*Exam 2 in ADN 301* Complete

The nurse is caring for the following clients on a surgical unit. Which client would the nurse assess first? 1.The client who had an inguinal hernia repair and has not voided in four (4) hours. 2.The client who was admitted with abdominal pain who suddenly has no pain. 3.The client four (4) hours postoperative abdominal surgery with no bowel sounds. 4.The client who is one (1) day postoperative appendectomy who is being discharged"

Correct: 2 "1. A client who has not voided within four (4)hours after any surgery would not be priority. This is an acceptable occurrence, but if the client hasn't voided for eight (8) hours, then the nurse would assess further. 2.This could indicate a ruptured appendix, which could lead to peritonitis, a life-threatening complication; therefore, thenurse should assess this client first. 3.Bowel sounds should return within 24 hoursafter abdominal surgery. Absent bowel soundsat four (4) hours postoperative would not beof great concern to the nurse 4.The client being discharged would be stableand not a priority for the nurse"

"The nurse is admitting a client with acute appendicitis to the emergency department. The client has abdominal pain of 10 on a pain scale of 1 to 10. The client will be going to surgery as soon as possible. The nurse should: "1. Contact the surgeon to request an order for a narcotic for the pain. 2. Maintain the client in a recumbent position. 3. Place the client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status. 4. Apply heat to the abdomen in the area of the pain."

Correct: 3 - no rationale

The nursing management of the patient with cholecystitis associated with cholelithiasis is based on the knowledge that: A. Shock wave therapy should be tried initially B. Once gallstones are removed, they tend not to recur C. The disorder can be successfully treated with oral bile salts that dissolve gallstones D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice in most patients who are symptomatic.

D

The nurse is caring for a patient with ineffective airway clearance. What is the priority nursing action to assist this patient expectorate thick lung secretions? Humidify the oxygen as able. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. Teach patient to splint the affected area. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated.

Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient admitted with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? Hyperresonance on percussion Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes Increased vocal fremitus on palpation Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation

Increased vocal fremitus (vibration) on palpation

An appendectomy was performed, revealing that the appendix has ruptured. Based on this finding, what would you include in the postoperative care for this patient? a. Maintaining intact chest tube system b. Advancing diet as tolerated within 24 hours of surgery c. Monitoring nasogastric (NG) tube attached to low intermittent suction for drainage d. Maintaining complete bedrest with both side rails up to ensure safety e. Providing nourishment by administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) in the postoperative period

Monitoring nasogastric (NG) tube attached to low intermittent suction for drainage

CBC with diff

Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinohuls Basophils

After admitting a patient from home to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia, which physician orders will the nurse verify have been completed before administering a dose of cefuroxime to the patient? Orthostatic blood pressures Sputum culture and sensitivity Pulmonary function evaluation Serum laboratory studies ordered for AM

Sputum culture and sensitivity

An older adult patient living alone is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation, observed by the nurse, indicates that the patient is likely to be hypoxic? Sudden onset of confusion Oral temperature of 102.3oF Coarse crackles in lung bases Clutching chest on inspiration

Sudden onset of confusion Confusion or stupor (related to hypoxia) may be the only clinical manifestation of pneumonia in an older adult patient. A

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized with pneumonia has been effective when the patient makes which statement about measures to prevent a relapse? "I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." "I should continue to do deep breathing and coughing exercises for at least 12 weeks." "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day to keep my immune system well." "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution."

"I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution." The follow-up chest x-ray examination will be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate pneumonia resolution. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days.

A female patient who is HIV positive is prescribed Efavirenz in large doses. What question should the nurse ask of the patient before administering the therapy to ensure drug safety? 1 "Are you pregnant?" 2 "Is your partner HIV positive?" 3 "Are you on your menses?" 4 "Have you ever had a blood transfusion?"

1 Efavirenz is an antiretroviral drug. Large doses could cause fetal anomalies; therefore, it is important to know if the patient is pregnant. Asking about the HIV status of the partner is unrelated to administration of the drug. The information about the patient's menses does not impact the antiretroviral therapy. A history of blood transfusion helps ascertain the mode of infection, but does not impact the drug therapy. Text Reference - p. 238

A nurse is caring for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What precautions should the nurse take when caring for this client? 1 Use standard precautions. 2 Employ airborne precautions. 3 Plan interventions to limit direct contact. 4 Discourage long visits from family members.

1 The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (Canada: Public Health Agency of Canada) states that standard precautions should be used for all clients; these precautions include wearing of gloves, gown, mask, and goggles when there is risk for exposure to blood or body secretions. There is no indication that airborne precautions are necessary. Planning interventions to limit direct contact and discouraging long visits from family members will unnecessarily isolate the client.

ANS: D Swan neck deformity involves distal interphalangeal joint hyperflexion and proximal interphalangeal joint hyperextension of the hands. The other deformities are also associated with rheumatoid arthritis: ulnar drift, boutonniere deformity, and hallux vagus. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1527 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When reviewing the health record for a new patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse reads that the patient has swan neck deformities. Which deformity will the nurse expect to observe when assessing the patient? a. A b. B c. C d. D

A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (on 0 to 10 scale) "whenever I take a deep breath." Which action will the nurse take next? a. Auscultate for breath sounds. b. Administer the PRN morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

a. Auscultate for breath sounds. The patient's statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider.

A nurse is teaching a client about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What are the various ways HIV is transmitted? Select all that apply. 1 Mosquito bites 2 Sharing syringe needles 3 Breastfeeding a newborn 4 Kissing the infected partner 5 Anal intercourse

2, 3, 5 Fluids such as blood and semen are highly concentrated with HIV. HIV may be transmitted parenterally by sharing needles and postnatally through breast milk. HIV may also be transmitted through anal intercourse. HIV is not transmitted by mosquito bites or kissing.

A patient is admitted with *active tuberculosis* (TB). The nurse should *question* a health care provider's order to *discontinue airborne precautions* unless which assessment finding is documented? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

d. Sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Repeated negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route.

Which disease causes connective tissue changes that cause glomerulonephritis? a. Gout b. Amyloidosis c. Diabetes mellitus d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

d. Systemic lupus erythematosus causes connective tissue damage that affects the glomerulus. Gout deposits uric acid crystals in the kidney. Amyloidosis deposits hyaline bodies in the kidney. Diabetes mellitus causes microvascular damage affecting the kidney.

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has been living with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) for several years. Which assessment finding most clearly indicates an acute exacerbation of the disease? 1 A new onset of polycythemia 2 Presence of mononucleosis-like symptoms 3 A sharp decrease in the patient's CD4+ count 4 A sudden increase in the patient's white blood cell (WBC) count

3 A decrease in CD4+ count signals an exacerbation of the severity of HIV. Polycythemia is not characteristic of the course of HIV. Mononucleosis-like symptoms, such as malaise, headache, and fatigue, are typical of early HIV infection and seroconversion. A patient's WBC count is very unlikely to increase suddenly, with decreases being typical. Text Reference - p. 234

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the cause of systemic lupus erythematosus? 1 Type I 2 Type II 3 Type III 4 Type IV Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of an immune complex-mediated, or type III, hypersensitive reaction.

3 Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I or immediate hypersensitive reaction. Cytotoxic or type II hypersensitive reactions can result in conditions such as myasthenia gravis and Goodpasture syndrome. Graft rejection and sarcoidosis are conditions that are caused by delayed or type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

A woman who is three months pregnant finds out that she is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive on routine HIV testing. She wishes to continue her pregnancy. What information should be given to this patient? Select all that apply. 1 Inform her that the infant will not be infected. 2 Advise her to consider abortion. 3 Advise her to consider tubectomy after delivery. 4 Advise her that antiretroviral therapy (ART) can decrease the risk of transmission. 5 Advise her to follow a healthy lifestyle with nutritious food and regular exercise.

3, 4, 5

The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed? a. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. b. UAP help splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. UAP transfer the patient to a bedside chair for meals. d. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

d. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees. Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to a.choose low-fat foods from the menu. b.perform leg exercises hourly while awake. c.ambulate the evening of the operative day. d.turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.

d. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours

The nurse is caring for a patient with an alteration in airway clearance. What nursing actions would be a priority to promote airway clearance (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. a. Maintain adequate fluid intake. b. Maintain a 30-degree elevation. c. Splint the chest when coughing. d. Maintain a semi-Fowler's position. e. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.

A, C, E, a. Maintain adequate fluid intake. c. Splint the chest when coughing. e. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.

What are some laboratory diagnostic tests that might be considered when treating a patient with infection? A) CBC B) WBC C) STD D)ERS

A,B and D

A physician suspects a patient may have rheumatoid arthritis due to the patient's presenting symptoms. What diagnostic testing can be ordered to help a physician diagnose rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply: A. Rheumatoid factor B. Uric acid level C. Erythrocyte sedimentation D. Dexa-Scan E. X-ray imaging

A,C,E

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a temperature of 101.4° F, a productive cough with yellow sputum, and a respiratory rate of 20. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate based upon this assessment? A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness B. Ineffective thermoregulation related to chilling C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia D. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions

A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness Because the patient has spiked a temperature and has a diagnosis of pneumonia, the logical nursing diagnosis is hyperthermia related to infectious illness. There is no evidence of a chill, and her breathing pattern is within normal limits at 20 breaths/minute. There is no evidence of ineffective airway clearance from the information given because the patient is expectorating sputum.

12. Which of the following patients should be instructed to report to a health care provider immediately? a. A patient with blurry or black areas in the vision field b. A patient with burning, itching, or discharge from the eyes c. A patient with headache accompanied by fever and nasal congestion d. A patient with painful urination with blood in the urine and urethral discharge

ANS: A Blurry or black areas in the vision field are to be reported immediately, whereas the other symptoms are to be repeated within 24 hours if they continue. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 339, Table 17-24 OBJ: 10 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: HW-26

After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid, rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach about drug-resistant TB. b. Schedule directly observed therapy. c. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. d. Discuss the need for an injectable antibiotic with the health care provider.

c. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process.

After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with a standard four-drug regimen, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. b. Discuss the need to use some different medications to treat the TB. c. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly. d. Educate about using a 2-drug regimen for the last 4 months of treatment.

ANS: A The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. A two-drug regimen will be used only if the sputum smears are negative for AFB. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556-557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. A 24-year-old woman who uses injectable, illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing AIDS. The nurse should inform the patient that which of the following activities can eliminate the risk of HIV infection from drug use? a. Participating in a needle exchange program b. Cleaning drug injection equipment before use c. Asking those she shares equipment with to be tested for HIV d. Not having sexual intercourse when under the influence of the drugs

ANS: A The risk for HIV can be eliminated if users do not share injecting equipment. Injecting equipment ("works") includes needles, syringes, cookers (spoons or bottle caps used to mix the drug), cotton, and rinse water. None of this equipment should be shared. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 336 OBJ: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: HW-4

Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which information best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

ANS: A The weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 551-552 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection. Which prophylactic measures will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

ANS: A, B, C Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is a stage between acute HIV infection and a diagnosis of symptomatic chronic HIV infection. Although called asymptomatic, symptoms (e.g., fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats) often occur. Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease when the CD4+ counts have dropped or when infection has occurred.

A patient with bacterial pneumonia has coarse crackles and thick sputum. Which action should the nurse plan to promote airway clearance? a. Restrict oral fluids during the day. b. Teach pursed-lip breathing technique. c. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. d. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal O2 cannula.

c. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. *Coughing* is *less painful* and *more* likely to be *effective* when the patient *splints the chest* during coughing. *Fluids* should be *encouraged* to help liquefy secretions. Nasal O2 will improve gas exchange, but will not improve airway clearance. Pursed-lip breathing is used to improve gas exchange in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease but will not improve airway clearance.

Which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine if prednisone has been effective for a patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Blood glucose c. Serum electrolytes b. C-reactive protein d. Liver function tests

ANS: B C-reactive protein is a serum marker for inflammation, and a decrease would indicate the corticosteroid therapy was effective. Blood glucose and serum electrolytes will also be monitored to assess for side effects of prednisone. Liver function is not routinely monitored in patients receiving corticosteroids. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1527 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Chest x-ray via stretcher b. Blood cultures from two sites c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository

ANS: B Initiating antibiotic therapy rapidly is essential, but it is important that the cultures be obtained before antibiotic administration. The chest x-ray and acetaminophen administration can be done last.

A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3- 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding? a. Intercostal retractions b. Kussmaul respirations c. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2) d. Decreased venous O2 pressure

ANS: B Kussmaul (deep and rapid) respirations are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate result indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, a low oxygen saturation rate, and a decrease in venous O2 pressure would not be caused by acidosis.

A patient with gout has a new prescription for losartan (Cozaar) to control the condition. The nurse will plan to monitor a. blood glucose. c. erythrocyte count. b. blood pressure. d. lymphocyte count.

ANS: B Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, will lower blood pressure. It does not affect blood glucose, red blood cells, or lymphocytes. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1534 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A pregnant woman with asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because it is an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. Her newborn will be born with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).

ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided.

A patient with two school-age children has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and tells the nurse that home life is very stressful. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You need to see a family therapist for some help with stress." b. "Tell me more about the situations that are causing you stress." c. "Your family should understand the impact of your rheumatoid arthritis." d. "Perhaps it would be helpful for your family to be involved in a support group."

ANS: B The initial action by the nurse should be further assessment. The other three responses might be appropriate based on the information the nurse obtains with further assessment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1532 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

The nurse provides *preoperative instruction* for a patient scheduled for a *left pneumonectomy*. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care? a. Bed rest for the first 24 hours b. Positioning only on the right side c. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer d. Chest tube placement to continuous suction

c. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer Frequent *deep breathing* and coughing are needed after *chest surgery* to *prevent atelectasis*.

The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered coarse crackles after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair. b. Splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. d. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.

c. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain (which increases with deep breathing and coughing).

According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which personal protective equipment will the nurse put on before assessing a patient who is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile diarrhea (select all that apply)? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Shoe covers e. Eye protection

ANS: B, C Because the nurse will have substantial contact with the patient and bedding when doing an assessment, gloves and gowns are needed. Eye protection and masks are needed for patients in contact precautions only when spraying or splashing is anticipated. Shoe covers are not recommended in the CDC guidelines.

When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a family member who is visiting the patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the family member a. washes the hands before entering the patient's room. b. hands the patient a tissue from the box at the bedside. c. puts on a surgical face mask before visiting the patient. d. brings food from a "fast-food" restaurant to the patient.

ANS: C A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Hand washing before visiting the patient is not necessary, but there is no reason for the nurse to stop the family member from doing this. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food from outside the hospital is appropriate. The family member should wash the hands after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Anakinra (Kineret) is prescribed for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse will include information about a. avoiding concurrent aspirin use. b. symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. c. self-administration of subcutaneous injections. d. taking the medication with at least 8 oz of fluid.

ANS: C Anakinra is administered by subcutaneous injection. GI bleeding is not a side effect of this medication. Because the medication is injected, instructions to take it with 8 oz of fluid would not be appropriate. The patient is likely to be concurrently taking aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and these should not be discontinued. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1529 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse recognizes that the goals of teaching regarding the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) have been met when the patient with TB a. demonstrates correct use of a nebulizer. b. washes dishes and personal items after use. c. covers the mouth and nose when coughing. d. reports daily to the public health department.

ANS: C Covering the mouth and nose will help decrease airborne transmission of TB. The other actions will not be effective in decreasing the spread of TB. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

33. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of 7 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the lower lobes. c. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus.

ANS: C Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat TB. The other data are expected in a patient with HIV and TB.

The nurse teaches a patient about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective? a. "I will use my inhaler right before the test." b. "I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test." c. "I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test." d. "My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test."

ANS: C For PFT, the patient should inhale deeply and exhale as long, hard, and fast as possible. The other actions are not needed with PFT. The administration of inhaled bronchodilators should be avoided 6 hours before the procedure.

9. In health care workers, which following activity poses the highest risk for acquiring HIV from an HIV-infected patient? a. A needle stick with a suture needle b. Contamination of open skin lesions with vaginal secretions c. A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood d. A needle stick with a needle and syringe used to administer an intramuscular injection

ANS: C HIV can be transmitted only under specific conditions that allow contact with infected body fluids, including blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk, with blood being the highest risk. Precautions and safety devices decrease the risk of direct contact with blood and body fluids. The risk is higher with a needle that has a hollow bore and visible blood. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pages 321-322 OBJ: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: HW-24

A patient being seen in the clinic has rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. Which action will the nurse take? a. Draw blood for rheumatoid factor analysis. b. Teach the patient about injections for the nodules. c. Assess the nodules for skin breakdown or infection. d. Discuss the need for surgical removal of the nodules.

ANS: C Rheumatoid nodules can break down or become infected. They are not associated with changes in rheumatoid factor, and injection is not needed. Rheumatoid nodules are usually not removed surgically because of a high probability of recurrence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1527 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After the nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should be assessed first? a. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes b. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled c. A 46-year-old patient who has a deep vein thrombosis and is complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath. d. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C)

ANS: C Sudden onset shortness of breath in a patient with a deep vein thrombosis suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and actions such as oxygen administration. The other patients also should be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 577-578 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action will the nurse take? a. Repeat the tuberculin skin testing. b. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. c. Obtain consecutive sputum specimens from the patient for 3 days. d. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.

ANS: C Three consecutive sputum specimens are obtained on different days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. The patient should not provide all the specimens at once. Blood cultures are not used for tuberculosis testing. Once skin testing is positive, it is not repeated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. A patient has recently tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse about drug therapy for HIV infection. What should the nurse tell the patient about drug therapy? a. Drug therapy for HIV is indicated only when CD4+ T-cell counts are abnormal. b. Drug therapy is delayed as long as possible to prevent development of viral resistance to the drugs. c. When to start drug therapy is controversial, and treatment decisions are individualized for each patient. d. AZT is administered initially to all patients who test positive for HIV to slow viral growth.

ANS: C Treatment decisions should be individualized by indicated by higher viral loads and lower CD4+ T-cell counts and by a patient's desires for therapy. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pages 330-331, Table 17-13 OBJ: 10 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: CH-53

12. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Arrange for a friend to administer the medication on schedule. b. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications. c. Teach the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed. d. Arrange for a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered.

ANS: D Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen, and arranging a daily meal will help ensure that the patient is available to receive the medication. The other nursing interventions may be appropriate for some patients but are not likely to be as helpful for this patient.

A young adult patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of right lower quadrant abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting. Which action should the nurse take? a. Assist the patient to cough and deep breathe. b. Palpate the abdomen for rebound tenderness. c. Suggest the patient lie on the side, flexing the right leg. d. Encourage the patient to sip clear, noncarbonated liquids.

c. Suggest the patient lie on the side, flexing the right leg.

Which action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting? a. Providing supportive care to patients diagnosed with pertussis b. Teaching family members about the need for careful hand washing c. Teaching patients about the need for adult pertussis immunizations d. Encouraging patients to complete the prescribed course of antibiotics

c. Teaching patients about the need for adult pertussis immunizations

The nurse is providing care to a patient with an open abdominal wound after surgery. What teaching should the nurse provide to the patient regarding the healing process? A) The wound will be stapled together until it heals. B) The healing will contract the area to close the wound. C) The wound will be left open and heal from the edges inward. D) The wound will be sutured after the current infection is controlled.

Answer: C With secondary healing, the wound is left open and heals from the edges inward and from the bottom up. With primary intention, the wound edges are stapled or sutured, and healing occurs until the contraction of the healing area closes the defect and brings the skin edges closer together to form a mature scar. With tertiary healing, the contaminated wound is left open and closed after the infection is controlled.

A nurse is teaching a patient how to promote healing following abdominal surgery. What should be included in the teaching (select all that apply.)? A) Take the antibiotic until the wound feels better. B)Take the analgesic every day to promote adequate rest for healing. C) Be sure to wash hands after changing the dressing to avoid infection. D) Take in more fluid, protein, and vitamins C, B, and A to facilitate healing. E) Notify the health care provider of redness, swelling, and increased drainage.

Answer: C, D Fluid is needed to replace fluid from insensible loss and from exudates as well as the increased metabolic rate. Protein corrects the negative nitrogen balance that results from the increased metabolic rate and that needed for synthesis of immune factors and healing. Vitamin C helps synthesize capillaries and collagen. Vitamin B complex facilitates metabolism. Vitamin A aids in epithelialization. The health care provider should be notified if there are signs of infection. If prophylactic antibiotics are prescribed, they must be taken until they are completely gone. Initially analgesics are taken throughout the day (e.g., every 3 to 4 hours) as needed. Infection must be avoided with aseptic procedures, including washing the hands before changing the dressing.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is immunocompromised while receiving chemotherapy for advanced breast cancer. What signs and symptoms will the nurse teach the patient to report that may indicate an infection? A) Fever and chills B) Increased blood pressure C) Increased respiratory rate D) General malaise and fatigue

Answer: D An immunosuppressed individual may have the classic symptoms of inflammation or infection masked by the inability to launch a normal immune response. Therefore, in this person, early symptoms may be malaise, fatigue, or "just not feeling well."

