Pathogen
A microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host.
Metered-Dose Inhaler (MDI)
A miniature spray canister through which droplets or particles or medication may be inhaled.
Metered-Dose Inhaler (MDI)
A miniature spray canister used to direct medications through the mouth and into the lungs.
Suspension
A mixture of ground particles that are distributed evenly throughout a liquid but do not dissolve.
DCAP-BTLS
A mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, and Swelling.
Norepinephrine
A neurotransmitter and drug sometimes used in the treatment of shock; produces vasoconstriction through its alpha-stimulator properties.
Neonate
A newborn age birth to 1 month.
Priapism
A painful, tender, persistent erection of the penis; can result from spinal cord injury, erectile dysfunction drugs, or sickle cell disease.
Pneumothorax
A partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space.
Articular Cartilage
A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.
School Age
A person who is 6 to 12 years of age.
Emancipated Minors
A person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult.
Certification
A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.
Diffusion
A process in which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
Tachycardia
A rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min.
Good Air Exchange
A term used to distinguish the degree of distress in a patient with a mild airway obstruction. With good air exchange, the patient is still conscious and able to cough forcefully, although wheezing may be heard.
Health Care Proxies
A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity. Also known as a durable power of attorney for health care.
Symphysis
A type of joint that has grown together to form a very stable connection.
Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)
A ventilation device attached to a control box that allows the variables of ventilation to be set. It frees the EMT to perform other tasks while the patient is being ventilated.
Hypoglycemia
An abnormally low blood glucose level.
Rooting Reflex
An infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infant's cheek, and the infant instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Select one: A. with a possible cervical spine injury. B. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. C. with multiple long bone injuries. D. who cannot be placed on a backboard.
B. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
The ____ of a human being is one of the most _____ events for another human being to accept
death; diffcult
-lysis
decline, disintegration, or destruction
°C
degrees Celsius (Centigrade)
°F
degrees Fahrenheit
What are the five stages of the grieving process
denial, anger/hostility, bargaining, depression, acceptance
ov/o
egg
oct-
eight
cubitus
elbow
ankyl/o
fused, stiff
nephr/o
kidney
ren/o
kidney
pyel-
kidney or pelvis
gno
know
condyl/o
knuckle of a joint
macro-
large
-meter
measuring instrument
-ostomy
surgical creation of an opening
-ectomy
surgical removal of
ad-
to, toward
sym-
together, joined
syn-
together, joined
lingu/o
tongue
Labored Breathing
Breathing that requires greater than normal effort; may be slower or faster than normal and characterized by grunting, stridor, and use of accessory muscles.
When providing support for a grieving person, it is okay to say:
"I'm sorry"
In the mnemonic PASTE, what does the "S" stand for? Symptoms Severity Sputum Syncope
"S" stands for sputum in the PASTE mnemonic.
Type of Shock: Distributive - Neurogenic Signs and Symptoms:
- Bradycardia (slow pulse) - Low BP - Signs of neck injury
Type of Shock: Distributive - Anaphylactic Signs and Symptoms:
- Can develop within seconds - Mild itching or rash - Burning skin - Vascular dilation - Generalized edema - Coma - Rapid death
Type of Shock: Cardiogenic Signs and Symptoms
- Chest pain - Irregular pulse - Weak pulse - Low BP - Cyanosis (lips, under nails) - Cool, clammy skin - Anxiety - Crackles (rales) - Pulmonary edema
Type of Shock: Distributive - Neurogenic Examples of Potential Causes:
- Damaged cervical spine, which causes widespread blood vessel dilation *** commonly high spinal cord injuries
Type of Shock: Distributive - Psychogenic (fainting) Treatment:
- Determine duration of unconsciousness - Position the patient supine - Record initial vital signs and mental status - Suspect head injury if patient is confused or slow to regain consciousness - Transport promptly
Type of Shock: Distributive - Anaphylactic Example of Potential Causes:
- Extreme life-threatening allergic reaction
Type of Shock: Obstructive Examples of Potential Causes:
- Mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle causing a decrease in cardiac output: 1) Tension pneumothorax 2) Cardiac tamponade 3) Pulmonary embolism
Type of Shock: Cardiogenic Treatment
- Position comfortably - Administer high-flow oxygen - Assist ventilations - Transport promptly - Consider ALS
Type of Shock: Distributive - Psychogenic (fainting) Signs and Symptoms:
- Rapid pulse - Normal or low BP
Type of Shock: Hypovolemic Signs and Symptoms:
- Rapid, weak pulse - Low BP - Change in mental status - Cyanosis (lips, under nails) - Cool, clammy skin - Increased respiratory rate
Type of Shock: Hypovolemic Treatment:
- Secure airway - Assist ventilations - Administer high-flow oxygen - Control external bleeding - Keep warm - Transport promptly - Consider ALS
Type of Shock: Distributive - Neurogenic Treatment:
- Secure airway - Spinal immobilization - Assist ventilations - Administer high-flow oxygen - Preserve body heat - Transport promptly - Consider ALS
Type of Shock: Distributive - Septic Examples of Potential Causes:
- Severe bacterial infection
Type of Shock: Distributive - Psychogenic (fainting) Examples of Potential Causes:
- Temporary, generalized vascular dilation - Anxiety, bad news, sight of injury or blood, prospect of medial treatment, severe pain, illness, tiredness
Type of Shock: Distributive - Septic Treatment:
- Transport promptly - Administer high-flow oxygen - Assist ventilations - Keep patient warm - Consider ALS
Type of Shock: Distributive - Septic Signs and Symptoms:
- Warm skin or fever - Tachycardia - Low BP
AKA
Above the knee amputation
Apnea
Absence of spontaneous breathing.
hypo-
under, below normal
sub-
under, below, beneath, nearly, downward
Rhonchi
Coarse breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the airways.
MI
Myocardial infarction
Sexual harassment is defined as
unwelcome requests for sexual favors.
ur/o
urine
Emergency
A serious situation, such as injury or illness, that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention.
abd
Abdomen
Middle Adult
An adult age 41 to 60 years.
DM
Diabetes mellitus
F IO2 <- (IO2 is subscript)
Fraction of inspired oxygen
fx
Fracture
min
Minute
________ describes how we feel about ourselves and how we fit in with our peers. Self-esteem Self-concept Preconventional reasoning Postconventional reasoning
Self-esteem Correct. Self-esteem is how we feel about ourselves and how we fit in with our peers.
Which of the following should be expected when you assess a 76-year-old patient's pupils? Slower pupillary reaction Vision deficit Fixed, dilated pupils Unequal pupils
Slower pupillary reaction Older adults experience restricted pupillary reaction.
What is perfusion? The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels A passive process in which molecules move from an area with a higher concentration of molecules to an area of lower concentration The force or resistance against which the heart pumps The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area
The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels
Perfusion
The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.
Afterload
The force or resistance against which the heart pumps.
mechanism of injury (MOI)
The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury.
Palmar
The forward facing part of the hand in the anatomic position.
Pulmonary Veins
The four veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.
Anterior
The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.
Cerebrum
The largest part of the three subdivisions of the brain, sometimes called the "gray matter"; made up of several lobes that control movement, hearing, balance, speech, visual perception, emotions, and personality.
Coccyx
The last three or four vertebrae of the spine; the tail bone.
Decompensated Shock
The late stage of shock when blood pressure is falling.
Extension
The straightening of a joint.
Virulence
The strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease.
Bioethics
The study of ethics related to issues that arise in health care.
Pathophysiology
The study of how normal physiologic processes are affected by disease.
WBC
White blood cell
Nasal Flaring
Widening of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction.
W/
With
Č
With
W/O
With out
WNL
Within normal limits
s (with horizontal line above it)
Without
Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Orders
Written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel to not attempt resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest.
Hypoxia
a dangerous condition in which the body tissues and cells do not have enough oxygen.
sebum
a fatty secretion of the sebaceous glands
cent/i
a fraction in the metric system; one hundredth or 100
embol/o
a plug
ante-
before, forward
pro-
before, in front of
pre-
before, in front of, forward
infra-
below, under
flex
bend
latero-
side
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes B. The patient is competent and signs a release form C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. A police officer requests a copy to place on file
signs a release form
sexti-
six
cutane/o
skin
derm(at)/o
skin
dermat(o)-
skin
Excellent indicators of respiration include level of consciousness and what else? Posturing Wheezing or stridor Skin color Flaring
skin color
brady-
slow
-statis
slowing or stopping of the normal flow of a fluid, such as blood
micro-
small
serum
the clear portion of body fluids, including blood
hom/o
the same
dips/o
thirst
tri-
three
pharyng/o
throat
per-
through
Inhalation
Breathing into the lungs; a medication delivery route.
Joint (Articulation)
The place where two bones come into contact.
Apex (Plural Apices)
The pointed extremity of a conical structure.
Systemic Circulation
The portion of the circulatory system outside of the heart and lungs.
Frontal Bone
The portion of the cranium that forms the forehead.
Homeostasis
A balance of all systems of the body.
Allergen
A substance that causes an allergic reaction.
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." B. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" C. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." D. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you."
A. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow."
Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? Select one: A. "dipl-" and "bi-" B. "bi-" and "null-" C. "primi-" and "bi-" D. "primi-" and "dipl-"
A. "dipl-" and "bi-"
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 10 to 18 months B. 6 to 8 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 24 to 36 months
A. 10 to 18 months
When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. Select one: A. 15 to 20 inches B. 5 to 10 inches C. 20 to 30 inches D. 10 to 15 inches
A. 15 to 20 inches
You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? Select one: A. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders. B. Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. C. Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. D. Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport.
A. Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Intravenous fluid administration C. Full immobilization of her spine D. High-flow oxygen administration
A. Rapid transport to a trauma center
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Scanner B. Mobile repeater C. Duplex station D. Simplex station
A. Scanner
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety D. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%
A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg Chapter 15, page 615, Treatment of Specific Conditions
Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Sebaceous C. Dermal D. Epidermis
A. Subcutaneous
Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. B. Answer questions with "yes" or "no." C. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. D. Use codes to speed communication.
A. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. after the primary assessment has been completed. B. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
A. after the primary assessment has been completed.
The secondary assessment of a medical patient: Select one: A. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short. B. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. C. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. D. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious.
A. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: Select one: A. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. B. flex at the waist instead of the hips. C. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. D. use a direct carry whenever possible.
A. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. medical director. B. state EMS office. C. local health district. D. EMS supervisor.
A. medical director.
Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history
A. nature of illness
While you perform CPR on a patient, your partner retreived the _________, which will deliver an appropriate electrical shock.
AED
While you checked the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation, your partner considered the benefits of requesting an __________ ambulance to assist with patient care
ALS
While evaluating a noncritical patient in the field, you receive a call from dispatch regarding a serious four-car accident. You inform the patient you are treating to have someone take him to his doctor to get checked out before leaving to attend to the more seriously injured people. This is an example of what? Abandonment Implied consent Defamation Res ipso loquitor
Abandonment This would be abandonment, the unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
AAA
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Decision-Making Capacity
Ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care.
Older Adult
An adult age 61 years or older.
AED
Automated external defibrillator
AICD
Automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator
What medication form does oral glucose come in? Select one: A. Suspension B. Gel C. Liquid D. Fine powder
B. Gel
Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: Select one: A. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. B. place her in a supine position. C. transport her in a sitting position. D. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
B. place her in a supine position.
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Select one: A. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. C. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. D. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher.
B. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. ventral. B. posterior. C. inferior. D. anterior.
B. posterior.
BS
Blood sugar/breath sounds/bowel sounds/bachelor of science
BVM
Bag-valve mask
BPM
Beats per minute
Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Thyroid B. Parathyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal
C. Pituitary
Ch 1: The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. Select one: A. self-confidence B. time management C. diplomacy D. self-motivation
D. self-motivation
R/O
Rule out
SVT
Supraventricular tachycardia
SICU
Surgical intensive care unit
Clavicle
The collar bone; it is lateral to the sternum and anterior to the scapula.
When tools are being used during extraction, you should:
Wear a face shield or goggles
wt
Weight
Decreased, absent, or abnormal breath sounds are also called vesicular breath sounds. TrueFalse
F Correct. Decreased, absent, or abnormal breath sounds are also known as adventitious breath sounds.
Snoring sounds are indicative of a partial lower airway obstruction, usually in the bronchioles. TrueFalse
F Correct. Snoring sounds are indicative of a partial upper airway obstruction, usually in the oropharynx.
Stroke volume is the amount of blood moved in 1 minute. TrueFalse
F Correct. Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood moved in 1 minute. Stroke volume (SV) is the amount of blood moved in one beat.
PND
Paroxysmal noxturnal dyspnea
Encompasses reporting, documentation, and treatment.
Postexposure management
psi
Pounds per square inch
PVC
Prematur ventricular contraction/polyvinyl chloride
gastr/o
stomach
calc-
stone
lith-
stone
Gel
A semiliquid substance that is administered orally in capsule form or through plastic tubes.
Mobile Data Terminal (MDT)
A small computer terminal inside the ambulance that directly receives data from the dispatch center.
Prostate Gland
A small gland that surrounds the male urethra where it emerges from the urinary bladder; it secretes a fluid that is part of the ejaculatory fluid.
Early Adult
A young adult age 19 to 40 years.
AMI
Acute myocardial infarction
OU
Both eyes
CA
Cancer/cardiac arrest/cheonologic age/coronary artery/cold agglutinin
What is the main problem with positive-pressure ventilation? Cardiac output increases exponentially. Cardiac output drops. Hemothorax There is a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.
Cardiac output drops. Cardiac output drops and it is imperative that you regulate the rate and volume of artificial ventilations to help prevent this drop.
CO
Cardiac output/carbon monoxide
You arrive on scene to find a conscious 58-year-old woman sitting up and reporting severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is anxious and tells you she feels like she is going to die. Physical examination shows that her skin is pale, cool, and clammy and her pulse is rapid, weak, and irregular. Her breathing is labored, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Her SpO2 is 90%. Lung sounds show crackles in all fields. Blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is your differential diagnosis of this patient? Hypovolemic shock Septic shock Cardiogenic shock Neurogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock The patient is displaying signs of cardiogenic shock, including chest pain; anxiety; cool, clammy skin; crackles; and low blood pressure.
CPR
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
DOA
Dead on arrival
Dx
Diagnosis
HR
Heart rate
HTN
Hypertension
ICU
Intensive care unit
JVD
Jugular venous destention
NC
Nasal cannula
OB
Obstetrics
Agonal Gasps
Occasional, gasping breaths that occurs after the heart has stopped.
Severe Airway Obstruction
Occurs when a foreign body completely obstructs the patent's airway. The patient cannot breathe, talk, or cough.
Mild Airway Obstruction
Occurs when a foreign body partially obstructs the patient's airway. The patient is able to move adequate amounts of air, but also experiences some degree of respiratory distress.
Atrium
One of the two upper chambers of the heart.
SOB
Shortness of breath
Dyspnea
Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
Dyspnea
Shortness of breath.
S/S S&S
Signs and symptoms
Simplex
Single-frequency radio; transmissions can occur in either direction but not simultaneously in both; when one party transmits, the other can only receive, and the party that is transmitting is unable to receive.
dipl/o
two, double
Tracheostomy
Surgical opening into the trachea.
sym or Sx
Symptoms
dipl-
two; double
Flexion
The bending of a joint.
Why should you not use an oral route to deliver medication in a patient with an altered LOC? It takes too long for medicine to be delivered using the oral route. The medication will not work as intended in a patient with altered LOC. The patient will likely be combative so an oral route will be difficult. There is a potential for airway compromise.
The biggest danger in trying to administer medication to a patient with an altered LOC is the potential for airway compromise.
Metabolism
The biochemical process that results in production of energy from nutrients within the cells.
Metabolism (Cellular Respiration)
The biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within cells.
Metabolism (Cellular Respiration)
The biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within the cells.
Immune
The body's ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease.
Radius
The bone on the thumb side of the forearm.
Sternum
The breast bone.
Cecum
The first part of the large intestine, into which the ileum opens.
When administering a medication you are unfamiliar with, what is the first thing you should do? Verify the proper medication and prescription. Verify the form, dose, and route of the medication. Check the expiration date and condition of the medication. Obtain an order from medical control.
The first thing you should do is obtain an order from medical control.
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)
The first trained professional such as a police officer, firefighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.
Respiratory Compromise
The inability of the body to move gas effectively.
Systolic Pressure
The increased pressure in an artery with each contraction of the ventricles (systole).
Designated Officer
The individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.
Ch 2L: Which of the following statements is the most accurate? You should engage in at least 60 minutes of vigorous physical activity a minimum of 6 days per week in order to maintain your health. The individual's reaction to stress determines how much it will strain the body's resources. When you are dehydrated, drink something sugary to help rebuild electrolytes. You do not need to inform your supervisor if you're taking a legally prescribed drug.
The individual's reaction to stress determines how much it will strain the body's resources.
Respiration
The inhaling and exhaling of air; the physiologic process that exchanges carbon dioxide from fresh air.
Ulna
The inner bone of the forearm, on the side opposite the thumb.
Dermis
The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels.
Occiput
The most posterior portion of the cranium.
Suffix
The part of a term that comes after the root word, at the end of the term.
Midbrain
The part of the brain that is responsible for helping to regulate the level of consciousness.
