Exam 2 - 12-19 combined

C This woman has a normal BMI and should gain 11.5 to 16 kg during her pregnancy. A weight gain of 20 kg (44 lb) is unhealthy for most women; a weight gain of 16 kg (35 lb) is at the high end of the range of weight this woman should gain in her pregnancy; and a weight gain of 10 kg (22 lb) is appropriate for an obese woman. This woman has a normal BMI, which indicates that her weight is average.

A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 19. What is this client's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a. 20 kg (44 lb) b. 16 kg (35 lb) c. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb) d. 10 kg (22 lb)

A If the numb or prickly sensations are gone from her legs after these movements, then she has likely recovered from the epidural or spinal anesthesia. Assessing the client for bleeding beneath her buttocks before discharge from the recovery is always important; however, she should be rolled to her side for this assessment. The nurse is not required to assess the woman for flexibility. This assessment is performed to evaluate whether the client has recovered from spinal anesthesia, not to determine if she is a candidate for early discharge.

In recovery, if a woman is asked to either raise her legs (knees extended) off the bed or flex her knees, and then place her feet flat on the bed and raise her buttocks well off the bed, the purpose of this exercise is to assess what? a. Recovery from epidural or spinal anesthesia b. Hidden bleeding underneath her c. Flexibility d. Whether the woman is a candidate to go home after 6 hours

B As a precaution, the pregnant client should avoid eating shark, swordfish, and mackerel, as well as the less common tilefish. High levels of mercury can harm the developing nervous system of the fetus. Assisting the client in understanding the differences between numerous sources of mercury is essential for the nurse. A pregnant client may eat as much as 12 ounces a week of canned light tuna; however, canned white, albacore, or tuna steaks contain higher levels of mercury and should be limited to no more than 6 ounces per week. Pregnant women and mothers of young children should check with local advisories about the safety of fish caught by families and friends in nearby bodies of water. If no information is available, then these fish sources should be avoided, limited to less than 6 ounces per week, or the only fish consumed that week. Commercially caught fish that is low in mercury includes salmon, shrimp, pollock, or catfish. The pregnant client may eat up to 12 ounces of commercially caught fish per week. Additional information on levels of mercury in commercially caught fish is available at www.cfsan.fda.gov.

Many clients are concerned about the increased levels of mercury in fish and may be reluctant to include this source of nutrients in their diet. What is the best advice for the nurse to provide? a. Canned white tuna is a preferred choice. b. Shark, swordfish, and mackerel should be avoided. c. Fish caught in local waterways is the safest. d. Salmon and shrimp contain high levels of mercury.

C The first 2 hours of the birth are a critical time for the mother and her baby and is often called the fourth stage of labor. Maternal organs undergo their initial readjustment to a nonpregnant state. The third stage of labor lasts from the birth of the baby to the expulsion of the placenta. Bonding will occur over a much longer period, although it may be initiated during the fourth stage of labor.

The first 1 to 2 hours after birth is sometimes referred to as what? a. Bonding period b. Third stage of labor c. Fourth stage of labor d. Early postpartum period

C Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. Maternal hypotension does not result in early FHR decelerations nor is it associated with fetal arrhythmias. Spontaneous rupture of membranes is not a result of maternal hypotension.

The nurse who provides care to clients in labor must have a thorough understanding of the physiologic processes of maternal hypotension. Which outcome might occur if the interventions for maternal hypotension are inadequate? a. Early FHR decelerations b. Fetal arrhythmias c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes

D Uterine contractions are described in terms of frequency, intensity, duration, and resting tone. Appearance is not routinely charted.

Which characteristic of a uterine contraction is not routinely documented? a. Frequency: how often contractions occur b. Intensity: strength of the contraction at its peak c. Resting tone: tension in the uterine muscle d. Appearance: shape and height

A Leopold's maneuvers help identify the number of fetuses, the fetal lie and attitude, and the degree of descent of the presenting part into the pelvis. The gender of the fetus cannot be determined by performing Leopold's maneuvers.

Which component of the physical examination are Leopold's maneuvers unable to determine? a. Gender of the fetus b. Number of fetuses c. Fetal lie and attitude d. Degree of the presenting part's descent into the pelvis

A During the first trimester, the average total weight gain is only 1 to 2.5 kg. The desirable weight gain during pregnancy varies among women. Weight gain should take place throughout the pregnancy. The optimal rate depends on the stage of the pregnancy. The primary factor to consider in making a weight gain recommendation is the appropriateness of the prepregnancy weight for the woman's height. A commonly used method of evaluating the appropriateness of weight for height is the BMI. This woman's BMI is within the normal range, and she has gained the appropriate amount of weight for her size at this point in her pregnancy. Although the statements in A through C are accurate, they do not apply to this client.

A 22-year-old woman pregnant with a single fetus had a preconception body mass index (BMI) of 24. When she was seen in the clinic at 14 weeks of gestation, she had gained 1.8 kg (4 lbs) since conception. How would the nurse interpret this finding? a. The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy. b. This weight gain indicates possible gestational hypertension. c. This weight gain indicates that the woman's infant is at risk for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). d. This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks.

C This woman gave birth to a macrosomic infant after oxytocin augmentation. Combined with these risk factors, uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery. Although retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhaging, it is typically detected within the first hour after delivery of the placenta and is not the most likely cause of the hemorrhaging in this woman. Although unrepaired vaginal lacerations may also cause bleeding, it typically occurs in the period immediately after birth. Puerperal infection can cause subinvolution and subsequent bleeding that is, however, typically detected 24 hours postpartum.

A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy, 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light, and asks for her nurse right away, stating "I'm bleeding a lot." What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhaging in this client? a. Retained placental fragments b. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations c. Uterine atony d. Puerperal infection

C The unwrapped infant should be placed on the woman's bare chest or abdomen, then covered with a warm blanket. Skin-to-skin contact keeps the newborn warm, prevents neonatal infection, enhances physiologic adjustment to extrauterine life, and fosters early breastfeeding. Although complete assessment in the nursery is the practice in many facilities, it is neither evidence-based nor supportive of family-centered care. Handing the mother the blanket-wrapped baby is a common practice and more family friendly than separating mother and baby; however, ideally the baby should be placed on the mother skin to skin. The father or support person is likely also anxious to hold and admire the newborn. This can happen after the infant has been placed skin to skin with the mother and breastfeeding has been initiated.

A client has just delivered a healthy newborn. Which action should the nurse peform based on evidence-based care practice in the immediate newborn period? a. After drying, the infant should be given to the mother wrapped in a receiving blanket. b. The healthy newborn should be taken to the nursery for a complete assessment. c. Skin-to-skin contact of mother and baby should be encouraged. d. The father or support person should be encouraged to hold the infant while awaiting delivery of the placenta.

D Sardines are rich in calcium. Fresh apricots, canned clams, and spaghetti with meat sauce are not high in calcium.

A client states that she does not drink milk. Which foods should the nurse encourage this woman to consume in greater amounts to increase her calcium intake? a. Fresh apricots b. Canned clams c. Spaghetti with meat sauce d. Canned sardines

B A lactating woman needs to avoid consuming too much caffeine. Vitamin C, zinc, and protein levels need to be moderately higher during lactation than during pregnancy. The recommendations for iron and folic acid are lower during lactation. Lactating women should consume approximately 500 kcal more than their prepregnancy intake, at least 1800 kcal daily overall.

A client states that she plans to breastfeed her newborn infant. What guidance would be useful for this new mother? a. The mother's intake of vitamin C, zinc, and protein can now be lower than during pregnancy. b. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful. c. Critical iron and folic acid levels must be maintained. d. Lactating women can go back to their prepregnant caloric intake.