*10. A patient with ureterolithotomy returns from surgery with a nephrostomy tube in place. Postoperative nursing care of the patient includes:* a.encourage the patient to drink fruit juices and milk b.encouraging fluids of at least 2-3 L/day after nausea has subsided c. irrigating the nephrostomy tube with 10ml of NS solution as needed d. notifying the physician if nephrostomy tube drainage is more than 30ml/hr

B

*3. The immunologic mechanisms involved in acute poststreptococal glomerulonephritis include:* a. tubular blocking by precipitates of bacteria and antibody reactions b. deposition of immune complexes and complement along the GBM c. thickening of the GBM from autoimmune microangiopathic changes d. destruction of glomeruli by proteolytic enzymes contained in the GBM

B

*8. The nurse identifies a risk factor for kidney and bladder cancer in a patient who relates a history of* a.aspirin use b.tobacco use c.chronic alcohol abuse d.use of artificial sweeteners

B

A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient who is complaining of the incision site being warm, red and tender to the touch. What does the nurse interpret from the assessment? A) Septicemia B) Local infection C) Healing process D) Systemic infection

B

A 58 year old female is experiencing a flare-up with rheumatoid arthritis. While assisting the patient with her morning routine, the patient verbalizes a pain rating of 7 on 1-10 scale in the right and left wrist along with severe stiffness. You note the wrist joints to be red, warm, and swollen. What nonpharmalogical nursing interventions can you provide to this patient to help alleviate pain and stiffness? Select-all-that-apply: A. Exercise the affected joints B. Assist the patient with a warm shower or bath C. Perform deep massage therapy to the wrist joints D. Assist the patient with applying wrist splints

B, D

Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDS) are used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Select-all-the drugs below that are DMARDS: A. Dexamethasone (Decadron) B. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) C. Teriparatide (Forteo) D. Calcitonin E. Leflunomide (Arava) F. Methotrexate (Trexall)

B, E, F

The patient with right upper quadrant abdominal pain has an abdominal ultrasound that reveals cholelithiasis. What should the nurse expect to do for this patient? A. Prevent all oral intake. B. Control abdominal pain. C. Provide enteral feedings. D. Avoid dietary cholesterol.

B. Control abdominal pain. Patients with cholelithiasis can have severe pain, so controlling pain is important until the problem can be treated. NPO status may be needed if the patient will have surgery but will not be used for all patients with cholelithiasis. Enteral feedings should not be needed, and avoiding dietary cholesterol is not used to treat cholelithiasis

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment. Which finding best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? Basilar crackles Oxygen saturation of 85% Presence of greenish sputum Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with a lower respiratory problem but do not definitely support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.

Identify the correct sequence in how rheumatoid arthritis develops: A. Development of pannus, synovitis, ankylosis B. Anklyosis, development of pannus, synovitis C. Synovitis, development of pannus, anklyosis D. Synovitis, anklyosis, development of pannus

C

Which finding by the nurse for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates that treatment has been effective? a. The patient denies pain with voiding. b. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. c. Peripheral and periorbital edema is resolved. d. The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased.

C (Since edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria since the patient does not have a urinary tract infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1131-1133)

Which assessment finding for a patient who has just been admitted with acute pyelonephritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Foul-smelling urine b. Complaint of flank pain c. Blood pressure 88/45 mm Hg d. Temperature 100.1° F (57.8° C)

C (The low blood pressure indicates that urosepsis and septic shock may be occurring and should be immediately reported. The other findings are typical of pyelonephritis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1126)

A patient is admitted to the hospital with new onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect to find related to this illness? a. Poor skin turgor b. High urine ketones c. Recent weight gain d. Low blood pressure

C (The patient with a nephrotic syndrome will have weight gain associated with edema. Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Skin turgor is normal because of the edema. Urine protein is high. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 1132-1134)

an 18 yr old is admitted with an acute onset of right lower quadrant pain. Appendicitis is suspected. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess the client to determine if the pain is secondary to appendicitis A) urinary retention B) gastric hyperacidity C) rebound tenderness D) increased lower bowel motility

C) rebound tenderness is a classic subjective sign of appendicitis

A patient with cholelithiasis needs to have the gallbladder removed. Which patient assessment is a contraindication for a cholecystectomy? A. Low-grade fever of 100° F and dehydration B. Abscess in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds D. Multiple obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds An aPTT of 54 seconds is above normal and indicates insufficient clotting ability. If the patient had surgery, significant bleeding complications postoperatively are very likely. Fluids can be given to eliminate the dehydration; the abscess can be assessed, and the obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct would be relieved with the cholecystectomy.

You are assessing the patient's dressing. As the appendix ruptured, the healing process is facilitated by which type of care?

incision is left open

A client has surgery for a perforated appendix with localized peritonis. In which position should the nurse place the client? A) Sims position B) trendelenburg C) semi-fowlers D)dorsal recumbant

C. Semi-fowlers aids in drainage and prevents spread of infection throughout the abodominal cavity.

"A client is admitted with right lower quadrant pain, anorexia, nausea, low-grade fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Which complication is most likely the cause? "1. A fecalith 2. Bowel kinking 3. Internal bowel occlusion 4. Abdominal wall swelling"

Correct 1 The client is experiencing appendicitis. A fecalith is a fecal calculus, or stone, that occludes the lumen of the appendix and is the most common cause of appendicitis. Bowel wall swelling, kinking of the appendix, and external occlusion, not internal occlusion, of the bowel by adhesions can also be causes of appendicitis.

Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of appendicitis? "a. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest. b. Mr. Liu describes the pain as occurring 2 hours after eating c. The pain subsides after eating d. The pain is in the left lower quadrant"

Correct A "Pain over McBurney's point, the point halfway between the umbilicus and the iliac crest, is diagnosis for appendicitis. Options b and c are common with ulcers; option d may suggest ulcerative"

When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? "a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct B A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

Which of the following would indicate that Bobby's appendix has ruptured? " a) diaphoresis b) anorexia c) pain at Mc Burney's point d) relief from pain

Correct D all are normal signs of having appendicits and once you have relief from pain means you could have a rupture.

"A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location? a) Left lower quadrant b) Left upper quadrant c) Right upper quadrant d) Right lower quadrant

Correct answer: d) Right lower quadrant" Rationale: The pain of acute appendicitis localizes in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) at McBurney's point, an area midway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest. Often, the pain is worse when manual pressure near the region is suddenly released, a condition called rebound tenderness.

The nurse is teaching the patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) about the diagnosis of Candida albicans. What statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that further teaching is required? "I will be given amphotericin B to treat the fungus." "I got this fungus because I am immunocompromised." "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." "The effectiveness of my therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers."

"I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." The patient with an opportunistic fungal infection does not need to be isolated because it is not transmitted from person to person. This immunocompromised patient will be likely to have a serious infection so it will be treated with IV amphotericin B

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient tells the nurse that he or she is worried that he or she might have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When is a diagnosis of AIDS in an HIV-infected patient confirmed? 1 The patient's CD4+ T cell count is below 200/μL. 2 The patient has flu-like symptoms. 3 Lipodystrophy with metabolic abnormalities is present. 4 Elevated platelet and white blood cell (WBC) counts are present.

1 AIDS is diagnosed when an individual with HIV meets one of several criteria; one criterion is a CD4+ T cell count below 200 cells/μL. Flu-like symptoms can be indicative of other diseases. Changes in WBC or platelet counts are not diagnostic criteria for AIDS (and WBC and platelet levels decrease, not increase). Changes in body shape because of lipodystrophy are not definitive diagnoses for AIDS. Text Reference - p. 235

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of four clients. Which does the nurse suspect to have acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Client A - 3000 cells/mm 2 Client B - 5000 cells/mm 3 Client C - 7000 cells/mm 4 Client D - 9000 cells/mm

1 The normal lymphocyte count is between 5000 and 10,000 cells/mm 3. A client with AIDS is leukopenic and has a lymphocyte count less than 3500 cells/mm 3. Therefore, client A has AIDS. Clients B, C, and D have normal lymphocyte counts.

During a follow-up appointment, the patient was notified by the health care provider that he or she has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The patient is extremely upset and does not understand how he or she could have gotten HIV. The nurse explains to the patient that HIV can be transmitted via which of the following? Select all that apply. 1 Blood 2 Emesis 3 Breast milk 4 Sharing utensils 5 Sexual intercourse

1, 3, 5 HIV can be transmitted as a result of contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk. Therefore, it occurs through sexual intercourse, exposure to blood or blood products, and during pregnancy, delivery, or breastfeeding. HIV is not spread casually. Therefore, it cannot be spread just by sharing utensils or through emesis, as well as sweat, tears, saliva, or insect bites. Text Reference - p. 231

ANS: C Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stages of HIV infection. No antibiotic is needed because the enlarged nodes are probably not caused by bacteria. Applying ice to the neck may provide comfort, but the initial action is to reassure the patient this is an expected finding. Lymphadenopathy is common with acute HIV infection and is therefore not likely the flu.

10. The nurse palpates enlarged cervical lymph nodes on a patient diagnosed with acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Instruct the patient to apply ice to the neck. b. Advise the patient that this is probably the flu. c. Explain to the patient that this is an expected finding. d. Request that an antibiotic be prescribed for the patient

ANS: A The current Center for Disease Control (CDC) policy is to offer routine testing for HIV to all individuals age 13 to 64. Although lifestyle, symptoms, and sexual orientation may suggest increased risk for HIV infection, the goal is to test all individuals in this age range.

11. Which information would be most important to help the nurse determine if the patient needs human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing? a. Patient age b. Patient lifestyle c. Patient symptoms d. Patient sexual orientation

ANS: B Participation in needle-exchange programs has been shown to decrease and control the rate of HIV infection. Cleaning drug equipment before use also reduces risk, but it might not be consistently practiced. HIV antibodies do not appear for several weeks to months after exposure, so testing drug users would not be very effective in reducing risk for HIV exposure. It is difficult to make appropriate decisions about sexual activity when under the influence of drugs.

12. A patient who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs." b. "It is important to participate in a needle-exchange program." c. "You should ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV." d. "I recommend cleaning drug injection equipment before each use."

ANS: A The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART .

17. To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which laboratory test result will the nurse review? a. Viral load testing b. Enzyme immunoassay c. Rapid HIV antibody testing d. Immunofluorescence assay

A mother with the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) states that she has been caring for her baby even though she has not been feeling well. What important information should the nurse determine? 1 If she has kissed the baby 2 If the baby is breast-feeding 3 When the baby last received antibiotics 4 How long she has been caring for the baby

2 Epidemiologic evidence has identified breast milk as a source of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission. Kissing is not believed to transmit HIV. When the baby last received antibiotics is unrelated to transmission of HIV. HIV transmission does not occur from contact associated with caring for a newborn.

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be prescribed diphenoxylate hydrochloride? 1 To manage pain 2 To manage diarrhea 3 To manage candidal esophagitis 4 To manage behavioral problems

2 Diphenoxylate hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal drug prescribed to clients with AIDS to manage frequent diarrhea experienced by a client with AIDS. Opioid analgesics such as tramadol are used to manage pain. Ketoconazole can be used to treat candidal esophagitis associated with AIDS. Behavioral problems are managed with psychotropic drugs.

During the neurologic assessment of a client with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the nurse expect the client to manifest? 1 Diminished visual acuity 2 Increased muscular weakness 3 Pronounced muscular atrophy 4 Impairment in cognitive reasoning

2 Muscular weakness with paralysis results from impaired nerve conduction because the motor nerves become demyelinated. Diminished visual acuity usually is not a problem; motor loss is greater than sensory loss, with paresthesia of the extremities being the most frequent sensory loss. Demyelination occurs rapidly early in the disease, and the muscles will not have had time to atrophy; this can occur later if rehabilitation is delayed. Only the peripheral nerves are involved; the central nervous system is unaffected.

ANS: C Development of PCP meets the diagnostic criterion for AIDS. The other responses indicate earlier stages of HIV infection than is indicated by the PCP infection.

2. A patient who has a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mL. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of an acute HIV infection." b. "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection." c. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)." d. "The patient will develop symptomatic chronic HIV infection in less than a year."

ANS: B, C Because the nurse will have substantial contact with the patient and bedding when doing an assessment, gloves and gowns are needed. Eye protection and masks are needed for patients in contact precautions only when spraying or splashing is anticipated. Shoe covers are not recommended in the CDC guidelines.

2. According to the Center for Disease Control (CDC) guidelines, which personal protective equipment will the nurse put on when assessing a patient who is on contact precautions for diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile(select all that apply)? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Shoe covers e. Eye protection

ANS: C The nurse should assess the patient for dehydration and hypovolemia. The other patients also will require assessment and possible interventions, but do not require immediate action to prevent complications such as hypovolemia and shock.

20. Which of these patients being seen at the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) clinic should the nurse assess first? a. Patient whose latest CD4+ count is 250/µL b. Patient whose rapid HIV-antibody test is positive c. Patient who has had 10 liquid stools in the last 24 hours d. Patient who has nausea from prescribed antiretroviral drugs

ANS: A The nurse will teach the patient about potential interactions between antiretrovirals and the medications that the patient is using for chronic health problems. Treatment and monitoring of HIV infection is not affected by age. A patient with asymptomatic HIV infection is not a candidate for hospice. Progression of HIV is not affected by age, although it may be affected by chronic disease.

21. An older adult who takes medications for coronary artery disease has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a.Many medications have interactions with antiretroviral drugs. b.Less frequent CD4+ level monitoring is needed in older adults. c.Hospice care is available for patients with terminal HIV infection. d.Progression of HIV infection occurs more rapidly in older patients.

Which type of immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrum from the mother to the child? 1 Natural active immunity 2 Artificial active immunity 3 Natural passive immunity 4 Artificial passive immunity

3 Natural passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrum from the mother to the child. Natural active immunity is acquired when there is a natural contact with an antigen through a clinical infection. Artificial active immunity is acquired through immunization with an antigen. Artificial passive immunity is acquired by injecting serum from an immune human.

The nurse assesses a patient who tests positive for HIV. Which finding would the nurse identify as the highest priority for follow-up? 1 Anorexia 2 Insomnia 3 Mood swings 4 Nonproductive cough

4 The patient who tests positive for HIV should be observed for the first sign of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is a dry, nonproductive cough. After evaluation of the nonproductive cough, follow-up care for anorexia, insomnia, and mood swings is secondary. Text Reference - p. 236

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment is priority? 1 Urinary output 2 Sensation to touch 3 Neurologic status 4 Respiratory exchange

4 The respiratory center in the medulla oblongata can be affected with acute Guillain-Barré syndrome because the ascending paralysis can reach the diaphragm, leading to death from respiratory failure. Although urinary output, sensation to touch, and neurologic status are important, none of them are the priority.

The nurse should assess a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for which most common symptoms? 1 Tremors and bradykinesia 2 Hematuria and abdominal pain 3 Persistent vomiting and headache 4 Low-grade fever and persistent diarrhea

4 The symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) are variable, but low-grade fever and persistent diarrhea are common. The symptoms listed in the other answer options are not specifically associated with AIDS. Text Reference - p. 235

ANS: D Drug resistance develops quickly unless the patient takes ART medications on a strict, regular schedule. In addition, drug resistance endangers both the patient and the community. The other information is also important to consider, but patients who are unable to manage and follow a complex drug treatment regimen should not be considered for ART.

8. A patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected has a CD4+ cell count of 400/µL. Which factor is most important for the nurse to determine before the initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for this patient? a. HIV genotype and phenotype b. Patient's social support system c. Potential medication side effects d. Patient's ability to comply with ART schedule

ANS: D CMV retinitis is an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining illness and indicates that the patient is appropriate for ART even though the HIV infection period is relatively short. An HIV-negative patient would not be offered ART. A patient with a CD4+ count in the normal range would not typically be started on ART. A patient who drinks alcohol heavily would be unlikely to be able to manage the complex drug regimen and would not be appropriate for ART despite the low CD4+ count.

9. The nurse will most likely prepare a medication teaching plan about antiretroviral therapy (ART) for which patient? a. Patient who is currently HIV negative but has unprotected sex with multiple partners b. Patient who was infected with HIV 15 years ago and now has a CD4+ count of 840/µL c. HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 160/µL who drinks a fifth of whiskey daily d. Patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and now has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

*4.One of the nruse's most important roles in relation to acute poststreptococcal golmerulonephritis is to* a. promote early diagnosis and treatment of sore throats and skin lesions b.encourage patients to obtain antibiotic therapy for upper respiratory tract infections c.teach patients with APSGN that long term prophylactic antibiotic therapy is necessary to prevent recurrence d.monitor patients for respiratory symptoms that indicate the disease is affecting the alveolar basement membrane

A

What is infection? A) Establishment of a pathogen in a susceptible host. B) Establishment of a bacteria in a susceptible host C) A virus causing redness and swelling at area of injury D) A pathogen that causes amputation

A

Which laboratory result is important to communicate to the health care provider for a patient who is taking methotrexate to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? a. Rheumatoid factor is positive. b. Fasting blood glucose is 90 mg/dL. c. The white blood cell (WBC) count is 1500/μL. d. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is elevated.

ANS: C Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect of methotrexate, and the patient's low WBC count places the patient at high risk for infection. The elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive rheumatoid factor are expected in RA. The blood glucose is normal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1528 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 54-year-old patient admitted with diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, osteomyelitis, and alcohol abuse has a serum amylase level of 280 U/L and a serum lipase level of 310 U/L. To what diagnosis does the nurse attribute these findings? A. Malnutrition B. Osteomyelitis C. Alcohol abuse D. Diabetes mellitus

C. Alcohol Use The patient with alcohol abuse could develop pancreatitis as a complication, which would increase the serum amylase (normal 30-122 U/L) and serum lipase (normal 31-186 U/L) levels as shown.

During discharge teaching for an older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia, which vaccine should the nurse recommend that this patient receive? Pneumococcal Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Bacille-Calmette-Guérin (BCG)

Pneumococcal The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 years or older, or living in a long-term care facility.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. What risk factors is a priority for the nurse to assess (select all that apply.)? a. Obesity b. Pneumonia c. Malignancy d. Cigarette smoking e. Prolonged air travel

a, c, d, e a. Obesity c. Malignancy d. Cigarette smoking e. Prolonged air travel

In assessing the joints of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse understands that the joints are damaged by (select all that apply) a. bony ankylosis following inflammation of the joints b. the deterioration of cartilage by proteolytic enzymes c. the development of Heberden's nodes in the joint capsule d.. increased cartilage and bony growth at the joint margins e. invasion of pannus into the joint causing a loss of cartilage

a,e

"The nurse is caring for a patient following an appendectomy. The patient takes a deep breath, coughs, and then winces in pain. Which of the following statements, if made by the nurse to the patient, is BEST? "A.) "Take three deep breaths, hold your incision, and then cough." B.) "That was good. Do that again and soon it won't hurt as much." C.) "It won't hurt as much if you hold your incision when you cough." D.) "Take another deep breath, hold it, and then cough deeply."

"(1) correct-most effective way of deep breathing and coughing, dilates airway and expands lung surface area (2) should splint incision before coughing to reduce discomfort and increase efficiency (3) partial answer, should take three deep breaths before coughing (4) implies coughing routine is adequate, incision needs to be splinted"

A client is admitted with right lower quadrant pain, anorexia, nausea, low-grade fever, and elevated white blood cell count. Which complication is most likely the cause? 1. A. fecalith 2. Bowel Kinking 3. Internal blowel occlusion 4. Abdominal wall swelling

"Answer 1 Rational: The client is experiencing appendicitis. A. fecalith is a fecal calculus, or stone, that occludes the lumen of the appendix and is the most common cause of appendicitis. Bowel wall swelling, kinking of the appendix, and external occlusion not internal occlusion, of the bowel by adhesions can also be cause of appendicitis."

"A client with appendicitis is experiencing excruciating abdominal pain. An abdominal X-ray film reveals intraperitoneal air. The nurse should prepare the client for: a) colonoscopy. b) surgery. c) nasogastric (NG) tube insertion. d) barium enema."

"B) Surgery The client should be prepared for surgery because his signs and symptoms indicate bowel perforation. Appendicitis is the most common cause of bowel perforation in the United States. Because perforation can lead to peritonitis and sepsis, surgery wouldn't be delayed to perform other interventions, such as colonoscopy, NG tube insertion, or a barium enema. These procedures aren't necessary at this point."

"During the assessment of a patient with acute abdominal pain, the nurse should: a. Perform deep palpation before ascultation b. Obtain blood pressure and pulse rate to determine hypervolemic changes c. Ascultate bowel sounds because hyperactive bowel sounds suggest paralytic ileus d. Measure body temperature because an elevated temperature may indicate an inflammatory or infectious process"

"Correct answer: d Rationale: For the patient complaining of acute abdominal pain, the nurse should take vital signs immediately. Increased pulse and decreasing blood pressure (BP) are indicative of hypovolemia. An elevated temperature suggests an inflammatory or infectious process. Intake and output measurements provide essential information about the adequacy of vascular volume. Inspect the abdomen first and then auscultate bowel sounds. Palpation is performed next and should be gentle."