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
The part of the nervous system that consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; these may be sensory nerves, motor nerves, or connecting nerves.
Somatic Nervous System
The part of the nervous system that regulates activities over which there is voluntary control.
Autonomic Nervous System
The part of the nervous system that regulates functions, such as digestion and sweating, that are not controlled voluntarily.
Synovial Fluid
The small amount of liquid within a joint used as lubrication.
Hair Follicles
The small organs that produce hair.
Arterioles
The smallest branches of arteries leading the the vast network of capillaries.
Cartilage
The smooth connective tissue that forms the support structure of the skeletal system and provides cushioning between bones; also forms the nasal septum and portions of the outer ear.
Interstitial Space
The space in between the cells.
Glottis
The space in between the vocal cords that is the narrowest portion of the adult's airway; also called the glottic opening.
Vasa Deferentia
The spermatic duct of the testicles; also called vas deferens.
Peristalsis
The wavelike contraction of smooth muscle by which the ureters or other tubular organs propel their contents.
Airborne Trasmission
The spread of an organism via droplets or dust.
Ch. 1 Which of the following entities controls licensure of EMTs? Community health organizations The state in which the EMT practices The federal government The medical director
The state in which the EMT practices
What entity controls licensure of EMTs?
The state in which the EMT practices
Golden Hour
The time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best; also called the Golden Period.
Statute of Limitations
The time within which a case must be commenced.
Capillary Vessels
The tiny blood vessels between the arterioles and venules that permit transfer of oxygen, carbon dioxide nutrients, and waste between body tissues and the blood.
Sclera
The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures.
Communication
The transmission of information to another person-verbally or through body language.
Airway
The upper airway tract or the passage above the larynx, which includes the nose, mouth, and throat.
Maxillae
The upper jawbones that assist in the formation of the orbit, the nasal cavity, and the palate and hold the upper teeth.
Manubrium
The upper quarter of the sternum.
Capnometry
The use of a copnometer, a device that measures the amount of expired carbon dioxide.
Palpate
To examine by touch.
Tx
Treatment
Peer-Assisted Medication
When the EMT administers medication to him or herself or to a partner.
abdomin/o
abdomen
-rrhage
abnormal or excessive flow or discharge
malo
abnormal, bad
bronch/i
airway, bronchus
brachi/o
arm
cleid/o
clavicle
-taxis
order, arrangement of
cost-
rib
cost/o
rib
pleur/o
rib, side
-logy
study of
therm-
temperature
dia-
through, completely
chron/o
time
sarco
tissue
ech/o
to bounce, sound
di-
twice, double
bi-
two
epi-
upon, over, above
hydr/o
water
asten/o
weak
Cyanosis
A blue-gray skin color that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood.
Herpes Simplex
A common virus that is asymptomatic in 80% of people carrying it, but characterized by small blisters on the lips or genitals in symptomatic infections.
Interoperable Communications System
A communication system that uses voice-over-Internet-protocol (VoIP) technology to allow multiple agencies to communicate and transmit data.
Oxygen
A gas that all cells need for metabolism; the heart and brain, especially, cannot function without oxygen.
Crepitus
A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.
Pubic Symphysis
A hard, bony, and cartilaginous prominence found at the midline in the lowermost portion of the abdomen where the two halves of the pelvic ring are joined by cartilage at a joint with minimal motion.
Backboard
A long, flat board made of rigid, rectangular material that is used to provide support to a patient who is suspected of having a hip, pelvic, spinal, or lower extremity injury; also called a spine board, trauma board, and longboard.
Infectious Disease
A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
What is a pertinent negative? A negative finding that requires further care and/or intervention A negative finding that requires advanced life support A negative finding that implies another condition may be present A negative finding that requires no further care or intervention
A negative finding that requires no further care or intervention A pertinent negative is a negative finding that requires no further care or intervention.
Capnography
A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time.
Small-Volume Nebulizer
A respiratory device that holds liquid medicine that is turned into a fine mist. The patient inhales the medication into the airways and lungs as a treatment for conditions such as asthma.
Urinary Bladder
A sac behind the pubic symphysis made of smooth muscle that collects and stores urine.
Gallbladder
A sac on the undersurface of the liver that collects bile from the liver and discharges it into the duodenum through the common bile duct.
American Standard Safety System
A safety system for large oxygen cylinders, designed to prevent the accidental attachment of a regulator to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas.
"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: Select one: A. stomach. B. bowel. C. tongue. D. intestine.
A. stomach.
Superior
Above a body part or nearer to the head.
AK
Above the knee
Which of the following is indicated in almost every type of shock? Request ALS assistance Place the patient in a supine position Administer high-flow oxygen Control bleeding
Administer high-flow oxygen High-flow oxygen administration is a potential treatment in almost every type of shock.
EMT-Administered Medication
Administration of a medication by the EMT directly to the patient.
Which of the following conditions is an infant most likely to have? Disk compression in the spinal column Loss of passive immunity Airway obstruction Atherosclerosis
Airway obstruction Because proportionally an infant's tongue is larger and the airway is shorter, infants are more prone to airway obstruction.
ABC, ABCs
Airway, breathing, circulation
Respiratory System
All the structures of the body that contribute to the process of breathing, consisting of the upper and lower airways and their component parts.
Channel
An assigned frequency or frequencies that are used to carry voice and/or data communications.
Credentialing
An established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization.
What type of mode does an interoperable communications system use? Simplex Duplex Trunking Voice-over-Internet-protocol
An interoperable communications system uses a voice-over-Internet-protocol format to connect landlines, cell phones, and computers to create a seamless, reliable exchange of information among all parties.
Stoma
An opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin.
Activated Charcoal
An oral medication that binds and adsorbs ingested toxins in the gastrointestinal tract for treatment of some poisonings and medication overdoses. Charcoal is ground into a very fine power that provides the greatest possible surface area for binding medications that have been taken by mouth; it is carried on the EMS unit.
Pandemic
An outbreak that occurs on a global scale.
ant
Anterior
AP
Anteroposterior/front to back/action potential/angina pectoris/anterior pituitary/arterial pressure
One of the most dramatic recent developments in the prehospital emergency care is the use of an ______
Automated External Defibrillator
What should you do when trying to define the term dysuria? Begin with the prefix and work forward Begin with the suffix and work backward Begin with the root word, move to the suffix, then to the prefix Begin with the suffix, move to the prefix, then to the root word
Begin with the suffix, move to the prefix, then to the root word
Retroperitoneal
Behind the abdominal cavity.
Inferior
Below a body part or nearer to the feet.
Ch2L: Which of the following should you do when lifting something heavy? Bend your legs, not your waist. Wait for assistance. Keep the weight at arm's length from your body. Lift using the muscles of your lower back.
Bend your legs, not your waist.
BGL
Blood glucose level
BP, B/P
Blood pressure
Which of the following is the last measureable factor to change in shock? Heart rate Blood pressure Oxygenation LOC
Blood pressure is the last measureable factor to change in shock.
Hypertension
Blood pressure that is higher than the normal range.
Hypotension
Blood pressure that is lower than the normal range.
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Larynx B. Oropharynx C. Bronchus D. Pharynx
C. Bronchus Correct
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Narcotic overdose C. Severe anxiety D. Pulmonary edema
C. Severe anxiety
he ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. Select one: A. septum B. base C. apex D. dorsum
C. apex
Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. B. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.
C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.
A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the: Select one: A. inhalation route. B. transdermal route. C. intranasal route. D. sublingual route.
C. intranasal route.
CRT
Capillary refill time/cathode ray tube
Which of the following devices would you use to measure a patient's ventilation, circulation, and metabolism? Pulse oximetry Capnography Blood glucometry Sphygmomanometer
Capnography Capnography measures a patient's ventilation, circulation, and metabolism.
The safest, most reliable sources for long-term energy production are
Carbohydrates
CO2
Carbon dioxide
Carbon Dioxide
Carbon dioxide is a component of air and typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system.
Red Blood Cells
Cells that carry oxygen to the body's tissues; also called erythrocytes.
CMS - 2
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
Diaphoretic
Characterized by light or profuse sweating.
CP
Chest pain/chemically pure/cerebral palsy
Medical patient assessment focuses on which of the following? MOI Chief complaint NOI Physical injuries
Chief complaint NOI Correct. Medical assessment focuses on the NOI and patient's chief complaint (in addition to symptoms).
COLD
Chronic obstructive lung disease
COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CMS
Circulation, Motor, Sensation
Superficial
Closer to or on the skin.
Proximal
Closer to the trunk.
C diff
Clostridium difficile
Rhonchi
Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways.
Atelectasis
Collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs.
A(n) ________ can be spread from one person or species to another. Infectious disease Communicable disease Contamination Virulence
Communicable disease Correct. A communicable disease is a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another.
c/o
Complaining of
CBC
Complete blood cell count
Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)
Comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination.
Cardiac Tamponade
Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.
Gross Negligence
Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care.
CHF
Congestive heart failure
If you are in the first unit to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you should:
Consider using the ambulance as a shield to protect the scene. Safety first!
the movement of an organism from one person to another through physical touch. There are two types
Contact Transmission
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Bronchi B. Capillaries C. Trachea D. Alveoli
D. Alveoli
Is a circular system of continuous internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system
Continuous quality improvement
You arrive at the scene of an accident and observe the patient lying face-up on the ground. As you look at the front side of his body, which plane of the body are you observing? Coronal Midsagittal Sagittal Transverse
Coronal
__________ is used for asking questions about pain. ABC OPQRST Pertinent negative SAMPLE
Correct. OPQRST is used to question a patient about pain. It stands for Onset, Provocation/palliation, Quality, Region/radiation, Severity, and Timing.
Distal
Further from the trunk or nearer to the free end of the extremity.
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away B. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs C. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. fear of medical personnel. C. history of chronic disease. D. assessment by the EMT.
D. assessment by the EMT.
The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: Select one: A. medication use. B. kidney failure. C. hypotension. D. atherosclerosis.
D. atherosclerosis.
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. unilateral. B. proximal. C. medial. D. bilateral.
D. bilateral
The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: Select one: A. ATP and glucose. B. glucose and lactic acid. C. uric acid and nitrogen. D. carbon dioxide and water.
D. carbon dioxide and water.
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: Select one: A. contact medical control on every EMS call. B. consistently exceed the standard of care. C. function above his or her scope of practice. D. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
D. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: Select one: A. examine the patient from head to toe. B. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. C. prepare the patient for transport first. D. focus on his or her chief complaint.
D. focus on his or her chief complaint.
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. has low blood sugar. B. is unable to swallow. C. urinates frequently. D. is excessively thirsty.
D. is excessively thirsty.
Frostbite
Damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen or partially frozen body parts are frostbitten.
DVT
Deep venous thrombosis
DTs
Delirium tremens
The stage of the grieving process that involves refusal to accept diagnosis or care is known as"
Denial
Which organization developed and published the first curriculum that served as the guideline for EMT training?
Department of Transportation (DOT developed and published the first curriculum that served as the guideline for EMT training in the early 1970s.)
Sensitization
Developing a sensitivity to a substance that initially caused no allergic reaction.
Signs of Anxiety include
Diaphoresis Hyperventilation Tachycardia Except: Comfort
DNR
Do not resuscitate
When carrying a patient down a flight of stairs on a backboard, which person should be at the head end of the backboard? Jerry, who is 6'2" and strong Tina, who is 5'4" and is the most flexible of the team Tom, who is 5'10" and has average upper body strength and superior lower body strength Doug, who is 5'8" and a weightlifter
Doug, who is 5'8" and a weightlifter Doug should be at the head of the backboard because he is strong and is shorter than Jerry, the other strong team member.
To avoid the strain of unnecessary lifting and carrying, which of the following should you use when moving a patient from the ground onto a stretcher? Draw sheet method Direct carry Extremity lift Stair chair
Draw sheet method: Using the draw sheet method can help you avoid the strain of unnecessary lifting and carrying.
gtt
Drop (s)
Which of the following gives surrogates the right to make decisions for patients regarding their health care in the event that the patient is incapacitated and unable to make such decisions? Do not resuscitate (DNR) order Advance directive Durable power of attorney for health care Emergency doctrine
Durable power of attorney for health care Durable power of attorney for health care: A type of advance directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision-making capacity
Once your ambulance is dispatched to an emergency, you have an obligation to respond. What is this called? Scope of practice Duty to act Breach of duty Mandatory reporting
Duty to act is a medicolegal term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care.
DtaP
Dyptheria and tetnas toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine
DOE
Dyspnea on exertion
ENT
Ears, nose, and throat
Secondary Prevention
Efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.
Primary Prevention
Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occurring.
ECG/EKG
Electro-cardiogram
EEG
Electro-encephalogram
EDC
Estimated date of confinement
ETA
Estimated time of arrival
When a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture, what is this referred to? Stereotyping Ethnocentrism Cultural imposition Rapport
Ethnocentrism is when a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
x (with horizontal line above it)
Except
Ventilation
Exchange of air between the lungs and the environment, spontaneously by the patient or with assistance from another person, such as an EMT
Ventilation
Exchange of air between the lungs and the environment, spontaneously by the patient or with assistance from another person, such as an EMT.
FHx
Family history
Ovaries
Female glands that produce sex hormones and ova (eggs).
FHR
Fetal heart rate
You are responding to an accident where a 25-year-old female fell 15 feet while rock climbing. The terrain is steep and there is not much space to work. Which device should you use? Scoop stretcher Vacuum mattress Flexible stretcher Kendrick Extrication Device (KED)
Flexible stretcher: A flexible stretcher can be used if the patient must be belayed or rappelled by ropes or is in a confined space.
fl or fld
Fluid
Public Health
Focused on examining the health needs of entire populations with the goal of preventing health problems.
You are transporting a 50-year-old patient who reports respiratory distress but has no other indications of other injury or illness. What is the best position in which to place this patient? Immobilized Fowler/semi-Fowler Supine Recovery
Fowler/semi-Fowler
Paramedic course requires how many hours?
From 1,000 to more than 1,300 hours
GB
Gallbladder
GERD
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
GI
Gastrointestinal
Sebaceous Glands
Glands that produce an oily substance called sebum, which discharges along the shafts of the hairs.
What is the most common type of PPE
Gloves
GTT
Glucose tolerance test
Is as important as eating well and exercise in the maintenance of good health
Good productive sleep
GSW
Gun shot wound
gyn
Gynecology
What involves federal legislation concerning patient confidentiality.
HIPAA
Which of the following are disadvantages of a manually triggered ventilation device? Has a high incidence of gastric distention and possible damage to structures within the chest cavity Should not be used on patients with COPD or suspected cervical spine or chest injuries Provides less tidal volume than mouth-to-mask ventilation The high ventilatory pressures generated may damage lung tissue if not carefully monitored.
Has a high incidence of gastric distention and possible damage to structures within the chest cavity Should not be used on patients with COPD or suspected cervical spine or chest injuries The high ventilatory pressures generated may damage lung tissue if not carefully monitored.
Describe the EMT's role in the EMS system
Has training in basic life support (BLS), including airway adjuncts, and assisting patients with certain medications.
HA, H/A
Head ache
Which of the following statements about health care in the United States is true?
Health care in the United States is expensive but does not necessarily provide better health outcomes.
Hct
Hematocrit
Hb, Hgb
Hemoglobin
What is the medical term for coughing up blood? Hemogastritis Hematuria Hematemesis Hemoptysis
Hemoptysis Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood; -ptysis is the suffix for spitting or coughing.
Jaundice is a sign of which disease? Hepatitis Herpes simplex HIV Meningitis
Hepatitis
List the CDC-recommended immunizations for health care workers
Hepatitis B Influenza (yearly) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) Varicella (chickenpox) vaccine or having had chicken pox Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis (Tdap) every 10 years)
Which of the following diseases is the most virulent? HIV Hepatitis B Herpes simplex Tuberculosis
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B is far more virulent than the other diseases listed here.
HBV
Hepatitus B virus
HCV
Hepatitus C virus
HH
Hiatal Hernia
Hx
History
H&P
History and physical
HPI
History of present illness
At what point in the patient assessment process do you investigate the chief complaint? Primary assessment History taking Secondary assessment Reassessment
History taking You investigate the chief complaint during history taking, as well as taking a SAMPLE history.
When lifting the patient, it is imperative to use which proper body mechanics? Hold your back in an upright position. Keep your feet close together. Bend as far forward at the hips as possible. Extend your arms out as far as possible.
Hold your back in an upright position. You should keep your spine aligned and upright.
Which of the following terms is used to describe a balance of all body systems? Homeostasis Hypothermia Perfusion Diffusion
Homeostasis
HIV
Human immunodeficiency virus
An anaphylactic reaction constitutes what type of medical emergency? Cardiovascular Hematologic Immunologic Toxicologic
Immunologic Anaphylaxis is an immunologic reaction.
Aspiration
In the context of airway, the introduction of vomitus or other foreign material into the lungs.
Medication Error
Inappropriate use of a medication that could lead to patient harm.
ICS
Incident command system/intercostal space
IMS
Incident management system
Hypercarbia
Increased carbon dioxide level in the bloodstream.
Why is tuberculosis not more common than it is? The BCG vaccine is 95% effective. Droplet nuclei that spread the infection have a very short lifespan. Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient. Human beings have natural immunity.
Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient. In TB, infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient.