A The woman's supine position may cause the heavy uterus to compress her inferior vena cava, thus reducing blood return to her heart and reducing placental blood flow. Elevating her legs will not relieve the pressure from the inferior vena cava. If the woman is allowed to stay in the supine position and blood flow to the placental is reduced significantly, then fetal tachycardia may occur. The most appropriate nursing action is to prevent this from occurring by turning the woman to her side. Blood pressure readings may be obtained when the client is in the appropriate and safest position.

A laboring woman is reclining in the supine position. What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time? a. Ask her to turn to one side. b. Elevate her feet and legs. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present.

C Constipation can be a problem with iron supplements. Milk, coffee, and tea actually inhibit iron absorption when consumed at the same time as iron. Vitamin C promotes iron absorption. Children who ingest iron can get very sick and even die.

A maternity nurse is counseling a pregnant client about getting enough iron in her diet. What information should the nurse provide? a. Iron supplements are permissible for children in small doses. b. Iron absorption is inhibited by a diet rich in vitamin C. c. Constipation is common with iron supplements. d. Milk, coffee, and tea aid iron absorption if consumed at the same time as iron.

D The umbilical cord may prolapse when the membranes rupture. The FHR and pattern should be closely monitored for several minutes immediately after the ROM to ascertain fetal well-being, and the findings should be documented. The ROM may increase the intensity and frequency of the uterine contractions, but it does not indicate that birth is imminent. The nurse may notify the primary health care provider after ROM occurs and the fetal well-being and response to ROM have been assessed. The nurse's priority is to assess fetal well-being. The nurse should document the characteristics of the amniotic fluid, but the initial response is to assess fetal well-being and the response to ROM.

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse's highest priority in this situation? a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the woman's primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern.

B Explaining what indicates a normal FHR teaches the partner about fetal monitoring and provides support and information to alleviate his fears. Telling the partner not to worry discredits his feelings and does not provide the teaching he is requesting. Telling the partner that the graph indicates how strong the contractions are provides inaccurate information and does not address the partner's concerns about the FHR. The EFM graphs the frequency and duration of the contractions, not their intensity. Nurses should take every opportunity to provide teaching to the client and her family, especially when information is requested.

A new client and her partner arrive on the labor, delivery, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) unit for the birth of their first child. The nurse applies the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." b. "The baby's heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." c. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are." d. "Your physician will explain all of that later."

C The woman is able to relax and close her eyes between contractions as the fetus passively descends. The woman may be very quiet during this phase. During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the urge to bear down is often absent or only slight during the acme of the contractions. Perineal bulging occurs during the transition phase of the second stage of labor, not at the beginning of the second stage. An increase in bright red bloody show occurs during the descent phase of the second stage of labor.

A nulliparous woman has just begun the latent phase of the second stage of her labor. The nurse should anticipate which behavior? a. A nulliparous woman will experience a strong urge to bear down. b. Perineal bulging will show. c. A nulliparous woman will remain quiet with her eyes closed between contractions. d. The amount of bright red bloody show will increase.

A, C, D, E The impact of bariatric surgery on pregnancy can be substantial in that surgical procedures can lead to deficiencies of both macro and micro nutrients. It is important to monitor this client with regard to iron levels, B vitamins (folate, vitamin B12), calcium and vitamin D. It is also important to monitor weight gain during pregnancy for these clients are at risk to have preterm and small for gestational age infants. Although, the amount of weight loss is important, it would not be considered to be the highest nutritional concern.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client who has had bariatric surgery. Which assessment factors would pose the highest nutritional concerns for this client based on her surgical history? Select all that apply. a. Monitoring of iron levels b. Amount of weight loss that has occurred post procedure. c. Amount of weight gain during pregnancy d. Monitoring of calcium levels e. Monitoring of B vitamins

A Cleansing will reduce the possibility that secretions and microorganisms will ascend into the vagina to the cervix. Maternal comfort will also be enhanced. Sterile gloves and lubricant must be used to prevent infection. Vaginal examinations should be performed only as indicated to limit maternal discomfort and reduce the risk for transmission of infection, especially when rupture of membranes occurs. Examinations are never done by the nurse if vaginal bleeding is present, because the bleeding could be a sign of placenta previa and a vaginal examination could result in further separation of the low-lying placenta.

A nurse is preparing to perform a vaginal exam on a client in labor. Which principle should guide the nurse's action? a. Cleanse the vulva and perineum before and after the examination as needed. b. Perform the examination every hour during the active phase of the first stage of labor. c. Perform an examination immediately if active bleeding is present. d. Wear a clean glove lubricated with tap water to reduce discomfort.

A Both normal-weight and underweight women with inadequate weight gain have an increased risk of giving birth to an infant with intrauterine growth restriction. Spina bifida is not associated with inadequate maternal weight gain; an adequate amount of folic acid has been shown to reduce the incidence of this condition. Diabetes mellitus is not related to inadequate weight gain. A mother with gestational diabetes is more likely to give birth to a large-for-gestational age infant. Down syndrome is the result of trisomy 21, not inadequate maternal weight gain.

A nurse is reviewing the impact of inadequate weight gain during pregnancy. Which finding should the nurse anticpate as being at highest risk based on inadquate weight gain? a. Intrauterine growth restriction. b. Down syndrome. c. Diabetes mellitus. d. Spina bifida.

D The hands-and-knees position, with or without the aid of a birth ball, should help with the back pain. The supine position should be discouraged. Walking generally is encouraged. Deep cleansing breaths will assist with any labor pain; however, it is very important that this woman's position is changed so that she is not on her back.

A nurse is taking care of a client in labor who is experiecing back pain. What action should the nurse implement? a. Lie on her back for a while with her knees bent. b. Take some deep, cleansing breaths. c. Do less walking around. d. Lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.

D In many instances a sterile speculum examination and a Nitrazine (pH) and fern test are performed to confirm that fluid seepage is indeed amniotic fluid. A urine analysis should be performed on admission to labor and delivery to determine the presence or absence of glucose and protein. The nurse performs Leopold maneuvers to identify fetal lie, presenting part, and attitude. AROM is the procedure of artificially rupturing membranes, usually with a device known as an amnihook.

A nurse is working with a client in labor. Which of the following should the nurse not include in the plan of care? a. Administer antibiotics b. Observe for bloody, or pink, show c. To monitor the onset of progressive, regular contractions d. Assess for spontaneous rupture of membranes

D Women bearing twins need to gain more weight (usually 16 to 20 kg) but not necessarily twice as much. Underweight women need to gain the most. Obese women need to gain weight during pregnancy to equal the weight of the products of conception. Adolescents are still growing; therefore, their bodies naturally compete for nutrients with the fetus.

A nurse is working with a pregnant client and providing information about weight gain. Which suggestion should the nurse identify as not being appropriate? a. Obese women should gain at least 7 kg. b. Adolescents are encouraged to strive for weight gains at the upper end of the recommended scale. c. Underweight women should gain 12.5 to 18 kg. d. In twin gestations, the weight gain recommended for a single fetus pregnancy should simply be doubled.

C Eating small, frequent meals is a correct suggestion for a pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting. She should avoid consuming fluids early in the day or when nauseated, but should compensate by drinking fluids at other times. She should also reduce her intake of fried foods and other fatty foods.

A nurse observes a pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting. What intervention should the nurse suggest to the client? a. Limit fluid intake throughout the day. b. Increase her intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated. c. Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours). d. Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning.

