EMT Test 4 Review
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: Answers: A. bleeding in the brain. B. multiple open fractures. C. fracture of the cervical spine. D. intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
A. bleeding in the brain.
An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: Answers: A. grunting. B. wheezing. C. retracting the intercostal muscles. D. assuming a tripod position.
A. grunting.
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: Answers: A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding. B. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma. C. may present without significant abdominal pain. D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pa
A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: Answers: A. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. B. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment. C. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. D. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver.
A. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe.
Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: Answers: A. older than 8 to 10 years of age. B. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. C. immobilized on a long backboard. D. complaining of severe back pain.
A. older than 8 to 10 years of age.
When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: Answers: A. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. B. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. C. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait. D. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss.
A. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.
EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers "feel like needles." The EMTs should suspect: Answers: A. a seizure. B. a cervical spine injury. C. an intracranial hemorrhage. D. hydrocephalus.
B. a cervical spine injury.
Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: Answers: A. dysuria and constipation. B. headache and edema. C. dyspnea and bradycardia. D. marked hypoglycemia.
B. headache and edema.
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: Answers: A. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. D. become thick and spontaneously clot.
B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.
A "silent" heart attack occurs when: Answers: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. the patient minimizes the chest pain. D. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death.
B. the usual chest pain is not present.
After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: Answers: A. 4 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 2 seconds. D. 5 seconds.
C. 2 seconds.
A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as: Answers: A. 12 months. B. 18 months. C. 6 months. D. 2 months.
C. 6 months.
To assess a patient's general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: Answers: A. chest. B. neck. C. abdomen. D. forehead.
C. abdomen.
The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: Answers: A. womb. B. cervix. C. birth canal. D. fundus.
C. birth canal.
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: Answers: A. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. B. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms. C. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. D. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back.
C. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: Answers: A. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour. B. the relative humidity must be above 90%. C. it must be able to evaporate from the body. D. several layers of clothing must be worn.
C. it must be able to evaporate from the body.
Febrile seizures in a child: Answers: A. are usually caused by viral meningitis. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. may indicate a serious underlying illness. D. typically last less than 30 minutes.
C. may indicate a serious underlying illness.
A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial upper airway obstruction is called: . Answers: A. wheezing. B. rhonchi. C. stridor. D. grunting.
C. stridor.
Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident. Answers: A. green B. red C. yellow D. black
C. yellow
When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial or ________ pulse. Answers: A. popliteal B. carotid C. radial D. femoral
D. femoral
Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: Answers: A. hyperpnea. B. accessory muscle use. C. tenting. D. retracting.
D. retracting.
A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: Answers: A. CS tube. B. cerebral bypass. C. G-tube. D. shunt.
D. shunt.
Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds between: Answers: A. 130 and 150 mph. B. 150 and 200 mph. C. 100 and 120 mph. D. 120 and 140 mph.
A. 130 and 150 mph.
The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min. Answers: A. 60 B. 50 C. 80 D. 70
A. 60
A 70-year-old man complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. He has dried blood on his lips and is very anxious. His left leg is red, swollen, and painful. The EMT should: Answers: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. suspect severe pneumonia. C. apply a cold pack to his leg. D. position the patient supine.
A. administer high-flow oxygen.
A disease vector is defined as: Answers: A. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. B. the period of time between exposure and illness. C. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.
A. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
The skin lesions associated with smallpox: Answers: A. are identical in their development. B. are of different shapes and sizes. C. initially form on the lower trunk. D. develop early during the disease.
A. are identical in their development.
Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: Answers: A. are taking blood-thinning medications. B. have minor abrasions to the head area. C. have a history of Alzheimer disease. D. do not have deformities to the skull.
A. are taking blood-thinning medications.
When interacting with an intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to: Answers: A. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient. B. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help. C. speak primarily with the patient's family to establish the degree of disability. D. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety.
A. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: Answers: A. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. B. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. C. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. D. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
A. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-valve mask, the EMT should: Answers: A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. B. use a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. C. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant. D. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.
