EMT Chapter 32 & 35 34 - Environmental Emergencies, Geriatric Emergencies, Pediatric Emergencies
6. Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: A. pneumonia. B. osteoporosis. C. heart failure. D. ischemic stroke.
A
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: A. 90°F (32°C). B. 92°F (33°C). C. 94°F (34°C). D. 95°F (35°C).
A
12. Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? A. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. B. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia. D. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness.
A
13. You are dispatched to a skilled nursing care facility for an 80-year-old female with abnormal behavior. The patient is clearly confused and asks you if you are her husband. As your partner administers oxygen to the patient, you should: A. determine the patient's baseline mental status. B. inquire about a history of Alzheimer disease. C. obtain a complete list of the patient's medications. D. ask an attendant for the patient's medical records.
A
15. The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to: A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. B. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderly patients. C. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly. D. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.
A
19. Which of the following statements regarding the aging process is correct? A. Aging is a linear process; the rate at which a person loses functions does not increase with age. B. Because he or she is younger and healthier, a 35-year-old person ages slower than a 75-year-old person. C. Human growth and development peaks in the late 40s or early 50s, at which point the aging process sets in. D. The older a person gets, the slower the decline in the function of vital organs, such as the kidneys and liver.
A
20. During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.
A
28. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: A. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms. B. ascertain about a history of atrial fibrillation. C. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible. D. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.
A
3. When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain language and simple terms. B. use the appropriate medical terminology. C. be complex so the patient fully understands. D. realize that he or she will not understand you.
A
33. In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.
A
36. Syncope in the older patient is: A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. D. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.
A
40. A 73-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. a strangulated bowel. D. myocardial infarction.
A
42. The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.
A
46. When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. B. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for. C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications.
A
49. Which of the following statements regarding suicide in the older patient is correct? A. Older patients tend to use more lethal means than younger patients. B. Older females have a higher rate of suicide than any other group. C. Depression and hopeless feelings are often not predisposing factors. D. Most suicidal patients readily seek care and do not deny the problem.
A
50. Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients? A. falls B. burns C. abuse D. suicide
A
54. You are dispatched to a residence for an 80-year-old female who fell. When you arrive, you find the patient conscious, lying in a recumbent position on the floor in her living room. In addition to providing the appropriate treatment, you should ask the patient if: A. she became dizzy or fainted before falling. B. she attempted to catch herself before falling. C. a family member regularly checks up on her. D. she takes medications for Alzheimer disease.
A
55. An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): A. pathologic fracture. B. idiopathic fracture. C. compression fracture. D. comminuted fracture.
A
56. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.
A
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. superficial. B. third-degree. C. full-thickness. D. partial-thickness.
A
Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. A. head B. chest C. abdomen D. extremities
A
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. B. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). C. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. D. air temperature is greater than body temperature.
A
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.
A
Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.
A
The organs most severely affected by air embolism are the: Select one: A. brain and spinal cord. B. brain and heart. C. heart and lungs. D. brain and lungs.
A
To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: A. into the patient's rectum. B. under the patient's tongue. C. behind the patient's knee. D. under the patient's armpit.
A
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. General weakness and diaphoresis C. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
A
Which of the following statements regarding the brown recluse spider is NOT true? Select one: A. It is larger than the black widow spider. B. It lives mostly in the southern and central parts of the country. C. Its venom is not neurotoxic. D. Bites rarely cause systemic signs and symptoms
A
You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance.
A
1. To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: A. dismiss the family members from the room or area. B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.
B
10. When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: A. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. B. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.
B
16. Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: A. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver. B. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. C. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. D. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.
B
17. Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
B
22. An older patient with significant dehydration would MOST likely present with: A. an increase in blood pressure upon standing. B. dizziness or fainting upon standing. C. weakness to one side of the body. D. a drop in heart rate upon standing.
B
25. A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. D. the patient minimizes the chest pain.
B
26. The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.
B
30. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.
B
34. A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. C. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.
B
35. Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion
B
38. Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. blood volume loss.
B
4. Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.
B
45. Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.
B
47. The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: A. potentiation. B. polypharmacy. C. drug tolerance. D. drug dependency.
B
53. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.
B
All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: A. frostnip. B. frostbite. C. trench foot. D. immersion foot.