C True labor contractions occur regularly, become stronger, last longer, and occur closer together. They may become intense during walking and continue despite comfort measures. Typically, true labor contractions are felt in the lower back, radiating to the lower portion of the abdomen. During false labor, contractions tend to be irregular and felt in the abdomen above the navel. Typically the contractions stop with walking or a change of position.

A nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. Which of the following statements indicates that the client correctly undersands the nurse's instruction? a. "True labor contractions will cause discomfort over the top of my uterus." b. "True labor contractions will subside when I walk around." c. "True labor contractions will continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower." d. "True labor contractions will remain irregular but become stronger."

A If no medical or obstetric problems contraindicate physical activity, then pregnant women should get 30 minutes of moderate physical exercise daily. Liberal amounts of fluid should be consumed before, during, and after exercise because dehydration can trigger premature labor. The woman's caloric intake should be sufficient to meet the increased needs of pregnancy and the demands of exercise.

A pregnant woman reports that she is still playing tennis at 32 weeks of gestation. Which recommendation would the nurse make for this particular client after a tennis match? a. Drink several glasses of fluid. b. Eat extra protein sources such as peanut butter. c. Enjoy salty foods to replace lost sodium. d. Consume easily digested sources of carbohydrate.

C A pregnant woman's diet is consistent with that followed by a strict vegetarian (vegan). Vegans consume only plant products. Because vitamin B12 is found in foods of animal origin, this diet is deficient in vitamin B12. Depending on the woman's food choices, a pregnant woman's diet may be adequate in calcium. Protein needs can be sufficiently met by a vegetarian diet. The nurse should be more concerned with the woman's intake of vitamin B12 attributable to her dietary restrictions. Folic acid needs can be met by enriched bread products.

A pregnant woman's diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals, fruits, and vegetables. Which dietary requirement is the nurse most concerned about? a. Calcium b. Protein c. Vitamin B12 d. Folic acid

D Sources of folates include green leafy vegetables, whole grains, fruits, liver, dried peas, and beans. Chicken and cheese are excellent sources of protein but are poor sources for folates. Potatoes contain carbohydrates and vitamins and minerals but are poor sources for folates.

A pregnant woman's diet may not meet her increased need for folates. Which food is a rich source of this nutrient? a. Chicken b. Cheese c. Potatoes d. Green leafy vegetables

D This situation describes a woman with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will likely not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. No further assessments or observations are indicated; therefore, the client will be discharged along with instructions to return when contractions increase in intensity and frequency. Neither a cesarean birth nor a sedative is required at this time.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The FHR has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. What disposition would the nurse anticipate? a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth b. Admitted for extended observation c. Discharged home with a sedative d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor

D A healthy diet before conception is the best way to ensure that adequate nutrients are available for the developing fetus. A woman's folate or folic acid intake is of particular concern in the periconception period. Neural tube defects are more common in infants of women with a poor folic acid intake. Depending on the type of contraception that she has been using, discontinuing all contraception at this time may not be appropriate. Advising this client to lose weight now so that she can gain more during pregnancy is also not appropriate advice. Depending on the type of medications the woman is taking, continuing to take them regularly may not be appropriate.

A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant. Which guidance should she expect to receive? a. "Discontinue all contraception now." b. "Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy." c. "You may take any medications you have been regularly taking." d. "Make sure you include adequate folic acid in your diet."

D Eating small, frequent meals may help with heartburn, nausea, and vomiting. Substituting other calcium sources for milk, lying down after eating, and reducing fiber intake are inappropriate dietary suggestions for all pregnant women and do not alleviate heartburn.

A woman in the 34th week of pregnancy reports that she is very uncomfortable because of heartburn. Which recommendation would be appropriate for this client? a. Substitute other calcium sources for milk in her diet. b. Lie down after each meal. c. Reduce the amount of fiber she consumes. d. Eat five small meals daily.

B The number of invasive procedures such as vaginal examinations, internal monitoring, and IV therapy should be limited as much as possible. The nurse should always avoid words and phrases that may result in the client's recalling the phrases of her abuser (i.e., "Relax, this won't hurt" or "Just open your legs"). The woman's sense of control should be maintained at all times. The nurse should explain procedures at the client's pace and wait for permission to proceed. Protecting the client's environment by providing privacy and limiting the number of staff who observe the client will help to make her feel safe.

A woman who has a history of sexual abuse may have a number of traumatic memories triggered during labor. She may fight the labor process and react with pain or anger. The nurse can implement a number of care measures to help her client view the childbirth experience in a positive manner. Which intervention is key for the nurse to use while providing care? a. Tell the client to relax and that it won't hurt much. b. Limit the number of procedures that invade her body. c. Reassure the client that, as the nurse, you know what is best. d. Allow unlimited care providers to be with the client.

B "It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid" is a statement that allows the woman to share her concerns with the nurse and is a therapeutic communication tool. "Don't worry about it. You'll do fine" negates the woman's fears and is not therapeutic. "Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isn't" negates the woman's fears and offers a false sense of security. To suggest that every woman can have an epidural is untrue. A number of criteria must be met before an epidural is considered. Furthermore, many women still experience the feeling of pressure with an epidural.

A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labor and how she will manage. What is the nurse's ideal response? a. "Don't worry about it. You'll do fine." b. "It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid." c. "Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isn't." d. "You can have an epidural. You won't feel anything."

B All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments; however, this focused assessment has a priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, then other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner; these include: gravida, para, support person, pregnancy history, pain assessment, last food intake, and cultural practices.

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 arrives on the intrapartum unit. What is the most important nursing assessment at this time? a. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history b. FHR, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth c. Identification of ruptured membranes, woman's gravida and para, and her support person d. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires

B Stimulation of the nipples through breastfeeding or manual stimulation causes the release of oxytocin and prevents maternal hemorrhage. Breastfeeding facilitates maternal-newborn interaction, but it is not the primary reason a woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth. The primary intervention for preventing neonatal hypoglycemia is thermoregulation. Cold stress can result in hypoglycemia. The woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth to stimulate the release of oxytocin, which prevents hemorrhaging. Breastfeeding is encouraged to initiate the lactation cycle, but it is not the primary reason for this activity after an emergency birth.

After an emergency birth, the nurse encourages the woman to breastfeed her newborn. What is the primary purpose of this activity? a. To facilitate maternal-newborn interaction b. To stimulate the uterus to contract c. To prevent neonatal hypoglycemia d. To initiate the lactation cycle

A Protein is the nutritional element basic to growth. An adequate protein intake is essential to meeting the increasing demands of pregnancy. These demands arise from the rapid growth of the fetus; the enlargement of the uterus, mammary glands, and placenta; the increase in the maternal blood volume; and the formation of the amniotic fluid. Iron intake prevents anemia. Calcium intake is needed for fetal bone and tooth development. Glycemic control is needed in those with diabetes; protein is one nutritional factor to consider for glycemic control but not the primary role of protein intake.

After the nurse completes nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman, she asks the client to repeat the instructions to assess the client's understanding. Which statement indicates that the client understands the role of protein in her pregnancy? a. "Protein will help my baby grow." b. "Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic." c. "Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born." d. "Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic."

A Hispanic women routinely have fathers and female relatives in attendance during the second stage of labor. The father of the baby is expected to provide encouragement, support, and reassurance that all will be well. In China, fathers are usually not present. The side-lying position is preferred for labor and birth because it is believed that this will reduce trauma to the infant. In China, the client has a stoic response to pain. In Iran, the father will not be present. Female support persons and female health care providers are preferred. For many, a male caregiver is unacceptable. In India, the father is usually not present, but female relatives are usually in attendance. Natural childbirth methods are preferred.