Bronchiolitis
Inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
Which of the following is contraindicated in a patient who has sustained a head injury? Insertion of an nasal airway Jaw-thrust maneuver Mouth-to-mask ventilation Insertion of an oral airway
Insertion of an nasal airway If a patient has a head injury, the use of a nasal airway is contraindicated.
IPPB
Intermittent positive-pressure breathing
ICP
Intracranial pressure
IO
Intraosseous
IUD
Intrauterine device
IV
Intravenous
The fastest route of administration is ________. Subcutaneous Oral Intravenous Transcutaneous
Intravenous Correct. Medications that need to enter the bloodstream immediately may be injected directly into a vein.
Guarding
Involuntary muscle contractions of the abdominal wall to minimize the pain of abdominal movement; a sign of peritonitis.
Smooth Muscle
Involuntary muscle; it constitutes the bulk of the gastrointestinal tract and is present in nearly every organ to regulate automatic activity.
Ataxic Respirations
Irregular, ineffective respirations that may or may not have an identifiable pattern.
Ch2L: What was the focus of Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's On Death and Dying? It gave specific guidelines on how to deliver hospice care to critically ill patients. It introduced the stages of grief. It became the standard for EMS providers when dealing with violent death. It detailed the physiological aspects of cumulative stress reactions.
It introduced the stages of grief.
Which of the following is true of medical control?
It may be written or "standing orders"
Hinge Joints
Joints that can bend and straighten but cannot rotate; they restrict motion to one plane.
KED
Kendrick Extrication Device
kg
Kilogram
Situational Awareness
Knowledge and understanding of your surroundings and situation and the risk they potentially pose to your safety or the safety of the EMS team.
LMP
Last menstrual period
Prone
Laying face down.
Supine
Laying face up.
OS
Left eye
LLL
Left lower lobe of the lung
LUL
Left upper lobe of the lung
LUQ
Left upper quadrant of the abdomen
LVAD
Left ventricular assist device
Governmental Immunity
Legal doctrine that can protect an EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgement that the plaintiff may recover; generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by municipalities or other governmental entities.
LOC
Level of consciousness/loss of consciousness
L/M, LPM
Liters per minute
Reticular Activating System
Located in the upper brain stem; responsible for maintenance of consciousness, specifically one's level of arousal.
In general, which of the following does a prefix describe? Location and intensity Condition Movement Anatomic position
Location and intensity
Fallopian Tubes
Long, slender tubes that extend from the uterus to the region of the ovary on the same side and through which the ovum passes from the ovary to the uterus.
Topical Medications
Lotions, creams, and ointments that are applied to the surface of the skin and affect on that area; a medication delivery route.
LE
Lower extremity/left eye/lupus erythematosus
LLQ
Lower left quadrant of the abdomen
MRI
Magnetic resonance imaging
MOI
Mechanism of injury
Prescription Medications
Medications that are distributed to patients only by pharmacists according to a physician's order.
Parenteral Medications
Medications that enter the body by a route other than the digestive tract, skin, or mucous membranes.
Enteral Medications
Medications that enter the body through the digestive system.
Over-The-Counter (OTC) Medications
Medications that may be purchased directly by a patient without a prescription.
The CDC recommends immunizations for health care providers. Which of the following immunizations is NOT recommended? Meningitis vaccine Hepatitis B vaccine Influenza vaccine Varicella vaccine
Meningitis vaccine
Aerobic Metabolism
Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of oxygen.
MRSA
Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
mg
Milligram
mL
Milliliter
mm
Millimeter
mm Hg
Millimeters of mercury
Ways for managing stress
Minimize or eliminate stressors Change partners to avoid a negative or hostile personality Change work hours Change the work environment Cut back on overtime Change your attitude about the stressors Talk about your feelings with people you trust Seek professional counseling if needed. Do not obsess over frustrating situations; focus on delivering high quality care. Try to adopt a more realxed, philospical outlook Expand your social support system apart from your cowokers. Sustain friends and interests outside emergency services/ Minimize the physical response to stress by employing various techniques.
MVP
Mitral valve prolapse
MICU
Mobile intensive care unit/medical intensive care unit
Chemoreceptors
Monitor the levels of 02, CO2, and the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid and then provide feedback to the respiratory centers to modify the rate and depth of breathing based on the body's needs at any given time.
Scope of Practice
Most commonly defined by state law; outlines the care the EMT is able to provide for the patient.
Abduction
Motion of a limb away from the midline.
Adduction
Motion of a limb toward the midline.
MVA
Motor vehicle accident
MVC
Motor vehicle crash
What is the preferred method of ventilating a patient? Mouth-to-mask with one-way valve Two-person BVM with reservoir and supplemental oxygen Manually triggered ventilation device One-person BVM with reservoir and supplemental oxygen
Mouth-to-mask with one-way valve A mouth-to-mask with one-way valve is the preferred method of ventilation.
Diffusion
Movement of a gas from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
Retractions
Movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration.
NG
Nasogenic
MAE
Moves all extremities
MAEW
Moves all extremities well
Skeletal Muscle
Muscle that is attached to bones and usually crosses at least one joint; striated, or voluntary, muscle.
Voluntary Muscle
Muscle that is under direct voluntary control of the brain and can be contracted or relaxed at will; skeletal, or striated, muscle.
Sphincters
Muscles arranged in circles that are able to decrease the diameter of tubes. Examples are found within the rectum, bladder, and blood vessels.
How would you identify a patient who does not have any apparent allergies? NA AK NKA amb
NKA
NPA
Naso-pharyngeal airway
A document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS providers
National EMS Scope of Practice Model
N/V/D
Nausea and vomiting and Diarrhea
Pertinent Negatives
Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention.
NICU
Neonatal intensive care unit
If your patient takes nitroglycerin for a heart condition, which of the following routes of administration might he use? Oral Sublingual Injection Inhaled
Nitroglycerin is usually given sublingually.
Sign
Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.
Which age group is most likely to suffer from diabetes? Infants Adolescents Middle adults Older adults
Older adults In older adults, insulin production decreases but a slowdown in the metabolism increases the need for insulin, and diabetes can result.
Inferior Vena Cava
One of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the lower extremities and the pelvic and the abdominal organs to the heart.
Ilium
One of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
Describe the two basic types of medical direction that help the EMT provide care
Online: medical direction is provided through radio or telephone connections between the EMT and the medical control facility. Offline: medical direction is provided through written protocols, training, and standing orders.
When treating a patient in shock from any cause, what is the first thing you should do? Control life-threatening hemorrhage with direct pressure or tourniquet application. Maintain normal body temperature. Provide high-flow oxygen. Open and maintain the airway.
Open and maintain the airway.
Depositions
Oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath.
OBS
Organic brain syndrome
OPA
Oropharyngeal airway
The scoop stretcher is also known as what? Orthopedic stretcher Flexible litter Basket litter Ambulance stretcher
Orthopedic stretcher
oz
Ounce
OP
Outpatient
Which of the following affects vital signs the most in older adults? Patient's immune system Overall health of the patient Patient's cardiovascular system Patient's diet
Overall health of the patient Later in life, vital signs depend on the patient's overall health.
O2
Oxygen
ped or peds
Pediatric
PTA
Peior to admission/plasma thromboplastin antecedent
PID
Pelvic inflammatory disease
po
Per os (by mouth)
PVD
Peripheral vascular disease
Informed Consent
Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained.
Consent
Permission to render care.
PT
Physical therpy/prothrombin time
Medical Control
Physician instruction given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.
PDR
Physicians desk reference
Hazardous materials in vehicles and buildings should be clearly identified using:
Placards
Distributive shock is the result of which of the following? Pump failure Poor vessel function Low fluid volume Rapid deoxygenation
Poor vessel function Distributive shock results from poor vessel function.
Beta-Adrenergic Receptors
Portions of he nervous system that, when stimulated, can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.
Alpha-Adrenergic Receptors
Portions of the nervous system that, when stimulated, can cause constriction of blood vessels.
PEEP
Positive end expiratory pressure
PO
Post operative
PRN
Pro re nata (as needed)
Infection Control
Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel.
You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash involving a motorcycle. Upon your arrival, you find a 17-year-old male patient lying face down on the ground. What is the term for the position in which you found the patient? Recumbent Fowler Prone Supine
Prone
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.
Standard Precautions
Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease.
Ch. 1 Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? Providing cervical spine immobilization Administering vaccines Teaching safety in schools Legislating the use of seat belts
Providing cervical spine immobilization
Focused on examining the health needs of entire populations with the goal of preventing health problems.
Public Health
Open-Ended Questions
Questions for which the patient must provide detail to give an answer.
Delayed Stress Reactions
Reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation.
Acute Stress Reactions
Reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation.
RAD
Reactive airway disease/ right axis deviation
RBC
Red blood cell
Trust and Mistrust
Refers to a stage of development from birth to approximately 18 months of age, during which infants gain trust of their parents or caregivers if their world is planned, organized, and routine.
In Loco Parentis
Refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a parent.
RN
Registered nurse
Ch2L: While treating a patient with a high fever and cough, you accidentally expose yourself to the illness. What should you do? Ignore it. The risk of contamination is small. Report it to the hospital staff so they can isolate the patient. Report it to the infection control officer. Do not report it but perform self-monitoring to be sure you are not infected.
Report it to the infection control officer.
RA
Rheumatoid athritus/right atrium
STEMI
ST-segment evaluation myocardial infarction
SpO2
Saturatio of peripheral oxygen
What is the first concern when entering a scene? ABCs Physical assessment Scene safety Vital signs
Scene safety Scene safety is your first concern. If you're injured, you will not be able to help the patient.
Orthopnea
Severe dyspnea experienced when lying down and relieved by sitting up.
What is generally the best position to place a patient with cardiogenic shock? Supine Fowler Sitting/semi-sitting Left lateral recumbent
Sitting/semi-sitting Generally, because fluid is collecting in the lungs, a patient is often able to breathe better in a sitting or semi-sitting position.
What type of muscle is involved when you hear your stomach growling? Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle Voluntary muscle
Smooth muscle is found within blood vessels and intestines.
Mediastinum
Space within the chest that contains the heart, major blood vessels, vagus nerve, trachea, major bronchi, and esophagus; located between the two lungs.
Describe the basic concept of Standard Precaution
Standard precautions are protective measures based on the assumption that every person is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health-care setting. Therefore, you must apply infection-control procedures to reduce infection in patients and health care personnel.
Good Samaritan Laws
Statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions in giving good faith emergency medical care, unless there is wanton, gross, or willful negligence.
Rigor Mortis
Stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.
Seminal Vesicles
Storage sacs for sperm and seminal fluid, which empty into the urethra at the prostate.
Is the impact of stressors on your physical and mental well-being
Stress
A term that refers to the tactics that have been shown to alleviate or eliminate stress reactions
Stress management
When treating a 6-year-old, you note a brassy crowing sound, especially when she breathes in. What is this? Crackle Snoring Stridor Wheezing
Stridor A brassy crowing sound on inspiration is called stridor.
SC
Subcutaneous
Enzymes
Substances designed to speed up the rate of specific biochemical reactions.
SIDS
Sudden infant death syndrome
Erythrocytes are responsible for carrying oxygen. TrueFalse
T Correct. Erythrocytes (or red blood cells) are responsible for carrying oxygen.
Thoracic Spine
The 12 vertebrae that lie between the cervical vertebrae and the lumbar vertebrae. One pair of ribs is attached to each of these vertebrae.
Vertebrae
The 33 bones that make up the spinal column.
What role has the US department of Transportation played in the development of EMS?
The Department of Transportation has developed a series of guidelines, curricula, funding sources, and assessment tools designed to develop and improve EMS in the United States.
Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration? The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source. The patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration. MDI medications have no side effects. MDI medications do not expire.
The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.
Acidosis
The buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from a primary illness.
Alkalosis
The buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the fluids.
Urethra
The canal that conveys urine from the bladder to outside the body.
Pulse Pressure
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
Thoracic Cage
The chest or rib cage.
Acetabulum
The depression on the lateral pelvis where its three component bones join, in which the femoral head fits snugly.
General Adaptation Syndrome
The body's response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion.
Musculoskeletal System
The bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
Parietal Bones
The bones that lie between the temporal and occipital regions of the cranium.
Plantar
The bottom surface of the foot.
You are assessing a patient who fell off a ladder. He is conscious and alert and complaining of pain to his right side and shortness of breath. This is known as ________. The mechanism of injury The nature of illness The chief complaint A sign
The chief complaint Correct. The patient's reported primary issues constitute the chief complaint.
Perfusion
The circulation of oxygenated blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs.
Germinal Layer
The deepest layer of the epidermis where new skin cells are formed.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
The federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace.
Vital Signs
The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.
Patella
The knee cap; a specialized bone that lies within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle.
Biceps
The large muscle that covers the front of the humerus.
Aorta
The main artery leaving the left side of the heart and carrying freshly oxygenated blood to the body.
Word root
The main part of a term that contains the primary meaning.
Radial Artery
The major artery in the forearm; it is palpable at the wrist on the thumb side.
Pulmonary Artery
The major artery leading from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs; it carries oxygen-poor blood.
Femoral Artery
The major artery of the thigh, a continuation of the external iliac artery. It supplies blood to the lower abdominal wall, external genitalia, and legs. It can be palpated in the groin area.
Carotid Artery
The major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain.
Brachial Artery
The major vessel in the upper extremities that supplies blood to the arm.
Applied Ethics
The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.
emmetr/o
according to measure
Orientation
The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened).
Which of the following statements is true about the physiology of older adults? The filtration function of the kidneys decreases and the size of the kidney increases. The metabolic rate in the older brain does not change. Vital capacity is at its highest in older adults. Older adults require more sleep than younger adults.
The metabolic rate in the older brain does not change. The metabolic rate in the older brain does not change, and oxygen consumption remains constant throughout life
Anaerobic Metabolism
The metabolism that takes place in the absence of oxygen; the main by-product is lactic acid.
Paradoxical Motion
The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion—in during inhalation, out during exhalation—is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.
Ventilation
The movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
Triceps
The muscle in the back of the upper arm.
Involuntary Muscle
The muscle over which a person has no conscious control. It is found in many automatic regulating systems of the body.
Xiphoid Process
The narrow, cartilaginous lower tip of the sternum.
Nasopharynx
The nasal cavity; formed by the union of facial bones and protects the respiratory tract from contaminants.
Sensory nerves
The nerves that carry sensations such as touch, taste, smell, heat, cold, and pain from the body to the central nervous system.
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
The nucleotide involved in energy metabolism; used to store energy.
hem-
blood
hemat-
blood
Discovery
The phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. Discovery includes depositions, interrogatories, and demands for production of records.
Ethics
The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
Medical Director
The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.
Contamination
The presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.
Hydrostatic Pressure
The pressure of water against the walls of its container.
Oncotic Pressure
The pressure of water to move, typically into the capillary; as a result of the presence of plasma proteins.
Diastolic Pressure
The pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxing phase of the heart's cycle (diastole) when the left ventricle is at rest.
Blood Pressure
The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
Blood Pressure (BP)
The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.
Pulse
The pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries.
Oxygenation
The process of delivering oxygen to the blood.
Triage
The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need.
Respiration
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Licensure
The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.
Digestion
The processing of food that nourishes the individual cells of the body.
Lesser Trochanter
The projection on the medial/superior portion of the femur.
Femoral Head
The proximal end of the femur, articulating with the acetabulum to form the hip joint.
Zygomas
The quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, the zygomatic processes of the temporal bone, and the great wings of the sphenoid bone.
Chief Complaint
The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?"
Documentation
The recorded portion of the EMT's patient interaction, either written or electronic. This becomes part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Body Mechanics
The relationship between the body's anatomical structures and the physical forces associated with lifting, moving and carrying; the ways in which the body moves to achieve a specific action.
Diastole
The relaxation, or period of relaxation, of the heart, especially of the ventricles.
Genital System
The reproductive system in men and women.
Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)
The resistance that blood must overcome to be able to move within the blood vessels; related to the amount of dilation or constriction in the blood vessel.
Your patient's initial pulse rate was 89 beats/min and now it is 116 beats/min. What part of the nervous system is responsible for this increase? Sympathetic Parasympathetic Somatic Cerebellum
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, which increases the activity within your body so that your muscles are able to perform more effectively. This includes an increased heart and respiratory rate.
Nervous System
The system that controls virtually all activities of the body, both voluntary and involuntary.
Cover
The tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection.
Partial Pressure
The term used to describe the amount of gas in air or dissolved in fluid, such as blood.
Indications
The therapeutic uses for a specific medication.
Scalp
The thick skin covering the cranium, which usually bears hair.
Femur
The thighbone; the longest and one of the strongest bones in the body.
Concealment
The use of objects to limit a person's visibility of you.
sangui(n)o
blood
Alveolar Minute Volume
The volume of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute minus the dead space; calculated by multiplying tidal volume (minus dead space) and respiratory rate.
Minute Volume
The volume of air moved through the lungs in 1 minute; calculated by multiplying tidal volume and respiratory rate; also referred to as minute ventilation.
Minute Volume
The volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs per minute; calculated by multiplying the tidal volume and respiratory rate; also called the minute ventilation.
Alveolar Ventilation
The volume of air that reaches the alveoli. It is determined by subtracting the amount of dead space air from the tidal volume.
Stroke Volume (SV)
The volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction.