A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise.
The umbilical cord: Answers: A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery. D. separates from the placenta shortly after birth.
A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
The purpose of a jump kit is to: Answers: A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. B. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. C. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: Answers: A. dementia. B. delirium. C. delusion. D. paranoia.
A. dementia.
When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: Answers: A. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor. B. place padding under the child's head. C. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. D. ensure that his or her neck is hyperextended.
A. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
When the body loses sweat, it also loses: Answers: A. electrolytes. B. plasma. C. nutrients. D. erythrocytes.
A. electrolytes.
A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: Answers: A. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. B. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts. C. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. D. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition.
A. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport.
High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: Answers: A. evaporation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. radiation.
A. evaporation.
Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: Answers: A. his or her tidal volume is adequate. B. he or she is breathing inadequately. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. an oral airway has been inserted.
A. his or her tidal volume is adequate.
Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: Answers: A. intercostal muscles are not well developed. B. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility. C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward. D. upper airway is smaller and easily collapsible.
A. intercostal muscles are not well developed.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Answers: A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. C. should be performed by the most experienced EMT. D. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
By placing one hand on your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: Answers: A. is sick. B. needs help. C. is hurt. D. is nauseated
A. is sick.
A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: Answers: A. moderate dehydration. B. severe dehydration. C. mild dehydration. D. hypovolemic shock.
A. moderate dehydration.
After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: Answers: A. not rule out compensated shock. B. assess his or her respiratory effort. C. conclude that the child is stable. D. assume the child is hypertensive.
A. not rule out compensated shock.
If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider: Answers: A. relinquishing command to someone with more experience. B. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions. C. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established. D. requesting a second incident commander to assist him or her.
A. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.
Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: Answers: A. restlessness. B. cyanosis. C. decreased LOC. D. bradycardia
A. restlessness.
When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: Answers: A. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. B. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.
A. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: Answers: A. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. B. irritability of the left ventricle. C. acute hypoxia and tachycardia. D. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia.
A. severe hypoxia and bradycardia.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: Answers: A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. B. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. C. increase your speed to create more distance. D. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.
A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: Answers: A. stand by at the command post until the person is located. B. report to a location where the patient will be carried. C. direct the search effort from a centralized location. D. accompany search team members and provide care.
A. stand by at the command post until the person is located.
A critical function of the safety officer is to: Answers: A. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. B. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim. C. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. D. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.
A. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Answers: A. turn your headlights off. B. turn all warning lights off. C. quickly access the patient. D. place a flare near the crash.
A. turn your headlights off.
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: Answers: A. vasoconstriction and shivering. B. respiration and vasoconstriction. C. vasodilation and respiration. D. shivering and vasodilation.
A. vasoconstriction and shivering.
Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: Answers: A. weak distal pulses. B. brisk capillary refill. C. warm, dry skin. D. a rapid heart rate.
A. weak distal pulses.
An infant is considered to be premature if it: Answers: A. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation. B. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. D. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.
A. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age. Answers: A. 2, 4 B. 18, 6 C. 6, 12 D. 12, 4
B. 18, 6
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: Answers: A. 95°F (35°C). B. 90°F (32°C). C. 92°F (33°C). D. 94°F (34°C).
B. 90°F (32°C).
A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? Answers: A. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black) B. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) C. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)
B. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: Answers: A. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. B. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.
B. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core.
A common cause of shock in an infant is: Answers: A. cardiovascular disease. B. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. excessive tachycardia.
B. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea.
Placenta previa is defined as: Answers: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening. C. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. D. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.
B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Answers: A. quickly jerk the steering wheel. B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. C. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. D. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control.
B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: Answers: A. severe abdominal muscle spasms. B. headache and sore throat. C. acute onset of double vision. D. joint pain and unequal pupils.
B. headache and sore throat.
Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: Answers: A. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia. B. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. C. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. D. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch.
B. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms.
Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: Answers: A. try basic sign language first. B. lower the pitch of your voice. C. speak in a monotone voice. D. increase the pitch of your voice.
B. lower the pitch of your voice.
A 2-year-old child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: Answers: A. give oxygen and transport at once. B. perform abdominal thrusts. C. visualize the child's airway. D. perform a blind finger sweep.
B. perform abdominal thrusts.
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: Answers: A. vaccine. B. pesticide. C. detergent. D. antibiotic.
B. pesticide.
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: Answers: A. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches.
B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: Answers: A. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity. B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation. C. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. D. separating the child from his or her parents.
B. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation.
When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing impaired, you should: Answers: A. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. B. recall that elderly patients often have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds. C. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. D. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper.
B. recall that elderly patients often have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.
When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: Answers: A. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. B. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. C. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.
B. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: Answers: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. report to the incident commander for instructions. C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
B. report to the incident commander for instructions.
After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: Answers: A. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others. C. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients. D. not allow anyone within 25 feet to 50 feet of the incident scene.
B. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.
Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: Answers: A. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. B. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. C. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal.
B. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: Answers: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
Abruptio placenta occurs when: Answers: A. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. B. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. C. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.
B. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: Answers: A. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia
B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.
When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: Answers: A. use the appropriate medical terminology. B. use plain language and simple terms. C. realize that he or she will not understand you. D. be complex so the patient fully understands.
B. use plain language and simple terms.
The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: Answers: A. are typically consistent among all age and weight groups. B. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. C. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance. D. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion.
B. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight.
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. Answers: A. black B. yellow C. green D. red
B. yellow
A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: Answers: A. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact. B. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color. C. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact. D. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time
C. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: Answers: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin. C. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. D. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.
C. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: Answers: A. assign an immediate category. B. look for posturing. C. assess for a distal pulse. D. assess neurologic status.
C. assess for a distal pulse.
Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: Answers: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. C. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head. D. give high-flow oxygen to the mother and transport.
C. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: Answers: A. a decreased heart rate. B. severe muscular rigidity. C. blood-clotting abnormalities. D. cardiac arrhythmias.
C. blood-clotting abnormalities.
An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: Answers: A. depress the gag reflex. B. result in airway swelling. C. cause the child to vomit. D. result in a soft-tissue injury.
C. cause the child to vomit.
Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: \ Answers: A. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. B. of more than 2°F to 3°F per hour. C. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself. D. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord.
C. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.
The onset of labor begins with: Answers: A. thinning of the uterus. B. full dilation of the cervix. C. contractions of the uterus. D. increased fetal movement.
C. contractions of the uterus.
When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: Answers: A. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens. B. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. C. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps. D. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack.
C. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps.
Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: Answers: A. has a possible closed fracture of the radius. B. is experiencing mild to moderate pain. C. has a history compatible with a serious illness. D. is breathing rapidly.
C. has a history compatible with a serious illness.
An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: Answers: A. of decreased perception of pain. B. of conditions such as dementia. C. he or she fears hospitalization. D. the nervous system has deteriorated.
C. he or she fears hospitalization.
The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for: Answers: A. dementia. B. delirium. C. head trauma. D. stroke.
C. head trauma.
If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: Answers: A. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. B. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. C. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.
C. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. Answers: A. finance B. logistics C. operations D. planning
C. operations
Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: Answers: A. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.
C. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: Answers: A. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C. positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. D. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions.
C. positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient.
During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: Answers: A. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them. B. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. C. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you. D. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment.
C. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you.
When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: Answers: A. secure the head before the torso. B. slide the device under the child. C. secure the torso before the head. D. pad underneath the child's head.
C. secure the torso before the head.
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: Answers: A. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. B. twisting injuries are more common in children. C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. D. the growth plate is commonly injured.
C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: Answers: A. they are protective of the abuser. B. they do not want to be bothersome. C. they fear retribution from the abuser. D. most elderly patients have dementia.