As the United States and Canada continue to become more culturally diverse, recognizing a wide range of varying cultural beliefs and practices is increasingly important for the nursing staff. A client is from which country if she requests to have the baby's father in attendance? a. Mexico b. China c. Iran d. India

B A registered dietitian can help with therapeutic diets. Oral contraceptive use may interfere with the absorption of folic acid. Iron deficiency can appear if placement of an intrauterine device (IUD) results in blood loss. A woman's finances can affect her access to good nutrition; her education (or lack thereof) can influence the nurse's teaching decisions. The nutrition-related laboratory test that pregnant women usually need is a screen for anemia.

Assessment of a woman's nutritional status includes a diet history, medication regimen, physical examination, and relevant laboratory tests. Which finding might require consultation to a higher level of care? a. Oral contraceptive use may interfere with the absorption of iron. b. Illnesses that have created nutritional deficits, such as PKU, may require nutritional care before conception. c. The woman's socioeconomic status and educational level are not relevant to her examination; they are the province of the social worker. d. Testing for diabetes is the only nutrition-related laboratory test most pregnant women need.

A, B, C, E A nonreassuring or abnormal FHR pattern, inadequate uterine relaxation, vaginal bleeding, infection, and cord prolapse all constitute an emergency during labor that requires immediate nursing intervention. A prolonged second stage of labor after the upper limits for duration is reached. This is 3 hours for nulliparous women and 2 hours for multiparous women.

Emergency conditions during labor that would require immediate nursing intervention can arise with startling speed. Which situations are examples of such an emergency? (Select all that apply.) a. Nonreassuring or abnormal FHR pattern b. Inadequate uterine relaxation c. Vaginal bleeding d. Prolonged second stage e. Prolapse of the cord

C The recommended intake of protein for the pregnant woman is 70 g. Therefore, additional protein intakes of 5, 10, or 15 g would be inadequate to meet protein needs during pregnancy. A protein intake of 30 g is more than would be necessary and would add extra calories.

If a client's normal prepregnancy diet contains 45 g of protein daily, how many more grams of protein should she consume per day during pregnancy? a. 5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 30

B Nutritional status draws so much attention not only for its effect on a healthy pregnancy and birth but also because significant changes are within relatively easy reach. Pregnancy is a time when many women are motivated to learn about adequate nutrition and make changes to their diet that will benefit their baby. Pregnancy is not the time to begin a weight loss diet. Clients and their caregivers should still be concerned with appropriate weight gain.

Maternal nutritional status is an especially significant factor of the many that influence the outcome of pregnancy. Why is this the case? a. Maternal nutritional status is extremely difficult to adjust because of an individual's ingrained eating habits. b. Adequate nutrition is an important preventive measure for a variety of problems. c. Women love obsessing about their weight and diets. d. A woman's preconception weight becomes irrelevant.

A, B, C, D The nurse should be especially aware that conditions such as diabetes can require in-depth dietary planning and evaluation. To prevent issues with hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as well as an increased risk for perinatal morbidity and mortality, the client with a preexisting or gestational illness would benefit from a referral to a dietitian. Consultation with a dietitian may ensure that cultural food beliefs are congruent with modern knowledge of fetal development and that adjustments can be made to ensure that all nutritional needs are met. The obese pregnant client may be under the misapprehension that, because of her excess weight, little or no weight gain is necessary. According to the Institute of Medicine, a client with a BMI in the obese range should gain at least 7 kg to ensure a healthy outcome. This client may require in-depth counseling on the optimal food choices. The vegetarian client needs to have her dietary intake carefully assessed to ensure that the optimal combination of amino acids and protein intake is achieved. Very strict vegetarians (vegans) who consume only plant products may also require vitamin B and mineral supplementation. A multifetal pregnancy

Most women with uncomplicated pregnancies can use the nurse as their primary source for nutritional information. However, the nurse or midwife may need to refer a client to a registered dietitian for in-depth nutritional counseling. Which conditions would require such a consultation? (Select all that apply.) a. Preexisting or gestational illness such as diabetes b. Ethnic or cultural food patterns c. Obesity d. Vegetarian diets e. Multifetal pregnancy

D The physiologic changes of pregnancy may complicate the interpretation of physical findings. Lower extremity edema often occurs when caloric and protein deficiencies are present; however, edema in the lower extremities may also be a common physical finding during the third trimester. Completing a thorough health history and physical assessment and requesting further laboratory testing, if indicated, are essential for the nurse. The malnourished pregnant client may display rapid heart rate, abnormal rhythm, enlarged heart, and elevated blood pressure. A client receiving adequate nutrition will have bright, shiny eyes with no sores and moist, pink membranes. Pale or red membranes, dryness, infection, dull appearance of the cornea, or blue sclerae are signs of poor nutrition. A client who is alert and responsive with good endurance is well nourished. A listless, cachectic, easily fatigued, and tired presentation would be an indication of a poor nutritional status.

Nutrition is an alterable and important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such as low birth weight and prematurity. While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client, the nurse is able to evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs. Which physical sign indicates to the nurse that the client has unmet nutritional needs? a. Normal heart rate, rhythm, and blood pressure b. Bright, clear, and shiny eyes c. Alert and responsive with good endurance d. Edema, tender calves, and tingling

C Adolescents tend to have lower BMIs. In addition, the fetus and the still-growing mother appear to compete for nutrients. These factors, along with inadequate weight gain, lend themselves to a higher incidence of low-birth-weight babies. Obesity is associated with a higher-than-normal BMI. Unless the teenager has type 1 diabetes, an adolescent with a low BMI is less likely to develop gestational diabetes. High-birth-weight or large-for-gestational age (LGA) babies are most often associated with gestational diabetes.

Pregnant adolescents are at greater risk for decreased BMI and "fad" dieting with which condition? a. Obesity b. Gestational diabetes c. Low-birth-weight babies d. High-birth-weight babies

D The client should not be instructed to use this maneuver. This process stimulates the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system and produces a vagal response (decrease in heart rate and blood pressure.) An alternative method includes instructing the client to perform open-mouth and open-glottis breathing and pushing.

The Valsalva maneuver can be described as the process of making a forceful bearing-down attempt while holding one's breath with a closed glottis and a tightening of the abdominal muscles. When is it appropriate to instruct the client to use this maneuver? a. During the second stage to enhance the movement of the fetus b. During the third stage to help expel the placenta c. During the fourth stage to expel blood clots d. Not at all

C Obstetricians today are seeing an increasing number of morbidly obese pregnant women weighing 400, 500, and 600 pounds. To manage their conditions and to meet their logistical needs, a new medical subspecialty,bariatric obstetrics, has arisen. Extra-wide blood pressure cuffs, scales that can accommodate up to 880 pounds, and extra-wide surgical tables designed to hold the weight of these women are used. Special techniques for ultrasound examination and longer surgical instruments for cesarean birth are also required. A temporal thermometer can be used for a pregnant client of any size.

The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a client who is severely obese (bariatric) for an elective cesarean birth. Which piece of specialized equipment will not likely be needed when providing care for this pregnant woman? a. Extra-long surgical instruments b. Wide surgical table c. Temporal thermometer d. Increased diameter blood pressure cuff

D Complex carbohydrates supply the pregnant woman with vitamins, minerals, and fiber. The most common simple carbohydrate is table sugar, which is a source of energy but does not provide any nutrients. Fats provide 9 kcal in each gram, in contrast to carbohydrates and proteins, which provide only 4 kcal in each gram. Fiber is primarily supplied by complex carbohydrates.