A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) comes into the clinic complaining of fatigue and knee pain. During the assessment, the nurse also notes that the patient is jaundiced. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing: 1 Hepatitis B virus (HBV) 2 Hepatitis C virus (HCV) 3 Cytomegalovirus (CMV) 4 Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

1 Although all of these are opportunistic infections that AIDS patients may acquire, HBV is correct here, because clinical manifestations consist of jaundice, fatigue, and joint pain. HCV is incorrect, because HCV clinical manifestations do not include joint pain. CMV is incorrect, because CMV is broken down into several specific categories that include retinitis, esophagitis, pneumonitis, and neurologic disease, in which none have the clinical manifestations of fatigue, jaundice, or joint pain. MAC is incorrect, because MAC clinical manifestations include gastroenteritis, watery diarrhea, and weight loss. Text Reference - p. 228

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) patient on antiretroviral therapy comes into the clinic complaining that he or she is starting to feel like he or she did before starting the therapy. What should the nurse plan for? 1 Phenotype assay 2 Western Blot test 3 Standard antibody test 4 White blood cell count lab test

1 The patient may have developed a resistance to the medications, and either a genotype or phenotype assay will let the nurse know if this is the reason why the antiretroviral therapy may not be working effectively. The Western Blot test is done to confirm that the patient has HIV. The standard antibody test is done to test for HIV antibodies. White blood cell count laboratory tests are done to test for possible infection. Text Reference - p. 235

When teaching a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding transmission of the virus to others, which statement made by the patient would indicate a need for further teaching? 1 "I will need to isolate any tissues I use so as not to infect my family." 2 "I will notify all of my sexual partners so they can get tested for HIV." 3 "Unprotected sexual contact is the most common mode of transmission." 4 "I do not need to worry about spreading this virus to others by sweating at the gym."

1 HIV is not spread casually. The virus cannot be transmitted through hugging, dry kissing, shaking hands, sharing eating utensils, using toilet seats, or attending school with an HIV-infected person. It is not transmitted through tears, saliva, urine, emesis, sputum, feces, or sweat. The statements "I will notify all of my sexual partners so they can get tested for HIV," "Unprotected sexual contact is the most common mode of transmission," and "I do not need to worry about spreading this virus to others by sweating at the gym" show no need for further teaching. Text Reference - p. 232

A nurse who is caring for a 7-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis assesses the child for cerebral complications. What signs and symptoms indicate cerebral involvement? 1 Headache, drowsiness, and vomiting 2 Generalized edema, anorexia, and restlessness 3 Anuria, temperature higher than 103° F (39.4° C), and confusion 4 Cardiac decompensation, heart rate of 114 beats/min, and vomiting

1 Headache, drowsiness, and vomiting may occur if the blood pressure remains increased and leads to cerebral edema. Drowsiness, not restlessness, will occur; generalized edema and anorexia are not specific to cerebral edema. Although fever and confusion may occur, anuria is not specific to cerebral edema. Although the pulse may be altered and vomiting may occur, cardiac decompensation is not related to cerebral involvement.

During an assessment, the nurse finds that a patient who is HIV-positive has whitish yellow patches in the mouth, GI tract, and esophagus. Which opportunistic infection is the patient likely experiencing? 1 Candida albicans 2 Coccidiodes immitis 3 Cryptosporidium muris 4 Cryptococcus neoformans

1 Opportunistic infections are caused by microorganisms that normally do not cause disease but which become pathogenic when the immune system is impaired and unable to fight off infection. AIDS patients are susceptible to opportunistic diseases. Whitish yellow patches in mouth, GI tract, and esophagus, and the presence of thrush indicate Candida albicans. Infection by Coccidiodes immitis manifests with symptoms like pneumonia, fever, weight loss, and cough. Cryptosporidium muris gastroenteritis is characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Meningitis, cognitive impairment, motor dysfunction, fever, seizures, and headache are symptoms of Cryptococcus neoformans. Text Reference - p. 236

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be administered pregabalin? 1 To reduce neuropathic pain 2 To reduce cognitive difficulty 3 To reduce swallowing difficulty 4 To reduce muscle and joint pain

1 Pregabalin is indicated for neuropathic pain based on its mechanism of interference with nerve signaling. Clients with AIDS generally exhibit emotional and behavioral changes, which can be managed with appropriate antidepressants and anxiolytics. AIDS clients who experience difficulty swallowing may have candidal esophagitis; this condition can be managed with antifungal mediations such as fluconazole or amphotericin B. Traditional analgesics are used to manage joint and muscle pain.

A nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse should prepare the client for what essential care related to rehabilitation? 1 Physical therapy 2 Speech exercises 3 Fitting with a vertebral brace 4 Follow-up on cataract progression

1 Rehabilitation needs for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome focus on physical therapy and exercise for the lower extremities because of muscle weakness and discomfort. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome does not need speech or swallowing exercises. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome does not need vertebral support. Problems with cataracts are not associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome.

A nurse, having identified nursing diagnoses for a patient who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus, determines that the highest risk is: 1 Hyperthermia 2 Social isolation 3 Impaired memory 4 Sexual dysfunction

1 Temperature increase is the highest priority for the nurse because Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) is an indication of AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). Early detection and treatment of PCP is directly related to a positive outcome. Temperature increase in an immunosuppressed patient is always a concern. Social isolation is a secondary risk of all persons who test positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Impaired memory and sexual dysfunction may develop as complications in patients with HIV disease, but these issues are not always present. Text Reference - p. 236

A nurse is caring for a client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. Which complication associated with this diagnosis is most important for the nurse to teach prevention strategies? 1 Infection 2 Depression 3 Social isolation 4 Kaposi sarcoma

1 The client has a weakened immune response. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection. Clients can be taught cognitive strategies to cope with depression, but the strategies will not prevent depression. The client may experience social isolation as a result of society's fears and misconceptions; these are beyond the client's control. Although Kaposi sarcoma is related to HIV infection, there are no specific measures to prevent its occurrence.

The nurse is reviewing blood screening tests of the immune system of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What does the nurse expect to find? 1 A decrease in CD4 T cells 2 An increase in thymic hormones 3 An increase in immunoglobulin E 4 A decrease in the serum level of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

1 The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infects helper T-cell lymphocytes; therefore 300 or fewer CD4 T cells per cubic millimeter of blood or CD4 cells accounting for less than 20% of lymphocytes is suggestive of AIDS. The thymic hormones necessary for T-cell growth are decreased. An increase in immunoglobulin E is associated with allergies and parasitic infections. A decrease in the serum level of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is associated with drug-induced hemolytic anemia and hemolytic disease of the newborn.

A woman infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) delivers a baby with congenital anomalies. The patient was put on Atripla (tenofovir DF+emtricitabine+efavirenz) during pregnancy to control her infection. The nurse recognizes that what is the probable cause for the fetal malformations? 1 Adverse effects of efavirenz 2 Adverse effects of tenofovir DF 3 Adverse effects of emtricitabine 4 Immune deficiency due to HIV

1 The use of efavirenz in large doses in pregnant women may cause fetal anomalies. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are usually not associated with fetal malformations. Tenofovir and emtricitabine are used for preexposure prophylaxis. Immune deficiency due to HIV rarely causes fetal malformation. Text Reference - p. 238

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient is taught health promotion activities, including good nutrition, avoiding alcohol, tobacco, drug use, and exposure to infectious agents, keeping up to date with vaccines, getting adequate rest, and stress management. The nurse knows that the rationale behind these interventions is best described as? 1 Delaying disease progression 2 Preventing disease transmission 3 Helping to cure the HIV infection 4 Enabling an increase in self-care activities

1 These health promotion activities, along with mental health counseling, support groups, and a therapeutic relationship with health care providers, will promote a healthy immune system which may delay disease progression. These measures will not cure HIV infection, prevent disease transmission, or increase self-care activities. Text Reference - p. 242

A primary healthcare provider has prescribed pyrazinamide to a client with tuberculosis. Which instruction by the nurse will be beneficial to the client? Select all that apply. 1 Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages." 2 "Drink at least 8 ounces of water with the medication." 3 "Your soft contact lenses will be stained permanently." 4 "Darkening of the urine is normal while you are using this drug." 5 "Be sure to report any changes in vision such as diminished color perception."

1, 2 A client undergoing pyrazinamide therapy may require extra fluids to help prevent uric acid formation from precipitating and causing gout or kidney problems. Therefore the client should drink at least 8 ounces of water with the medication. The client should also avoid alcoholic beverages, which could potentiate liver toxicity. Staining is a common problem with rifampin, not pyrazinamide. The client should also report any darkening of urine because this may be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. The client should report any vision changes if he or she is taking etambutol.

In the early stages of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, which cells protect the human body from infections? Select all that apply. 1 T lymphocytes 2 B lymphocytes 3 Platelets 4 Immunoglobulins 5 Red blood cells

1, 2 In the early stages of HIV infection, B cells and T cells protect the body from infections. B cells make HIV-specific antibodies that are effective in reducing viral loads in the blood. T cells play a key role in the immune system's ability to recognize and defend against pathogens. Immune dysfunction in HIV infection is predominantly the result of damage to and destruction of CD4+ T-cells. Platelets do not take part in providing immunity to the human body. They are required for clotting mechanism. Immunoglobulins do not contribute in protection against HIV infection. Red blood cells do not play a role in protection from infections. Test-Taking Tip: Practicing a few relaxation techniques may prove helpful on the day of an examination. Relaxation techniques such as deep breathing, imagery, head rolling, shoulder shrugging, rotating and stretching of the neck, leg lifts, and heel lifts with feet flat on the floor can effectively reduce tension while causing little or no distraction to those around you. It is recommended that you practice one or two of these techniques intermittently to avoid becoming tense. The more anxious and tense you become, the longer it will take you to relax. Text Reference - p. 233

A nurse is counseling a patient diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The nurse understands that patients with HIV need vaccines to protect them from other infectious diseases. Which vaccines should the nurse advise the patient to take to comply with the recommended immunization schedule for a patient with HIV? Select all that apply. 1 Tetanus 2 Hepatitis B 3 Influenza 4 Pneumococcal vaccines 5 Measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) 6 Hepatitis C

1, 2, 3, 4 Patients with HIV should receive vaccination to avoid contracting other infectious diseases. They should get vaccinated against tetanus, influenza, hepatitis B, and pneumococcal infection. Vaccines with live pathogens such as MMR should be avoided, because these are contraindicated in people with a compromised immune system. Currently, there is no vaccine for preventing hepatitis C. Text Reference - p. 238

What are the symptoms of tuberculosis? Select all that apply. 1 Fatigue 2 Nausea 3 Weight gain 4 Low-grade fever 5 Increased appetite

1, 2, 4 Tuberculosis is an infectious respiratory disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The symptoms of tuberculosis are fatigue, nausea, low-grade fever, weight loss, and anorexia.

A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and wants to know about the measures which can help delay the progression of HIV disease. What should the attending nurse tell the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Encourage adequate rest. 2 Encourage a nutritious diet. 3 Inform the patient not to exercise. 4 Encourage adherence to the vaccination schedule. 5 Inform the patient that taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) alone is sufficient.

1, 2, 4 Useful interventions for HIV-infected patients that help delay the progression of disease include adequate rest, getting nutritional support, and keeping up to date with recommended vaccines. Exercising should be encouraged based on tolerance. Taking ART alone may not be sufficient, and treatment for other opportunistic infections may be required. HIV disease progression may be delayed by promoting a healthy immune system whether the patient chooses to use ART or not. Text Reference - p. 242

The nurse is discussing human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection with a patient and his or her family. Which statements accurately describe HIV infection? Select all that apply. 1 Untreated HIV infection has a predictable pattern of progression. 2 Late chronic HIV infection is called acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). 3 Untreated HIV infection usually remains in the early chronic stage for one year or less. 4 The interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is about five years. 5 Oropharyngeal candidiasis is a common infection associated with the symptomatic stage of HIV infection.

1, 2, 5 The typical course of untreated HIV infection follows a predictable pattern. Late chronic HIV infection is known as AIDS. The most common infection associated with the symptomatic phase of HIV infection is oropharyngeal candidiasis. The interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is about 10 years. Untreated HIV infection usually remains in the early chronic stage for about eight years. Text Reference - p. 233

A nurse is teaching a health class about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which basic methods are used to reduce the incidence of HIV transmission? Select all that apply. 1 Using condoms 2 Using separate toilets 3 Practicing sexual abstinence 4 Preventing direct casual contacts 5 Sterilizing the household utensils

1, 3 HIV is found in body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk, amniotic fluid, urine, feces, saliva, tears, and cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore a client should use condoms to prevent contact between the vaginal mucus membranes and semen. Practicing sexual abstinence is the best method to prevent transmission of the virus. The HIV virus is not transmitted by sharing the same toilet facilities, casual contacts such as shaking hands and kissing, or by sharing the same household utensils.

One month after delivering a baby, a mother was infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) due to intercourse with a stranger. She came to the hospital to seek medical advice and HIV testing. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and Western blot tests revealed that she was HIV-positive. What should be advised to the mother? Select all that apply. 1 Avoid breastfeeding. 2 Extract breast milk with a breast pump. 3 Have the baby immunized. 4 Get Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccination (mother). 5 Baby will need antiretroviral drugs.

1, 3 Perinatal transmission from an HIV-infected mother to her infant can occur during pregnancy, delivery, or breastfeeding. In this case, the baby was born to a healthy mother, and, therefore, there are chances of baby getting infected through breast milk. Hence, breast milk should be avoided in this case. The baby needs regular immunization to protect against other infectious diseases. The baby does not need any antiretroviral drugs, because the mother got HIV infection after delivering the baby. Breast milk, even after extracting through a breast pump, should not be fed to the baby, because it can spread infection. The mother needs vaccines, but not live vaccines like BCG or measles-mumps-rubella (MMR). BCG and MMR should be avoided in people with HIV infection, because these patients have a compromised immune system. Test-Taking Tip: As you answer each question, write a few words about why you think that answer is correct; in other words, justify why you selected that answer. If an answer you provide is a guess, mark the question to identify it. This will permit you to recognize areas that need further review. It will also help you to see how correct your "guessing" can be. Remember: on the licensure examination you must answer each question before moving on to the next question. Text Reference - p. 231

A homosexual who was diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come to a nurse to find out which tests would determine the prognosis of the syndrome. What should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. 1 Prognosis can be assessed by viral load. 2 Prognosis can be assessed by red blood cell count. 3 Prognosis can be assessed by CD4+ T-cell count. 4 Prognosis can be assessed by testing for hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV). 5 Prognosis can be assessed by immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody levels

1, 3 The progression of HIV infection is monitored by two important laboratory assessments: CD4+ T-cell counts and viral load. Laboratory tests that measure viral levels provide an assessment of disease progression. The CD4+ T-cell count is done to monitor the progression of HIV infection and response to treatment. The normal range for CD4+ T cells is 800 to 1200 cells/μL. The red blood cell count indicates presence or absence of anemia. The tests for HBV and HCV indicate the infection with respective hepatitis virus. IgM antibody levels are nonspecific and do not indicate the progress of AIDS. Text Reference - p. 233

As part of an awareness program for high school students on acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a public nurse is giving information about routes of transmission. What information should the nurse provide to students regarding the routes of transmission? Select all that apply. 1 A person can be infected by having intercourse with one stable partner. 2 A person can be infected by donating a pint of whole blood. 3 A person can be infected even if a condom is used each time there is sexual intercourse. 4 A person can be infected if sexual contact is limited to those without human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies. 5 A person can get infected while hugging or shaking hands with a person infected with HIV.

1, 3, 4 The risk of transmission depends on the partner's prior behavior. Although condoms do offer protection, they are subject to failure because of condom rupture or improper use; risks of infection are present with any sexual contact. An individual may be infected before testing positive for the antibodies; the individual can still transmit the virus. Equipment used in donation is disposable, and the donor does not come into contact with anyone else's blood. Hence, transmission cannot occur by donating blood. The virus cannot be transmitted through hugging, dry kissing, shaking hands, sharing eating utensils, using toilet seats, or casual encounters in any setting. Test-Taking Tip: Read every word of each question and option before responding to the item. Glossing over the questions just to get through the examination quickly can cause you to misread or misinterpret the real intent of the question. Text Reference - p. 231

A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come to the hospital without any improvement in condition in spite of antiretroviral therapy. On assessment, the nurse learns that the patient was noncompliant with the therapy. What are the next appropriate nursing actions? Select all that apply. 1 Assess the need for a change in the medication regimen. 2 Avoid discussing the patient's status with other people. 3 Instruct the patient to avoid adjusting dosages, even if the medications interfere with the patient's work schedule. 4 Determine if the patient experienced any adverse effects of the medications. 5 Determine whether the patient understands the need for treatment compliance.

1, 4, 5 Noncompliance to the treatment regimen is common in patients with HIV; therefore, the nurse should evaluate the factors that may lead to the noncompliance. If the noncompliance is caused by side effects, the side effects should be treated or the regimen should be changed. The nurse should determine if the patient experienced any adverse effects to the drugs. Sometimes patients will not comprehend the need for compliance to the antiretroviral therapy. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the importance of compliance. The nurse should engage the patient's family and friends when teaching about the medications and the need for compliance. Sometimes compliance can be improved if the patient adjusts the medication according to a work schedule. Text Reference - p. 242

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) patient recently is started on antiretroviral therapy, but does not fully understand the purpose of the medication. The nurse would explain to the patient that the goals of the antiretroviral therapy are which of the following? Select all that apply. 1 To decrease the viral load 2 To cure the HIV disease 3 To stop the HIV disease from progressing 4 To prevent transmission of the HIV disease 5 To maintain or increase the CD4 cell counts 6 To prevent HIV-related opportunistic infections

1, 4, 5, 6 The goals of drug therapy in HIV infection are to decrease the viral load, maintain or increase CD4 T cell counts, prevent HIV-related symptoms and opportunistic infections, delay disease progression, and prevent HIV transmission. Curing the HIV disease is incorrect, because there is currently no cure for the HIV disease. Stopping the HIV disease from progressing is incorrect, because it cannot stop the progression of the HIV disease, but only delay the HIV disease progression. Text Reference - p. 237

ANS: A After an initial positive EIA test, the EIA is repeated before more specific testing such as the Western blot is done. Viral cultures are not usually part of HIV testing. It is not appropriate for the nurse to predict the time frame for AIDS development. The Western blot tests for HIV antibodies, not for AIDS.

1. A patient who has vague symptoms of fatigue, headaches, and a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies using an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. What instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. "The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results." b. "A viral culture will be done to determine the progression of the disease." c. "It will probably be 10 or more years before you develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)." d. "The Western blot test will be done to determine whether acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has developed."

ANS: A, B, C Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is a stage between acute HIV infection and a diagnosis of symptomatic chronic HIV infection. Although called asymptomatic, symptoms (e.g., fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats) often occur. Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease when the CD4+ counts have dropped or when infection has occurred.

1. The nurse cares for a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection. Which prophylactic measures will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

ANS: D The best approach to improve adherence is to learn about important activities in the patient's life and adjust the ART around those activities. The other actions also are useful, but they will not improve adherence as much as individualizing the ART to the patient's schedule.

13. Which nursing action will be most useful in assisting a college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen? a. Give the patient detailed information about possible medication side effects. b. Remind the patient of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled. c. Encourage the patient to join a support group for students who are HIV positive. d. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the drugs should be taken.

ANS: D The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (pneumonia, dementia, influenza, etc.) associated with HIV infection.

14. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. Which outcome would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will receive immunizations. c. The patient will have adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin.

ANS: C A frequent first intervention for metabolic disorders is a change in antiretroviral therapy (ART). Treatment with antifungal agents would not be appropriate because there is no indication of fungal infection. Changes in diet or exercise have not proven helpful for this problem.

15. A patient treated for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection for 6 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk, with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. What instructions will the nurse give to the patient? a. Review foods that are higher in protein. b. Teach about the benefits of daily exercise. c. Discuss a change in antiretroviral therapy. d. Talk about treatment with antifungal agents.

ANS: B It is important that antiretrovirals be taken at the prescribed time every day to avoid developing drug-resistant HIV. The other medications should also be given as close as possible to the correct time, but they are not as essential to receive at the same time every day

16. The nurse prepares to administer the following medications to a hospitalized patient with human immunodeficiency (HIV). Which medication is most important to administer at the right time? a. Oral acyclovir (Zovirax) b. Oral saquinavir (Invirase) c. Nystatin (Mycostatin) tablet d. Aerosolized pentamidine (NebuPent)

ANS: D Because missing doses of ART can lead to drug resistance, this patient statement indicates the need for interventions such as teaching or changes in the drug scheduling. Elevated blood glucose and fatigue are common side effects of ART. The nurse should discuss medication side effects with the patient, but this is not as important as addressing the skipped doses of AZT.