Combining Vowel
The vowel used to combine two word roots or a word root and suffix.
Mucus
The watery secretion of the mucous membranes that lubricates the body openings.
Pulse
The wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries.
Responsiveness
The way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli (sound), tactile stimuli (touch), and painful stimuli.
Transmission
The way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors.
Trachea
The windpipe; the main trunk for air passing to and from the lungs.
What is therapeutic communication? A means by which a patient can efficiently relate levels of pain. Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship. Anything that dampens or obscures the true meaning of a message. The recorded portion of an EMT's patient interaction, either written or electronic, that becomes part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Therapeutic communication involves verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
You arrive at a residence where you find a woman in her early 60s. She is anxious, tachycardic, and her fingertips and lips are blue. As you assess her, she coughs up frothy sputum, and you hear crackles and some wheezing as you check for breath sounds. What condition do these findings indicate? Spontaneous pneumothorax Emphysema Bronchitis Congestive heart failure
These are all signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure.
Chordae Tendineae
Thin bands of fibrous tissue that attach to the valves in the heart and prevent them from inverting.
List three layers of clothing recommended for cold weather
Thin inner layer Thermal middle layer Outer Layer
Visceral Pleura
Thin membrane that covers the lungs.
You are treating a 4-year-old who has been vomiting for 2 days. Which route should you use to deliver anti-nausea medication? Intravenous Subcutaneous Intramuscular Per rectum
This route of delivery is most commonly used with children because of easier administration and more reliable absorption. Many medications that are used for nausea and vomiting come in a rectal suppository form.
Hyperventilation Syndrome (Panic Attack)
This syndrome occurs in the absence of other physical problems. The respirations of a person who is experiencing hyperventilation syndrome may be as high as 40 shallow breaths/min or as low as only 20 very deep breaths/min.
Per Os (PO)
Through the mouth; a medication delivery route; same as oral.
Per Rectum (PR)
Through the rectum; a medication delivery route.
Transcutaneous (Transdermal)
Through the skin; a medication delivery route.
What do you call the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath? Inspiratory reserve volume Residual volume Minute volume Tidal volume
Tidal volume is the amount of air moved into or out of lungs during a single breath.
Platelets
Tiny, disk-shaped elements that are much smaller than the cells; they are essential in the initial formation of a blood clot, the mechanism that stops bleeding.
Lymph Nodes
Tiny, oval-shaped structures located in various places along the lymph vessels that filter lymph.
Subcutaneous Tissue
Tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body.
TBA
To be admitted or announced
What is the major goal of continuous quality improvement?
To ensure the public receives the highest standard of care
What is the purpose for providing Mobile Integrated Healthcare?
To facilitate improved access to health care at an affordable price -MIH
Coagulate
To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding.
What is the purpose of the primary assessment? To evaluate the conditions in which you are operating To identify and begin to treat immediate life threats To perform a systematic physical examination To identify and treat changes in a patient's condition
To identify and begin to treat immediate life threats
Ausculate
To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope.
TIA
Transient Ischemic attack
Inhalation and exhalation times occur in a 1:3 ratio; the active inhalation phase lasts one-third the amount of time of the passive exhalation phase. TrueFalse
True Correct. Inhalation-exhalation times do occur in a 1:3 ratio.
Counting respirations is most easily done by counting each peak chest rise. TrueFalse
True Correct. It is easier to count each peak chest rise when counting respirations.
Falsifying information on the PCR may result in suspension and/or revocation of your certification or license. T/F
True Correct. Falsifying information can lead to suspension and/or revocation of your certification or license.
You should inform online medical control when patients refuse care. T/F
True Correct. You should inform online medical control when patients refuse care.
Ch2L: Ambulances should be parked at least 100 feet away from all crash sites. True/False
True.
Ch2L: In sufficiently high concentrations, cyanide causes signs and symptoms of shock and severe hypoxia, leading to death. True/False
True. Cyanide can cause signs and symptoms of shock and severe hypoxia, leading to death.
What is the first thing you should do if exposed to a patient's blood or body fluids?
Turn over patient care to another EMS provider. Patient is more important. Don't just leave the pt before seeking medical attention or washing the blood spilled on you.
bid/b.i.d./BID
Twice daily
Kidneys
Two retroperitoneal organs that excrete the end products of metabolism as urine and regulate the body's salt and water content.
Sublingual (SL)
Under the tongue; a medication delivery route.
In a ________ carry, one provider must walk backward. Diamond One-handed Two-person Firefighter
Two-person Correct. In a two-person carry, one of the providers must walk backward.
Tylenol is an example of what? Trade name Generic name Chemical name Official name
Tylenol is a trade name—the brand name that a manufacturer gives a medication.
Implied Consent
Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment.
________ radios operate between 300 MHz and 3,000 MHz. VHF UHF Multiplex Trunking
UHF Correct. UHF (Ultra high frequency) radios operate between 300 MHz and 3,000 MHz. VHF (very high frequency) most of these type of radios operate between 30 and 300 MHz
What term describes when only one lung is expanding with inhalation? Bilateral chest expansion Hemilateral chest expansion Lateral chest expansion Unilateral chest expansion
Unilateral chest expansion
Abandonment
Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient's consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.
Assault
Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm.
Battery
Unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent.
UE
Upper extremity
URI
Upper respiratory infection
UA
Urinalysis
UTI
Urinary tract infection
MED Channels
VHF and UHF channels that the Federal Communications Commission has designated exclusively for EMS use.
VRE
Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
VT, V tach
Ventricular tachycardia
Therapeutic Communication
Verbal and nonverbal communication techniques that encourage patients to express their feelings and to achieve a positive relationship.
HIV is caused by what type of organism? Bacteria Fungus Protozoa Virus
Virus HIV is caused by a virus, which multiply inside a host and die when exposed to the environment.
Influenza Type A
Virus that has crossed the animal/human barrier and has infected humans, recently reaching a pandemic level with the H1N1 strain.
H2O
Water
What does asthenia mean? Pain Vomiting Weakness Paralysis
Weakness
WMD
Weapon mass destruction
Ethnocentrism
When a person considers his or her own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
Cultural Imposition
When one person imposes his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior.
Patient-Assisted Medication
When the EMT assists the patient with the administration of his or her own medication.
Res Ipsa Loquitor
When the EMT or an EMS service is held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred.
Advance Directive
Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.
yo; y/o
Year old
-sis
a process, action, or condition (see also -osis)
-graph
a record or the instrument used to create the record
abdom-
abdominal
-rrhagia
abnormal or excessive flow or discharge
super-
above, excessive, or more than normal
supra-
above, upper
trans-
across, through, beyond
post-
after, behind, following
meta-
after, change
anti-
against, opposed to
contra-
against, opposite
What is the root word for pain? alges angi asthen centesis
alges
peri-
around
circum-
around, about
arteri/o
artery
ASA
aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
atri/o
atrium
Index of Suspicion
awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist.
ab-
away from
inter-
between
bil/i
bile
angin/o
blood vessel
vas/o
blood vessel
cyan/o
blue
som(a)
body
stoma
body opening
oste/o
bone
ambi-
both
cerbr-
brain
enchephal/o
brain
cerebr/o
brain, cerebrum
fract
break
cycl/o
circle or cycle
spir/o
coil, to preathe
col/o
colon
corne/o
cornea
crani/o
cranium, skull
necr-
death
diverticul/o
diverticulum, a small blind pouch
de-
down from, away
-ptosis
drooping
xer/o
dry
duoden/o
duodenum
ot/o
ear
oto-
ear
pto
fall
pseud/o
false
-blast
immature cell
stat
immediately
-itis
inflamation
List roles and/or responsibilities of being an EMT
keep vehicles and equipment ready for an emergency ensure the safety of yourself, your partner, the patient, and bystanders. Emergency vehicle operation Be an on-scene leader. Perform an evaluation of the scene. Call for additional resources as needed. Gain patient access. Perform a patient assessment. Give emergency medical care to the patient. Only move patients when absolutely necessary to preserve life Give emotional support to the patient, the patient's family, and other responders. Maintain continuity of care by working with other medical professionals Resolve emergency incidents Uphold medical and legal standards Ensure and protect patient privacy Provide administrative support Constantly continue your professional development Cultivate and sustain community relations Give back to the profession.
maga-
large
duct/o
lead, move
nulli-
none
rhin/o
nose
uni-
one
mono-
one, single
foramen
opening
OMD
organic mental disorders
heter/o
other, different
ect(o)-
out, outside
ex(o)-
outside, away from, removal
extra-
outside, in addition
hyper-
over, excessive, high
alges/o
pain
idi/o
person, self
-al
pertaining to
-ic
pertaining to
-osis
pertaining to a disease process (see also -sis)
-cele
pertaining to a tumor or swelling
-phobia
pertaining to an irrational fear
-pnea
pertaining to breathing
-phagia
pertaining to eating or swallowing
-trophic
pertaining to nutrition
-algia
pertaining to pain
-centesis
pertaining to puncturing an organ or body cavity, often to drain excess fluid or obtain a sample for analysis
PEARLA
pupils equal and reactive to light and accommodation
PERRL
pupils equal, round, and reactive to light
cor/o
puplil
pur, py
pus
tachy-
rapid, fast
-gram
record
ptyal/o
saliva
ipsi-
same
-ology
science or study of
aut/o
self
auto-
self
esthesi
sensation or perception
septi-
seven
What are some common hazards associated with a fire scene"
smoke oxygen deficiency High ambient temperatures toxic gases building collapse equipment explosions
ortho-
straight or normal
SQ
subcutaneous
glyc/o
sugar, sweet
-rraphy
suture of; repair of
caud/o
tail
percuss
to examine by striking
palpate
to examine by touch
audi/o
to hear
cent/e
to puncture (a body cavity)
crin/o
to secrete
Certification exam
used to ensure all health care providers have at least the same basic level of knowledge and skill
colp/o
vagina
phleb-
vein
angi/o
vessel
angio-
vessel
vas(o)-
vessel
emesis
vomit
-emesis
vomiting
Mandible
The bone of the lower jaw.
Central Nervous System (CNS)
The brain and spinal cord.
Agonist
A medication that causes stimulation of receptors.
Parietal Pleura
Thin membrane that lines the chest cavity.
Type of Shock: Cardiogenic Examples of Potential Causes:
- Inadequate heart function - Disease of muscle tissue - Impaired electrical system - Disease or injury
Type of Shock: Hypovolemic Examples of Potential Causes:
- Loss of blood or fluid
AEMT course requires how many hours?
200 - 400 hours
Hypoxic Drive
A "backup system" to control respiration; senses drops in the oxygen level in the blood.
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
A bacterium that can cause infections in different parts of the body and is often resistant to commonly used antibiotics; it is transmitted by different routes, including the respiratory route, and can be found on the skin, in surgical wounds, in the bloodstream, lungs, and urinary tract.
Ligament
A band of fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones. It supports and strengthens a joint.
Radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that are located in a fixed place is known as what? Cell phone Interoperable communications system Mobile data terminal (MDT) Base station
A base station is radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that are located in a fixed place.
Embolus
A blood clot or other substance in the circulatory system that travels to a blood vessel where it causes a blockage.
Pulmonary Embolism
A blood clot that breaks off from a large vein and travels to the blood vessels of the lung, causing obstruction of blood flow.
Cyanosis
A blue skin discoloration that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood.
Bilateral
A body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline.
Greater trochanter
A bony prominence on the proximal lateral side of the thigh, just below the hip joint.
Bariatrics
A branch of medicine concerned with the management (prevention or control) of obesity and allied diseases.
SAMPLE History
A brief history of a patient's condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.
Pulmonary Edema
A buildup of fluid in the lungs, usually as a result of congestive heart failure.
Public Safety Access Point
A call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.
Diamond Carry
A carrying technique in which one provider is located at the head end of the stretcher or backboard, one at the foot end, and one at each side of the patient; each of the two providers at the sides uses one hand to support the stretcher or backboard so that all are able to face forward as they walk.
Subcutaneous Emphysema
A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues.
Preschooler
A child age 3 to 6 years.
Tuberculosis
A chronic bacterial disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that usually affects the lungs but can also affect other organs such as the brain and kidneys; it is spread by cough and can lie dormant in a person's lungs for decades and then reactive.
Morality
A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.
Esophagus
A collapsible tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach; muscle contraction propel food and liquids through it to the stomach.
Pleural Effusion
A collection of fluid between the lung and chest wall that may compress the lung.
Pericardial Effusion
A collection of fluid between the pericardial sac and the myocardium.
Nonrebreathing Mask
A combination mask and reservoir bag system that is the preferred way to give oxygen in the prehospital setting; delivers up to 90% inspired oxygen and prevents inhaling the exhaled gases (carbon dioxide).
Crackles
A crackling, rattling breath sound that signals fluid in the air spaces of the lungs.
Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
A delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident, and may relate to an incident that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm.
Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
A device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electrical shock to the patient.
Mucosal Atomizer Device (MAD)
A device that is used to change a liquid medication into a spray and push it into a nostril.
Epiglottitis
A disease in which the epiglottis becomes inflamed and enlarged and may cause an upper airway obstruction.
Emphysema
A disease of the lungs in which there is extreme dilation and eventual destruction of the pulmonary alveoli with poor exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide; it is one form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Tuberculosis (TB)
A disease that can lay dormant in a person's lungs for decades, then reactivate; many strains are resistant to antibiotics. TB is spread by cough.
Atherosclerosis
A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow.
National EMS Scope of Practice Model
A document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS providers.
Syncope
A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness.
Adam's apple
A firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx. It is more prominent in men than in women. Also called the thyroid cartilage.
Thyroid Cartilage
A firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the Adam's apple.
Cricoid Cartilage
A firm ridge of cartilage that forms the lower part of the larynx.
Manually Triggered Ventilation Device
A fixed flow rate ventilation device that delivers a breath every time its button is pushed; also referred to as a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device.
Pancreas
A flat, solid organ that lies below the liver and the stomach;it is a major source of digestive enzymes and produces the hormone insulin.
Stridor
A harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.
Stridor
A harsh, high-pitched, barking inspiratory sound often heard in acute laryngeal (upper-airway) obstruction.
Community Paramedicine
A health care model in which experienced paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or conditions, and patient advocacy.
Stridor
A high-pitched noise heard primarily on inspiration.
Wheezing
A high-pitched whistling breath sound, characteristically heard on expiration in patients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Wheezing
A high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis.
Suction Catheter
A hollow, cylindrical device used to remove fluid from the patient's airway.
Heart
A hollow, muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.
Epinephrine
A hormone produced by the adrenal medulla that has a vital role in the function of the sympathetic nervous system.
Ball-and-Socket Joint
A joint that allows internal and external rotation, as well as bending.
Foramen Magnum
A large opening at the base of the skull through which the brain connects to the spinal cord.
Liver
A large, solid organ that lies in the right upper quadrant immediately below the diapragm; it produces bile, stores glucose for the immediate use by the body, and produces many substances that help regulate immune responses.
Contributory Negligence
A legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
Tension Pneumothorax
A life-threatening collection of air within the pleural space; the volume and pressure have both collapsed the involved lung and caused a shift of the mediastinal structures to the opposite side.
Power Lift
A lifting technique in which the EMT's back is held upright, with legs bent, and the patient is lifted when the EMT straightens the legs to raise the upper body and arms.
Direct Ground Lift
A lifting technique that is used for patients who are found lying supine on the ground with no suspected spinal injury.
Extremity Lift
A lifting technique that is used for patients who are supine or in a sitting position with no suspected extremity or spinal injuries.
Stair Chair
A lightweight folding device that is used to carry a conscious, seated patient up or down stairs.
Solution
A liquid mixture that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand.
Surfactant
A liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs, decreases alveolar surface tension, and keeps the alveoli expanded; a low level in a premature infant contributes to respiratory distress syndrome.
Cellular Telephone
A low-power portable radio that communicates through an interconnected series of repeater stations called "cells".
Testicle
A male genital gland that contains specialized cells that produce hormones and sperm.
Cardiac Output (CO)
A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.
V/Q Ratio
A measurement that examines how much gas is being moved effectively and how much blood is flowing around the alveoli where gas exchange (perfusion) occurs.
Antagonist
A medication that binds to a receptor and blocks other medications.
Capnography
A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism. Effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time.
Gag Reflex
A normal reflex mechanism that causes retching; activated by touching the soft palate or the back of the throat.
Certification
A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.
Telemetry
A process in which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals; these signals can then be transmitted by radio or telephone to a receiver with a decoder at the hospital.
Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)
A process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.
Barrier Device
A protective item, such as a pocket mask with a valve, that limits exposure to a patient's body fluids.
Scanner
A radio receiver that searches or "scans" across several frequencies until the message is completed; the process is then repeated.
Two- to Three-Word Dyspnea
A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.
Cardiogenic Shock
A state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other condition.
Secondary Assessment
A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic full-body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint.
Reassessment
A step within the patient assessment process performed at regular intervals during the assessment process to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition. A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed every 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should be reassessed every 15 minutes.
Primary Assessment
A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats.
Scene Size-Up
A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care.
History Taking
A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms.
Plasma
A sticky, yellow fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients and transports cellular waste material to the organs of excretion.
Flexible Stretcher
A stretcher that is a rigid carrying device when secured around a patient but can be folded or rolled when not in use.