The major source of nutrients in the diet of a pregnant woman should be composed of what? a. Simple sugars b. Fats c. Fiber d. Complex carbohydrates

A A weight gain of 30 pounds is one indication that the client has gained a sufficient amount for the nutritional needs of pregnancy. A daily supplement is not the best goal for this client and does not meet the basic need of proper nutrition during pregnancy. Decreasing snack foods may be needed and should be assessed; however, assessing weight gain is the best method of monitoring nutritional intake for this pregnant client. Although increasing the intake of complex carbohydrates is important for this client, monitoring the weight gain should be the end goal.

The nurse has formulated a diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirementsfor the client. Which goal is most appropriate for this client to obtain? a. Gain a total of 30 pounds. b. Consistently take daily supplements. c. Decrease her intake of snack foods. d. Increase her intake of complex carbohydrates.

A When the membranes rupture, microorganisms from the vagina can ascend into the amniotic sac, causing chorioamnionitis and placentitis. ROM is not associated with fetal or maternal bleeding. Although ROM may increase the intensity of the contractions and facilitate active labor, it does not result in precipitous labor. ROM has no correlation with supine hypotension.

The nurse is caring for a client in early labor. Membranes ruptured approximately 2 hours earlier. This client is at increased risk for which complication? a. Intrauterine infection b. Hemorrhage c. Precipitous labor d. Supine hypotension

D Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be verbally reassured and reassured by viewing the ultrasound pictures if that device is used to help locate the heartbeat. When used as the primary method of fetal assessment, IA requires a nurse-to-client ratio of one to one. Documentation should use only terms that can be numerically defined; the usual visual descriptions of EFM are inappropriate.

The nurse is using intermittent auscultation (IA) to locate the fetal heartbeat. Which statement regarding this method of surveillance is accurate? a. The nurse can be expected to cover only two or three clients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment. b. The best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with EFM when documenting results. c. If the heartbeat cannot be immediately found, then a shift must be made to EFM. d. Ultrasound can be used to find the FHR and to reassure the mother if the initial difficulty is a factor.

D The nurse should discuss the findings of the vaginal examination with the woman and her partner, as well as report the findings to the primary care provider. A vaginal examination should be performed only when indicated by the status of the woman and her fetus. The woman should be positioned so as to avoid supine hypotension. The examiner should wear a sterile glove while performing a vaginal examination for a laboring woman.

The nurse performs a vaginal examination to assess a client's labor progress. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor. b. Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position. c. Wear two clean gloves for each examination. d. Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

C Uteroplacental insufficiency results in late FHR decelerations. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow results in early FHR decelerations. Umbilical cord compression results in variable FHR decelerations. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the FHR, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

The nurse providing care for a high-risk laboring woman is alert for late FHR decelerations. Which clinical finding might be the cause for these late decelerations? a. Altered cerebral blood flow b. Umbilical cord compression c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Meconium fluid

A Women are awake with regional anesthesia and are able to protect their own airway, which reduces the worry over aspiration. Routine IV fluids during labor are unlikely to be beneficial and may be harmful. The routine use of an enema is, at best, ineffective and may be harmful. Having the urge to defecate followed by the birth of her fetus is true for a multiparous woman but not for a nulliparous woman.

The nurse should be aware of which information related to a woman's intake and output during labor? a. Traditionally, restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia. b. Intravenous (IV) fluids are usually necessary to ensure that the laboring woman stays hydrated. c. Routine use of an enema empties the rectum and is very helpful for producing a clean, clear delivery. d. When a nulliparous woman experiences the urge to defecate, it often means birth will quickly follow.

D Nonreassuring FHR patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Variable FHR decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

The perinatal nurse realizes that an FHR that is tachycardic, bradycardic, has late decelerations, or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with which condition? a. Hypotension b. Cord compression c. Maternal drug use d. Hypoxemia

C The nurse is responsible for monitoring the uterine contractions to ascertain whether they are powerful and frequent enough to accomplish the work of expelling the fetus and the placenta. In addition, the nurse documents these findings in the client's medical record. This labor pattern indicates that the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Nothing indicates a need to notify the primary health care provider at this time. Oxytocin augmentation is not needed for this labor pattern; this contraction pattern indicates that the woman is in active labor. Her contractions will eventually become stronger, last longer, and come closer together during the transition phase of the first stage of labor. The transition phase precedes the second stage of labor, or delivery of the fetus.

The uterine contractions of a woman early in the active phase of labor are assessed by an internal uterine pressure catheter (IUPC). The uterine contractions occur every 3 to 4 minutes and last an average of 55 to 60 seconds. They are becoming more regular and are moderate to strong. Based on this information, what would a prudent nurse do next? a. Immediately notify the woman's primary health care provider. b. Prepare to administer an oxytocic to stimulate uterine activity. c. Document the findings because they reflect the expected contraction pattern for the active phase of labor. d. Prepare the woman for the onset of the second stage of labor.

B This maternal progress indicates that the woman is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. During the latent phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress is 0 to 3 cm dilation with contractions every 5 to 30 minutes. During the transition phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress is 8 to 10 cm dilation with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman is completely dilated and experiences a restful period of "laboring down."

Through a vaginal examination, the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated. The external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every to 4 minutes. The nurse reports this as what stage of labor? a. First stage, latent phase b. First stage, active phase c. First stage, transition phase d. Second stage, latent phase

B Iron supplements taken at bedtime may reduce GI upset and should be taken at bedtime if abdominal discomfort occurs when iron supplements are taken between meals. Iron supplements are best absorbed if they are taken when the stomach is empty. Bran, tea, coffee, milk, and eggs may reduce absorption.

To prevent gastrointestinal (GI) upset, when should a pregnant client be instructed to take the recommended iron supplements? a. On a full stomach b. At bedtime c. After eating a meal d. With milk

A The hands-and-knees position is effective in helping to rotate the fetus from a posterior to an anterior position. Many women experience the irresistible urge to push when the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. In some cases, this urge is felt before the woman is fully dilated. The woman should be instructed not to push until complete cervical dilation has occurred. No one position is correct for childbirth. The two most common positions assumed by women are the sitting and side-lying positions. The woman may be encouraged into a hands-and-knees position if the umbilical cord prolapsed when the membranes ruptured.

Under which circumstance should the nurse assist the laboring woman into a hands-and-knees position? a. Occiput of the fetus is in a posterior position. b. Fetus is at or above the ischial spines. c. Fetus is in a vertex presentation. d. Membranes have ruptured.

B An accelerated FHR is a positive sign; therefore, a vaginal examination would not be necessary. A vaginal examination should be performed when the woman is admitted to the hospital, when she perceives perineal pressure or the urge to bear down, when her membranes rupture, when a significant change in her uterine activity has occurred, or when variable decelerations of the FHR are noted.

Under which circumstance would it be unnecessary for the nurse to perform a vaginal examination? a. Admission to the hospital at the start of labor b. When accelerations of the FHR are noted c. On maternal perception of perineal pressure or the urge to bear down d. When membranes rupture

A Nurses who care for women during childbirth are legally responsible for correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions based on those patterns, and documenting the outcomes of those interventions. Greeting the client on arrival, assessing her, and starting an IV line are activities that should be performed when any client arrives to the maternity unit. The nurse is not the only one legally responsible for performing these functions. Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the health care provider is a nursing function that is part of the standard of care for all obstetric clients and falls within the registered nurse's scope of practice. Everyone caring for the pregnant woman should ensure that both she and her support partner are comfortable.