18. The nurse cares for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and taking antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information is most important for the nurse to address when planning care? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 142 mg/dL. b. The patient complains of feeling "constantly tired." c. The patient is unable to state the side effects of the medications. d. The patient states, "Sometimes I miss a dose of zidovudine (AZT)."

ANS: B The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the stage of asymptomatic chronic infection, when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although the initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART.

19. Eight years after seroconversion, a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/µL and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Teach about the effects of antiretroviral agents. b. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. c. Discuss likelihood of increased opportunistic infections. d. Monitor for symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

A patient currently taking emtricitabine, asks the nurse how this medication helps with the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The nurse would explain that it: 1 Prevents the binding of the HIV to cells, which prevents HIV entry into the cell. 2 Inserts DNA into the HIV DNA chain and blocks further development of the HIV DNA chain. 3 Inhibits the action of the reverse transciptase enzyme, so that DNA is no longer converted to RNA. 4 Binds with the integrase enzyme, which prevents HIV from incorporating its genetic material into the host cell.

2 Emtricitabine is classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), and works by inserting DNA into the HIV DNA chain and blocks further development of the HIV DNA chain. Medications that prevent binding of the HIV to cells are classified as entry inhibitors. Drugs that inhibit the action of the reverse transciptase enzyme so that DNA is no longer converted to RNA, are classified as non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs). Medications that bind with the integrase enzyme, which prevents HIV from incorporating its genetic material into the host cell, are classified as integrase inhibitors. Test-Taking Tip: Try putting questions and answers in your own words to test your understanding. Text Reference - p. 237

A patient is enzyme immunoassay (EIA)-antibody negative for HIV. The patient informs the nurse about recent sexual contact with multiple partners. What is the most appropriate nursing action? 1 Reassure the patient that HIV infection is unlikely. 2 Suggest HIV retesting at three weeks, six weeks, and three months. 3 Advise a more specific test, such as the Western blot. 4 Suggest getting a genotype and phenotype assay done.

2 If the patient is EIA-antibody negative for HIV and has a history of risky behavior, such as sexual contact with multiple partners, the nurse should advise the patient to get retested at three weeks, six weeks, and three months. In the initial stages of infection, the viral antibody may not be detectable; therefore repeated testing may be required. The nurse should inform the patient that absence of antibody does not indicate absence of HIV infection, and to confirm, further testing may be required. If the repeated tests are positive, then a more specific and confirmatory test like Western blot may be done. Genotype and phenotype assays are done not to detect presence of infection, but to determine whether a patient's HIV is resistant to drugs used for antiretroviral therapy. Test-Taking Tip: The computerized NCLEX exam is an individualized testing experience in which the computer chooses your next question based on the ability and competency you have demonstrated on previous questions. The minimum number of questions will be 75 and the maximum 265. You must answer each question before the computer will present the next question, and you cannot go back to any previously answered questions. Remember that you do not have to answer all of the questions correctly to pass. Text Reference - p. 236

The nurse understands that a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) starts to develop immune problems when his or her CD4 count: 1 drops below 200 2 drops below 500 3 is greater than 500 4 falls to between 800 to 1200

2 Immune problems start to occur when the count drops below 500 CD4 T cells. When it drops below 200 CD4 T cells, severe immune problems will develop and the patient is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The immune system generally remains healthy if there are more than 500 CD4 T cells. A count between 800 to 1200 CD4 T cells is normal for adults who do not have any immune dysfunction. Text Reference - p. 233

The nurse was stuck accidently with a needle used on a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient. After reporting this, what care should this nurse first receive? 1 Personal protective equipment 2 Combination antiretroviral therapy 3 Counseling to report blood exposures 4 A negative evaluation by the manager

2 Postexposure prophylaxis with combination antiretroviral therapy can decrease significantly the risk of infection. Personal protective equipment should be available, although it may not have stopped this needle stick. The needle stick has been reported. The negative evaluation may or may not be needed, but would not occur first. Text Reference - p. 240

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient is about to receive treatment with antiretroviral drugs. Which statement by the nurse reflects a correct understanding of the purpose of these drugs? 1 "Antiretroviral drugs can cure HIV infection." 2 "These drugs work by decreasing the viral load." 3 "Antiretroviral drugs will prevent opportunistic diseases." 4 "These drugs only work in the initial replication stage of the virus."

2 The goals of drug therapy in HIV infection are to decrease the viral load, maintain or raise CD4+ T cell counts, and delay onset of HIV-related symptoms and opportunistic diseases. Antiretroviral drugs do not cure HIV infection nor do they prevent opportunistic diseases. Drugs used to treat HIV work at various points in the HIV replication cycle. Text Reference - p. 237

A 25-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The patient does not want to take more than one antiretroviral drug. What reasons can the nurse tell the patient about for taking more than one drug? 1 Together they will cure HIV 2 Viral replication will be inhibited 3 They will decrease CD4+ T cell counts 4 It will prevent interaction with other drugs

2 The major advantage of using several classes of antiretroviral drugs is that viral replication can be inhibited in several ways, making it more difficult for the virus to recover and decreasing the likelihood of drug resistance, which is a major problem with monotherapy. Combination therapy also delays disease progression and decreases HIV symptoms and opportunistic diseases. HIV cannot be cured. CD4+ T cell counts increase with therapy. There are dangerous interactions with many antiretroviral drugs and other commonly used drugs. Text Reference - p. 236

What causes medications used to treat AIDS to become ineffective? 1 Taking the medications 90% of the time 2 Missing doses of the prescribed medications 3 Taking medications from different classifications 4 Developing immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)

2 The most important reason for the development of drug resistance in the treatment of AIDS is missing doses of drugs. When doses are missed, the blood drug concentrations become lower than what is needed to inhibit viral replication. The virus replicates and produces new particles that are resistant to the drugs. Taking the medications 90% of the time prevents medications from becoming ineffective. Taking medications from different classes prevents the drugs from becoming ineffective. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) occurs when T-cells rebound with medication therapy and become aware of opportunistic infections.

A client who has acquired human immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV) develops bacterial pneumonia. On admission to the emergency department, the client's PaO 2 is 80 mm Hg. When the arterial blood gases are drawn again, the level is determined to be 65 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first? 1 Prepare to intubate the client. 2 Increase the oxygen flow rate per facility protocol. 3 Decrease the tension of oxygen in the plasma. 4 Have the arterial blood gases redone to verify accuracy.

2 This decrease in PaO 2 indicates respiratory failure; it warrants immediate medical evaluation. Most facilities have a protocol to increase the oxygen flow rate to keep oxygen saturation greater than 92%. The client PaO 2 of 65 mm Hg is not severe enough to intubate the client without first increasing flow rate to determine if the client improves. Decreasing the tension of oxygen in the plasma is inappropriate and will compound the problem. The PaO 2 is a measure of the pressure (tension) of oxygen in the plasma; this level is decreased in individuals who have perfusion difficulties, such as those with pneumonia. Having the arterial blood gases redone to verify accuracy is negligent and dangerous; a falling PaO 2 level is a serious indication of worsening pulmonary status and must be addressed immediately. Drawing another blood sample and waiting for results will take too long.

A patient with AIDS has been put on antiretroviral therapy and has been taking the medications for four weeks. During the one-month follow-up visit, what findings will help the nurse identify whether the patient is responding to the treatment? Select all that apply. 1 80% drop in viral load 2 90% drop in viral load 3 CD4 T cell count above 14% 4 CD4 T cell count above 400 cells /µL 5 3-unit drop in viral load on a log scale

2, 3, 5 Lab findings may help assess the response of the patient to treatment. A 90% or more drop in viral load and CD4 T cell count above 14% indicate good response to treatment. A 3-unit drop in viral load, which corresponds to a 99% reduction in viral load, also indicates that the patient is responding well to the treatment. A drop in viral load of less than 90% does not indicate a significant response to antiretroviral therapy after four of therapy. A CD4 T cell count above 500 to 600 cells/µL is considered a favorable response to antiretroviral therapy. Text Reference - p. 241

A patient was given 500 mL of O-negative blood after proper cross-matching. Later, it was found that the blood donor was human immunodeficiency virus-(HIV) positive. After two weeks, the patient complained of fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, headache, malaise, nausea, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea, and diffuse rash. What could be the possible reason for these symptoms? Select all that apply. 1 Flu 2 Seroconversion 3 Mononucleosis 4 Acute HIV infection 5 Guillain-Barré syndrome

2, 4 In this case, the patient would have acquired HIV infection from the donor. A mononucleosis-like syndrome of fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, headache, malaise, nausea, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea, and/or a diffuse rash often accompanies seroconversion (when HIV-specific antibodies develop). These symptoms, called acute HIV infection, generally occur within two to four weeks after the initial infection and last for one to three weeks, although some symptoms may persist for several months. Many people, including health care providers, mistake acute HIV symptoms for a bad case of the flu. Some people also develop neurologic complications, such as aseptic meningitis, peripheral neuropathy, facial palsy, or Guillain-Barré syndrome. This patient has not yet developed neurologic symptoms. Test-Taking Tip: Avoid spending excessive time on any one question. Most questions can be answered in one to two minutes. Text Reference - p. 234

A nurse is asked to teach a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient about the measures to be taken to prevent resistance to antibiotics and infections. What information should the nurse give? Select all that apply. 1 Advise patient to only take antibiotics until the patient feels better. 2 Advise patient to avoid requesting an antibiotic for flu or colds. 3 Advise patient to save unfinished antibiotics for later use. 4 Advise patient to wash hands properly and regularly. 5 Advise patient to avoid skipping antibiotic doses.

2, 4, 5 Antibiotics are effective against bacterial infections but not viruses, which cause colds and flu. Therefore, antibiotics should not be requested for flu or colds. Hand washing is the single most important thing to do to prevent infection. The patient should not skip antibiotic doses, because doing so can lead to development of resistance. A person should never stop taking antibiotics when feeling better. If an antibiotic is stopped early, the hardiest bacteria survive and multiply. Eventually, the patient could develop an infection resistant to many antibiotics. It is also important to never have leftover antibiotics. Text Reference - p. 230

A patient with HIV infection has been diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which opportunistic infections should the nurse be watchful for in the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Legionnaires' disease 2 Candidiasis of bronchi 3 Ebola hemorrhagic fever 4 Toxoplasmosis of the brain 5 Mycobacterium avium (MAC) complex

2, 4, 5 Candidiasis of bronchi, toxoplasmosis of the brain, and Mycobacterium avium complex are opportunistic infections in AIDS, because the immune system is too weak to fight back. Candidiasis of the bronchi is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. It rarely causes problems in healthy adults because they have strong immune systems, but is common in people with HIV due to weakened immunity. Toxoplasmosis of the brain is a protozoal infection, and Mycobacterium avium complex is a bacterial infection. Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by Ebola virus and Legionnaires' disease is caused by Legionella pneumophila; these are not opportunistic diseases. They are emerging infections that have recently increased in incidence. Text Reference - p. 235

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who wants to know about the opportunistic carcinomas that are included in the diagnostic criteria of AIDS. Which opportunistic cancers should the nurse discuss with the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Melanoma 2 Kaposi sarcoma 3 Hodgkin's lymphoma 4 Burkitt's lymphoma 5 Invasive cervical cancer

2, 4, 5 Opportunistic cancers are cancers that develop due to a dysfunctional immune system and are otherwise not found in healthy people. The opportunistic cancers in AIDS patients are invasive cervical cancer, Kaposi sarcoma (KS), Burkitt's lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma, and primary lymphoma of the brain. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus 8. Burkitt's lymphoma is cancer of the lymphatic system. Melanoma is a skin cancer not associated with AIDS. Hodgkin's lymphoma represents one of the most common non-AIDS-defining cancers with an increasing incidence. Text Reference - p. 235

ANS: B A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis would be placed on airborne precautions. Because all health care workers are taught about the various types of infection precautions used in the hospital, the UAP can safely stock the room with personal protective equipment. Obtaining contact information and patient teaching are higher-level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

22. The registered nurse (RN) caring for an HIV-positive patient admitted with tuberculosis can delegate which action to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Teach the patient about how to use tissues to dispose of respiratory secretions. b. Stock the patient's room with all the necessary personal protective equipment. c. Interview the patient to obtain the names of family members and close contacts. d. Tell the patient's family members the reason for the use of airborne precautions.

ANS: C Sexual transmission is the most common way that HIV is transmitted. The nurse should also provide teaching about perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusion, but the rate of HIV infection associated with these situations is lower.

23. The nurse designs a program to decrease the incidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in the adolescent and young adult populations. Which information should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission b. Ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users c. Prevention of HIV transmission between sexual partners d. Means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions

*1. In teaching a patient with pyelonephritis about the disorder, the nurse informs the paitent that the organisms that cause pyelonephritis most commonly reach the kidneys through* a. the bloodstream b.the lymphatic system c. a descending infection d. an ascending infection

D

The nurse assesses a patient with recently diagnosed human immunodeficiency virus disease who has been admitted to the hospital with a new diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What assessment finding is most diagnostic of AIDS? 1 Sleeping six to eight hours per night 2 Feelings of fatigue in the evening 3 Steady weight loss over the past several months 4 Feelings of profound helplessness and hopelessness

3 A very common complaint of patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is steady weight loss regardless of attempts to maintain or gain weight. Other common findings include anorexia, decreased sleep, constipation, and anxiety. Sleeping six to eight hours per night, fatigue in the evening, and feelings of helplessness and hopelessness may be seen with human immunodeficiency virus/AIDS, but they are not as diagnostic as unexplained steady weight loss. Text Reference - p. 234

A patient who has a history of having multiple sexual partners underwent HIV testing through enzyme immunoassay (EIA). The test was negative. How should the nurse explain the test result to the patient? 1 The patient does not have HIV infection. 2 The test might give a false-negative report. 3 The test should be repeated at three weeks, six weeks, and three months. 4 The patient is HIV positive, but the viral load is not detectable.

3 An enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test for HIV is highly sensitive, but a negative result in a person with high risk behavior does not necessarily indicate an absence of HIV infection. The test should be repeated at three weeks, six weeks, and three months. The test is unlikely to give a false-negative result, so the nurse should not disclose this to the patient. The viral load may not be enough to be detected, but the nurse should not tell a patient who tested negative that he or she is HIV positive. Text Reference - p. 236

Which client has the highest risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection? 1 A client who is involved in mutual masturbation 2 A client who undergoes voluntary prenatal HIV testing 3 A client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs 4 A client who engages in insertive sex with a non-infective partner

3 Clients who use equipment to snort (straws) and smoke (pipes) drugs are at the highest risk for becoming infected with HIV as their judgment may be impaired regarding the high-risk behaviors. Safe activities that prevent the risk of contracting HIV include mutual masturbation, masturbation, and other activities that meet the "no contact" requirements. A client who undergoes perinatal HIV voluntary testing may reduce the chances of getting infected. Insertive sex between partners who are not infected with HIV are not at risk of becoming infected with HIV.

A pregnant woman who was tested and diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is very upset. What should the nurse teach this patient about her baby's risk of being born with HIV infection? 1 "The baby probably will be infected with HIV." 2 "Only an abortion will keep your baby from having HIV." 3 "Treatment with antiretroviral therapy will decrease the baby's chance of HIV infection." 4 "The duration and frequency of contact with the organism will determine if the baby gets HIV infection."

3 On average, 25% of infants born to women with untreated HIV will be born with HIV. The risk of transmission is reduced to less than 2% if the infected pregnant woman is treated with antiretroviral therapy. Duration and frequency of contact with the HIV organism are two variables that influence whether transmission of HIV occurs. Volume, virulence, and concentration of the organism, as well as host immune status, are variables related to transmission via blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk. Text Reference - p. 240

The nurse provides education to a patient who has expressed concern about HIV infection. Which statement indicates that the patient understands the teaching? 1 "I can't contract HIV unless there's an opportunistic infection present." 2 "Using a condom with a spermicide will give 100% protection from HIV." 3 "Using a condom with a spermicide will reduce my risk of contracting HIV." 4 "Kaposi sarcoma is one of the first opportunistic infections to show up in someone with HIV."

3 Research indicates that using a condom with a spermicidal jelly containing nonoxynol-9 provides the greatest reduction of risk of contracting HIV during sexual intercourse. An opportunistic infection does not have to be present, a condom with spermicide does not provide 100% protection, and Kapos sarcoma is not one of the first opportunistic infections to appear in someone infected with HIV. Text Reference - p. 240

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of four clients. Which client's laboratory report indicates acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Client 1, CD4 count, 750 cells/mm 2 Client 2, CD4 count, 550 cells/mm 3 Client 3, CD4 count, 175 cells/mm 4 Client 4, CD4 count, 450 cells/mm

3 The diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person should be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm 3 (200 cells/uL) or less than 14% or an opportunistic infection. Therefore client 3, with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm 3 (200 cells/uL) and who is HIV positive, is having AIDS-defining illness. A healthy client usually has at least 800 to 1000 CD4+ T-cells per cubic millimeter (mm 3) of blood. This number is reduced in the client with HIV disease. Client 1, with a CD4+ T-cell count of 750 cells/mm 3 and HIV positive, does not have AIDS. Client 2, with a CD4+ T-cell count of 550 cells/mm 3 and HIV positive, does not have AIDS. Client 4, having a CD4+ T-cell count of 450 cells/mm 3 and HIV positive does not have AIDS.

The mother of an 8-year-old child with the diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) is concerned that a 4-year-old sibling may also have the disorder. What does the nurse recall when preparing to explain the cause of the disease process? 1 A systemic infection causing clots in the small renal tubules 2 A factor that is unknown and therefore is difficult to prevent 3 An immune complex disorder occurring after a group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus infection 4 An autosomal recessive trait, meaning that there is an increased probability that a sibling will also have the disease

3 The β-hemolytic Streptococcus immune complex becomes trapped in the glomerular capillary loop, causing acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. APSGN is usually precipitated by a localized pharyngitis. Clots do not form in the small renal tubules with APSGN. Prevention depends on treating an individual with a group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus infection with antibiotics to eliminate the organism before an immune response can occur. APSGN is an acquired, not an inherited, disorder.

The nurse is assessing a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-nfected patient who has been on antiretroviral therapy (ART) for eight months. Which statement about metabolic side effects of ART is true? Select all that apply. 1 Glucose levels often decrease because of insulin resistance. 2 These are a bothersome set of symptoms that are ultimately harmless. 3 ART-related body changes include central fat accumulation and peripheral wasting. 4 Lipid abnormalities include elevated triglyceride levels and decreases in high-density lipoproteins. 5 Bone disease may be improved with exercise, dietary changes, and calcium and vitamin D supplements

3, 4, 5 Some HIV-infected patients, especially those who have been infected and on ART for a long time, develop a set of metabolic disorders that include changes in body shape (i.e., fat deposits in the abdomen, upper back, and breasts, along with fat loss in the arms, legs, and face) caused by lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia (i.e., elevated triglycerides and decreases in high-density lipoproteins), insulin resistance and hyperglycemia, bone disease (e.g., osteoporosis, osteopenia, avascular necrosis), lactic acidosis, and cardiovascular disease. These disorders are treated early to prevent complications. It is important to recognize and treat these problems early, especially because cardiovascular disease and lactic acidosis are potentially fatal complications. Text Reference - p. 23

A woman is afraid she may get human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from her bisexual husband. What should the nurse include when teaching her about preexposure prophylaxis? Select all that apply. 1 Take fluconazole 2 Take amphotericin B 3 Use condoms for risk-reducing sexual relations 4 Take emtricitabine and tenofovir regularly 5 Have regular HIV testing for herself and her husband

3, 4, 5 Using male or female condoms, having monthly HIV testing for the patient and her husband, and the woman taking emtricitabine and tenofovir regularly have been shown to decrease the infection rate of heterosexual women having sex with a partner who participates in high-risk behavior. Fluconazole and amphotericin B are taken for Candida albicans, Coccidioides immitis, and Cryptococcosus neoformans, which are all opportunistic diseases associated with HIV infection. Text Reference - p. 237

A woman who is three months pregnant finds out that she is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive on routine HIV testing. She wishes to continue her pregnancy. What information should be given to this patient? Select all that apply. 1 Inform her that the infant will not be infected. 2 Advise her to consider abortion. 3 Advise her to consider tubectomy after delivery. 4 Advise her that antiretroviral therapy (ART) can decrease the risk of transmission. 5 Advise her to follow a healthy lifestyle with nutritious food and regular exercise.

3, 4, 5 Women who are already infected with HIV should be asked about their reproductive desires. Those who choose not to have children should undergo family planning methods like tubectomy. The current standard of care is for all women who are pregnant or contemplating pregnancy to be counseled about HIV, routinely offered access to voluntary HIV-antibody testing, and, if infected, offered optimal ART. In this case, the possibility of maintaining the pregnancy and using ART to decrease the risk of transmission should be discussed. Abortion is not mandatory in such cases. If HIV-infected pregnant women are appropriately treated during pregnancy, the rate of perinatal transmission can be decreased from 25% to less than 2%, but it cannot be guaranteed that the infant will not be infected. The patient should eat a healthy and nutritious diet and do regular exercise to remain active and delay the progression of disease. Text Reference - p. 240

A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What precautions should the nurse take for self-protection when administering IV injection to the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Mask 2 Gown 3 Gloves 4 Face shield 5 Hand hygiene

3, 5 Wearing gloves protects the nurse from potential contamination. Gloves are appropriate when there is a risk of the hands coming into contact with a patient's blood or body fluids. Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of microorganisms. Wearing a mask, gown, or face shield is necessary for procedures in which splashing of body fluids is anticipated or a risk. Text Reference - p. 230

ANS: C After an initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about HIV status of other individuals.