Scoop Stretcher
A stretcher that is designed to be split into two or four sections that can be fitted around a patient who is lying on the ground or other relatively flat surface; also called an orthopedic stretcher.
Portable Stretcher
A stretcher with a strong, rectangular, tubular metal frame and rigid fabric stretched across it.
Parasympathetic Nervous System
A subdivision of the autonomic nervous system, involved in control of involuntary functions, mediated largely by the vagus nerve through the chemical acetylcholine.
Medication
A substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain.
Pin-indexing System
A system established for portable cylinders to ensure that a regulator is not connected to a cylinder containing the wrong type of gas.
Incident Command System
A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system.
Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)
A system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.
Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD)
A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provides callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.
Power Grip
A technique in which the stretcher or backboard is gripped by inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended, fully supporting the underside of the handle on the curved palm with the fingers and thumb.
Rapid Extrication Technique
A technique to move a patient from a sitting position inside a vehicle to supine on a backboard in less than 1 minute when conditions do not allow for standard immobilization.
Medicolegal
A term relating to medical jurisprudence (law) or forensic medicine.
Poor Air Exchange
A term used to describe the describe the degree of distress in a patient with a mild airway obstruction. With poor air exchange, the patient often has a weak, ineffective cough, increased difficulty breathing, or possible cyanosis and may produce a high-pitched noise during inhalation (stridor).
Negligence Per Se
A theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute.
Cricothyroid Membrane
A thin sheet of fascia that connects the thyroid and cricoid cartilages that make up the larynx.
Epiglottis
A thin, leaf-shaped valve that allows air to pass into the trachea but prevents food and liquid from entering.
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin D. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-al" and "-ic" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-ology" and "-oma" D. "-ic" and "-ology"
A. "-al" and "-ic"
Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "When was the last time you ate a meal?" D. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?"
A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?"
Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." B. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." C. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." D. "I was in the hospital a week ago."
A. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."
A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between: Select one: A. 90 and 140 mm Hg. B. 80 and 120 mm Hg. C. 60 and 120 mm Hg. D. 70 and 140 mm Hg.
A. 90 and 140 mm Hg.
Ch 1: Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. B. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. C. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. D. By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.
A. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.
You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? Select one: A. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route. B. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. C. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed. D. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance.
A. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.
Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? Select one: A. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production B. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels C. Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels D. Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
A. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Developing a social network outside of EMS B. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind C. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption
A. Developing a social network outside of EMS
Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Voter registration card C. Social Security card D. Insurance card
A. Driver's license
Ch 1: The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. EMS research. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. local protocols.
A. EMS research.
When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. En route to the hospital B. Immediately after the injuries are discovered C. Prior to transport D. During the primary assessment
A. En route to the hospital
Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? Select one: A. Endocrine B. Nervous C. Reproductive D. Skeletal
A. Endocrine
Ch 1: The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. HIPAA B. CQI C. APGAR D. DCAP
A. HIPAA
You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. Which of the following is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? Select one: A. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. B. Call the receiving hospital with your cell phone while providing patient care. C. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise the staff of the situation. D. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise the staff of your arrival.
A. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.
___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Oncotic C. Diffusion D. Osmotic
A. Hydrostatic
Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? Select one: A. Ibuprofen B. Albuterol C. Oral glucose D. Aspirin
A. Ibuprofen
Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Increased weight B. Medical conditions C. Overall health D. Medications
A. Increased weight
Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? Select one: A. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. B. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells. Incorrect C. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. D. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph.
A. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body.
Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? Select one: A. Jugular venous distention B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium C. Unequal breath sounds D. Use of the accessory muscles
A. Jugular venous distention Chapter 14, Patient Assessment, Page 565
Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Lung sounds B. Distal pulse, motor, sensation C. Orthostatic vital signs D. Blood glucose levels
A. Lung sounds
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Metabolic coordination B. Temperature regulation C. Pressure and pain perception D. Sensory reception
A. Metabolic coordination
A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Obstructive B. Cardiogenic C. Neurogenic D. Hypovolemic
A. Obstructive
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. C. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. D. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
A. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. Correct
Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? Select one: A. Pediatric patients B. Females C. Patients with asthma D. Middle adults
A. Pediatric patients
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions C. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
A. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? Select one: A. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag. B. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. C. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. D. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.
A. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Acute pulmonary embolism C. Exacerbation of his COPD D. Rupture of the diaphragm
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax Chapter 15, page 599, Causes of Dyspnea
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? Select one: A. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. B. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. C. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. D. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.
A. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
Ch 1: Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. B. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.
A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. Correct
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. B. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. C. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. D. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.
A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Select one: A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. B. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. C. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. D. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.
A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. C. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. D. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field.
A. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.
What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus B. To connect the ovaries C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To produce progesterone and estrogen
A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus B. To produce progesterone and estrogen C. To connect the ovaries D. To supply blood to the uterine lining
A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. cardiogenic shock. B. septic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. neurogenic shock.
A. cardiogenic shock.
Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. B. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function. C. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. D. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.
A. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. Correct.
To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one: A. a privacy officer to answer questions B. online access to patient records C. an anonymous reporting system D. public forums with their medical director
A. a privacy officer to answer questions
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. B. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.
A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. neurogenic shock C. psychogenic shock D. septic shock
A. anaphylactic shock
An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. B. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.
A. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.
When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard. B. apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. C. grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard.
A. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. C. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.
Both areas of the pons are used to: Select one: A. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. B. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person. C. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. D. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing.
A. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.
To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Select one: A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. B. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. C. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. D. push the patient from an overhead position if possible.
A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.
The root "melan/o" means: Select one: A. black. B. white. C. gray. D. red.
A. black.
His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. bronchiolitis. B. epiglottitis. C. croup. D. pertussis.
A. bronchiolitis. Chapter 15, pages 591-592, Causes of Dyspnea
EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: Select one: A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. B. perform and document more accurate patient assessments. C. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses. D. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition.
A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. cough. B. vomit. C. are bleeding. D. have a fever.
A. cough.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. determine if she was injured when she fainted. B. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. C. provide emotional support regarding her sister. D. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
A. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. diaphragm B. costal arch C. costovertebral angle D. mediastinum
A. diaphragm
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Select one: A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.
A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. foramen ovale. C. spinous foramen. D. vertebral foramen.
A. foramen magnum.
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. foramen ovale. C. vertebral foramen. D. spinous foramen.
A. foramen magnum.
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. has a greater ability to produce disease. B. is less resistant to treatment. C. is a more contagious type of disease. D. leads to chronic infection after exposure.
A. has a greater ability to produce disease.
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. heat. B. lactic acid. C. oxygen. D. nitrogen.
A. heat.
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemostasis. B. hematemesis. C. hemiplegia. D. hemolysis.
A. hemostasis.
The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: Select one: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypotension. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypertension.
A. hypoglycemia.
The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. injury to you or your patient. B. confusion among team members. C. unnecessarily wasting time. D. causing patient anxiety or fear.
A. injury to you or your patient.
A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Select one: A. is experiencing difficulty breathing. B. has a decreased level of consciousness. C. has abdominal muscle spasms. D. is experiencing severe back pain.
A. is experiencing difficulty breathing.
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. C. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later.
A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.
You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. peripheral vasoconstriction B. hypothermia C. an increased heart rate D. peripheral vasodilation
A. peripheral vasoconstriction Chapter 12, page 490, Pathophysiology
Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pink, warm, and dry. B. pale, cool, and moist. C. flushed, cool, and dry. D. pink, warm, and moist.
A. pink, warm, and dry.
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. whole blood. C. red blood cells. D. platelets.
A. plasma.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: Select one: A. put on high-visibility safety vests. B. report to the incident commander. C. assist with vehicle stabilization. D. quickly begin the triage process.
A. put on high-visibility safety vests.
A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. B. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. C. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. D. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
A. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. B. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. C. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. D. touches another person without his or her consent.
A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: Select one: A. respiratory distress. B. abdominal pain. C. high blood pressure. D. headache.
A. respiratory distress.
Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. reticular activating system. B. cerebellum. C. pons and medulla. D. limbic system.
A. reticular activating system.
The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: Select one: A. scapula. B. acromion. C. glenoid. D. clavicle.
A. scapula.
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. seal the mouth and nose. B. thrust the jaw forward. C. thoroughly suction the stoma. D. ventilate with less pressure.
A. seal the mouth and nose. Correct
Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. shock B. perfusion C. hypoxia D. hypotension
A. shock
After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. side effect. B. unpredictable effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. untoward effect.
A. side effect.
The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: A. systolic pressure. B. blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. diastolic pressure.
A. systolic pressure.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. take standard precautions. B. quickly access the patient. C. notify law enforcement. D. contact medical control.
A. take standard precautions.
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. D. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
A. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is with the patient's liver. B. the organ involved is enlarged. C. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. D. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease.
A. the problem is with the patient's liver.
A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. D. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
A. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.
At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. B. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. C. make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. D. place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once.
A. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Select one: A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. B. flexing your body at the knees. C. the use of more than two EMTs. D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.
A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: A. ventilation. B. respiration. C. oxygenation. D. diffusion.
A. ventilation. Correct
oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for products, services, processes, systems, and personnel in the United States.
ANSI
BM
Bowel movement
Competent
Able to make rational decisions about personal well-being.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by HIV, which damages the cells in the body's immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers.
Unintended Effects
Actions that are undesirable but pose little risk to the patient.
Shock
An abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to to the cells of the body, also known as hypoperfusion.
At what stage do vital signs begin to level off within adult ranges? Neonate Preschool School-age Adolescent
Adolescent In adolescents, vital signs level off: systolic blood pressure ranges from 90-110 mm Hg, pulse rate ranges from 60-100 beats/min, and respirations range from 12-20 breaths/min.
Which life stage is apt to be characterized by antisocial behavior and peer pressure? Toddler Adolescent Early adult Middle adult
Adolescent Rebellious and antisocial behavior is common in adolescence since this is when peer pressure peaks and the child is establishing his/her own identity.
Activated charcoal works via ________. Absorption Adsorption Diffusion Chemical binding
Adsorption Correct. Activated charcoal is an oral medication that binds and adsorbs ingested toxins in the gastrointestinal tract for treatment of some poisonings and medication overdoses.
ARDS
Adult respiratory distress syndrome
ACLS
Advanced cardiac life support
Advanced Life Support (ALS)
Advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.
p (with horizontal line above it)
After
pc
After meals
AMA
Against medical advice
When conducting a primary assessment, which of the following should you assess? Level of consciousness (LOC) Head-to-toe in-depth physical exam Vital signs Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) Level of consciousness (LOC) Correct. In a primary assessment, you should be looking at LOC and the ABCs.
Which of the following medications can be used for the treatment of an acute asthma attack? Cromolyn Albuterol Fluticasone Salmeterol
Albuterol is used for an acute asthma attack.
Coronal Plane
An imaginary plane where the body is divided into front and back parts.
Oral
By mouth; a medication delivery route.
AVPU
Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
amb
Ambulatory
Intrapulmonary Shunting
Bypassing of oxygen-poor blood past nonfunctional alveoli to the left side of the heart.
Bronchitis
An acute or chronic inflammation of the lung that may damage lung tissue; usually associated with cough and production of sputum and, depending on its cause, sometimes fever.
Asthma
An acute spasm of the smaller air passages, called bronchioles, associated with excessive mucus production and with swelling of the mucous lining of the respiratory passages.
What does the mnemonic PASTE stand for?
An additional assessment for a complaint of SOB or dyspnea uses the mnemonic PASTE: P Progression Similar to the O in OPQRST, you want to know if the problem started suddenly or has worsened over time. A Associated chest pain Dyspnea can be a significant symptom of a cardiac problem. S Sputum Has the patient been coughing up sputum? Mucus-like sputum could indicate a respiratory infection; pink, frothy sputum is indicative of fluid in the lungs; and a problem like a pulmonary embolus may not result in any sputum at all. T Talking tiredness This is an indicator of how much distress the patient is in. Ask the patient to repeat a sentence and see how many words he or she can speak without needing to take a breath. The assessment results would be reported as the patient "speaks in full sentences" or, perhaps, "speaks in two-to-three-word sentences." E Exercise tolerance Ask the patient a question about what he or she was able to do before this problem started, like walk across the room, and then ask if the patient could do it now. If the answer is "no," it is another indicator that your patient is in distress. Exercise tolerance will decrease as the breathing problem and hypoxia increase.
Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years. Patients will be feverish and exhibit a "whoop" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet infection.
Ch2L: What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome? An alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery/exhaustion Denial, bargaining, and acceptance Acute stress, delayed stress, and cumulative stress Discovering, defusing, and debriefing
An alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery/exhaustion
Hay Fever
An allergic response usually to outdoor airborne allergens such as pollen or sometimes indoor allergens such as dust mites or pet dander; also called allergic rhinitis.
Pulse Oximetry
An assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds.
Ch2L: What program, often available for EMS personnel, involves contracted agencies that provide a wide array of mental health, substance abuse, crisis management, and counseling services? A critical incident stress management program An injury and illness prevention program A Voluntary Protection Program An employee assistance program
An employee assistance program (EAP) is often available for EMS personnel and involves contracted agencies that provide a wide array of mental health, substance abuse, crisis management, and counseling services.
Spinal Cord
An extension of the brain, composed of virtually all the nerves carrying messages between the brain and the rest of the body. It lies inside of and is protected by the spinal canal.
Anaphylaxis (Anaphylactic Shock)
An extreme, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.
Anaphylaxis
An extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.
Sagittal (Lateral) Plane
An imaginary line where the body is divided into left and right parts.
Transverse (Axial) Plane
An imaginary line where the body is divided into top and bottom parts.
Altered Mental Status
Any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient's normal baseline mental status.
Distracting Injury
Any injury that prevents the patient from noticing other injuries he or she may have, even severe injuries; for example, a painful femur or tibia fracture that prevents the patient from noticing back pain associated with a spinal fracture.
Dead Space
Any portion of the airway that does not contain air and cannot participate in gas exchange, such as the trachea and bronchi.
Base Station
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed place.
AIDS
Aquired immuno-deficiency syndrome
Fontanelles
Areas where the neonate's or infant's skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age.
ASHD
Arteriosclerotic or atherosclerotic heart disease
ad lib
As desired
Which of the following statements is true regarding asthma? Asthma involves accumulation of air in the pleural space. Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the pleural space. Asthma involves excessive mucus production. Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the alveoli.
Asthma is an acute spasm of the smaller air passages, called bronchioles, associated with excessive mucus production and with swelling of the mucous lining of the respiratory passages.
What is atelectasis? Collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs The buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from a primary illness The buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the body fluids An extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure
Atelectasis is the collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs.
AF, A-fib
Atrial fibrillation
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. smoke or dust. B. animals or insects. C. inanimate objects. D. direct contact.
B. animals or insects.
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 400 mm Hg. B. 300 mm Hg. C. 100 mm Hg. D. 200 mm Hg.
B. 300 mm Hg. Correct
The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: Select one: A. 90 beats/min. B. 70 beats/min. C. 60 beats/min. D. 80 beats/min.
B. 70 beats/min.
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 6 and 8 months. B. 9 and 18 months. C. 3 and 4 months. D. 7 and 14 months.
B. 9 and 18 months.
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: A. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing C. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume D. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing Correct
Which of the following is NOT considered a common hazard in a fire? Smoke Building collapse Toxic gases Bystanders
Bystanders
While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Widespread atelectasis B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Early pulmonary edema D. Acute asthma attack
B. Aspiration pneumonia
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Gunshot wounds B. Cardiac arrest C. Animal bites D. Spousal abuse
B. Cardiac arrest
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: Select one: A. mouth-to-mask device. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. nasal cannula. D. bag-valve mask.
B. nonrebreathing mask.
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen B. Decompression of the injured side of the chest C. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask D. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
B. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
Ch 1: Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMR B. EMT C. AEMT D. Paramedic
B. EMT
Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? Select one: A. Skeletal B. Endocrine C. Reproductive D. Nervous
B. Endocrine
Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Formal B. Expressed C. Implied D. Informed
B. Expressed
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C. apply pressure to the brachial artery. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: A. Audible breathing B. Forceful coughing C. Unresponsiveness D. Inspiratory stridor
B. Forceful coughing
A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? A. Application of a cervical collar B. Gentle palpation of the pelvis C. Treating her for possible shock D. Rapid head-to-toe exam
B. Gentle palpation of the pelvis
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. H1N1 B. MRSA C. Avian flu D. Whooping cough
B. MRSA
Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. D. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.
B. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. Chapter 14, Common or Serious Communicable Diseases, Page 575
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks
B. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. throw out B. decontaminate C. properly store D. incinerate
B. decontaminate
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Select one: A. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. C. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. D. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
B. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. Correct
Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. C. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. D. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects.
B. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. B. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.
B. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.
The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. costovertebral angle B. diaphragm C. costal arch D. mediastinum
B. diaphragm
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? Select one: A. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle B. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
B. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. inspiratory reserve is increased. B. minute volume is decreased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.
B. minute volume is decreased.
Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. B. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. C. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. D. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.
B. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.
Ch 1: What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call D. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director
B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates
Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. B. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. C. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. D. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
B. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a brief history of the patient's current problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. C. your perception of the severity of the problem. D. a brief summary of the care you provided.
B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.
Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. C. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
B. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. mucus in the larger airways B. air passing through fluid C. severe bronchoconstriction D. narrowing of the upper airways
B. air passing through fluid
During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. D. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. witnessed by a notary. B. an informed refusal. C. reported to the police. D. authorized by a judge.
B. an informed refusal.
During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally.
B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: Select one: A. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. B. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. C. before you load the patient into the ambulance. D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
B. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. C. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. D. transport the patient without providing any treatment.
B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. B. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. C. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. D. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.
B. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. Correct
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. C. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. D. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.
B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: Select one: A. glucose and lactic acid. B. carbon dioxide and water. C. uric acid and nitrogen. D. ATP and glucose.
B. carbon dioxide and water.
Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. B. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. C. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. D. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious.
B. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information.
Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. B. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. C. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. D. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question.
B. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Select one: A. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. B. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading. C. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. D. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four.
B. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.
Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.
B. decomposition of the body's tissues.
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel. B. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. C. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. D. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel.
B. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. an antihistamine. B. epinephrine. C. a beta-antagonist. D. albuterol.
B. epinephrine.
Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. D. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. B. fluid accumulation outside the lung. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
B. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. has an increased heart rate and retractions. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. is restless and is working hard to breathe. D. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.
B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. C. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. D. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR.
B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.
In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. B. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. C. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. D. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.
B. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: Select one: A. back of the neck. B. lips or oral mucosa. C. forehead and face. D. dorsum of the hand.
B. lips or oral mucosa.
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. obtain a manual blood pressure. C. conclude that she has hypertension. D. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes.
B. obtain a manual blood pressure. Chapter 14, Patient Assessment, Page 566
You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: Select one: A. in a position of comfort. B. on her left side. C. supine with her legs elevated. D. in the Fowler position.
B. on her left side.
Ch 1: You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. abuse of authority B. patient advocacy C. scope of practice D. undue hardship
B. patient advocacy
The EMT's first priority is __________. Select one: A. empathy for all patients B. personal safety C. rapid response D. treatment and transport
B. personal safety
Ch 1: National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. reduce expenses at the local and state levels B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States C. facilitate a national EMS labor group D. unify EMS providers under a single medical director
B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States
In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: Select one: A. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. B. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. C. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. D. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.
B. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. B. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. C. repeat your secondary assessment. D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
B. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: Select one: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.
B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Correct
After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.
B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. stroke patients B. respiratory patients C. seizure patients D. cardiac patients
B. respiratory patients
The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: Select one: A. left-side cerebrum. B. right-side cerebrum. C. left parietal lobe. D. right temporal lobe.
B. right-side cerebrum.
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. coccyx B. sacrum C. ischium D. thorax
B. sacrum
You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. D. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.
B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Select one: A. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. B. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. C. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.
B. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.
You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: Select one: A. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. D. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out.
B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.
To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: A. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. C. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. D. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient.
B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
You are providing care to a 61-year-old female complaining of chest pain that is cardiac in origin. Your service utilizes a multiplex communication system. You wish to transmit the patient's electrocardiogram to the hospital. In order to accomplish this, you must: Select one: A. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time. B. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . C. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information. D. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance.
B. use the multiplex system to transmit the information .
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. ventricular relaxation. B. ventricular contraction. C. ventricular filling. D. atrial contraction.
B. ventricular contraction.
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. undergo an annual physical examination. B. wash your hands in between patient contacts. C. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. D. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
B. wash your hands in between patient contacts.
BKA
Below the knee amputaion
You are dispatched to a house where an 80-year-old woman has fallen in an upstairs bathroom and hit her head on the sink. When you arrive she is unconscious. Which is the best equipment to use to move her to the ambulance? Stair chair Backboard Stretcher Stokes litter
Backboard: Because the patient is unconscious and must be moved down a flight of stairs, a backboard is the best equipment to move her.
The stage of the grieving process where an attempt is made to secure a prize for good behavior or promise to change on'es lifestyle is known as
Bargaining
a (with horizontal line above it)
Before
ac
Before meals
bx
Biopsy
White Blood Cells
Blood cells that have a role in the body's immune defense mechanisms against infection; also called leukocytes.
Dependent Lividity
Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definite sign of death.
Spontaneous Respirations
Breathing that occurs without assistance.
Labored Breathing
Breathing that requires greater than normal effort; may be slower or faster than normal and usually requires the use of accessory muscles.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? Select one: A. Poisoning B. Drug overdose C. Acute anxiety D. Inadequate perfusion
C. Acute anxiety
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma B. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet C. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed D. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree
C. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed Correct
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. B. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. C. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. D. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.
C. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? Select one: A. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. B. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. D. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? Select one: A. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult B. Consistently increasing heart rate C. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag D. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
C. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag Correct
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. Correct
Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Select one: A. Respiratory rate B. Capillary refill time C. Blood glucose level D. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose level
A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Severe pulmonary edema B. Increased body temperature C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. His extremities are cold
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning Correct
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Simple pneumothorax B. Spinal cord injury C. Cardiac tamponade D. Liver laceration
C. Cardiac tamponade
A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Cardiogenic B. Neurogenic C. Obstructive D. Hypovolemic
C. Obstructive
As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Check for a pulse. B. Administer oxygen. C. Control the bleeding. D. Open the airway.
C. Control the bleeding.
Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Direct carry B. Extremity carry C. Draw sheet method D. Log roll
C. Draw sheet method
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Select one: A. Inspiratory stridor B. Unresponsiveness C. Forceful coughing D. Audible breathing
C. Forceful coughing
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. B. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.
C. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Vector-borne transmission B. Airborne transmission C. Indirect contact D. Direct contact
C. Indirect contact
What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intravenous B. Sublingual C. Intramuscular D. Intraosseous
C. Intramuscular
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. Correct
Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? Select one: A. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph. B. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. C. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. D. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells.
C. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. Chapter 6, page 218, The Lymphatic System: Anatomy and Physiology
Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Stomach
C. Kidney
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Scoop stretcher B. Portable stretcher C. Long backboard D. Wheeled stretcher
C. Long backboard
Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. B. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. C. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. D. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.
C. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. Chapter 14, Common or Serious Communicable Diseases, Page 575
Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. A patient with an altered level of consciousness B. An alert adult patient C. Medical direction approval D. A patient with stable vital signs
C. Medical direction approval
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Pressure and pain perception B. Sensory reception C. Metabolic coordination D. Temperature regulation
C. Metabolic coordination
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? Select one: A. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide. B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. Correct
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Controlling insurance costs C. Protecting patient privacy D. Ensuring access to insurance
C. Protecting patient privacy
Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? Select one: A. Unequal breath sounds B. Unequal chest expansion C. Seesaw respirations D. Irregular breathing pattern
C. Seesaw respirations
Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Extreme agitation C. Slow respirations D. Hypertension
C. Slow respirations
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Liver B. Stomach C. Spleen D. Cecum
C. Spleen
How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? Select one: A. Inhaled B. Orally C. Sublingually D. Injected
C. Sublingually Correct
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. D. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.
C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Select one: A. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected. B. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak. C. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.
C. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.
Sacrum
One of three bones (sacrum and two pelvic bones) that make up the pelvic ring; consists of five fused sacral vertebrae.
Ch 1: Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. B. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.
C. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? Select one: A. The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them. B. They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income. C. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. D. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work.
C. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.
When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior B. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened C. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member
C. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
Pubis
One of three bones that fuse to form the pelvic ring.
Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. B. relaxing the respiratory muscles. C. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. D. increasing airway resistance during breathing.
C. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. Chapter 6, The Respiratory System: Anatomy, Page 192
During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: Select one: A. swelling of the upper airway. B. fluid in the alveoli. C. a lower airway obstruction. D. secretions in the airway.
C. a lower airway obstruction.
Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. B. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. C. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. D. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.
C. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: Select one: A. obtaining baseline vital signs. B. gathering medical history data. C. airway, breathing, and circulation. D. providing immediate transport.
C. airway, breathing, and circulation.
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. area hospitals have been notified. B. a physician arrives at the scene. C. all the patients have been triaged. D. the number of patients is known.
C. all the patients have been triaged.
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. B. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. C. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. D. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.
C. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. immediately evaluate his airway. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.
C. apply direct pressure to the wound.
You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. immediately transport the child to the hospital. B. begin chest compressions and request backup. C. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds. D. open the airway and give two rescue breaths.
C. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.
A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. B. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. C. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.
C. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: Select one: A. allergic reactions. B. hypertension. C. asthma. D. heart disease.
C. asthma.
An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. authorization from medical control has been obtained. D. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension.
C. authorization from medical control has been obtained.
The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. spinal cord and sensory nerves. C. brain and spinal cord. D. motor and sensory nerves.
C. brain and spinal cord.
Ventricle
One of two lower chambers of the heart.
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. D. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.
C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. Correct
The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Select one: A. arterioles. B. arteries. C. capillaries. D. venules.
C. capillaries.
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: A. a ruptured aortic aneurysm. B. severe septic hypoperfusion. C. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. D. acute myocardial infarction.
C. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. Chapter 12, Emergency Medical Care for Shock, Page 501
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. C. check her airway for obstructions. D. move her to the ambulance stretcher.
C. check her airway for obstructions.
Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. late shock C. compensated shock D. decompensated shock
C. compensated shock
You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: Select one: A. transport with minimal care. B. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. C. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. D. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order.
C. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Select one: A. fluttering. B. dilating. C. constricting. D. enlarging.
C. constricting.
Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: Select one: A. increased heart rate. B. increased cardiac contractility. C. constriction of the blood vessels. D. dilation of the blood vessels.
C. constriction of the blood vessels. Chapter 6, The Circulatory System: Physiology, Page 207
A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Select one: A. event and person. B. person and place. C. date and event. D. time and place.
C. date and event.
Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: Select one: A. medication. B. assessment. C. disease. D. protocol.
C. disease.
You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: Select one: A. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. B. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. C. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. D. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power.
C. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.
Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. norepinephrine and acetylcholine. B. acetylcholine and insulin. C. epinephrine and norepinephrine. D. glucagon and noradrenaline.
C. epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. leukocytes B. thrombocytes C. erythrocytes D. monocytes
C. erythrocytes
The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. Select one: A. sutures B. ventricles C. fontanelles D. cranial valleys
C. fontanelles
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. three B. five C. four D. six
C. four
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. kidneys. B. pancreas. C. gallbladder. D. stomach.
C. gallbladder.
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. stomach. B. kidneys. C. gallbladder. D. pancreas.
C. gallbladder.
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 65% B. 75% C. 45% D. 55%
D. 55% Correct
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have a weak immune system. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. D. received a hepatitis B vaccination.
C. have been infected with hepatitis in the past.
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. nitrogen. C. heat. D. oxygen.
C. heat.
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hematemesis. B. hemiplegia. C. hemostasis. D. hemolysis.
C. hemostasis.
Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. endocrine system. C. immune system. D. cardiovascular system.
C. immune system.
You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. B. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. C. increased patient comfort and dignity. D. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load.
C. increased patient comfort and dignity.
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. decreased residual volume. B. a loss of respiratory muscle mass. C. increased surface area available for air exchange. D. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
C. increased surface area available for air exchange.
A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. B. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. D. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents.
C. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. B. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. C. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. D. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem.
C. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: Select one: A. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. B. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem. C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. D. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.
C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. endocrine B. cardiac C. neurologic D. respiratory
C. neurologic
In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. ventral. B. inferior. C. posterior. D. anterior.
C. posterior.
A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: Select one: A. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.
C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. reviewing all treatment performed. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. repeating the primary assessment. D. reassessing the nature of illness.
C. repeating the primary assessment.
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. B. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.
C. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: Select one: A. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. B. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. C. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. D. is unable to track your movements with her eyes.
C. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. Correct
You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. B. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. C. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end.
C. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.
The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. blood vessel dilation. B. meningeal deterioration. C. shrinkage of the brain. D. a decrease in neurons.
C. shrinkage of the brain.
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. D. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.
C. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. punitive action and the loss of a job. C. substandard or inappropriate patient care. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors.
C. substandard or inappropriate patient care.
After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Select one: A. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. B. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. C. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct. D. place him or her in the recovery position.
C. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. quickly access the patient. B. contact medical control. C. take standard precautions. D. notify law enforcement.
C. take standard precautions.
Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. Select one: A. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels B. dilation of the arteries C. the blockage of a coronary artery D. constriction of the blood vessels
C. the blockage of a coronary artery Chapter 7, page 252, Older Adults (61 Years and Older) The correct answer is: the blockage of a coronary artery
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. the cells function without oxygen. B. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. C. the cells function with adequate oxygen. D. circulating blood glucose levels fall.
C. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the study of drug excretion from the human body. B. the study of how medications affect the brain. C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. D. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. B. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth.
C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midaxillary. B. lateral. C. midclavicular. D. medial.
D. medial.
You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. B. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. D. inflammation of the bronchioles.
C. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. Correct
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. Chapter 14, page 574, Common or Serious Communicable Diseases The correct answer is: you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
CPAP is generally used for which condition? Acute pulmonary edema Hyperventilation Pleural effusion Spontaneous pneumothorax
CPAP is a noninvasive means of providing ventilatory support for patients experiencing respiratory distress associated with obstructive pulmonary disease and acute pulmonary edema.
Which of the following substances is the main element that the bone cells use to create a hard and resilient structure? Sodium Potassium Magnesium Calcium
Calcium is a mineral that helps to build hard and resilient bone.
Ch2L: What blocks the ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen to body tissues? Carbon monoxide Carbon dioxide Cyanide Smoke
Carbon monoxide Carbon Monoxide combines with the hemoglobin in your red blood cells about 200 times more readily than oxygen. It blocks the ability of the hemoglobin to transport blood to your body tissue. Exposure causes increased respiration, dizziness, and sweating. Breathing in 10 to 12% will result in death in a few minutes.
cm
Centimeter
CNS
Central nervous system
CRNA
Certified registered nurse anesthetist
Your partner makes the following symbol in a PCR: Δ What does this mean? Less than Greater than Change Per
Change
________ are an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations, followed by a period of apnea, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration. Agonal gasps Cheyne-Stokes respirations Ataxic respirations Kussmaul respirations
Cheyne-Stokes respirations Correct. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are an irregular respiratory pattern in which the patient breathes with an increasing rate and depth of respirations, followed by a period of apnea, followed again by a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respiration.
CC OR C/C
Chief complaint
During your treatment of a patient having a stroke whose breathing is normal and oxygen saturation is 96%, you administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask at 10 to 15 L/min. This is an example of what? Knowledge-based error Skills-based error Rules-based error Therapeutic effect
Choosing the wrong medication to administer is a knowledge-based error. In this case, administering oxygen is contraindicated for the patient.
Sphincters
Circular muscles that encircle and, by contracting, constrict a duct, tube, or opening.
Neurogenic Shock
Circulatory failure caused by paralysis of the nerves that control the size of the blood vessels, leading to widespread dilation; seen in patients with spinal cord injuries.
The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: Select one: A. 30 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 120 to 180 seconds. D. 60 to 90 seconds.
D. 60 to 90 seconds.
You belong to a small volunteer EMS company and are treating a patient with chest pain, and you feel that the administration of aspirin is indicated. You ask the patient if he is allergic to aspirin and he says no. Shortly after you administer the aspirin, the patient develops signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. Later in the hospital, the doctor advises you that the patient's medical history indicates that the patient has an allergy to aspirin. The patient later sues you. Which of the following is your best defense strategy? Statute of limitations Governmental immunity Contributory negligence Gross negligence
Contributory negligence Contributory negligence is a legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff.
CABG
Coronary artery bypass graft
CAD
Coronary artery dosease
CCU
Coronary care unit
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? Select one: A. Head tilt-neck lift B. Tongue-jaw lift C. Head tilt-chin lift D. Jaw-thrust maneuver
D. Jaw-thrust maneuver
In an adult patient, a pulse rate that is greater than 100 beats/min is described as ________. Bradycardia Hypertension Hypotension Tachycardia
Correct. Tachycardia is a fast heart rate, more than 100 beats/min.
When responding to a 45-year-old man involved in a motorcycle accident who is unresponsive, where should you palpate for a pulse? Radial pulse Carotid pulse Brachial pulse Femoral pulse
Correct. You should palpate the carotid pulse in an unresponsive patient.
Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. seizures B. a low blood glucose level C. abdominal pain D. a fever
D. a fever
Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-ology" and "-oma" B. "-ic" and "-ology" C. "-al" and "-ology" D. "-al" and "-ic"
D. "-al" and "-ic"
Children of which age group are considered toddlers? Select one: A. Over 6 years B. 1 month to 1 year C. 3-6 years D. 1-3 years
D. 1-3 years
EMT course requires how many hours?
Course requires approximately 150 hours (more in some states) and provides essential knowledge and skills required to provide basic emergency care in the field.
Ch2L: The tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection that law enforcement agents use is called what? Cover Concealment Indirect contact Infection control
Cover
Crackles
Crackling, rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; formerly called rales.
Ch2L: Recently you started noticing that a coworker is disinterested in his work. He has started coming in late and has taken to sitting alone and not socializing with other members of the team. The job has been stressful lately. Call volume has increased and you rarely have any downtime between calls. What is your coworker most likely experiencing? Acute stress reaction Cumulative stress reaction Posttraumatic stress disorder Delayed stress reaction
Cumulative stress reaction Based on the fact that the job has been stressful over a period of time, your coworker is probably suffering from a cumulative stress reaction.