What are the legal responsibilities of the perinatal nurses? a. Correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes b. Greeting the client on arrival, assessing her status, and starting an IV line c. Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the health care provider d. Ensuring that the woman is comfortable

A The care given immediately after the birth focuses on assessing and stabilizing the newborn. Although fostering parent-newborn attachment is an important task for the nurse, it is not the most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth. The care given immediately after birth focuses on assessing and stabilizing the newborn. The nursing activities are (in order of importance) to maintain a patent airway, to support respiratory effort, and to prevent cold stress by drying the newborn and covering him or her with a warmed blanket or placing the newborn under a radiant warmer. After the newborn has been stabilized, the nurse assesses the newborn's physical condition, weighs and measures the newborn, administers prophylactic eye ointment and a vitamin K injection, affixes an identification bracelet, wraps the newborn in warm blankets, and then gives the newborn to the partner or to the mother of the infant.

What is the most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after the birth? a. Keeping the airway clear b. Fostering parent-newborn attachment c. Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket d. Administering eye drops and vitamin K

A Early decelerations are the fetus' response to fetal head compression; these are considered benign, and interventions are not necessary. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the FHR unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

What is the most likely cause for early decelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern? a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow b. Umbilical cord compression c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes

B Variable FHR decelerations can occur at any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow results in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency results in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia initially results in tachycardia and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

What is the most likely cause for variable FHR decelerations? a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow b. Umbilical cord compression c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Fetal hypoxemia

C Infants are wet with amniotic fluid and blood at birth, and this accelerates evaporative heat loss. The primary purpose of drying the infant is to prevent heat loss. Although rubbing the infant stimulates crying, it is not the main reason for drying the infant. This process does not remove all the maternal blood.

What is the primary rationale for the thorough drying of the infant immediately after birth? a. Stimulates crying and lung expansion b. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface c. Reduces heat loss from evaporation d. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet

B Oxytocics stimulate uterine contractions, which reduce blood loss after the third stage of labor. Oxytocics are not used to treat pain, do not prevent infection, and do not facilitate rest and relaxation.

What is the rationale for the administration of an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) after expulsion of the placenta? a. To relieve pain b. To stimulate uterine contraction c. To prevent infection d. To facilitate rest and relaxation

B Basic interventions for the management of any abnormal FHR pattern include administering O2 via a nonrebreather face mask at a rate of 8 to 10 L/min, assisting the woman onto a side-lying (lateral) position, and increasing blood volume by increasing the rate of the primary IV infusion. The purpose of these interventions is to improve uterine blood flow and intervillous space blood flow and to increase maternal oxygenation and cardiac output. The term intrauterine resuscitation is sometimes used to refer to these interventions. If these interventions do not quickly resolve the abnormal FHR issue, then the primary provider should be immediately notified.

What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Turn the client onto her side, provide oxygen (O2) via face mask, and increase intravenous (IV) fluids. c. Administer O2 to the mother, increase IV fluids, and notify the health care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide O2 via face mask.

D Assessment begins at the first contact with the woman, whether by telephone or in person. By asking the woman to describe her signs and symptoms, the nurse can begin her assessment and gather data. The initial nursing activity should be to gather data about the woman's status. The amniotic membranes may or may not spontaneously rupture during labor. The client may be instructed to stay home until the uterine contractions become strong and regular. Before instructing the woman to come to the hospital, the nurse should initiate her assessment during the telephone interview. After this assessment has been made, the nurse may want to discuss the appropriate oral intake for early labor, such as light foods or clear liquids, depending on the preference of the client or her primary health care provider.

When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor, what guidance should the nurse provide or information should the nurse obtain? a. Tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture. b. Emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop. c. Arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation. d. Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

A Placental separation is indicated by a firmly contracting uterus, a change in the uterus from a discoid to a globular ovoid shape, a sudden gush of dark red blood from the introitus, an apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a finding of vaginal fullness. Cervical tears that do not extend to the vagina result in minimal blood loss. Signs of hemorrhage are a boggy uterus, bright red vaginal bleeding, alterations in vital signs, pallor, lightheadedness, restlessness, decreased urinary output, and alteration in the level of consciousness. If clots have formed in the upper uterine segment, then the nurse would expect to find the uterus boggy and displaced to the side.

When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-pound boy, the nurse notes that the woman's fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. What is the nurse's assessment of the situation? a. The placenta has separated. b. A cervical tear occurred during the birth. c. The woman is beginning to hemorrhage. d. Clots have formed in the upper uterine segment.

A The vaginal examination reveals whether the woman is in true labor. Cervical change, especially dilation, in the presence of adequate labor, indicates that the woman is in true labor. Engagement and descent of the fetus are not synonymous and may occur before labor. ROM may occur with or without the presence of labor. Bloody show may indicate a slow, progressive cervical change (e.g., effacement) in both true and false labor.

When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective? a. Dilation of the cervix b. Descent of the fetus to -2 station c. Rupture of the amniotic membranes d. Increase in bloody show

A Both upright and squatting positions may enhance the progress of fetal descent. Many factors dictate when a woman should begin pushing. Complete cervical dilation is necessary, but complete dilation is only one factor. If the fetal head is still in a higher pelvic station, then the physician or midwife may allow the woman to "labor down" if the woman is able (allowing more time for fetal descent and thereby reducing the amount of pushing needed). The epidural may mask the sensations and muscle control needed for the woman to push effectively. Closed glottic breathing may trigger the Valsalva maneuver, which increases intrathoracic and cardiovascular pressures, reducing cardiac output and inhibiting perfusion of the uterus and placenta. In addition, holding her breath for longer than 5 to 7 seconds diminishes the perfusion of oxygen across the placenta and results in fetal hypoxia.

When managing the care of a woman in the second stage of labor, the nurse uses various measures to enhance the progress of fetal descent. Which instruction best describes these measures? a. Encouraging the woman to try various upright positions, including squatting and standing b. Telling the woman to start pushing as soon as her cervix is fully dilated c. Continuing an epidural anesthetic so pain is reduced and the woman can relax d. Coaching the woman to use sustained, 10- to 15-second, closed-glottis bearing-down efforts with each contraction

C Nurses should be prepared for the shift. The PMI of the FHR is usually directly over the fetal back. In a vertex position, the PMI of the FHR is heard below the mother's umbilicus. In a breech position, it is heard above the mother's umbilicus.

Where is the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of the FHR located? a. Usually directly over the fetal abdomen b. In a vertex position, heard above the mother's umbilicus c. Heard lower and closer to the midline of the mother's abdomen as the fetus descends and internally rotates d. In a breech position, heard below the mother's umbilicus

D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Late FHR decelerations are considered ominous if they are persistent and left uncorrected. Accelerations with fetal movement are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they are not generally a concern during normal labor. An FHR finding of 126 beats per minute is normal and not a concern.

Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse who is providing care to a laboring client? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. Average FHR of 126 beats per minute d. Late decelerations

C The nurse or primary health care provider may assess uterine activity by palpating the fundal section of the uterus using the fingertips. Many women may experience labor pain in the lower segment of the uterus, which may be unrelated to the firmness of the contraction detectable in the uterine fundus. The frequency of uterine contractions is determined by palpating from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. Assessment of uterine activity is performed in intervals based on the stage of labor. As labor progresses, this assessment is performed more frequently.

Which action is correct when palpation is used to assess the characteristics and pattern of uterine contractions? a. Placing the hand on the abdomen below the umbilicus and palpating uterine tone with the fingertips b. Determining the frequency by timing from the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction c. Evaluating the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus d. Assessing uterine contractions every 30 minutes throughout the first stage of labor

D Understanding the client's food preferences and how she prepares food will assist the nurse in determining whether the client's culture is adversely affecting her nutritional intake. An evaluation of a client's weight gain during pregnancy should be included for all clients, not only for clients from different cultural backgrounds. The socioeconomic status of the client may alter the nutritional intake but not the cultural influence. Teaching the food groups to the client should come after assessing her food preferences.