C. they fear retribution from the abuser.
The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: Answers: A. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. B. underutilizing personnel at the scene. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene.
C. underestimating the logistics of the incident.
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: . Answers: A. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible. B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. D. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.
C. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Answers: A. is often necessary if the patient is critical. B. increases the patient's chance for survival. C. will decrease the driver's reaction time. D. is allowable according to state law.
C. will decrease the driver's reaction time.
Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment. Answers: A. 3 B. 0 C. 2 D. 1
D. 1
Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years. Answers: A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3
D. 3
If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. Answers: A. 60 B. 70 C. 50 D. 40
D. 40
When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should: Answers: A. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session. B. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician. C. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. D. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.
D. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.
When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: Answers: A. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. C. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
D. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: Answers: A. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. B. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. C. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of a semiconscious infant or child, you must: Answers: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. B. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. C. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. D. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions.
D. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions
Patients with autism: Answers: A. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages. B. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. C. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. D. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.
D. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.
Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. Answers: A. extremities B. abdomen C. chest D. head
D. head
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: Answers: A. open the airway and reassess breathing. B. give five rescue breaths and reassess. C. triage him or her as expectant. D. immediately check for a pulse.
D. immediately check for a pulse.
EMTs are called for an unresponsive infant. When they arrive, they find the mother holding her child. She advises that the child became limp, blue, and stopped breathing. Assessment reveals that the infant is conscious and crying, and has good muscle tone and pink skin color. The mother states that she will take her child to the doctor. The EMTs should: Answers: A. contact law enforcement personnel and advise them that they are suspicious for child abuse. B. advise the mother that the danger has past and that she can take the child to the pediatrician. C. allow the mother to take her child to the doctor, but inform her that the risk for SIDS is high. D. inform that mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable.
D. inform that mother that, although the event seems to have resolved, transport via EMS is advisable.
A 2-month-old infant was found unresponsive in his crib by his mother. When you arrive, you determine that the infant is apneic and pulseless. His skin is pale and cold and his arms are stiff. You should: immediately. Answers: A. begin high-quality CPR and transport immediately. B. begin high-quality CPR and request an ALS ambulance. C. request the medical examiner to perform an autopsy. D. inform the child's mother that her son is deceased.
D. inform the child's mother that her son is deceased.
In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: Answers: A. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable. B. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. C. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. D. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
D. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: Answers: A. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. B. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights. C. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. D. leave only the essential warning lights activated.
D. leave only the essential warning lights activated.
When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: Answers: A. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90%. B. observe the chest for rise and fall. C. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. D. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall.
D. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall.
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Answers: A. use the information provided by dispatch. B. interview bystanders present at the scene. C. request the fire department at all scenes. D. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.
D. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.
Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: Answers: A. thoroughly suction his or her airway. B. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. C. put padding behind his or her head. D. place him or her on a firm surface.
D. place him or her on a firm surface.
If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: Answers: A. begin chest compressions. B. resuction the mouth only. C. flick the soles of his or her feet. D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: Answers: A. conduction. B. evaporation. C. convection. D. radiation.
D. radiation.
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: Answers: A. a red rash. B. miosis. C. bradycardia. D. skin blistering.
D. skin blistering.
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Answers: A. respiratory tract. B. nervous system. C. vascular system. D. skin.
D. skin.
If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: Answers: A. become obstructed by mucus. B. push the tongue anteriorly. C. result in tachycardia. D. stimulate the vagus nerve.
D. stimulate the vagus nerve.
When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: Answers: A. hold her breath. B. rest and breathe deeply. C. push for 30 seconds. D. take quick short breaths.
D. take quick short breaths.
Heat stroke occurs when: Answers: A. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. B. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high. C. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). D. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.
D. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.
When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: Answers: A. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall. B. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture. C. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs. D. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking.
D. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking.
A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless: Answers: A. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. B. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest. D. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
D. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: Answers: A. air temperature is greater than body temperature. B. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. C. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). D. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
D. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