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 18 and 22 years. C. 25 and 35 years. D. 19 and 25 years.
D. 19 and 25 years.
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm B. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension C. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity D. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
D. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes Chapter 14, page 569, Common or Serious Communicable Diseases The correct answer is: 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? Select one: A. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing. B. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. C. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. D. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.
D. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.
Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A large cluster of shrubs B. Behind a car door C. Stacked empty barrels D. A concrete barricade
D. A concrete barricade
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume B. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin Correct
In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? Select one: A. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall B. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke C. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car D. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
D. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? Select one: A. Joint flexibility B. Patient disorientation C. Naturally deformed bones D. Abnormal spinal curvature
D. Abnormal spinal curvature
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery C. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
D. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
Which of the following is an example of a generic drug? Select one: A. Advil B. Excedrin C. Bayer D. Aspirin
D. Aspirin
Ch 1: Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Needle decompression B. Multilumen airways C. Automatic transport ventilators D. Automated external defibrillator
D. Automated external defibrillator
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction D. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
D. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. agonal respirations. B. eupneic respirations. C. ataxic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Correct
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Celiac sprue C. Severe acute respiratory syndrome D. Cystic fibrosis
D. Cystic fibrosis
Ch 1: Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. an EMS agency's fiscal resources B. the opinions of physicians C. the experiences of EMTs D. EMS research
D. EMS research
Ch 1: What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. B. Deviate from established standards when necessary. C. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. D. Follow the agency's written protocols.
D. Follow the agency's written protocols.
What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: A. Heart, brain, lungs B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets C. Arteries, veins, capillaries D. Heart, blood vessels, blood
D. Heart, blood vessels, blood
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Blood vessels B. Urinary system C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Skeletal system
D. Skeletal system
Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Urinary system B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Blood vessels D. Skeletal system
D. Skeletal system
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. B. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. C. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? Select one: A. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector. B. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. D. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.
D. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.
Ch 1: Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic B. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" C. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination
D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination
In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. look for approval from their peers and society. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. D. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
D. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. B. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
D. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. B. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. B. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. C. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing. D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. Select one: A. dorsum B. base C. septum D. apex
D. apex
Ch 1: The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. teamwork and diplomacy B. scene leadership C. self-confidence D. communication
D. communication
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Select one: A. breathing. B. osmosis. C. ventilation. D. diffusion.
D. diffusion.
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. Select one: A. dorsal B. proximal C. superior D. distal
D. distal
American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. trends in the EMS community C. opinions from a core group of cardiologists D. evidence-based research
D. evidence-based research
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. COPD drive B. alternate drive C. CO2 drive D. hypoxic drive
D. hypoxic drive
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. B. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. C. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. D. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
D. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
D. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is a far more transmittable disease. D. is not a communicable disease. Chapter 14, Common or Serious Communicable Diseases, Page 572
D. is not a communicable disease.
As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. B. the priorities of the medical director. C. the wishes of the general public. D. locally accepted protocols.
D. locally accepted protocols.
A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: Select one: A. increased blood volume. B. arterial constriction. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. loss of vascular tone.
D. loss of vascular tone.
At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. B. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. C. proceed with normal extrication procedures. D. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
D. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. C. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane
In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. uncontrolled outbreaks. B. epidemics. C. parasitic infection. D. pandemics.
D. pandemics.
A palpable pulse is created by: Select one: A. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. B. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. C. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. radius and humerus. B. humerus and ulna. C. tibia and radius. D. radius and ulna.
D. radius and ulna.
A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Select one: A. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. C. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.
D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs. Correct
After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. ask the physician to repeat the order. D. repeat the order to medical control word for word.
D. repeat the order to medical control word for word.
When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: Select one: A. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications. B. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. C. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced. D. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.
D. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. the cells function without oxygen. B. circulating blood glucose levels fall. C. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. D. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
D. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: Select one: A. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. B. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. C. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.
D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.
You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the organ involved is enlarged. B. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. C. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. D. the problem is with the patient's liver.
D. the problem is with the patient's liver.
Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. B. the patient's response to your treatment. C. the nature of any newly identified problems. D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
Ch 1: The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. patient empathy B. integrity C. patient advocacy D. time management
D. time management
You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. influenza Type A. B. pneumonia. C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). D. tuberculosis.
D. tuberculosis. Chapter 15, page 593, Causes of Dyspnea
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: A. while handling needles or other sharps. B. whenever you touch nonintact skin. C. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. D. when performing endotracheal intubation.
D. when performing endotracheal intubation.
Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. without a spinal injury. B. with forearm lacerations. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.
D. with a deformed humerus.
Ch. 1 Which organization developed and published the first curriculum that served as the guideline for EMT training? Department of Transportation (DOT) Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) National Academy of Sciences Occupational Safety and Heath Administration (OSHA)
DOT
Ch2L: You are responding to an accident scene involving an overturned semi truck carrying diesel fuel. Which reference source will be most helpful in this case? OSHA guidelines CDC standards for infection control DOT Emergency Response Guidebook ANSI safety standards
DOT Emergency Response Guidebook The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook lists many hazardous materials and the proper procedures for scene control.
Compensatory Damages
Damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintiff to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident.
Punitive Damages
Damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil suit when the conduct of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public.
You are treating a patient presenting with labored breathing, absent peripheral pulses, and dilated pupils. These are indications of what? Compensated shock Decompensated shock Irreversible shock Psychogenic shock
Decompensated shock These are signs of decompensated shock.
Putrefaction
Decomposition of body tissues; a definitive sign of death.
Vocal Cords
Thin white bands of tough muscular tissue that are lateral borders of the glottis and serve as the primary center for speech production.
An obvious sign of death caused by discoloration of the body from pooling of the blood to the lower parts of the body is called what? Rigor mortis Dependent lividity Putrefaction A presumptive sign
Dependent lividity Dependent lividity is an obvious sign of death caused by discoloration of the body from pooling of the blood to the lower parts of the body.
Type of Shock: Obstructive Treatment
Dependent on cause: - ALS assist and/or rapid transport - Administer high-flow oxygen
Type of Shock: Obstructive Signs and Symptoms
Dependent on cause: - Dyspnea - Rapid, weak pulse - Rapid, shallow breaths - Decreased lung compliance - Unilateral, decreased, or absent breath sounds - Decreased BP - JVD - Subcutaneous emphysema - Cyanosis - Tracheal deviation toward unaffected side - Beck Triad (cardiac tamponade) 1) JVD 2) Muffled heart tones 3) Narrowing pulse pressure
Quadrants
Describes the sections of the abdominal cavity, in which two imaginary lines intersect at the umbilicus, dividing the abdomen into four equal areas.
You are dispatched to a home where you find a 45-year-old woman in apparent respiratory distress. She is using accessory muscles to help breathe and can only respond with short answers. What is the first step in your assessment process? Manage the airway Obtain vital signs Determine scene safety Perform a secondary assesssment
Determine scene safety The most important aspect of this step is to make sure the scene is safe. Although hazards are not as obvious with medical emergencies as with trauma situations, they still exist and must be considered.
Pressure within the arteries when the heart is at rest is called what? Systolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure Pulse pressure Systemic vascular resistance
Diastolic blood pressure
DPT
Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine/doctor of physical therapy
You are called to a scene where a 40-year-old man was clearing trees in a remote area and was struck by a falling tree. When you arrive, he is conscious but the tree is laying across his lower legs. How should you remove the victim once the tree is removed? Power lift Clothes drag Extremity lift Direct lift
Direct lift: You should use a direct lift for patients with no suspected spinal injury who are lying supine and need to be carried some distance to be placed on a stretcher.
Breach of Confidentiality
Disclosure of information without proper authorization.
DSD
Dry sterile dressing
Ch. 1 At what level is an individual who has training in basic life support, including automated external defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications? EMR EMT AEMT Paramedic
EMT
ED
Emergency dept/erectile dysfunction
EOC
Emergeny ops center
ET co2
End-tidal carbon dioxide
Adrenal Glands
Endocrine glands located on top of the kidneys that release adrenaline when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
ET, ETT
Endotracheal: tube
ETOH
Ethyl alcohol/"liquor"
The body's response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed by a stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or, if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion
General Adaptation Syndrome
GU
Genitourinary
q
Every
What is the primary means of determining if changes need to be made in patient care?
Evidence-based research
Direct Contact
Exposure of transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact.
Indirect Contact
Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object.
You arrive at the scene of a call to find an elderly man complaining of chest pain. You introduce yourself and ask permission to examine him. He nods and extends his arm. Which type of consent is this? Mature consent Implied consent Informed consent Expressed consent
Expressed consent Expressed consent is a type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport.
Blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities passes through the superior vena cava. TrueFalse
F Correct. Blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities passes through the inferior vena cava. The superior vena cava carries blood returning from the head, neck, shoulders, and upper extremities.
Blood replacement is the basic duty of the spleen. TrueFalse
F Correct. Filtering is the basic duty of the spleen.
The Moro reflex occurs when something touches an infant's cheek. TrueFalse
F Correct. The Moro reflex happens when a neonate is caught off guard by something or someone. The rooting reflex takes place when something touches a neonate's cheek.
The head accounts for 15% of a neonate's body weight. TrueFalse
F Correct. The head accounts for 25% of a neonate's body weight.
A portable suctioning unit should generate airflow of more than 40 L/min and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. TrueFalse
False Correct. A fixed suctioning unit should generate airflow of more than 40 L/min and a vacuum of more than 300 mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. A portable suctioning unit must provide enough vacuum pressure and flow to allow you to suction the mouth and nose effectively.
A power grip involves grasping a stretcher or backboard with the hand placed palm down over the handle. TrueFalse
False Correct. A power grip involves inserting each hand under the handle with the palm facing up and the thumb extended upward. You should never grasp a stretcher or backboard with the hand placed palm down over the handle.
The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct is known as bioethics. TrueFalse Correct. Bioethics addresses issues that arise in the practice of health care.
False Correct. Bioethics addresses issues that arise in the practice of health care.
Criminal lawsuits for battery are common in health care. TrueFalse
False Correct. Civil lawsuits for battery are common in health care but criminal suits are rare.
Lifting by extending the properly placed flexed legs is the most powerful way to lift and is called an emergency move. TrueFalse
False Correct. Lifting by extending the properly placed flexed legs is the most powerful way to lift and is called a power lift.
Wheezing is a harsh, high-pitched breath sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway. TrueFalse
False Correct. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched breath sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway. Wheezing is a high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways.
Tidal volume is a measure of the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs in one minute. TrueFalse
False Correct. Tidal volume is a measure of the amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during one breath.
When completing a PCR, you should include your opinions about the mechanism of injury and which injuries are most severe. T/F
False Correct. You should only write fact-based findings.
Slander
False and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word.
Libel
False and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing.
You have responded to a vehicle accident call. Initially, the male patient allows you to splint his broken arm and complete a primary assessment. However, he rescinds consent during transport and demands to be let out of the ambulance. If you refuse, which of the following might you be charged with? Assault Battery Kidnapping False imprisonment
False imprisonment
Ch2L: OSHA requires all EMS providers to utilize a high-visibility public safety vest while on or near the roadway. True/False
False. There are seven common hazards in a fire. In addition to those listed, high ambient temperature and explosion are also hazards.
Ch2L: There are five common hazards in a fire: Smoke, oxygen deficiency, toxic gases, building collapse, and equipment True/False
False. There are seven common hazards in a fire. In addition to those listed, high ambient temperature and explosion are also hazards.
Ch2L: You should wear clothing made from cotton in cold, wet environments. True/False
False. You should not wear cotton for cold weather as it absorbs moisture, causing chilling from wetness.
Deep
Farther inside the body and away from the skin.
FBS
Fasting blood sugar
Semen
Fluid ejaculated from the penis and containing sperm.
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
Fluid produced in the ventricles of the brain that flows in the subarachnoid space and bathes the meninges.
Why is a neonate's head more "moldable"? Calcium growth in bones has not yet begun. Fontanelles have not yet fused to form the skull. The brain stem is less rigid. There is more space between the skull and the brain.
Fontanelles have not yet fused to form the skull. In a neonate, the fontanelles have not yet fused to form the skull. The anterior fontanelle fuses between 9 and 18 months of age.
GCS
Glascow coma scale
Which of the following is a potentially severe complication of neurogenic shock? Pulmonary embolism Syncope Dehydration Hypothermia
Hypothermia Body temperature in a patient with neurogenic shock can rapidly fall to match that of the environment. In many situations, significant hypothermia occurs, severely complicating the situation.
You are treating a patient who has lost a significant amount of blood. Which type of shock is this patient most likely to experience?
Hypovolemic shock results from lack of blood volume.
Hepatitis
Inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and altered liver function.
Drug and alcohol use in the workplace causes
Increased accidents
What is the primary purpose of standard precautions? Infection prevention Ensuring scene safety Determining communication standards Streamlining incident command
Infection prevention Standard precautions are protective measures that have traditionally been recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease.
List warning signs of stress
Irritability toward coworkers, family, and friends Inability to concentrate Difficulty sleeping, increased sleeping, or nightmares Feelings of sadness, anxiety, or guilt Loss of appetite (gastrointestinal disturbances) Loss of interest in sexual activities Isolation Loss of interest in work Increased use of alcohol Recreational drug use Physical symptoms such as chronic pain (headache-backache) Feelings of hopelessness
Chronic Bronchitis
Irritation of the major lung passageways from infectious disease or irritants such as smoke.
Dehydration
Loss of water from the tissues of the body.
a 9-1-1 dispatch/call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for police, fire, and ambulance services is called a public safety _____ ______-
Public Safety access point (PSAP)
Events that can trigger critical incident stress include
Mass-casualty incidents
Vasoconstriction
Narrowing of a blood vessel.
Which of the following is used with an unresponsive patient or a patient with an altered level of consciousness who has an intact gag reflex and is not able to maintain his or her airway spontaneously? Nasopharyngeal airway Oropharyngeal airway Suction catheter Bag-valve mask
Nasopharyngeal airway Correct. You should use a nasopharyngeal airway if the patient is unconscious and has a gag reflex.
Ch. 1 Which of the following agencies is the source of the EMS Agenda for the Future, the multidisciplinary national review of all aspects of EMS delivery? Department of Health and Human Services National Highway Traffic Safety Administration Federal Emergency Management Agency Department of Transportation
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Congenital abnormalities are the leading cause of death in which age group? Neonates Toddlers Adolescents Older adults
Neonates Congenital abnormalities are the leading cause of death in neonates and infants.
Phrenic Nerve
Nerve that innervates the diaphragm; necessary for adequate breathing to occur.
Medulla Oblongata
Nerve tissue that is continuous inferiorly with the spinal cord; serves as a conduction pathway for ascending and descending nerve tracts; coordinates heart rate, blood vessel diameter, breathing, swallowing, vommiting, coughing, and sneezing.
Motor Nerves
Nerves that carry information from the central nervous system to the muscles of the body.
Changes in which of the following body systems can result in the most debilitating of age-related illnesses? Nervous Renal Sensory Endocrine
Nervous Nervous system changes result in the most debilitating of age-related illnesses. Brain weight decreases, peripheral nervous system functioning slows, and nerve endings deteriorate, leading to falls and dangerous lack of sensation.
NPO
Nil per os (nothing per mouth)
NTG
Nitroglycerine
NAD
No apparent distress/ no appreciable disease
NKA
No jnown allergies
NKDA
No known drug allergies
NIDDM
Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
Vesicular Breath Sounds
Normal breath sounds made by air moving in and out of the alveoli.
Bronchial Breath Sounds
Normal breath sounds made by air moving through the bronchi.
What mnemonic is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? AVPU SAMPLE OPQRST TACOS
OPQRST OPQRST is used to determine a patient's chief complaint.
Epidemic
Occurs when new cases of a disease in a human population substantially exceed the number expected based on recent experience.
Superior Vena Cava
One of the two largest veins in the body; carries blood from the upper extremities, head, neck, and chest into the heart.
Patent
Open, clear of obstruction.
OR
Operating room
OD
Oversose/right eye/optical density/outside diameter/doctor of optometry
Rearrange the oxygen delivery devices in the correct order based on the percentage of oxygen delivered, from highest to lowest. Mouth-to-mask device Nonrebreathing mask with reservoir BVM with reservoir Nasal cannula
Oxygen delivered through a BVM with reservoir is nearly 100%. Oxygen delivered through a nonrebreathing mask with reservoir is up to 95%. Oxygen delivered through a mouth-to-mask device is nearly 55%. Oxygen delivered through a nasal cannula is 24% to 44%.
SaO2
Oxygen saturation
Examples include gloves, gowns, and face shields
PPE
List, in order of preference, the techniques for providing positive pressure ventilation. Explain the textbook prefers this order.
PPV: 1. Mouth To Mask with one-way valve 2. 2 person BVM with reservoir and supplemental oxygen 3. Manually triggered ventilation device (flow restricted 02-powered ventilation device) 4. 1 person BVM with oxygen reservoir and supplemental oxygen
What level of training would allow you to perform cardiac monitoring and advanced life support on a patient?
Paramedic
PSVT
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Prefix
Part of a term that appears before a word root, changing the meaning of the term.