Which action is the first priority for the nurse who is assessing the influence of culture on a client's diet? a. Evaluate the client's weight gain during pregnancy. b. Assess the socioeconomic status of the client. c. Discuss the four food groups with the client. d. Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the client's culture.

B Adolescents should gain in the upper range of the recommended weight gain. They also need to gain weight that would be expected for their own normal growth. Changes in the diet should be kept at a minimum. Snack foods can be included in moderation, and other foods can be added to make up for lost nutrients. Eliminating fast foods would make the adolescent appear different to her peers. The client should be taught to choose foods that add needed nutrients. Adolescents are willing to make changes; however, they still have the need to be similar to their peers.

Which action is the highest priority for the nurse when educating a pregnant adolescent? a. Emphasize the need to eliminate common teenage snack foods because they are high in fat and sodium. b. Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth, and add 35 pounds. c. Suggest that she not eat at fast-food restaurants to avoid foods of poor nutritional value. d. Realize that most adolescents are unwilling to make dietary changes during pregnancy.

A Amnioinfusion is used during labor to either dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable FHR decelerations caused by cord compression. Late decelerations are unresponsive to amnioinfusion. Amnioinfusion is not appropriate for the treatment of fetal bradycardia and has no bearing on fetal tachycardia.

Which alteration in the FHR pattern would indicate the potential need for an amnioinfusion? a. Variable decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Fetal bradycardia d. Fetal tachycardia

C During the descent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman may experience an increase in the urge to bear down. The ROM has no significance in determining the stage of labor. The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation. Many women may have an urge to bear down when the presenting fetal part is below the level of the ischial spines. This urge can occur during the first stage of labor, as early as with 5 cm dilation.

Which clinical finding indicates that the client has reached the second stage of labor? a. Amniotic membranes rupture. b. Cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination. c. Woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. d. Presenting part of the fetus is below the ischial spines.

A Fetal tachycardia can be considered an early sign of fetal hypoxemia and may also result from maternal or fetal infection. Umbilical cord prolapse, regional anesthesia, and the administration of magnesium sulfate will each more likely result in fetal bradycardia, not tachycardia.

Which clinical finding or intervention might be considered the rationale for fetal tachycardia to occur? a. Maternal fever b. Umbilical cord prolapse c. Regional anesthesia d. Magnesium sulfate administration

D Reddish-haired women have tissue that is less distensible than darker-skinned women and therefore may have less efficient healing. First-time mothers are also at greater risk, especially with breech births, long second-stage labors, or rapid labors during which the time for the perineum to stretch is insufficient. The rate of episiotomies is higher when obstetricians rather than midwives attend the births. The woman in the first scenario (a) is at low risk for either damaging lacerations or an episiotomy. She is multiparous, has dark skin, and is being attended by a midwife, who is less likely to perform an episiotomy. Reddish-haired women have tissue that is less distensible than that of darker-skinned women. Consequently, the client in the second scenario (b) is at increased risk for lacerations; however, she has had two previous deliveries, which result in a lower likelihood of an episiotomy. The fact that the woman in the third scenario (c) is experiencing a prolonged labor might increase her risk for lacerations. Fortunately, she is dark skinned, which indicates that her tissue is more distensible than that of fair-skinned women and therefore less susceptible to injury.

Which collection of risk factors will most likely result in damaging lacerations, including episiotomies? a. Dark-skinned woman who has had more than one pregnancy, who is going through prolonged second-stage labor, and who is attended by a midwife b. Reddish-haired mother of two who is going through a breech birth c. Dark-skinned first-time mother who is going through a long labor d. First-time mother with reddish hair whose rapid labor was overseen by an obstetrician

B The active phase is characterized by moderate and regular contractions, 4 to 7 cm dilation, and duration of 3 to 6 hours. The latent phase is characterized by mild-to-moderate and irregular contractions, dilation up to 3 cm, brownish-to-pale pink mucus, and duration of 6 to 8 hours. No official "lull" phase exists in the first stage. The transition phase is characterized by strong to very strong and regular contractions, 8 to 10 cm dilation, and duration of 20 to 40 minutes.

Which description of the phases of the first stage of labor is most accurate? a. Latent: mild, regular contractions; no dilation; bloody show b. Active: moderate, regular contractions; 4 to 7 cm dilation c. Lull: no contractions; dilation stable d. Transition: very strong but irregular contractions; 8 to 10 cm dilation

C The descent phase begins with a significant increase in contractions; the Ferguson reflex is activated, and the duration varies, depending on a number of factors. The latent phase is the lull or "laboring down" period at the beginning of the second stage and lasts 10 to 30 minutes on average. The second stage of labor has no active phase. The transition phase is the final phase in the second stage of labor; contractions are strong and painful.

Which description of the phases of the second stage of labor is most accurate? a. Latent phase: Feeling sleepy; fetal station 2+ to 4+; duration of 30 to 45 minutes b. Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions; Ferguson reflux activated; duration of 5 to 15 minutes c. Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions; Ferguson reflux activated; average duration varies d. Transitional phase: Woman "laboring down"; fetal station 0; duration of 15 minutes

A Interestingly, some women can tolerate tart or salty foods when they are nauseated. Lemonade and potato chips are an ideal combination. The woman should avoid drinking too much when nausea is most likely, but she should increase her fluid levels later in the day when she feels better. The woman should avoid brushing her teeth immediately after eating. A small snack of cereal and milk or yogurt before bedtime may help the stomach in the morning.

Which guidance might the nurse provide for a client with severe morning sickness? a. Trying lemonade and potato chips b. Drinking plenty of fluids early in the day c. Immediately brushing her teeth after eating d. Never snacking before bedtime

A Good sources for protein, such as meat, milk, eggs, and cheese, have a lot of calcium and iron. Most women already eat a high-protein diet and do not need to increase their intake. Protein is sufficiently important that specific servings of meat and dairy are recommended. High-protein supplements are not recommended because they have been associated with an increased incidence of preterm births.

Which information regarding protein in the diet of a pregnant woman is most helpful to the client? a. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. b. Many women need to increase their protein intake during pregnancy. c. As with carbohydrates and fat, no specific recommendations exist for the amount of protein in the diet. d. High-protein supplements can be used without risk by women on macrobiotic diets.

A According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA), a woman is entitled to active labor care and is presumed to be in true labor until a qualified health care provider certifies otherwise. A woman may have anyone she wishes present for her support. An interpreter must be provided by the hospital, either in person or by a telephonic service. Siblings of the new infant may be allowed at the delivery, depending on hospital policy and adequate preparation and supervision.

Which information regarding the procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit is important for the nurse to understand? a. Client is considered to be in active labor when she arrives at the facility with contractions. b. Client can have only her male partner or predesignated doula with her at assessment. c. Children are not allowed on the labor unit. d. Non-English speaking client must bring someone to translate.

C Iron should generally be supplemented, and folic acid supplements are often needed because folate is so important in pregnancy. Fat-soluble vitamins should be supplemented as a medical prescription, as vitamin D might be for lactose-intolerant women. Water-soluble vitamin C is sometimes naturally consumed in excess; vitamin B6 is prescribed only if the woman has a very poor diet; and zinc is sometimes supplemented. Most women get enough calcium.