3. A patient with a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most important at this time? a. Teach the patient about the medications available for treatment. b. Inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners. c. Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. Ask the patient to notify individuals who have had risky contact with the patient.

According to the Healthcare Personnel Vaccination Recommendations, what meningococcal conjugate vaccine dose should a nurse administer to a 12-year-old with an HIV infection? 1 Single initial dose and a booster dose 3 years later 2 Single initial dose and a booster dose 5 years later 3 Single initial dose and a booster dose 7 years later 4 Two initial doses and a booster dose at 16 years old

4 A 12-year-old with HIV would require two primary meningococcal conjugate vaccine delivered two months apart initially and a booster dose at the age of 16 years old. The client would require two initial doses, not a single initial dose, and a booster at 16 years old, not 3, 5, or 7 years later.

When reviewing the assessment data of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) patient, the nurse notes that the patient's CD4 cell count is below 200, and that the patient has lost more than 10% of his or her ideal body weight. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing: 1 Kaposi sarcoma 2 Cytomegalovirus (CMV) 3 Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) 4 Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS

4 A patient with HIV is diagnosed with AIDS when the CD4 T cell count drops below 200 or the patient develops wasting syndrome, which is the loss of 10% or more of ideal body mass. Kaposi sarcoma, CMV, and PCP are all opportunistic infections or cancers that may develop in an HIV patient and lead to a diagnosis of AIDS. Text Reference - p. 235

*5.The edema that occurs in nephrotic syndrome is due to* a. increased hydrostatic pressure caused by sodium retention. b. decreased aldosterone secretion from adrenal insufficiency. c. increased fluid retention caused by decreased glomerular filtration d.decreased colloidal osmotic pressure caused by loss of serum albumin

D

A nurse is caring for a patient who is diagnosed with AIDS. The nurse should inform the patient that the virus can be spread through which method? 1 Shaking hands 2 Sharing a toilet seat 3 Eating from the same utensils 4 Having unprotected sex

4 AIDS can be transmitted from one individual to another by unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse. Any sexual activity that involves contact with body fluids, such as semen, vaginal secretions, or blood, can spread the infection. Shaking hands, using common toilet seats, and sharing utensils do not involve contact with body fluids. Therefore, the HIV infection cannot be transmitted through these modes. Text Reference - p. 231

A client who abused intravenous drugs was diagnosed with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) several years ago. What does the nurse explain to the client regarding the diagnostic criterion for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Contracts HIV-specific antibodies 2 Develops an acute retroviral syndrome 3 Is capable of transmitting the virus to others 4 Has a CD4+T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/µL (60%)

4 AIDS is diagnosed when an individual with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) develops one of the following: a CD4+T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/µL (60%), wasting syndrome, dementia, one of the listed opportunistic cancers (e.g., Kaposi sarcoma [KS], Burkitt lymphoma), or one of the listed opportunistic infections (e.g., Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, Mycobacterium tuberculosis). The development of HIV-specific antibodies (seroconversion), accompanied by acute retroviral syndrome (flulike syndrome with fever, swollen lymph glands, headache, malaise, nausea, diarrhea, diffuse rash, joint and muscle pain) 1 to 3 weeks after exposure to HIV reflects acquisition of the virus, not the development of AIDS. A client who is HIV positive is capable of transmitting the virus with or without the diagnosis of AIDS.

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) patient comes into the clinic for a follow-up appointment with a temperature of 102o F. Which statement would the nurse report immediately? 1 "I woke up this morning with a mild headache." 2 "I vomited once this morning." 3 "I started coughing up some clear mucous when I woke up this morning." 4 "I have a rash that appeared on my stomach this morning."

4 Although all of these are signs and symptoms that the patient may be experiencing a complication and should be reported, a new rash accompanied by a fever should be reported immediately by a patient with HIV infection. Headache, vomiting, and coughing are signs and symptoms the reporting of which can be delayed up to 24 hours. Test-Taking Tip: The computerized NCLEX exam is an individualized testing experience in which the computer chooses your next question based on the ability and competency you have demonstrated on previous questions. The minimum number of questions will be 75 and the maximum 265. You must answer each question before the computer will present the next question, and you cannot go back to any previously answered questions. Remember that you do not have to answer all of the questions correctly to pass. Text Reference - p. 242

When taking the blood pressure of a client who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), what must the nurse do? 1 Don clean gloves. 2 Use barrier techniques. 3 Put on a mask and gown. 4 Wash hands thoroughly.

4 Because this procedure does not involve contact with blood or secretions, additional protection other than washing the hands thoroughly is not indicated. Donning clean gloves and using barrier techniques are necessary only when there is risk of contact with blood or body fluid. A mask and gown are indicated only if there is a danger of secretions or blood splattering on the nurse (for example, during suctioning).

The nurse is providing patient education for a newly diagnosed human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient. Which of these statements by the patient reflects a need for further teaching? 1 "I need to keep my appointments for follow-up laboratory work." 2 "I will call my health care provider if I am too sick to take these drugs." 3 "I won't take any new drugs or herbal products without checking with my health care provider first." 4 "Once my tests show that the virus has decreased, I cannot give HIV to another person."

4 Even at the point when the viral load is undetectable, HIV still can be transmitted to others and the patient will need to continue protection measures. It is important to keep the appointments for follow-up laboratory work to monitor the effectiveness of the antiretroviral therapy (ART). Patients should be instructed to take all medications as prescribed without stopping any of them. If the patient is unable to tolerate even one of the drugs, then the health care provider needs to be notified immediately. Instruct patients not to take any other medications, including over-the-counter and herbal products, without checking with the health care provider first. Text Reference - p. 235 Topics

A patient has an undetectable level of plasma human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) RNA after six months of antiretroviral therapy. The patient exclaims, "I'm so glad to be cured!" Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic and accurate? 1 "Oh,that is wonderful. I'm glad everything worked out so well for you." 2 "No, you're wrong. You're never going to be cured—this is a lifelong illness." 3 "You should be very pleased, and I think you should celebrate the good news." 4 "An undetectable level means that your therapy was successful but not that you were cured."

4 Human immunodeficiency virus antiretroviral therapy can reduce viral load, resulting in an undetectable serum level. This does not indicate a cure; rather, it indicates that the therapy is working and that the patient must continue to take the medication. Congratulating the patient, or telling him or her to celebrate, is inaccurate and incorrect; telling the patient that he or she is wrong and will never be cured is nontherapeutic. Text Reference - p. 243

A patient receiving long-term antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV has developed lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance, and bone disease. Which should be the first intervention? 1 Suggest dietary changes to lower lipid levels. 2 Promote weight loss through exercise. 3 Advocate use of calcium supplements. 4 Change antiretroviral medications.

4 Long-term therapy with antiretroviral drugs may lead to development of certain metabolic disorders, including lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance and hyperglycemia, bone disease, lactic acidosis, renal disease, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the first intervention should be to change the antiretroviral drug and start medications that have fewer side effects. Other interventions like dietary changes, weight loss through exercise, and taking calcium supplements are general measures and may not contribute directly to the reduction of side effects. Text Reference - p. 243

20. Which of the following involves malignant vascular lesions on the torso? a. Leukoplakia b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Kaposi's sarcoma d. Coccidioides immitis

ANS: C KS consists of malignant vascular lesions on the torso that can also appear on internal organs. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: page 326 OBJ: 12 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-8

What does the nurse explain to a client that a positive diagnosis for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is based on? 1 Performance of high-risk sexual behaviors 2 Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever 3 Identification of an associated opportunistic infection 4 Positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blot tests

4 Positive ELISA and Western blot tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies that occur in response to the presence of the HIV. Performance of high-risk sexual behaviors places someone at risk but does not constitute a positive diagnosis. Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever do not confirm the presence of HIV; these adaptations are related to many disorders, not just HIV infection. The diagnosis of just an opportunistic infection is not sufficient to confirm the diagnosis of HIV. An opportunistic infection (included in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention surveillance case definition for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome [AIDS]) in the presence of HIV antibodies indicates that the individual has AIDS.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with rheumatoid arthritis? 1 Delayed 2 Cytotoxic 3 IgE-mediated 4 Immune-complex

4 Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder associated with an immune-complex type of hypersensitivity reaction. Contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy is associated with a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction. Goodpasture's syndrome is associated with a cytotoxic type of hypersensitivity reaction. Asthma is associated with an IgE-mediated type of hypersensitivity reaction.

ANS: D More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient. Although antidepressants may be helpful, the initial action should be further assessment of the patient's feelings.

4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel obsessed with thoughts about dying. Do you think I am just being morbid?" Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now." c. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful to you?" d. "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?"

ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided.

5. A pregnant woman with a history of asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because she is at an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. It is likely that her newborn will become infected with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).

ANS: A Puncture wounds are the most common means for workplace transmission of blood-borne diseases, and a needle with a hollow bore that had been contaminated with the patient's blood would be a high-risk situation. The other situations described would be much less likely to result in transmission of the virus.

6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis when the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown? a. Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood b. Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool c. Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions d. Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgical procedure

ANS: C Efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be pregnant. The drug should not be used during pregnancy because large doses could cause fetal anomalies. Once-a-day doses should be taken at bedtime (at least initially) to help patients cope with the side effects that include dizziness and confusion. Patients should be cautioned about driving when starting this drug. Patients should be informed that many people who use the drug have reported vivid and sometimes bizarre dreams.

7. A young adult female patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information is most important to include in the medication teaching plan? a. Driving is allowed when starting this medication. b. Report any bizarre dreams to the health care provider. c. Continue to use contraception while on this medication. d. Take this medication in the morning on an empty stomach.

When admitting a patient with acute glomerulonephritis, it is most important that the nurse ask the patient about a. recent sore throat and fever. b. history of high blood pressure. c. frequency of bladder infections. d. family history of kidney stones.

A (Acute glomerulonephritis frequently occurs after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat. It is not caused by hypertension, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1131-1132)

When planning teaching for a patient with benign nephrosclerosis the nurse should include instructions regarding a. monitoring and recording blood pressure. b. obtaining and documenting daily weights. c. measuring daily intake and output amounts. d. preventing bleeding caused by anticoagulants.

A (Hypertension is the major symptom of nephrosclerosis. Measurements of intake and output and daily weights are not necessary unless the patient develops renal insufficiency. Anticoagulants are not used to treat nephrosclerosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1141-1142)

A patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has 3+ ankle and leg edema and ascites. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels b. Activity intolerance related to increased weight and fatigue c. Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites d. Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction

A (The patient has massive edema, so the priority problem at this time is the excess fluid volume. The other nursing diagnoses also are appropriate, but the focus of nursing care should be resolution of the edema and ascites. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1133-1135)

Teaching in relation to home management after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy should include: A. Keeping the bandages on the puncture site for 48 hours. B. Reporting any bile-colored drainage or pus from any incision. C. Using OTC emetic if nausea or vomiting occur D. Emptying and measuring the contents of the bile bad from the T tube everyday.

D

Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia (select all that apply)? a. Age b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. O2 saturation e. Presence of confusion f. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

A, B, C, E, F a. Age b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate e. Presence of confusion f. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level Data collected for the CURB-65 are mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 years and older). The other information is also essential to assess, but are not used for CURB-65 scoring.

When providing discharge teaching for the patient after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what information should the nurse include? A. A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks. B. Do not return to work or normal activities for 3 weeks. C. Bile-colored drainage will probably drain from the incision. D. Keep the bandages on and the puncture site dry until it heals.

A. A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks. Although the usual diet can be resumed, a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks following surgery. Normal activities can be gradually resumed as the patient tolerates. Bile-colored drainage or pus, redness, swelling, severe pain, and fever may all indicate infection. The bandage may be removed the day after surgery, and the patient can shower.

Which physical assessment finding in a patient with a lower respiratory problem best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? A. Basilar crackles B. Respiratory rate of 28 C. Oxygen saturation of 85% D. Presence of greenish sputum

A. Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with a lower respiratory problem, but do not definitely support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.

To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do (select all that apply)? A. Maintain adequate fluid intake. B. Splint the chest when coughing. C. Maintain a 30-degree elevation. D. Maintain a semi-Fowler's position. E. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.

A. Maintain adequate fluid intake. B. Splint the chest when coughing. E. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation. Maintaining adequate fluid intake liquefies secretions, allowing easier expectoration. The nurse should instruct the patient to splint the chest while coughing. This will reduce discomfort and allow for a more effective cough. Coughing at the end of exhalation promotes a more effective cough. The patient should be positioned in an upright sitting position (high Fowler's) with head slightly flexed.

During discharge teaching for a 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia, which vaccine should the nurse recommend that this patient receive? A. Pneumococcal B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Bacille-Calmette-Guerin (BCG)

A. Pneumococcal The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 or over, or living in a long-term care facility. A Staphylococcus aureus vaccine has been researched but not yet been effective. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine would not be recommended as adults do not need it unless they are immunocompromised. The BCG vaccine is for infants in parts of the world where tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent.

When caring for a patient with a biliary obstruction, the nurse will anticipate administering which vitamin supplements (select all that apply)? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K E. Vitamin B

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K Biliary obstruction prevents bile from entering the small intestine and thus prevents the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are all fat-soluble and thus would need to be supplemented in a patient with biliary obstruction.

The nurse notes new onset confusion in an 89-year-old patient in a long-term care facility. The patient is normally alert and oriented. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. Obtain the oxygen saturation. b. Check the patient's pulse rate. c. Document the change in status. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D, C Assessment for physiologic causes of new onset confusion such as pneumonia, infection, or perfusion problems should be the first action by the nurse. Airway and oxygenation should be assessed first, then circulation. After assessing the patient, the nurse should notify the health care provider. Finally, documentation of the assessments and care should be done. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: 549 | 551 OBJ: Special Questions: Alternate Item Format, Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiolog

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with newly diagnosed ankylosing spondylitis? a. Advise the patient to sleep on the back with a flat pillow. b. Emphasize that application of heat may worsen symptoms. c. Schedule annual laboratory assessment for the HLA-B27 antigen. d. Assist patient to choose physical activities that involve spinal flexion.

ANS: A Because ankylosing spondylitis results in flexion deformity of the spine, postures that extend the spine (e.g., sleeping on the back and with a flat pillow) are recommended. HLA-B27 antigen is assessed for initial diagnosis but is not needed annually. To counteract the development of flexion deformities, the patient should choose activities that extend the spine, such as swimming. Heat application is used to decrease localized pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1537 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse teaching a support group of women with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) about how to manage activities of daily living suggests they should a. avoid activities requiring repetitive use of the same muscles and joints. b. protect the knee joints by sleeping with a small pillow under the knees. c. stand rather than sit when performing daily household and yard chores. d. strengthen small hand muscles by wringing out sponges or washcloths.

ANS: A Patients are advised to avoid repetitious movements. Sitting during household chores is recommended to decrease stress on joints. Wringing water out of sponges would increase joint stress. Patients are encouraged to position joints in the extended (neutral) position. Sleeping with a pillow behind the knees would decrease the ability of the knee to extend and also decrease knee range of motion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1524 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A patient who tested positive for HIV 3 years ago is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis pneumonia. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the World Health Organization, what is the patient diagnosed as having? a. AIDS b. HIV infection c. Early chronic infection d. Intermediate chronic infection

ANS: A A diagnosis of AIDS is made when an individual with HIV demonstrates one of many different diseases, one of them being Pneumocystis pneumonia. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 327, Table 17-10 OBJ: 8 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: CRNE: CH-6

The nurse determines that colchicine has been effective for a patient with an acute attack of gout upon finding a. reduced joint pain. . b. increased urine output. c. elevated serum uric acid d. increased white blood cells (WBC).

ANS: A Colchicine reduces joint pain in 24 to 48 hours by decreasing inflammation. The recommended increase in fluid intake of 2 to 3 L/day during acute gout would increase urine output but would not indicate the effectiveness of colchicine. Elevated serum uric acid would result in increased symptoms. The WBC count might decrease with decreased inflammation but would not increase. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1533 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. Which action will the nurse use to promote airway clearance? a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. b. Educate the patient about the need for fluid restrictions. c. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

ANS: A Coughing is less painful and more likely to be effective when the patient splints the chest during coughing. Fluids should be encouraged to help liquefy secretions. Nasal oxygen will improve gas exchange, but will not improve airway clearance. Pursed lip breathing is used to improve gas exchange in patients with COPD, but will not improve airway clearance. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

On auscultation of a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Inspiratory crackles at the bases b. Expiratory wheezes in both lungs c. Abnormal lung sounds in the apices of both lungs d. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes

ANS: A Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds usually heard on inspiration. Wheezes are high-pitched sounds. They can be heard during the expiratory or inspiratory phase of the respiratory cycle. The lower third of both lungs are the bases, not apices. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds that are usually heard during both inspiration and expiration

A patient who takes multiple medications develops acute gouty arthritis. The nurse will consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed dose of a. sertraline (Zoloft). b. famotidine (Pepcid). c. hydrochlorothiazide. d. oxycodone (Roxicodone).

ANS: A Diuretic use increases uric acid levels and can precipitate gout attacks. The other medications are safe to administer. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1532 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. The nurse should promote interventions such as nutrition, exercise, and stress reduction in patients who have HIV infection primarily because these interventions will do which of the following? a. Improve immune function. b. Prevent transmission of the virus to others. c. Promote a feeling of well-being in the patient. d. Increase the patient's strength and ability to care for himself or herself.

ANS: A HIV disease progression may be delayed by promoting a healthy immune system. Useful interventions for HIV-infected patients include (1) nutritional support to maintain lean body mass and ensure appropriate levels of vitamins and micronutrients; (2) moderation or elimination of alcohol intake, smoking, and drug use; (3) adequate rest and exercise; (4) stress reduction; (5) avoidance of exposure to new infectious agents; (6) mental health counselling; and (7) involvement in support groups and community activities. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pages 339-340 OBJ: 10 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: HW-2

1. A recently divorced woman seeks health care for vague symptoms of fatigue and headache. During her examination, she agrees to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing and is found to have a positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA) for HIV antibodies. In discussing the test results with the patient, what should the nurse inform the patient about? a. The EIA test will have to be repeated to verify the results. b. A viral culture will be done to determine the progress of her disease. c. It will probably be 10 or more years before she develops acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). d. The EIA test is frequently false-positive, and a more specific Western blot test will determine whether she has AIDS.

ANS: A If the EIA of the blood shows positive findings, the test is repeated. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 330, Table 17-12 OBJ: 9 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: CH-30

The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Dry, nonproductive cough c. Hyperresonance to percussion d. A grating sound on auscultation

ANS: A Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. A grating sound is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.

When teaching the patient who is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB) about possible toxic effects of the antitubercular medications, the nurse will give instructions to notify the health care provider if the patient develops a. yellow-tinged skin. b. changes in hearing. c. orange-colored sputum. d. thickening of the fingernails.

ANS: A Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications. Changes in hearing and nail thickening are not expected with the four medications used for initial TB drug therapy. Orange discoloration of body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and not an indication to call the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 | 556 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding? a. Yellow-tinged skin b. Orange-colored sputum c. Thickening of the fingernails d. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

ANS: A Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications. Changes in hearing and nail thickening are not expected with the four medications used for initial TB drug therapy. Presbycusis is an expected finding in the older adult patient. Orange discoloration of body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and not an indication to call the health care provider.

An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding? a. Yellow-tinged skin b. Orange-colored sputum c. Thickening of the fingernails d. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

ANS: A Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications. Changes in hearing and nail thickening are not expected with the four medications used for initial TB drug therapy. Presbycusis is an expected finding in the older adult patient. Orange discoloration of body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and not an indication to call the health care provider.

Which information will the nurse include in the patient teaching plan for a patient who is receiving rifampin (Rifadin) for treatment of tuberculosis? a. "Your urine, sweat, and tears will be orange colored." b. "Read a newspaper daily to check for changes in vision." c. "Take vitamin B6 daily to prevent peripheral nerve damage." d. "Call the health care provider if you notice any hearing loss."

ANS: A Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The other adverse effects are associated with other antituberculosis medications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 555 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which finding for a patient who is taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) to treat rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be an adverse effect of the medication? a. Blurred vision c. Abdominal cramping b. Joint tenderness d. Elevated blood pressure

ANS: A Plaquenil can cause retinopathy. The medication should be stopped. Other findings are not related to the medication although they will also be reported. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1528 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse observes nursing assistive personnel (NAP) doing all the following activities when caring for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse will need to intervene when NAP a. lower the head of the patient's bed to 10 degrees. b. splint the patient's chest during coughing. c. help the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. d. assist the patient to a bedside chair for meals.