P CO2
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
PTT
Partial thromboplastin time
Medial
Parts of the body that lie closer to the midline; also called inner structures.
Lateral
Parts of the body that lie farther from the midline; also called outer structures.
PMH
Past medical history
Bloodborne Pathogens
Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
pt
Patient
The right of a patient to make decisions concerning his or her health is known as what? Competence Implied consent Patient autonomy Decision-making capacity
Patient autonomy Patient autonomy is the right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care.
Adrenergic
Pertaining to nerves that release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, or noradrenaline (such as adrenergic nerves, adreneergic response); also pertains to the receptors acted on by norepinephrine.
What should you do if you suspect your patient has tuberculosis?
Place a particulate air respirator on yourself and a surgical mask on the patient
A ________ is a collection of fluid between the lung and chest wall that may compress the lung. Pleural effusion Pulmonary embolism Pneumothorax Pulmonary edema
Pleural effusion
Carina
Point at which the trachea bifurcates (divides) into the left and right mainstem bronchi.
In order to treat a patient, what will you need to follow?
Protocols
PE
Pulmonary embolism/physical exam
PMS
Pulse, Motor, Sensory
PEARL or PERL
Pupils equal and reactive to light
PEARRL
Pupils equal and round, regular in size, react to light
Ch. 1 The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call is called what? Medical control Quality control Continuous quality improvement Primary prevention
Quality control
Closed-Ended Questions
Questions that can be answered in short or single word responses.
Which of the following is an example of an urgent move? Extremity lift Rapid extrication technique Clothes drag One-person walking assist
Rapid extrication technique A rapid extrication technique is an urgent move.
Hyperventilation
Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal.
Which of the following is included in the narrative section in a PCR? Patient name and address Time the EMS unit was notified Refusal of care Supportable personal opinions
Refusal of care should be included in the narrative section of a PCR.
You are assisting ventilations with a BVM and notice the patient's chest does not rise and fall with each ventilation. What should you do? Reposition the airway by bringing the head back to a neutral position, then reopen the airway and attempt to ventilate. Assume there is a foreign body airway obstruction and attempt to ventilate using an alternative method. Reposition the airway by hyperextending the head to allow for better anatomic position, then attempt to ventilate. Assume there is a foreign body airway obstruction and immediately begin chest compressions.
Reposition the airway by bringing the head back to a neutral position, then reopen the airway and attempt to ventilate.
What is respiration? The process of loading oxygen molecules into hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli and tissues The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs The production of energy through nutrient and oxygen combination
Respiration is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveoli and tissues.
Shallow Respirations
Respirations characterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion.
You respond to a home where a 25-year-old woman is lying in bed. She is semiconscious but opens her eyes when you speak to her, and is lethargic. How do you rate her on the AVPU scale? Awake and alert Responsive to verbal stimuli Responsive to pain Unresponsive
Responsive to verbal stimuli To be considered responsive to verbal stimuli, the patient may not be alert but will open his or her eyes when spoken to.
RLQ
Right lower quadrant of the abdomen
RUL
Right upper lobe of the lung
RUQ
Right upper quadrant of the abdomen
While you are performing artificial ventilations on a patient, he vomits. What should you do? Roll the patient onto his side to allow for drainage of emesis. Continue ventilations with increased force to prevent aspiration. Immediately stop ventilations and begin chest compressions. Stop ventilations and wait for advanced life support to arrive.
Roll the patient onto his side to allow for drainage of emesis.
In what phase of patient assessment do you determine MOI/NOI? Scene size-up Primary assessment History taking Secondary assessment
Scene size-up In addition to assuring scene safety during scene size-up, you determine the MOI/NOI, take standard precautions, determine the number of patients, and consider the need for additional/specialized resources.
Psychogenic Shock
Shock caused by a sudden, temporary reduction in blood supply to the brain that causes fainting (syncope).
Hypovolemic Shock
Shock caused by fluid or blood loss.
Anaphylactic Shock
Severe shock caused by an allergic reaction.
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
Severe shortness of breath, especially at night after several hours of reclining; the person is forced to sit up to breathe.
Unwelcome sexual advance
Sexual harrasment
STD
Sexually transmitted disease
Pleuritic Chest Pain
Sharp, stabbing pain in the chest that is worsened by a deep breath or other chest wall movement; often caused by inflammation or irritation of the pleura.
Septic Shock
Shock caused by severe infection, usually a bacterial infection.
Hormones
Substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. Hormones regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature.
Activated charcoal comes in which medication form? Tablet Solution Gel Suspension
Suspension. Activated charcoal does not dissolve well in liquids and must be ground into fine particles and evenly distributed throughout a liquid by shaking or stirring. does not dissolve well in liquids and must be ground into fine particles and evenly distributed throughout a liquid by shaking or stirring.
Adult patients breathing more than 20 breaths/min or fewer than 12 breaths/min should receive high-flow oxygen. TrueFalse
T Correct. Adult patients breathing more than 20 breaths/min or fewer than 12 breaths/min should receive high-flow oxygen.
Infants younger than 6 months are particularly prone to nasal congestion. TrueFalse
T Correct. Infants younger than 6 months are particularly prone to nasal congestion.
The left side of the heart is a high-pressure pump that pumps blood to the body. TrueFalse
T Correct. The left side of the heart is a high-pressure pump that pumps blood to the body.
The pulmonary artery begins at the right side of the heart and carries oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs. TrueFalse
T Correct. The pulmonary artery begins at the right side of the heart and carries oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs.
The younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations. TrueFalse
T Correct. The younger the person, the faster the pulse rate and respirations.
Toddlers begin to recognize gender differences by observing their role model. TrueFalse
T Correct. Toddlers do begin to recognize gender differences by observing their role models.
tab
Tablet
Which of the following terms would be used to describe the patient's pulse rate of 140 beats/min? Bradycardia Dyspnea Tachycardia Tachypnea
Tachycardia Tachycardia is a rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min.
Wheezing
Te production of whistling sounds during expiration such as occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis.
tech
Technician or technologist
T
Temperature
What agency is the source of the EMS Agenda for the Future, the multidisciplinary national review of all aspects of EMS delivery?
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) is the source of the EMS Agenda for the Future.
Compliance
The ability of the alveoli to expand when air is drawn in during inhalation.
Myocardial Contractility
The ability of the heart muscle to contract.
Multiplex
The ability to transmit audio and data signals through the use of more than one communications channel.
Infection
The abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease.
Passive Ventilation
The act of air moving in and out of the lungs during chest compressions.
Forcible Restraint
The act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action.
Inhalation
The active, muscular part of breathing that draws air into the airway and lungs.
Alveoli
The air sacs of the lungs in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
Residual Volume
The air that remains after a forced exhalation.
Residual Volume
The air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration.
Tidal Volume
The amount of air (in mL) that is moved in or out of the lungs during one breath.
Tidal Volume
The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one relaxed breath; about 500 mL for an adult.
Expiratory Reserve Volume
The amount of air that can be exhaled following a normal exhalation; average volume is about 1,200 mL in the average adult man.
Vital Capacity
The amount of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after breathing in as deeply as possible.
Ventral
The anterior surface of the body.
Brain Stem
The area of the brain between the spinal cord and the cerebrum, surrounded by the cerebellum; controls functions that are necessary for life, such as respiration.
Cranium
The area of the head above the ears and eyes; the skull. The cranium contains the brain.
Posterior Tibial Artery
The artery just behind the medial malleolus; supplies blood to the foot.
Dorsalis Pedis Artery
The artery on the anterior surface of the foot between the first and second metatarsals.
Posterior
The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position.
Nephrons
The basic filtering units in the kidneys.
Abdomen
The body cavity that contains the major organs of digestion and excretion. It is located below the diaphragm and above the pelvis.
Life Expectancy
The average number of years a person can be expected to live.
Defamation
The communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person's reputation or standing in the community.
Circulatory System
The complex arrangement of connected tubes, including the arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins, that moves blood, oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, and cellular waste throughout the body.
Endocrine System
The complex message and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.
False Imprisonment
The confinement of a person without legal authority or the person's consent.
Sacroiliac Joint
The connection point between the pelvis and the vertebral column.
Foodborne Transmission
The contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease.
Systole
The contraction, or period of contraction, of the heart, especially that of the ventricles.
Brain
The controlling organ of the body and center of consciousness; functions include perception, control of reactions the the environment, emotional responses, and judgement.
When assisting an asthmatic patient with a small-volume nebulizer attached to oxygen, what is the appropriate flow rate for the oxygen? 2 L/min 4 L/min 6 L/min 10 L/min
The correct dosage is 6 L/min.
Conjunctiva
The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.
Intravenous (IV) Therapy
The delivery of medication directly into a vein.
Therapeutic Effect
The desired or intended effect a medication is expected to have on the body.
Bile Ducts
The ducts that convey bile between the liver and the intestine.
Compensated Shock
The early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood loss.
The elbow is an example of what type of joint? Hinge Ball-and-socket Saddle Immovable
The elbow is a hinge joint with motion restricted to flexion (bending) and extension (straightening).
Internal Respiration
The exchange of gases between the blood cells and the tissues.
External Respiration
The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood cells in the pulmonary capillaries; also called pulmonary respiration.
Respiration
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Orbit
The eye socket, made up of the maxilla and zygoma.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
The federal agency that has jurisdiction over interstate and international telephone and telegraph services and satellite communications, all of which may involve EMS activity.
Tendons
The fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone.
Pulmonary Circulation
The flow of blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries and all of their branches and capillaries in the lungs and back to the left atrium through the venules and pulmonary veins; also called the lesser circulation.
Skeleton
The framework that gives the body its recognizable form; also designed to allow motion of the body and protection of vital organs.
Nature of Illness (NOI)
The general type of illness a patient is experiencing.
nature of illness (NOI)
The general type of illness a patient is experiencing.
Salivary Glands
The glands that produce saliva to keep the mouth and pharynx moist.
Sweat Glands
The glands that secrete sweat, located in the dermal layer of the skin.
Cardiac Muscle
The heart muscle.
Myocardium
The heart muscle.
Temporal Bones
The lateral bones on each side of the cranium; the temples.
Patient Care Report (PCR)
The legal document used to record all patient care activities. This report has direct patient care functions but also administrative and quality control functions. PCRs are also known as prehospital care reports.
tid/t.i.d./TID
Three times a day
Mucous Membranes
The lining of body cavities in packages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.
Lumbar Spine
The lower part of the back, formed by the lowest five nonfused vertebrae; also called the dorsal spine.
Rectum
The lowermost end of the colon.
Heart Rate (HR)
The number of heartbeats during a specific time (usually 1 minute).
Host
The organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent.
Urinary System
The organs that control the discharge of certain waste materials filtered from the blood and excreted as urine.
Generic Name
The original chemical name of a medication (in contrast with one of its proprietary or "trade" names); the name is not capitalized.
Epidermis
The outer layer of skin, which is made up of cells that are sealed together to form a watertight protective covering for the body.
Stratum Corneal Layer
The outermost or dead layer of the skin.
General Impression
The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient's surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint.
Autonomic Nervous System
The part of the nervous system that regulates involuntary activities of the body, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food.
Nasopharynx
The part of the pharynx that lies above the level of the roof of the mouth, or palate.
Axial Skeleton
The part of the skeleton comprising the skull, spinal column, and rib cage.
Exhalation
The passive part of the breathing process in which the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax, forcing air out of the lungs.
Small Intestine
The portion of the digestive tube between the stomach and the cecum, consisting of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
Large Intestine
The portion of the digestive tube that encircles the abdomen around the small bowel, consisting of the cecum, the colon, and the rectum. It helps regulate water balance and eliminate solid waste.
Dead space
The portion of the tidal volume that does not reach the alveoli and thus does not participate in gas exchange.
Anatomic Position
The position of reference in which the patient stands facing forward, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands forward.
Dorsal
The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand.
Pleural Space
The potential space between the parietal pleura and the visceral pleura. It is described as "potential" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist.
Preload
The precontraction pressure in the heart as the volume of blood builds up.
Edema
The presence of abnormally large amounts of fluid between cells in body tissues, causing swelling of the affected area.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
The primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the United States. The CDC is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services.
Emergency Doctrine
The principle of law that permits a health care provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is incapable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient's age.
Pharmacodynamics
The process by which a medication works on the body.
Absorption
The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream.
Adsorption
The process of binding or sticking to a surface.
Oxygenation
The process of delivering oxygen to the blood by diffusion from the alveoli following inhalation into the lungs.
If you discover an error as you are writing your PCR, what should you do? Draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information next to it. Erase the erroneous information and insert the correct information. Cover the error with correction fluid and initial it. Tell your supervisor about the error.
The proper way to correct a PCR is to draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information next to it.
Shoulder Girdle
The proximal portion of the upper extremities, made up of the clavicle, the scapula, and the humerus.
Quality Control
The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call.
Patient Autonomy
The right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care.
Accessory Muscles
The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles.
Kidnapping
The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent.
Pleura
The serous membranes covering the lungs and lining the thorax, completely enclosing a potential space known as the pleural space.
Tibia
The shinbone; the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.
Pharmacology
The study of the properties and effects of medications.
Chyme
The substance that leaves the stomach. It is a combination of all of the eaten foods with added stomach acids.
Topographic Anatomy
The superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them.
Humerus
The supporting bone of the upper arm.
Paging
The use of a radio signal and a voice or digital message that is transmitted to pagers ("beepers") or desktop monitor radios.
Vector-Borne Transmission
The use of an animal to spread an organism from one person or place to another.
Polypharmacy
The use of multiple medications on a regular basis.
Labored Breathing
The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.
Immunity laws, which vary from state to state, do not provide immunity when injury or damage is caused by gross negligence or willful misconduct. TrueFalse
True Correct. Immunity laws, which vary from state to state, do not provide immunity when injury or damage is caused by gross negligence or willful misconduct.
TB
Tuberculosis
VS
Vital signs
In addition to asthma, which of the following conditions is associated with wheezing? Croup Epiglottitis Pulmonary embolism Bronchitis
Wheezing is also a symptom of bronchitis.
What should you do if a patient refuses treatment or transport? Contact medical control. Ask law enforcement to take him into custody. Immediately stop patient care and leave. Find another person to continue medical care.
When a patient refuses treatment or transport, you should contact medical control.
Proximate Causation
When a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency, and/or the medical director may be sued for negligence.
Standing Orders
Written documents, signed by the EMS system's medical director, that outline specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care; also called protocols.
Interrogatories
Written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another.
Standard of Care
Written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; written by legal or professional organizations so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.
Jaundice
Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction.
Which type of breath sound are you more likely to hear in a person with congestive heart failure? Decreased/absent Rhonchi Crackles Stridor
You are more likely to hear crackles in a patient with congestive heart failure.
Which of the following is a sign that your sleep patten is ineffective?
You are unable to concentrate on repetitive tasks such as driving or completing paperwork?
What information should you include on your PCR related to a patient's medications? Document the medication names and dosages. Document the medication names and expiration dates. The trade name and the generic name of each medication. Do not document the medication names; these will be determined at the hospital.
You should document the medication names and dosages in addition to the route and vital signs before and after administration.
After you submit the electronic PCR for a call, you realize that you accidentally documented the wrong vital signs. What should you do? Leave the record as it is and seek legal advice. Notify your agency's information technology department. Follow your agency's directions for making an amendment. Say nothing and hope that the error goes unnoticed.
You should follow your agency's directions and make an amendment to the PCR.
How can gastric distention be prevented when performing artificial ventilations? Provide rapid, forceful breaths during artificial ventilation over 1 second. Provide slow, gentle breaths during artificial ventilation over 1 second. Provide rapid, forceful breaths during artificial ventilation over 3 seconds. Provide slow, gentle breaths during artificial ventilation over 3 seconds
You should provide slow, gentle breaths during artificial ventilation over 1 second.
As you radio the hospital to give a report on your patient, which of the following should you do? Provide as much detail as possible. Use code words to protect the patient's identity. Speak as quickly as possible. Remain objective and impartial.
You should remain objective and impartial.
What is the proper name for the cheekbone? Zygoma Maxilla Sphenoid Mandible
Zygomas are the quadrangular bones of the cheek, articulating with the frontal bone, the maxillae, the zygomatic processes of the temporal bone, and the great wings of the sphenoid bone.
Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. b. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
b. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.
ultra-
beyond, in excess
chol/e
bile
melan/o
black, dark
cyst/o
bladder
cec/o
blind intestine, cecum
hem(at)/o
blood
DTP
diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
eu-
easy, good, normal
phag/o
eat
phag-
eating, swallowing
electr/o
electricity
embry/o
embryo
Ch 2L: When a person comes into contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur, this is known as
exposure
ocul/o
eye
ophthalm/o
eye
blephar/o
eyelid
adip/o
fat
ather/o
fat
A CISD meeting is an opportunity to discuss
feelings about the incident
febr
fever
digit
finger or toe
pyr/o
fire, heat, fever
disk/o
flat shape, intervertebral disk
-rrhea
flow or discharge
pod(i)
foot
xen/o
foreign (material)
quad-
four
quadr/o; quar
four
quadri-
four
tetra-
four
intra-
inside, within
intro-
inside, within
null-
none
erythr/o
red
enter/o
small intestie
-logist
specialist
-oma
tumor
ana-
up, back, again