Which minerals and vitamins are usually recommended as a supplement in a pregnant client's diet? a. Fat-soluble vitamins A and D b. Water-soluble vitamins C and B6 c. Iron and folate d. Calcium and zinc

C A bulging vulva that encircles the fetal head describes crowning, which occurs shortly before birth. Birth of the head occurs when the station is +4. A 0 station indicates engagement. Bloody show occurs throughout the labor process and is not an indication of an imminent birth. ROM can occur at any time during the labor process and does not indicate an imminent birth.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. Fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucous discharge increases. c. Vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. Membranes rupture during a contraction.

A Nutrient needs for energy—protein, calcium, iodine, zinc, B vitamins, and vitamin C—remain higher during lactation than during pregnancy. The need for iron is not higher during lactation than during pregnancy. A lactating woman does not have a greater requirement for vitamin A than a nonpregnant woman. Folic acid requirements are the highest during the first trimester of pregnancy.

Which nutrient's recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is higher during lactation than during pregnancy? a. Energy (kcal) b. Iron c. Vitamin A d. Folic acid

A Six to eight glasses is still the standard for fluids; however, they should be the right fluids. All beverages containing caffeine, including tea, cocoa, and some soft drinks, should be avoided or should be consumed only in limited amounts. Artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, have no ill effects on the normal mother or fetus. However, mothers with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid aspartame. Although no evidence indicates that prenatal fluoride consumption reduces childhood tooth decay, fluoride still helps the mother.

Which nutritional recommendation regarding fluids is accurate? a. A woman's daily intake should be six to eight glasses of water, milk, and/or juice. b. Coffee should be limited to no more than 2 cups, but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry. c. Of the artificial sweeteners, only aspartame has not been associated with any maternity health concerns. d. Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the child's risk of tooth decay.

D A weight gain of 5 to 9 kg will provide sufficient nutrients for the fetus. Overweight and obese women should be advised to lose weight before conception to achieve the best pregnancy outcomes. A higher weight gain in twin gestations may help prevent low birth weights. Adolescents need to gain weight toward the higher acceptable range, which provides for their own growth, as well as for fetal growth. In the past, women of short stature were advised to restrict their weight gain; however, evidence to support these guidelines has not been found.

Which pregnant woman should strictly follow weight gain recommendations during pregnancy? a. Pregnant with twins b. In early adolescence c. Shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm d. Was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy

A Overall contraction frequency generally ranges from two to five contractions per 10 minutes of labor, with lower frequencies during the first stage and higher frequencies observed during the second stage. Contraction duration remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages, ranging from 45 to 80 seconds, generally not exceeding 90 seconds. Contractions 1 minute apart are occurring too often and would be considered an abnormal labor pattern. The intensity of uterine contractions generally ranges from 25 to 50 mm Hg in the first stage of labor and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage.

Which statement best describes a normal uterine activity pattern in labor? a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes b. Contractions lasting approximately 2 minutes c. Contractions approximately 1 minute apart d. Contraction intensity of approximately 500 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg

C Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. The loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes (ROM) often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

Which statement by the client will assist the nurse in determining whether she is in true labor as opposed to false labor? a. "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning." b. "My bag of waters just broke." c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." d. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."

B Active management facilitates placental separation and expulsion, reducing the risk of complications. The placenta cannot detach itself from a flaccid (relaxed) uterus. Which surface of the placenta comes out first is not clinically important. The major risk for women during the third stage of labor is postpartum hemorrhaging.

Which statement concerning the third stage of labor is correct? a. The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus. b. An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. c. It is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appears before the shiny fetal surface. d. The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.

B Lactose intolerance, which is an inability to digest milk sugar because of a lack of the enzyme lactose in the small intestine, is a problem that interferes with milk consumption. Milk consumption may cause abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhea in such people, although many lactose-intolerant individuals can tolerate small amounts of milk without symptoms. A woman with lactose intolerance is more likely to experience bloating and cramping, not heartburn. A client who breaks out in hives after consuming milk is more likely to have a milk allergy and should be advised to simply brush her teeth after consuming dairy products.

Which statement made by a lactating woman leads the nurse to believe that the client might have lactose intolerance? a. "I always have heartburn after I drink milk." b. "If I drink more than a cup of milk, I usually have abdominal cramps and bloating." c. "Drinking milk usually makes me break out in hives." d. "Sometimes I notice that I have bad breath after I drink a cup of milk."

A The Ritgen maneuver extends the head during the actual birth and protects the perineum. Gentle, steady pressure against the fundus of the uterus facilitates vaginal birth. The lithotomy position has been commonly used in Western cultures, partly because it is convenient for the health care provider. The De Lee apparatus is used to suction fluid from the infant's mouth.

Which technique is an adequate means of controlling the birth of the fetal head during delivery in a vertex presentation? a. Ritgen maneuver b. Fundal pressure c. Lithotomy position d. De Lee apparatus

D If taken in excess, vitamin A causes a number of problems. An analog of vitamin A appears in prescribed acne medications, which must not be taken during pregnancy. Zinc, vitamin D, and folic acid are all vital to good maternity and fetal health and are highly unlikely to be consumed in excess.

Which vitamins or minerals may lead to congenital malformations of the fetus if taken in excess by the mother? a. Zinc b. Vitamin D c. Folic acid d. Vitamin A

A Late FHR decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. These decelerations are usually corrected when the woman turns onto her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, then the nurse should continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures and notify the health care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely will reveal variable decelerations. Although a fetal scalp electrode will provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus, it is not a nursing intervention that will alleviate late decelerations nor is it the nurse's first priority.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the FHR for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. What is the nurse's first priority? a. Change the woman's position. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Assist with amnioinfusion d. Insert a scalp electrode.

C The consumption of foods low in nutritional value or of nonfood substances (e.g., dirt, laundry starch) is called pica. Preeclampsia is a vasospastic disease process encountered after 20 weeks of gestation. Characteristics of preeclampsia include increasing hypertension, proteinuria, and hemoconcentration. Pyrosis is a burning sensation in the epigastric region, otherwise known as heartburn. Purging refers to self-induced vomiting after consuming large quantities of food.

While obtaining a diet history, the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips, cornstarch, and baking soda. Which nutritional problem does this behavior indicate? a. Preeclampsia b. Pyrosis c. Pica d. Purging

C IUGR is associated with women with inadequate weight gain. The primary factor in making a weight gain recommendation is the appropriateness of the prepregnancy weight for the woman's height. Obese women are twice as likely as women of normal weight to give birth to a child with major congenital defects. Overeating is only one of several likely causes.

With regard to weight gain during pregnancy, the nurse should be aware of which important information? a. In pregnancy, the woman's height is not a factor in determining her target weight. b. Obese women may have their health concerns, but their risk of giving birth to a child with major congenital defects is the same as with women of normal weight. c. Women with inadequate weight gain have an increased risk of delivering a preterm infant with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). d. Greater than expected weight gain during pregnancy is almost always attributable to old-fashioned overeating.

A, B, C, D The presence of companions, clothing to be worn, care and handling of the newborn, medical interventions, and environmental modifications all might be included in the couple's birth plan. Other items include the presence of nonessential medical personnel (students), labor activities such as the tub or ambulation, preferred comfort and relaxation methods, and any cultural or religious requirements. The expected date of delivery would not be part of a birth plan unless the client is scheduled for an elective cesarean birth.

Women who have participated in childbirth education classes often bring a birth plan with them to the hospital. Which items might this plan include? (Select all that apply.) a. Presence of companions b. Clothing to be worn c. Care and handling of the newborn d. Medical interventions e. Date of delivery