ANS: A Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Eight years after seroconversion, a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/μL and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. b. Teach about the side effects of antiretroviral agents. c. Explain opportunistic infections and antibiotic prophylaxis. d. Monitor symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

ANS: A The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the stage of asymptomatic chronic infection when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. Maintaining healthy lifestyle behaviors is an important goal in this stage. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although the initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART.

13. When teaching a patient with HIV infection about ART, what should the nurse explain that these drugs do? a. They work in various ways to decrease viral replication in the blood. b. They alter the cellular surface of cells with CD4 receptors, preventing viral attachment. c. They destroy the viral envelope, enabling monocyte and macrophage phagocytosis of the viral ribonucleic acid. d. They stimulate the activity of B lymphocytes to produce antibodies that react with the virus in the blood.

ANS: A The goal of ART is to decrease the amount of virus in the blood. This is called viral load. Viral load can be determined by tests such as the polymerase chain reaction or bDNA (branched-chain deoxyribonucleic acid). The results are reported in absolute numbers. The goal is to reduce the viral load to an undetectable level. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 339, Table 17-23 OBJ: 10 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: CH-44

A patient who had arthroscopic surgery of the right knee 7 days ago is admitted with a red, swollen, hot knee. Which assessment finding by the nurse should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. The blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg. b. The patient says the knee pain is severe. c. The white blood cell count is 11,500/μL. d. The patient is taking ibuprofen (Motrin).

ANS: A The low blood pressure suggests the patient may be developing septicemia as a complication of septic arthritis. Immediate blood cultures and initiation of antibiotic therapy are indicated. The other information is typical of septic arthritis and should also be reported to the health care provider, but it does not indicate any immediately life-threatening problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1535 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A staff nurse has a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration. A chest radiograph is negative, and the nurse has no symptoms of TB. The occupational health nurse will plan on teaching the staff nurse about the a. use and side effects of isoniazid (INH). b. standard four-drug therapy for TB. c. need for annual repeat TB skin testing. d. bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine.

ANS: A The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556-557 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A 25-yr-old female patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has a facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I never leave my house because I hate the way I look." The nurse will plan interventions with the patient to address the nursing diagnosis of a. social isolation. c. impaired skin integrity. b. activity intolerance. d. impaired social interaction.

ANS: A The patient's statement about not going anywhere because of hating the way he or she looks expresses social isolation because of embarrassment about the effects of the SLE. Activity intolerance is a possible problem for patients with SLE, but the information about this patient does not support this. The rash with SLE is nonpruritic. There is no evidence of lack of social skills for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1542 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain "whenever I take a deep breath." Which action will the nurse take next? a. Listen to the patient's lungs. b. Administer the PRN morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: A The patient's statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and/or decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 576 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. At the health promotion level of care for HIV infection, what should the nurse assess for? a. Symptoms the patient may be experiencing b. Drug side effects or interactions that may be present c. The patient's need for assistance from the community d. Behaviours that place the patient at risk for HIV infection

ANS: D The nurse should ask the patient the following: "What behaviours or social, physical, emotional, pathological, and immune factors place you at risk?" PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 333 OBJ: 13 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-2

Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia (select all that apply)? a. Age b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. Oxygen saturation e. Presence of confusion f. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Data collected for the CURB-65 are mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 and older). The other information is also essential to assess, but are not used for CURB-65 scoring.

The nurse plans a presentation for community members about how to decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics may sometimes be prescribed to prevent infection. b. Continue taking antibiotics until all of the prescription is gone. c. Unused antibiotics that are more than a year old should be discarded. d. Antibiotics are effective in treating influenza associated with high fevers. e. Hand washing is effective in preventing many viral and bacterial infections.

ANS: A, B, E All prescribed doses of antibiotics should be taken. In some situations, such as before surgery, antibiotics are prescribed to prevent infection. There should not be any leftover antibiotics because all prescribed doses should be taken. However, if there are leftover antibiotics, they should be discarded immediately because the number left will not be enough to treat a future infection. Hand washing is generally considered the single most effective action in decreasing infection transmission. Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections such as influenza.

15. When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of a patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse? a. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside. b. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. c. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator. d. Hand washing is performed before entering the patient's room.

ANS: B A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Hand washing before entering the patient's room is appropriate. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food to the patient is appropriate. The student nurse should perform hand washing after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue.

When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of a patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse? a. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside. b. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. c. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator. d. Hand washing is performed before entering the patient's room.

ANS: B A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Hand washing before entering the patient's room is appropriate. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food to the patient is appropriate. The student nurse should perform hand washing after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? a. Instruct the patient to purchase a soft mattress. b. Encourage the patient to take a nap in the afternoon. c. Teach the patient to use lukewarm water when bathing. d. Suggest exercise with light weights several times daily.

ANS: B Adequate rest helps decrease the fatigue and pain associated with RA. Patients are taught to avoid stressing joints, use warm baths to relieve stiffness, and use a firm mattress. When the disease is stabilized, a therapeutic exercise program is usually developed by a physical therapist to include exercises that improve flexibility and strength of affected joints, as well as the patient's general endurance. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1531 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. A patient with HIV infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex. What is an appropriate outcome for the nurse to expect for the patient? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin. c. The patient will maintain adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will contact agencies that provide services for the visually impaired.

ANS: B Clinical manifestations include gastroenteritis, watery diarrhea, and weight loss; therefore, an appropriate nursing goal would be for the patient to maintain intact perineal skin. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 328, Table 17-11 OBJ: 13 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: CRNE: CH-26

Which information will the nurse include when preparing teaching materials for a patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Affected joints should not be exercised when pain is present. b. Applying cold packs before exercise may decrease joint pain. c. Exercises should be performed passively by someone other than the patient. d. Walking may substitute for range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on some days.

ANS: B Cold application is helpful in reducing pain during periods of exacerbation of RA. Because the joint pain is chronic, patients are instructed to exercise even when joints are painful. ROM exercises are intended to strengthen joints and improve flexibility, so passive ROM alone is not sufficient. Recreational exercise is encouraged but is not a replacement for ROM exercises. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1531 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment information obtained by the nurse indicates a patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is experiencing a side effect of prednisone? a. The patient has joint pain and stiffness. b. The patient's blood glucose is 165 mg/dL. c. The patient has experienced a recent 5-pound weight loss. d. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) has increased.

ANS: B Corticosteroids have the potential to cause diabetes mellitus. The finding of elevated blood glucose reflects this side effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids increase appetite and lead to weight gain. An elevated ESR with no improvement in symptoms would indicate the prednisone was not effective but would not be side effects of the medication. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1530 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed ankylosing spondylitis (AS) about management of the condition? a. Exercise by taking long walks. b. Do daily deep-breathing exercises. c. Sleep on the side with hips flexed. d. Take frequent naps during the day.

ANS: B Deep-breathing exercises are used to decrease the risk for pulmonary complications that may result from reduced chest expansion that can occur with AS. Patients should sleep on the back and avoid flexed positions. Prolonged standing and walking should be avoided. There is no need for frequent naps. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1537 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. During which period of chronic HIV infection would the patient experience lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations? a. Early b. Intermediate c. Late d. Terminal

ANS: B During intermediate chronic HIV infection, the patient will experience worsening of symptoms from early infection in addition to lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: page 326 OBJ: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Which result for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) d. Positive lupus erythematosus cell prep

ANS: B Elevated BUN and serum creatinine indicate possible lupus nephritis and a need for a change in therapy to avoid further renal damage. The positive lupus erythematosus cell prep and ANA would be expected in a patient with SLE. A drop in CRP shows decreased inflammation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis (analyze) REF: 1541 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. To evaluate the effect of HIV infection in a patient, the nurse assesses the patient with the knowledge that in addition to lymphocytes, the virus also commonly infects which of the following? a. Osteocytes b. Astrocytes c. Hepatocytes d. Erythrocytes

ANS: B HIV infects human cells that have CD4 receptors on their surfaces. These include lymphocytes, monocytes and macrophages, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 325 OBJ: 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-8

During assessment of the chest in a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia, the nurse would expect to find a. vesicular breath sounds. b. increased tactile fremitus. c. dry, nonproductive cough. d. hyperresonance to percussion.

ANS: B Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient has scleroderma manifested by CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia) syndrome. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Avoid use of capsaicin cream on hands. b. Keep the environment warm and draft free. c. Obtain capillary blood glucose before meals. d. Assist to bathroom every 2 hours while awake.

ANS: B Keeping the room warm will decrease the incidence of Raynaud's phenomenon, one aspect of the CREST syndrome. Capsaicin cream may be used to improve circulation and decrease pain. There is no need to obtain blood glucose or to assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1544 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The health care provider has prescribed the following interventions for a patient who is taking azathioprine (Imuran) for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which order will the nurse question? a. Draw anti-DNA blood titer. c. Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg BID. b. Administer varicella vaccine. d. Famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg daily.

ANS: B Live virus vaccines, such as varicella, are contraindicated in a patient taking immunosuppressive drugs. The other orders are appropriate for the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1540 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 29-yr-old woman is taking methotrexate to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which information from the patient's health history is important for the nurse to report to the health care provider related to the methotrexate? a. The patient had a history of infectious mononucleosis as a teenager. b. The patient is trying to get pregnant before her disease becomes more severe. c. The patient has a family history of age-related macular degeneration of the retina. d. The patient has been using large doses of vitamins and health foods to treat the RA.

ANS: B Methotrexate is teratogenic, and the patient should be taking contraceptives during methotrexate therapy. The other information will not impact the choice of methotrexate as therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1528 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled b. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes d. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C)

ANS: B Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration.

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions? a. "I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week." b. "I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home." c. "I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines." d. "I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if I'm feeling better in a couple weeks."

ANS: B Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia

The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) screening in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Before doing a TB skin test on a patient, which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Is there any family history of TB?" b. "Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?" c. "How long have you lived in the United States?" d. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?"

ANS: B Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test. Another method for screening (such as a chest x-ray) will need to be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection. The other information also may be valuable but is not as pertinent to the decision about doing TB skin testing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse palpates enlarged cervical lymph nodes on a patient diagnosed with acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which action would be appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Instruct the patient to apply ice to the neck. b. Explain to the patient that this is an expected finding. c. Request that an antibiotic be prescribed for the patient. d. Advise the patient that this indicates influenza infection.

ANS: B Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stages of HIV infection. No antibiotic is needed because the enlarged nodes are probably not caused by bacteria. Lymphadenopathy is common with acute HIV infection and is therefore not likely the flu. Ice will not decrease the swelling in persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

Which statement by a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates the patient has understood the nurse's teaching about the condition? a. "I will exercise even if I am tired." b. "I will use sunscreen when I am outside." c. "I should avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs." d. "I should take birth control pills to avoid getting pregnant."

ANS: B Severe skin reactions can occur in patients with SLE who are exposed to the sun. Patients should avoid fatigue by balancing exercise with rest periods as needed. Oral contraceptives can exacerbate lupus. Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are used to treat the musculoskeletal manifestations of SLE. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1542 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse suggests that a patient recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) plan to start each day with a. a brief routine of isometric exercises. b. a warm bath followed by a short rest. c. active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. d. stretching exercises to relieve joint stiffness.

ANS: B Taking a warm shower or bath is recommended to relieve joint stiffness, which is worse in the morning. Isometric exercises would place stress on joints and would not be recommended. Stretching and ROM should be done later in the day, when joint stiffness is decreased. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1531 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible." b. "My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom." c. "I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends." d. "I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs."

ANS: B Teach the patient how to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Homes should be well ventilated, especially the areas where the infected person spends a lot of time. While still infectious, the patient should sleep alone, spend as much time as possible outdoors, and minimize time in congregate settings or on public transportation.

The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible." b. "My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom." c. "I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends." d. "I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs."

ANS: B Teach the patient how to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Homes should be well ventilated, especially the areas where the infected person spends a lot of time. While still infectious, the patient should sleep alone, spend as much time as possible outdoors, and minimize time in congregate settings or on public transportation.

13. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach about treatment for drug-resistant TB treatment. b. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. c. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly. d. Discuss with the health care provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic.

ANS: B The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed.

After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach about treatment for drug-resistant TB treatment. b. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed. c. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly. d. Discuss with the health care provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic.

ANS: B The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed.

21. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed? a. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber b. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber c. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration d. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

ANS: B The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. An air leak would be expected immediately after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. Initially, brisk bubbling of air occurs in this chamber when a pneumothorax is evacuated. The pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. A small amount of subcutaneous air is harmless and will be reabsorbed.

5. The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective? a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings for patients with swallowing problems.

ANS: B The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness (e.g., seizure, anesthesia, head injury, stroke, alcohol intake), difficulty swallowing, and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Other high-risk groups are those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are receiving acid-reducing medications.

The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient. Which nursing action will be most effective? a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Insert nasogastric tube for feedings for patients with swallowing problems.

ANS: B The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness (e.g., seizure, anesthesia, head injury, stroke, alcohol intake), difficulty swallowing, and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Other high-risk groups are those who are seriously ill, have poor dentition, or are receiving acid-reducing medications.

Which nursing action will be most effective in preventing aspiration pneumonia in patients who are at risk? a. Turn and reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours. b. Place patients with altered consciousness in side-lying positions. c. Monitor for respiratory symptoms in patients who are immunosuppressed. d. Provide for continuous subglottic aspiration in patients receiving enteral feedings.

ANS: B The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and oxygen saturation will help detect pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Continuous subglottic suction is recommended for intubated patients but not for all patients receiving enteral feedings. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 551 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. What early manifestations of HIV infection should the nurse assess for in both the nursing history and the physical examination? a. Ataxia and confusion b. Rectal lesions and bleeding c. Lesions of the mouth and tongue d. Weight loss and wasting syndrome

ANS: C Assessment should include mouth lesions, including blisters (herpes simplex virus), white-grey patches (Candida), painless white lesions on the lateral aspect of the tongue (hairy leukoplakia), and discolorations (Kaposi's sarcoma, KS). PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 334, Table 17-16 OBJ: 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-1

When the nurse brings medications to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the patient refuses the prescribed methotrexate. The patient tells the nurse, "My arthritis isn't that bad yet. The side effects of methotrexate are worse than the arthritis." The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "You have the right to refuse to take the methotrexate." b. "Methotrexate is less expensive than some of the newer drugs." c. "It is important to start methotrexate early to decrease the extent of joint damage." d. "Methotrexate is effective and has fewer side effects than some of the other drugs."

ANS: C Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are prescribed early to prevent the joint degeneration that occurs as soon as the first year with RA. The other statements are accurate, but the most important point for the patient to understand is that it is important to start DMARDs as quickly as possible. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1528 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of 7 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the lower lobes. c. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus.

ANS: C Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat TB. The other data are expected in a patient with HIV and TB.

6. Which following condition is most commonly caused by Escherichia coli? a. Diphtheria b. Food poisoning c. Urinary tract infection d. Gastroenteritis

ANS: C E. coli organisms commonly cause urinary tract infections and gastritis. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: page 316, Table 17-1 OBJ: 1 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-8

A patient who has just been admitted with pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which of these prescribed medications should the nurse give first? a. guaifenesin (Robitussin) b. acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. azithromycin (Zithromax) d. codeine phosphate (Codeine)

ANS: C Early initiation of antibiotic therapy has been demonstrated to reduce mortality. The other medications also are appropriate and should be given as soon as possible, but the priority is to start antibiotic therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask if the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching. b. Ask the patient about any visual abnormalities such as red-green color discrimination. c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. d. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider.

ANS: C Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The patient does not have to stop taking the medication. The findings are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Alterations in red-green color discrimination commonly occurs when taking ethambutol (Myambutol), which is a different TB medication.

A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask if the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching. b. Ask the patient about any visual abnormalities such as red-green color discrimination. c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. d. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider.

ANS: C Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The patient does not have to stop taking the medication. The findings are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Alterations in red-green color discrimination commonly occurs when taking ethambutol (Myambutol), which is a different TB medication.

Which statement by a patient who has been hospitalized for pneumonia indicates a good understanding of the discharge instructions given by the nurse? a. "I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week." b. "I will need to use home oxygen therapy for 3 months." c. "I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home." d. "I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines."

ANS: C Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue for several weeks is expected. Home oxygen therapy is not needed with successful treatment of pneumonia. The pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. b. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray. c. Teach about the need to get sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days. d. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.

ANS: C Sputum specimens are obtained on 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. The patient should not provide all the specimens at once. Blood cultures are not used for tuberculosis testing. A chest x-ray is not bacteriologic testing. Although the findings on chest x-ray examination are important, it is not possible to make a diagnosis of TB solely based on chest x-ray findings because other diseases can mimic the appearance of TB.

21. The nurse should counsel a newly infected HIV patient to anticipate that symptoms of acute retroviral syndrome will appear at which time? a. Within 48 hours of diagnosis b. During the initial 7 days after diagnosis c. 1 to 3 weeks after diagnosis d. Within the first 6 months after diagnosis

ANS: C Symptoms of retroviral syndrome normally appear 1 to 3 weeks after diagnosis and include fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, headache, malaise, nausea, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea, and a diffuse rash. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 325 OBJ: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: CH-8

A new clinic patient with joint swelling and pain is being tested for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which test will provide the most specific findings for the nurse to review? a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) b. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) c. Anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm) d. Lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep

ANS: C The anti-Sm is antibody found almost exclusively in SLE. The other blood tests are also used in screening but are not as specific to SLE. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1540 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Document the response to exercise. c. Administer the PRN supplemental O2. d. Encourage the patient to pace activity.

ANS: C The drop in SpO2 to 85% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. The other actions are also important, but the first action should be to correct the hypoxemia.

19. What is the median interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS? a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. 20 years

ANS: C The median interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is 10 years. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: page 326 OBJ: 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-8

A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus. c. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/µL. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest.

ANS: C The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

After a patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 2 days, which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus. c. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/µl. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest.

ANS: C The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse? a. Standard four-drug therapy for TB b. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing c. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH) d. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine

ANS: C The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.

Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse? a. Standard four-drug therapy for TB b. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing c. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH) d. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine

ANS: C The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.

2. Four years after seroconversion, an HIV-infected patient has a CD4+ T-cell count of 800 per microlitre and a low viral load. What does the nurse recognize at this time? a. The patient is at risk for development of opportunistic infections because of CD4+ T-cell destruction. b. The patient is in a clinical and biological latent period during which very few viruses are being replicated. c. The body currently is able to produce an adequate number of CD4+ T cells to replace those destroyed by viral activity. d. Anti-HIV antibodies produced by B cells enter CD4+ T cells infected with HIV to stop replication of viruses in the cells.

ANS: C The patient is in the early chronic stage of infection, when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain the CD4+ count at a normal level. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 326 OBJ: 6 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-8

The nurse notices a circular lesion with a red border and clear center on the arm of a summer camp counselor who is in the clinic complaining of chills and muscle aches. Which action should the nurse take to follow up on that finding? a. Palpate the abdomen. b. Auscultate the heart sounds. c. Ask the patient about recent outdoor activities. d. Question the patient about immunization history.

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations suggest possible Lyme disease. A history of recent outdoor activities such as hikes will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient's symptoms do not suggest cardiac or abdominal problems or lack of immunization. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1534 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complains to the clinic nurse about having chronically dry eyes. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Ask the HCP about discontinuing methotrexate b. Remind the patient that RA is a chronic health condition. c. Suggest the patient use over-the-counter (OTC) artificial tears. d. Teach the patient about adverse effects of the RA medications.

ANS: C The patient's dry eyes are consistent with Sjögren's syndrome, a common extraarticular manifestation of RA. Symptomatic therapy such as OTC eye drops is recommended. Dry eyes are not a side effect of methotrexate. A focus on the prognosis for RA is not helpful. The dry eyes are not caused by RA treatment but by the disease itself. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1546 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information obtained by the nurse about a patient who has been diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of only 8 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the upper lobes. c. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus.

ANS: C Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat tuberculosis. The other data are expected in a patient with HIV and TB disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 556 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

11. Drug therapy is being considered for an HIV-infected patient who has asymptomatic HIV infection with a CD4+ T-cell count of 400 per microlitre. Which nursing assessment is most important in determining whether therapy will be used? a. The patient's social support system offered by significant others and family b. The patient's socioeconomic status and availability of medical insurance c. The patient's understanding of the multiple side effects that the drugs may cause d. The patient's willingness and ability to comply with stringent schedules and dietary prescriptions

ANS: D A major problem with most drugs used in ART is that resistance develops rapidly, and some patients will not be able to use combination therapies because of the expense, side effects, or inability to adhere to required stringent schedules. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: page 330 OBJ: 10 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: CRNE: CH-44

5. During post-test counselling for a patient who has tested positive for HIV, the patient is very anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. To promote the patient's adjustment to HIV infection, what is it important that the nurse do? a. Inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners. b. Teach the patient about the medications that are available for treatment. c. Identify the need to test others who have had risky contact with the patient. d. Discuss retesting to verify the results, which will ensure continuing contact with the health care system.