B
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
B
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver. B. a relatively small surface area. C. a smaller amount of body fat. D. a smaller overall muscle mass.
B
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. temporary survival after submersion in water. B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. C. water in the lungs following submersion in water. D. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
B
Heatstroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high.
B
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 98°F (37°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 90°F (32°C). D. 88°F (31°C).
B
In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. B. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse. C. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. D. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks.
B
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. C. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. D. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.
B
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn. B. it must be able to evaporate from the body. C. the relative humidity must be above 90%. D. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.
B
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. renal system. B. nervous system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.
B
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.
B
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.
B
14. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? A. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system B. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication D. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system
C
18. Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others. B. daily activity assistance. C. outdated medications. D. delays in obtaining meals
C
2. General communication techniques with the elderly include: A. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding. B. explaining procedures while you are performing them. C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands. D. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time.
C
23. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism? A. 59-year-old male who is recovering from pneumonia B. 66-year-old active female with a history of hypertension C. 71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity D. 78-year-old female who takes blood thinning medications
C
24. In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.
C
27. When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: A. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. C. ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.
C
37. Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch. C. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. D. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia.
C
39. An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.
C
41. You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC). D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.
C
43. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. increased flexibility of bone mass. B. decreased bone marrow production. C. a decrease in bone mass and density. D. an abnormality near the growth plate.
C
48. Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.
C
51. When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to: A. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene. B. perform an in-depth physical exam prior to initiating any treatment. C. recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries. D. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.
C
52. Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted, you find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way, but did not move her. When you gently tap the patient, she does not respond. You should: A. suction her airway, apply a cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and perform a rapid assessment. B. open her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, insert an oral or nasal airway, and assess her blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. C. direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you quickly visualize her chest for signs of breathing. D. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device while your partner auscultates her lung sounds to ensure adequate positive-pressure ventilation.
C
8. When caring for a geriatric patient with a traumatic injury, it is important to consider that: A. geriatric patients usually present with little to no pain. B. decreased bone density often results in incomplete fractures. C. the injury may have been preceded by a medical condition. D. geriatric patients typically present with classic signs of shock.
C
9. Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.
C
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: Select one: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. possible spinal injury. D. cold-water immersion.
C
The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.
C
To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A. neck. B. chest. C. abdomen. D. forehead.
C
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. hypoperfusion B. severe infection C. hyperglycemia D. spinal cord injury
C
You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: A. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. B. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. C. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. D. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.
C
You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma. B. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.
C
11. An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. the nervous system has deteriorated. B. of decreased perception of pain. C. of conditions such as dementia. D. he or she fears hospitalization.
D
21. A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for: A. heart failure. B. bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
D
29. A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.
D
31. When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.
D
32. The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.
D
44. The chief component of connective tissues and bones that deteriorates as people age is called: A. fibrin. B. elastin. C. sebum. D. collagen.
D
5. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is correct? A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired. B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name. C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed. D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.
D
57. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. severe kyphosis. B. distracting injuries. C. spinal cord tearing. D. compression fractures.
D
7. The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: A. hypertension. B. altered mental status. C. arthritis. D. heart disease.
D
A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. D. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
D
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. nausea. B. headache. C. tachycardia. D. hot, dry skin.
D
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood clotting abnormalities.
D
Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: A. cold water temperature. B. too rapid of a descent. C. alcohol consumption. D. too rapid of an ascent.
D
The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: A. tightness in the chest. B. difficulty with vision. C. dizziness and nausea. D. abdominal or joint pain.
D
The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: Select one: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.
D
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. shivering and vasodilation. B. vasodilation and respiration. C. respiration and vasoconstriction. D. vasoconstriction and shivering.
D
Treatment of drowning or near drowning begins with: Select one: A. opening the airway. B. ventilation with 100% oxygen via bag-mask device. C. suctioning the lungs to remove the water. D. rescue and removal from the water.
D
When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. plasma. B. nutrients. C. erythrocytes. D. electrolytes.
D
Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. diuretics
D
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? A. bradypnea B. confusion C. stiff muscles D. tachycardia
D
You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious and alert, and is actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is MOST likely: A. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding. B. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate. C. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. D. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities
D
You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: Select one: A. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. D. protect the affected part from further injury.
D
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should:
assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.