ANS: D After an initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about the HIV status of other individuals. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 330, Table 17-12 OBJ: 9 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: CH-30

A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.2° F (38.5° C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 89%. The patient is very weak and needs assistance to get out of bed. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. hyperthermia related to infectious illness. b. impaired transfer ability related to weakness. c. ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions. d. impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.

ANS: D All these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the patient, but the patient's oxygen saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 552-553 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

"The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with complaints of acute abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. When the nurse palpates the patient's left lower abdominal quadrant, the patient complains of pain in the right lower quadrant. The nurse will document this as which of the following diagnostic signs of appendicitis? "a. Rovsing sign b. referred pain c. Chvostek's sign d. rebound tenderness correct answer: A"

Answer A In patients with suspected appendicitis, Rovsing sign may be elicited by palpation of the left lower quadrant, causing pain to be felt in the right lower quadrant.

An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Arrange for a friend to administer the medication on schedule. b. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications. c. Teach the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed. d. Arrange for a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered.

ANS: D Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen, and arranging a daily meal will help ensure that the patient is available to receive the medication. The other nursing interventions may be appropriate for some patients but are not likely to be as helpful for this patient.

A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first? a. Codeine b. Guaifenesin (Robitussin) c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) d. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)

ANS: D Early initiation of antibiotic therapy has been demonstrated to reduce mortality. The other medications are also appropriate and should be given as soon as possible, but the priority is to start antibiotic therapy.

7. A young mother with a history of intravenous drug use and HIV infection delivered a baby who has tested positive for HIV. The mother will not care for the baby because she believes the baby will die soon. When counselling the mother about the care of her infant, what is an appropriate approach for the nurse to take? a. Confirm with the mother that the baby will develop AIDS and refer her to a local AIDS support group. b. Remind the mother that she has not yet developed AIDS and that it is possible the baby will not develop AIDS for many years. c. Inform the mother that if the infant is started on zidovudine (AZT) within the first month after delivery, AIDS can be prevented. d. Inform the mother that although infants of HIV-infected mothers always test positive for HIV antibodies, most infants are not infected with the virus.

ANS: D If HIV-infected pregnant women are appropriately treated during pregnancy, the rate of perinatal transmission can be decreased from 25% to less than 2% with the use of antiretroviral therapy (ART). PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: HW-26

Which of these orders will the nurse act on first for a patient who has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis? a. Administer aspirin suppository. b. Send to radiology for chest x-ray. c. Give ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV. d. Obtain blood cultures from two sites.

ANS: D Initiating antibiotic therapy rapidly is essential, but it is important that the cultures be obtained before antibiotic administration. The chest radiograph and aspirin administration can be done last. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 549 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

46. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is diagnosed with a lung abscess? a. Teach the patient to avoid the use of over-the-counter expectorants. b. Assist the patient with chest physiotherapy and postural drainage. c. Notify the health care provider immediately about any bloody or foul-smelling sputum. d. Teach about the need for prolonged antibiotic therapy after discharge from the hospital.

ANS: D Long-term antibiotic therapy is needed for effective eradication of the infecting organisms in lung abscess. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage are not recommended for lung abscess because they may lead to spread of the infection. Foul smelling and bloody sputum are common clinical manifestations in lung abscess. Expectorants may be used because the patient is encouraged to cough.

Which information about a patient who has a recent history of tuberculosis (TB) indicates that the nurse can discontinue airborne isolation precautions? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

ANS: D Negative sputum smears indicate that M. tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. Chest x-rays are not used to determine whether treatment has been successful. Taking medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Repeat Mantoux testing would not be done since it will not change even with effective treatment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 557 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a health care provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

ANS: D Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. Chest x-rays are not used to determine whether treatment has been successful. Taking medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Repeat Mantoux testing would not be done because the result will not change even with effective treatment.

A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a health care provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented? a. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. b. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. c. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. d. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

ANS: D Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. Chest x-rays are not used to determine whether treatment has been successful. Taking medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Repeat Mantoux testing would not be done because the result will not change even with effective treatment.

38. The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test? a. "Is there any family history of TB?" b. "How long have you lived in the United States?" c. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?" d. "Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?"

ANS: D Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test. Another method for screening (such as a chest x-ray) will need to be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection. The other information also may be valuable but is not as pertinent to the decision about doing TB skin testing.

The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test? a. "Is there any family history of TB?" b. "How long have you lived in the United States?" c. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?" d. "Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?"

ANS: D Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test. Another method for screening (such as a chest x-ray) will need to be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection. The other information also may be valuable but is not as pertinent to the decision about doing TB skin testing.

The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed? a. UAP splint the patient's chest during coughing. b. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. c. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals. d. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

ANS: D Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

47. The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate that teaching has been effective? a. "I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day." b. "I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting." c. "I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep." d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day."

ANS: D Prevention of the complications of atelectasis and pneumonia is a priority after rib fracture. This can be ensured by deep breathing and coughing. Use of a rib binder, shallow breathing, and taking pain medications only at night are likely to result in atelectasis.

A patient reporting painful urination and knee pain is diagnosed with reactive arthritis. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the need for several months of therapy with a. methotrexate b. anakinra (Kineret). c. etanercept (Enbrel). d. doxycycline (Vibramycin).

ANS: D Reactive arthritis associated with urethritis is usually caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and requires 3 months of treatment with doxycycline. The other medications are used for chronic inflammatory problems such as rheumatoid arthritis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1538 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The home health nurse is making a follow-up visit to a patient with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which assessment made by the nurse indicates more patient teaching is needed? a. The patient takes a 2-hour nap each day. b. The patient has been taking 16 aspirins each day. c. The patient sits on a stool while preparing meals. d. The patient sleeps with two pillows under the head.

ANS: D The joints should be maintained in an extended position to avoid contractures, so patients should use a small, flat pillow for sleeping. Rest, aspirin, and energy management are appropriate for a patient with RA and indicate teaching has been effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1531 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. Which outcome would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will receive immunizations. c. The patient will have adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin.

ANS: D The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (e.g., pneumonia, dementia, influenza) associated with HIV infection.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet b. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101° F (38.3° C) c. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain d. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion

ANS: D The patient's history and symptoms suggest possible tension pneumothorax, a medical emergency. The other patients also require assessment as soon as possible, but tension pneumothorax will require immediate treatment to avoid death from inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia.

The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient? a. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees b. In a high-Fowler's position with the left arm extended c. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head d. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an over bed table

ANS: D The upright position with the arms supported increases lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space so that access to the pleural space is easier. The other positions would increase the work of breathing for the patient and make it more difficult for the health care provider performing the thoracentesis

The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says "99" and notes absent fremitus. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest. b. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe. c. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia. d. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally.

ANS: D To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as "99." After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but the nurse needs to first assess breath sounds. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest).The anterior of the chest is more difficult to palpate for fremitus because of the presence of large muscles and breast tissue.

A young adult female patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information is most important to include in the medication teaching plan? a. Take this medication on an empty stomach. b. Take this medication with a full glass of water. c. You may have vivid and bizarre dreams as a side effect. d. Continue to use contraception while taking this medication.

ANS: D To prevent harm, it is most critical to inform patients that efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be or may become pregnant. The other information is also accurate, but it does not directly prevent harm. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach with water and patients should be informed that many people who use the drug have reported vivid and sometimes bizarre dreams.

15. While teaching community groups about AIDS, which of the following should the nurse tell people is currently the most common method of transmission of the HIV virus? a. Nonsexual exposure to saliva and tears b. Sharing equipment to inject illegal drugs c. Transfusions with HIV-contaminated blood d. Sexual contact with an HIV-infected partner

ANS: D Transmission of HIV occurs through sexual intercourse with an infected partner, exposure to HIV-infected blood or blood products, and perinatal transmission during pregnancy, at the time of delivery, or through breastfeeding; however, the most common method of transmission is sexual contact with an HIV-infected partner. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: page 323 OBJ: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: CRNE: HW-26

"A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect to note if the client does have appendicitis? 1. Leukopenia with a shift to the right 2. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right 3.Leukocytosis with a shift to the left 4. Leukopenia with a shift to the left"

Answer 2 - no rationale

"A client with acute appendicitis develops a fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse should further assess the client for which of the following complications?" " 1. Deficient fluid volume. 2. Intestinal obstruction. 3. Bowel ischemia. 4. Peritonitis.

Answer 4 Complications of acute appendicitis are perforation, peritonitis, and abscess development. Signs of the development of peritonitis include abdominal pain and distention, tachycardia, tachypnea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Because peritonitis can cause hypovolemic shock, hypotension can develop. Deficient fluid volume would not cause a fever. Intestinal obstruction would cause abdominal distention, diminished or absent bowel sounds, and abdominal paIn. Bowel ischemia has signs and symptoms similar to those found with intestinal obstruction.

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a dx of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is appropriate nursing intervention? "A. Notify the physician B. Administer the prescribe pain medication C. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible D. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the clients abdomen"

Answer A The health-care provider should be noti-fied when the nurse has the needed infor-mation.

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? "a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?"a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

The doctor ordered for a complete blood count. After the test, Nurse Ray received the result from the laboratory. Which laboratory values will confirm the diagnosis of appendicitis? a. RBC 5.5 x 106/mm3 b. Hct 44 % c. WBC 13, 000/mm3 d. Hgb 15 g/dL"

Answer C "Rationale: Increase in WBC counts is suggestive of appendicitis because of bacterial invasion and inflammation. Normal WBC count is 5, 000 - 10, 000/mm3. Other options are normal values."

"A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location? "A) Left lower quadrant B) Left upper quadrant C) Right upper quadrant D) Right lower quadrant"

Answer D - no rationale

A nurse is caring for a child who had a laproscopic appendectomy. What interventions should the nurse document on the child's clinical record? Select all that apply. 1) Intake and Output 2) Measurement of Pain 3) Tolerance to low-residue diet 4) Frequency of dressing changes 5) Auscultation of bowel sounds

Answer: 1, 2, 5 1) Assessment and documentation of fluid balance are critical aspects of all postoperative care. 2) Laparoscopic surgery involves insufflating the abdominal cavity with air, which is painful until it is absorbed. The amount of pain should be measured and documented with either a 1-10 scale or the Wong's FACES for younger children. 3) A special diet is not indicated after this surgery. 4) After a laparoscopic appendectomy there is little drainage and no dressings. 5) Auscultating for bowel sounds and documenting their presennce or absence evaluate the child's adaptation to the intestinal trauma caused by the surgery.

The nurse is assessing an adolescent who is admitted to the hospital with appendicitis. The nurse should report which of the following to the HCP? "1) change in pain rating of 7 to 8 on a 10 point scale. 2) sudden relief of sharp pain, shifting to diffuse pain. 3)shallow breathing with normal vital signs. 4) decrease of pain rating from 8 to 6 when parents visit.

Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse notifies the HCP if the client has sudden relief of sharp pain and on presence of more diffuse pain. this change in the pain indicates the appendix has ruprured. The diffuse pain is typically accompanied by rigid guarding of the abdomen, progressive abdominal distension, tachycardia, pallor, chills, and irritability. The slight increase pain can be expected; the decrease in pain when parents visit may be attributed to being distracted from the pain. shallow breathing is likely due to the pain and is insignificant when other vital signs are normal

A school-aged child has an emergency appendectomy. The nurse should report which of the following to the HCP if notes in the immediate postoperative period. 1. abdominal pain, 2. tugging at the incision line, 3. thirst, 4 a rigid abdomen

Answer: 4 Rationale: A tense, rigid abdomen is an early symptom of peritonitis. The other findings are expected in the immediate postoperative period.

To which patient should the nurse plan to administer round-the-clock antipyretic drugs? A) A 76-yr-old patient with bacterial meningitis and a temperature of 104.2°F B) An 82-yr-old patient after hip replacement surgery and a temperature of 100.4°F C) A 14-yr-old patient with infectious mononucleosis and a temperature of 101.6°F D) A 59-yr-old patient with an acute myocardial infarction and a temperature of 99.8°F

Answer: A Moderate fevers (up to 103°F) usually produce few problems in most patients and do not require antipyretic therapy. If the patient is very young or very old, is extremely uncomfortable, or has a significant medical problem (e.g., severe cardiopulmonary disease, brain injury), the use of antipyretics should be considered. High fevers (above 104°F) should be treated with antipyretics. High fevers can damage body cells and cause delirium and seizures.

Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis? a. A fecalith b. Internal bowel occlusion c. Bowel kinking d. Abdominal wall swelling"

Answer: A. A fecalith Rationale: A fecalith is a hard piece of stool which is stone like that commonly obstructs the lumen. Due to obstruction, inflammation and bacterial invasion can occur. Tumors or foreign bodies may also cause obstruction."

A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 103°F. What nursing actions will assist in managing the patient's febrile state? A) Administer aspirin on a scheduled basis around the clock. B) Provide acetaminophen every 4 hours to maintain consistent blood levels. C) Administer acetaminophen when the patient's oral temperature exceeds 103.5°F. D) Provide drug interventions if complementary and alternative therapies have failed.

Answer: B Antipyretics should be given around the clock to prevent acute swings in temperature. ASA would not be the drug of choice because of its antiplatelet action and accompanying risk of bleeding. When treating fever, drug interventions are not normally withheld in lieu of complementary therapies.

A patient is ordered to receive acetaminophen 650 mg per rectum every 6 hours as needed for fever greater than 102°F. Which parameter would the nurse monitor, other than temperature, if the patient requires this medication? A) Pain level B) Intake and output C) Oxygen saturation D) Level of consciousness

Answer: B Because fever can lead to excessive perspiration and evaporation of body fluid via the skin, the nurse should monitor the patient's overall intake and output to be sure that the patient remains in proper fluid balance. Pain, oxygen saturation, and level of consciousness will also be monitored as with all patients, but intake and output are the priority for this patient.

A patient is seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle. What initial interventions should the nurse teach the patient for treatment of this soft tissue injury? A) Warm, moist heat and massage B) Rest, ice, compression, and elevation C) Antipyretic and antibiotic drug therapy D) Active movement and exercise to prevent stiffness

Answer: B Rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE) is a key concept in treating soft tissue injuries and related inflammation. Heat may be applied 24 to 48 hours after the injury.

A client with complaints of right lower quadrant pain is admitted to the emergency department. Blood specimens are drawn and sent to the laboratory. Which laboratory finding should be reported to the physician immediately? "a) Hematocrit 42% b) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L c) Serum sodium 135 mEq/L d) White blood cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3.

Answer: D "D) White blood cell (WBC) count 22.8/mm3 The nurse should report the elevated WBC count. This finding, which is a sign of infection, indicates that the client's appendix might have ruptured. Hematocrit of 42%, serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal limits. Alterations in these levels don't indicate appendicitis."

Bobby, a 13 year old is being seen in the emergency room for possible appendicitis. An important nursing action to perform when preparing Bobby for an appendectomy is to:""a) administer saline enemas to cleanse the bowels b) apply heat to reduce pain c) measure abdominal girth d) continuously monitor pain

Answer: D Rationale: Pain is closely monitored in appendicitis. In most cases, pain medication is not given until prior to surgery or until the diagnosis is confirmed to be able to closely monitor the progression of the disease. A sudden change in the character of pain may indicate rupture or bowel perforation. Administering an enema or applying heat may cause perforation and abdominal girth may not change with appendicitis.

A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops flank pain. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. anticoagulants. c. corticosteroids. d. antihypertensives.

B (Flank pain in a patient with nephrosis suggests a renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is needed. Antibiotics are used to treat a patient with flank pain caused by pyelonephritis. Antihypertensives are used if the patient has high blood pressure. Corticosteroids may be used to treat nephrotic syndrome but will not resolve a thrombosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1133-1134)

The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old man patient with acute pancreatitis resulting from gallstones. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Hematochezia B. Left upper abdominal pain C. Ascites and peripheral edema D. Temperature over 102o F (38.9o C)

B. Left upper abdominal pain Abdominal pain (usually in the left upper quadrant) is the predominant manifestation of acute pancreatitis. Other manifestations of acute pancreatitis include nausea and vomiting, low-grade fever, leukocytosis, hypotension, tachycardia, and jaundice. Abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding is common. Bowel sounds may be decreased or absent. Ileus may occur and causes marked abdominal distention. Areas of cyanosis or greenish to yellow-brown discoloration of the abdominal wall may occur. Other areas of ecchymoses are the flanks (Grey Turner's spots or sign, a bluish flank discoloration) and the periumbilical area (Cullen's sign, a bluish periumbilical discoloration).

After admitting a patient from home to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia, which physician orders will the nurse verify have been completed before administering a dose of cefuroxime (Ceftin) to the patient? A. Orthostatic blood pressures B. Sputum culture and sensitivity C. Pulmonary function evaluation D. Serum laboratory studies ordered for AM

B. Sputum culture and sensitivity The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering the cefuroxime as this is community-acquired pneumonia. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before the antibiotic takes effect. The test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, orthostatic BP, pulmonary function evaluation, and serum laboratory tests will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics.

A patient undergoes a nephrectomy after having massive trauma to the kidney. Which assessment finding obtained postoperatively is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Blood pressure is 102/58. b. Incisional pain level is 8/10. c. Urine output is 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. d. Crackles are heard at both lung bases.

C (Because the urine output should be at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr, a 40 mL output for 2 hours indicates that the patient may have decreased renal perfusion because of bleeding, inadequate fluid intake, or obstruction at the suture site. The blood pressure requires ongoing monitoring but does not indicate inadequate perfusion at this time. The patient should cough and deep breathe, but the crackles do not indicate a need for an immediate change in therapy. The incisional pain should be addressed, but this is not as potentially life threatening as decreased renal perfusion. In addition, the nurse can medicate the patient for pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1154-1155)

Which assessment finding for a patient who has had a cystectomy with an ileal conduit the previous day is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Cloudy appearing urine b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Heart rate 102 beats/minute d. Continuous drainage from stoma

C (Tachycardia may indicate infection, hemorrhage, or hypovolemia, which are all serious complications of this surgery. The urine from an ileal conduit normally contains mucus and is cloudy. Hypotonic bowel sounds are expected after bowel surgery. Continuous drainage of urine from the stoma is normal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1157 | 1159-1160 | 1158-1159)

A 26-year-old patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease is admitted to the surgical unit after having knee surgery. Which of the routine postoperative orders is most important for the nurse to discuss with the health care provider? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in normal saline at 75 mL/hr. b. Order regular diet after patient is awake and alert. c. Give ketorolac (Toradol) 10 mg PO PRN for pain. d. Obtain blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and electrolytes in 2 hours.

C (The NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with decreased renal function because nephrotoxicity is a potential adverse effect. The other orders do not need any clarification or change. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1142-1143)

Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find during assessment of a patient admitted with pneumonia? A. Hyperresonance on percussion B. Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes C. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation D. Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation

C. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased vocal fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include bronchial breath sounds, egophony, and crackles in the affected area. With pleural effusion, there may be dullness to percussion over the affected area.

The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begns to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? "1. Notify the Physician 2. Administer the prescribed pain medication 3. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible 4. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the client's abdomen

CORRECT ANSWER: 1" "1. Based on the assessment information the nurse should suspect peritonitis, a complication that is associated with appendicitis, and notify the physician. 2. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention 3. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of practice of an RN. 4. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a patient suspected of having peritonitis because of the risk of rupture."

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination 5th ed. 1. Notify the physician 2. Administer the prescribed pain medication 3. Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible 4. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on warm setting to the clien't abdomen

Correct 1 Based on the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse shoudl suspect peritonitis and notify the physician. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client wiht suspected appendicitis because of the risk of rupture. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the physician probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

The client with sever abdominal pain is being evaluated for appendicitis. What is the most common cause of appendicistis? http://nursing.slcc.edu/nclexrn3500/ 1. Rupture of the appendix 2.Obstruction of the appendix 3 A high-fat diet 4. A duodenal ulcer

Correct 2 Appendicitis most commonly results from obstruction of the appendix, which may lead to rupture. A high-fat diet or duodenal ulcer doesn't cause appendicitis; however, a client may require dietary restrictions after an appendectomy

which statement made by the client who is postoperative abdominal surgery indicates the discharge teaching has been effective? 1. "i will take my temp each week and report any elevation." 2. "i will not need any pain meds when i go home." 3. i will take all of my antibiotics until they are gone." 4. i will not take a shower until my three month check up.

Correct 3 1. the client should check the temp twice a day. 2. it is not realistic to expect the client to experience no pain after surgery. 3 (CORRECT): this statement about taking all the antibiotics ordered indicates the teaching is effective. 4. clients may shower after surgery, but not taking a tub bath for three months after surgery is too long a time.

A client complains of severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions? "1. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed 2. Massage the right lower quadrant fo the abdomen 3. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad 4. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client"

Correct 4 "1. ""Encourage the client..."" - unnecesary movement will increase pain and should be avoided 2. ""Massage the lower..."" - if appendicitis is suspected, massorge or palpation should never be performed as thes actions may cause the appendix to rupture 3. ""Apply warmth..."" - if pain is casused by appendicitis, increased circulation from the heat may cause appendix to rupture 4. ""Use comfort measures..."" - CORRECT: non-pharmacological methods of pain relief"

A client complains of severe pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions? "1. Encourage the client to change positions frequently in bed 2. Massage the right lower quadrant fo the abdomen 3. Apply warmth to the abdomen with a heating pad 4. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the client"

Correct 4 "1. ""Encourage the client..."" - unnecesary movement will increase pain and should be avoided 2. ""Massage the lower..."" - if appendicitis is suspected, massorge or palpation should never be performed as thes actions may cause the appendix to rupture 3. ""Apply warmth..."" - if pain is casused by appendicitis, increased circulation from the heat may cause appendix to rupture 4. ""Use comfort measures..."" - CORRECT: non-pharmacological methods of pain relief"

"A client with acute appendicitis develops a fever, tachycardia, and hypotension. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse should further assess the client for which of the following complications?... "1. Deficient fluid volume. 2. Intestinal obstruction. 3. Bowel ischemia. 4. Peritonitis

Correct 4 "Complications of acute appendicitis are perforation, peritonitis, and abscess development. Signs of the development of peritonitis include abdominal pain and distention, tachycardia, tachypnea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Because peritonitis can cause hypovolemic shock, hypotension can develop. Deficient fluid volume would not cause a fever. Intestinal obstruction would cause abdominal distention, diminished or absent bowel sounds, and abdominal pain. Bowel ischemia has signs and symptoms similar to those found with intestinal obstruction."

"A nurse is providing wound care to a client 1 day after the client underwent an appendectomy. A drain was inserted into the incisional site during surgery. Which action should the nurse perform when providing wound care? 1. Remove the dressing and leave the incision open to air. 2. Remove the drain if wound drainage is minimal. 3. Gently irrigate the drain to remove exudate. 4. Clean the area around the drain moving away from the drain.

Correct 4 The nurse should gently clean the area around the drain by moving in a circular motion away from the drain. Doing so prevents the introduction of microorganisms to the wound and drain site. The incision cannot be left open to air as long as the drain is intact. The nurse should note the amount and character of wound drainage, but the surgeon will determine when the drain should be removed. Surgical wound drains are not irrigated.

Which of the following position should the client with appendicitis assume to relieve pain ? A. Prone B. Sitting C. Supine D. Lying with legs drawn up

Correct Answer: D Lying still with legs drawn up towards chest helps relive tension on the abdominal muscle, which helps to reduce the amount of discomfort felt. Lying flat or sitting may increase the amount of pain experienced

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? "a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct B A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture."

A nurse is making a home health visit and finds the client experiencing right lower quadrant abdominal pain, which has decreased in intensity over the last day. The client also has a rigid abdomen and a temperature of 103.6 F. The nurse should intervene by: a) administer Tylenol (acetaminophen) for the elevated temperature b) advising the client to increase oral fluids c) asking the client when she last had a bowel movement d) notifying the physician

Correct D D. The client symptoms indicate appendicitis which requires immediate attention

"During the assessment of a patient with acute abdominal pain, the nurse should: a. perform deep palpation before auscultation b. obtain blood pressure and pulse rate to determine hypervolemic changes c. auscultate bowel sounds because hyperactive bowel sounds suggest paralytic ileus d. measure body temperature because an elevated temperature may indicate an inflammatory or infectious process.

Correct D Rationale: for the patient complaining of acute abdominal pain, nurse should take vital signs immediately. Increased pulse and decreasing blood pressure are indicative of hypovolemia. An elevated temperature suggests an inflammatory infectious process. Intake and output measurements provide essential information about the adequate of vascular volume. Inspect abdomen first and then auscultate bowel sounds. Palpation is performed next and should be gentle.

The nurse would increase the comfort of the patient with appendicitis by: "a. Having the patient lie prone b. Flexing the patient's right knee c. Sitting the patient upright in a chair d. Turning the patient onto his or her left side

Correct answer: B" The patient with appendicitis usually prefers to lie still, often with the right leg flexed to decrease pain.

The nurse is admitting a client with acute appendicitis to the emergency department. The client has abdominal pain of 10 on a pain scale of 1 to 10. The client will be going to surgery as soon as possible. The nurse should: "1. Contact the surgeon to request an order for a narcotic for the pain. 2. Maintain the client in a recumbent position. 3. Place the client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status. 4. Apply heat to the abdomen in the area of the pain."

Correct: 3 The nurse should place the client on NPO status in anticipation of surgery. The nurse can initiate pain relief strategies, such as relaxation techniques, but the surgeon will likely not order narcotic medication prior to surgery. The nurse can place the client in a position that is most comfortable for the client. Heat is contraindicated because it may lead to perforation of the appendix

"A client has an appendectomy and develops peritonitis. The nurse should asses the client for an elevated temperature and which additional clinical indication commonly associated with peritonitis? "1. hyperactivity 2. extreme hunger 3. urinary retention 4. local muscular rigidity

Correct: 4 muscular rigidity over the affected area is a classic sign of peritonitis

A client is admitted with complaints of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions? 1. Encourage the patient to change positions frequently. 2. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q4hrs and PRN. 3. Apply warmth to abdomen with a heating pad. 4. Use comfort measures and pillows to position the patient.

Correct: 4 - no rationale

"When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? "a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage."

Correct: B - no rationale

A client has an appendectomy. This is an example of what kind of surgery? a. Diagnostic b. palliative c. ablative d. constructive

Correct: C Appendectomy is an example of ablative surgery. Diagnostic confirms or establishes a diagnosis, palliative relieves or reduces pain, and constructive restores function or appearance.

"The health care team is assessing a patient for acute pancreatitis after he presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. Which laboratory value is the best diagnostic indicator of acute pancreatitis? A. Gastric pH B. Blood glucose C. Serum amylase D. Serum potassium

Correct: C Serum amylase levels indicate pancreatic function, and they are used to diagnose acute pancreatitis. Blood glucose, gastric pH, and potassium levels are not direct indicators of acute pancreatic dysfunction.

Which client requires immediate nursing intervention? "The client who: a) complains of epigastric pain after eating. b) complains of anorexia and periumbilical pain. c) presents with ribbonlike stools. d) presents with a rigid, boardlike abdomen.

Correct: D A rigid, boardlike abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a possibly life-threatening condition. Epigastric pain occurring 90 minutes to 3 hours after eating indicates a duodenal ulcer. Anorexia and periumbilical pain are characteristic of appendicitis. Risk of rupture is minimal within the first 24 hours, but increases significantly after 48 hours. A client with a large-bowel obstruction may have ribbonlike stools.

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized with pneumonia has been effective when the patient makes which statement about measures to prevent a relapse? A. "I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." B. "I should continue to do deep-breathing and coughing exercises for at least 12 weeks." C. "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day to keep my immune system well." D. "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution."

D. "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution." The follow-up chest x-ray will be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate pneumonia resolution. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. It may be important for the patient to continue with coughing and deep breathing exercises for 6 to 8 weeks, not 12 weeks, until all of the infection has cleared from the lungs. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions.

What is the priority nursing intervention in helping a patient expectorate thick lung secretions? A. Humidify the oxygen as able. B. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. C. Teach patient to splint the affected area. D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated.

D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions.

Which potential complications could arise if appendicitis is not diagnosed and treated promptly? Select all that apply. Development of abscess Viral infection Deep vein thrombosis Peritonitis Gangrene

Development of abscess Peritonitis Gangrene

The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia unresponsive to two different antibiotics. Which action is most important for the nurse to complete before administering a newly prescribed antibiotic? Teach the patient to cough and deep breathe. Take the temperature, pulse, and respiratory rate. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. Check the patient's oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry.

Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. A sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain to identify the organism should be obtained before beginning antibiotic therapy.

"The client diagnosed with appendicitis has undergone an appendectomy. At two hours postoperative, the nurse takes the vital signs and notes T 102.6 F, P 132, R 26, and BP 92/46. Which interventions should the nurse implement? List in order of priority. 1. Increase the IV rate. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Elevate the foot of the bed. 4. Check the abdominal dressing. 5. Determine if the IV antibiotics have been administered.

Order of priority: 1, 3, 4, 5, 2." "1. The nurse should increase the IV rate to maintain the circulatory system function until further orders can be obtained. 3. The foot of the bed should be elevated to help treat shock, the symptoms of which include elevated pulse and decreased BP. Those signs and an elevated temperature indicate an infection may be present and the client could be developing septicemia. 4. The dressing should be assessed to determine if bleeding is occurring. 5. The nurse should administer any IV antibiotics ordered after addressing hypovolemia. The nurse will need this information when reporting to the HCP. 2. The HCP should be notified when the nurse has the needed information."

abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant along with nausea, but no vomiting. He denies history of any comorbid conditions and does not take any prescription or over the counter medications. He is physically active and in overall good health apart from the symptoms he's experiencing. After the healthcare provider makes a clinical diagnosis of appendicitis, you prepare the patient for surgery.The patient is still complaining of pain prior to the surgery. Which interventions could be used to alleviate pain? Select all that apply: a. Apply warm compress to the right lower quadrant b. Position the patient with the right leg flexed c. Apply ice pack to the right lower quadrant d. Administer opioid analgesic prior to having the patient sign the surgical consent e. Maintain NPO status prior to surgery

Position the patient with the right leg flexed Apply ice pack to the right lower quadrant

A patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure called an arthrodesis. The nursing student you are precepting asks what type of procedure this is. Your response is: A. "It is a procedure where the affected joint is removed and each end of the bones found within that joint are fused together." B. "It is a procedure that involves replacing the joint with an artificial one." C. "It is a procedure where the surgeon goes in with a scope and cleans out the affected joint." D. "It is a procedure where the synovium is completely removed within the joint, which helps decrease inflammation of the joint.

The answer is A. An arthrodesis (also called joint fusion) is where the affected joint is removed and the bones within it are fused together. Option B describes a joint replacement. Option C is known as a surgical cleaning. Option D is known as a synovectomy.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing sudden vision changes. Which medication found in the patient's medication list can cause retinal damage? A. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) B. Lefluomide (Arava) C. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) D. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)

The answer is A. This medication is a DMARD and can cause retinal damage. Therefore, the patient should be monitored for vision changes.

An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding? a. Yellow-tinged sclera b. Orange-colored sputum c. Thickening of the fingernails d. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

a. Yellow-tinged sclera Noninfectious hepatitis is a toxic effect of isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide, and patients who develop hepatotoxicity will need to use other medications.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of hyperthermia related to pneumonia. What assessment data does the nurse obtain that correlates with this nursing diagnosis (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. a. A temperature of 101.4°F b. Heart rate of 120 beats/min c. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min d. A productive cough with yellow sputum e. Reports of unable to have a bowel movement for 2 days

a, b, d a. A temperature of 101.4°F b. Heart rate of 120 beats/min d. A productive cough with yellow sputum

The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus c. Hyperresonance to percussion b. Dry, nonproductive cough d. A grating sound on auscultation

a. Increased tactile fremitus *Increased tactile fremitus* over the area of pulmonary consolidation is *expected with bacterial pneumonias*. Dullness to percussion would be expected. *Pneumococcal pneumonia* typically presents with a *loose, productive cough*. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. A *grating sound* is more representative of a *pleural friction rub* rather than pneumonia.

The nurse plans care for the patient with APSGN based on what knowledge? a. Most patients with APSGN recover completely or rapidly improve with conservative management. b. Chronic glomerulonephritis leading to renal failure is a common sequela to acute glomerulonephritis. c. Pulmonary hemorrhage may occur as a result of antibodies also attacking the alveolar basement membrane. d. A large percentage of patients with APSGN develop rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, resulting in kidney failure.

a. Most patients recover completely from acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) with supportive treatment. Chronic glomerulonephritis that progresses insidiously over years and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis that results in renal failure within weeks or months occur in only a few patients with APSGN. In Goodpasture syndrome, antibodies are present against both the GBM and the alveolar basement membrane of the lungs and dysfunction of both renal and pulmonary are present.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. O2 saturation is 88%. b. Blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. c. Pain level is 5 (on 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath. d. Respiratory rate is 24 breaths/minute when lying flat.

a. O2 saturation is 88%. O2 saturation would be expected to improve after a thoracentesis. A saturation of 88% indicates that a complication such as pneumothorax may be occurring. The other assessment data also indicate a need for ongoing assessment or intervention, but the low O2 saturation is the priority.

The nurse administers prescribed *therapies* for a patient with *cor pulmonale* and *right-sided heart failure*. Which assessment could be used to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies? a. Observe for distended neck veins. b. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs. c. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart. d. Monitor for elevated white blood cell count.

a. Observe for distended neck veins. Cor pulmonale is right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary hypertension, so clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected.

Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a *negative chest x-ray* for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has *no symptoms of TB*. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse? a. Use and side effects of isoniazid b. Standard four-drug therapy for TB c. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing d. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine

a. Use and side effects of isoniazid The nurse is considered to have a *latent TB* infection and should be treated with *INH daily for 6 to 9 months*. The *four-drug therapy* would be appropriate if the nurse had *active TB*.

After assessment of a patient with *pneumonia*, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of *ineffective airway clearance*. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak cough effort b. Profuse green sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

a. Weak cough effort The weak, *nonproductive cough* indicates that the patient is *unable to clear the airway* effectively.

The nurse is admitting a client with the diagnosis of appendicitis to the surgical unit. Which question is essential to ask? A."When did you last eat?" B."Have you had surgery before?" C."Have you ever had this type of pain before?" D."What do you usually take to relieve your pain?"

answer A. When a person is admitted with possible appendicitis, the nurse should anticipate surgery. It will be important to know when she last ate when considering the type of anesthesia so that the chance of aspiration can be minimized. The other inoformation is "nice to know", but not essential.

Which of the nursing interventions should be implemented to manage appendicitis? a. Assess pain b. encourage oral intake of clear fluids. c. provide discharge teaching D. assess for symptoms of peritonitis.

answer D. Monitor for peritonitis because if the appendix ruptures, bacteria can enter the peritoneum. Pain will be managed with analgesics, and pt should be NPO for surgery. Discharge is not done at this time

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions? a. "I will call my health care provider if I still feel tired after a week." b. "I will continue to do deep breathing and coughing exercises at home." c. "I will schedule two appointments for the pneumonia and influenza vaccines." d. "I will cancel my follow-up chest x-ray appointment if I feel better next week."

b. "I will continue to do deep breathing and coughing exercises at home."

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-yr-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled b. A 46-yr-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 77-yr-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four medications due in 15 minutes d. A 35-yr-old patient who was admitted with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C)

b. A 46-yr-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and action such as O2 administration

The nurse supervises a student nurse who is assigned to take care of a patient with active tuberculosis (TB). Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse? a. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside. b. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. c. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator. d. Hand washing is performed before entering the patient's room.

b. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patient's room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles.

The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected appendicitis who has just arrived to the nursing unit. The nurse knows which test is most commonly used to diagnose appendicitis? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Computed tomography scan c. X-ray d. Ultrasound

b. Computed tomography scan

The nurse assesses a patient's surgical wound on the first postoperative day and notes redness and warmth around the incision. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Obtain wound cultures. b. Document the assessment. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Assess the wound every 2 hours

b. Document the assessment.

Which action should the nurse plan to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient? a. Turn and reposition an immobile patient at least every 2 hours. b. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position. c. Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding a patient with high calorie needs. d. Monitor respiratory symptoms in a patient who is immunosuppressed.

b. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in a side-lying or upright position.

An experienced nurse instructs a new nurse about how to care for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new nurse indicates a need for further teaching? a. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift b. Placing the patient on droplet precautions in a private hospital room c. Monitoring patient serology results to identify the infecting organism d. Increasing the O2 flow rate to keep the O2 saturation over 90%

b. Placing the patient on droplet precautions in a private hospital room Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person. Therefore no isolation procedures are necessary.

The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following? a."I can expect yellow-green drainage from the incision for a few days." b."I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower." c."I should plan to limit my activities and not return to work for 4 to 6 weeks." d."I will always need to maintain a low-fat diet since I no longer have a gallbladder

b."I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower."

The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "I will take the bus instead of driving." b. "I will stay indoors whenever possible." c. "My spouse will sleep in another room." d. "I will keep the windows closed at home."

c. "My spouse will sleep in another room." Teach the patient how to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Homes should be well ventilated, especially the areas where the infected person spends a lot of time. While still infectious, the patient should sleep alone, spend as much time as possible outdoors, and minimize time in congregate settings or on public transportation.

A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan? a. Purpose of antibiotic therapy b. Ways to limit oral fluid intake c. Appropriate use of cough suppressants d. Safety concerns with home O2 therapy

c. Appropriate use of cough suppressants Cough suppressants are frequently prescribed for acute bronchitis. Because most acute bronchitis is viral in origin, antibiotics are not prescribed unless there are systemic symptoms.

A patient diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB) is homeless and has a history of alcohol abuse. Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen? a. Repeat warnings about the high risk for infecting others several times. b. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications. c. Arrange for a daily meal and drug administration at a community center. d. Arrange for the patient's friend to administer the medication on schedule.

c. Arrange for a daily meal and drug administration at a community center.

A 26-year-old woman has been admitted to the emergency department with nausea and vomiting. Which action could the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Auscultate the bowel sounds. b. Assess for signs of dehydration. c. Assist the patient with oral care. d. Ask the patient about the nausea.

c. Assist the patient with oral care.

A patient who is taking rifampin *(Rifadin)* for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having *orange discolored urine* and tears. Which response by the nurse reflects accurate knowledge about the medication and the patient's illness? a. Ask the patient about any visual changes in red-green color discrimination. b. Question the patient about experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching. c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. d. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider.

c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The patient does not have to stop taking the medication

The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. b. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray. c. Teach the patient about providing specimens for 3 consecutive days. d. Instruct the patient to collect several separate sputum specimens today.

c. Teach the patient about providing specimens for 3 consecutive days. Sputum specimens are obtained on 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The patient should not provide all the specimens at once. Blood cultures are not used for tuberculosis testing.

A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment is effective? a. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base. b. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus. c. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/μL. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest.

c. The patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/μL. The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test? a. "Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?" b. "Do you have any family members with a history of TB?" c. "How long has it been since you moved to the United States?" d. "Did you receive the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?"

d. "Did you receive the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?" Patients who have received the BCG vaccine will have a positive Mantoux test. Another method for screening (e.g., chest x-ray) will need to be used in determining whether the patient has a TB infection.

The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate that teaching has been effective? a. "I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day." b. "I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting." c. "I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep." d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day."

d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day."

"Which test is required for a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? a. Renal biopsy b. Blood culture c. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) d. Urine for culture and sensitivity

d. A urine specimen specifically obtained for culture and sensitivity is required to diagnose pyelonephritis because it will show pyuria, the specific bacteriuria, and what drug the bacteria is sensitive to for treatment. The renal biopsy is used to diagnose chronic pyelonephritis or cancer. Blood cultures would be done if bacteremia is suspected. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) would increase renal irritation, but CT urograms may be used to assess for signs of infection in the kidney and complications of pyelonephritis.

What manifestation in the patient will indicate the need for restriction of dietary protein in management of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)? a. Hematuria b. Proteinuria c. Hypertension d. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

d. An elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates that the kidneys are not clearing nitrogenous wastes from the blood and protein may be restricted until the kidney recovers. Proteinuria indicates loss of protein from the blood and possibly a need for increased protein intake. Hypertension is treated with sodium and fluid restriction, diuretics, and antihypertensive drugs. The hematuria is not specifically treated.

A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations of 42 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT). d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position. The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be accomplished after the head is elevated (and O2 is started). A spiral CT may be ordered by the health care provider to identify PE. Anticoagulants may be ordered after confirmation of the diagnosis of PE.

A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4° F (38.6° C), a nonproductive cough, and an O2 saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the priority? a. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness b. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness c. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions d. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

d. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion All of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the patient, but the patient's O2 saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved.

A patient who has just been admitted with *community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia* has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first? a. Codeine c. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Guaifenesin d. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn)

d. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) Early initiation of *antibiotic therapy* has been demonstrated to reduce mortality. The other medications are also appropriate and should be given as soon as possible, but the priority is to start antibiotic therapy.

The nurse is taking care of a patient diagnosed with acute appendicitis who is awaiting surgical intervention. The patient is complaining of pain and has been medicated as ordered. What additional comfort measure would the nurse include in the plan of care to relieve the patient's pain? a. Place a warm compress on the area that the patient identifies as being the source of pain. b. Position for comfort on the right side with pillow support. c. Maintain patient's position in high fowler's to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. d. Place an ice pack to the right lower quadrant.

d. Place an ice pack to the right lower quadrant.

A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus *(HIV)* and *active tuberculosis (TB)* disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The Mantoux test had an induration of 7 mm. b. The chest-x-ray showed infiltrates in the lower lobes. c. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus. d. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection.

d. The patient is being treated with antiretrovirals for HIV infection. Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat TB.