EXAM 3 Adult 1 CH 24

As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?

-Respiratory acidosis As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO2 increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports increased shortness of breath and fatigue for 1 hour after awakening in the morning. Which of the following statements by the nurse would best help with the client's shortness of breath and fatigue?

"Delay self-care activities for 1 hour." Some clients with COPD have shortness of breath and fatigue in the morning on arising as a result of bronchial secretions. Planning self-care activities around this time may be better tolerated by the client, such as delaying activities until the client is less short of breath or fatigued. The client raising the arms over the head may increase dyspnea and fatigue. Sitting in a chair when bathing or dressing will aid in dyspnea and fatigue but does not address the situation upon arising. Drinking fluids will assist in liquifying secretions which, thus, will aid in breathing, but again does not address the situation in the morning.

A patient with end-stage COPD and heart failure asks the nurse about lung reduction surgery. What is the best response by the nurse?

"You and your physician should discuss the options that are available for treatment." Treatment options for patients with advanced or end-stage COPD (grade IV) with a primary emphysematous component are limited, although lung volume reduction surgery is a palliative surgical option that is approved by Medicare in selected patients. This includes patients with homogenous disease or disease that is focused in one area and not widespread throughout the lungs. Lung volume reduction surgery involves the removal of a portion of the diseased lung parenchyma. This reduces hyperinflation and allows the functional tissue to expand, resulting in improved elastic recoil of the lung and improved chest wall and diaphragmatic mechanics. This type of surgery does not cure the disease nor improve life expectancy; however, it may decrease dyspnea, improve lung function and exercise tolerance, and improve the patient's overall quality of life.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:

-"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.

The nurse is reviewing pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) instructions with a client. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction?

-"I can't use a spacer or holding chamber with the MDI." The client can use a spacer or a holding chamber to facilitate the ease of medication administration. The remaining client statements are accurate and indicate the client understands how to use the MDI correctly.

A physician orders metaproterenol by metered-dose inhalation four times daily for a client with acute bronchitis. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching about this medication?

-"I need to hold my breath as long as possible after I take a deep inhalation." The client demonstrates effective teaching if he states that he'll hold his breath for as long as possible after inhaling the drug. Holding the breath increases the absorption of the drug into the alveoli. Metaproterenol (Alupent) needs to be used over an extended period for maximum effect. The client shouldn't use the inhaler whenever he feels out of breath because dependency can develop if the drug is used excessively. The client should adhere to the prescribed dosage. Tachycardia is an expected adverse reaction to metaproterenol. The client should be taught how to monitor his heart rate and contact the physician only if the heart rate exceeds 130 beats/minute.

Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?

-A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy Status asthmaticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.

A client with asthma is prescribed a short acting beta-adrenergic (SABA) for quick relief. Which of the following is the most likely drug to be prescribed?

-Albuterol Albuterol (Proventil), a SABA, is given to asthmatic patients for quick relief of symptoms. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic. Ipratropium bromide and albuterol sulfate (Combivent) is a combination SABA/anticholinergic, and Fluticasone propionate (Flonase) is a corticosteroid.

In which statements regarding medications taken by a client diagnosed with COPD do the the drug name and the drug category correctly match? Select all that apply.

-Albuterol is a bronchodilator. -Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. -Prednisone is a corticosteroid. Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole are antibiotics. All of these drugs could be prescribed to a client with COPD.

A client experiencing an asthmatic attack is prescribed methylprednisolone intravenously. What action should the nurse take?

-Assesses fasting blood glucose levels Adverse effects of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) include abnormalities in glucose metabolism. The nurse monitors blood glucose levels. Methylprednisolone also increases the client's appetite and fluid retention, but the client will not decrease caloric or fluid intake as a result of these adverse effects. It is not necessary to aspirate for blood return prior to injecting the medication, because doing so would not support the intravenous line in the vein.

Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?

-Bullae Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange. Alveoli are the functional units of the lungs. Lung parenchyma is lung tissue. Mast cells, when activated, release several chemicals called mediators that include histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

A young adult with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital for an acute airway exacerbation. Aggressive treatment is indicated. What is the first action by the nurse?

-Collects sputum for culture and sensitivity Aggressive therapy for cystic fibrosis involves airway clearance and antibiotics, such as vancomycin and tobramycin, which will be prescribed based on sputum cultures. Sputum must be obtained prior to antibiotic therapy so results will not be skewed. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes with meals will be a lesser priority.

Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a client with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? Select all that apply.

-Compromised gas exchange -Decreased airflow -Wheezes Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD (GOLD, 2015).

A nursing student understands that emphysema is directly related to which of the following?

-Respiratory acidosis from airway obstruction In the later stages of emphysema, carbon dioxide elimination is impaired, resulting in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood (hypercapnia) leading to respiratory acidosis.

A client is being admitted to the medical-surgical unit for the treatment of an exacerbation of acute asthma. Which medication is contraindicated in the treatment of asthma exacerbations?

-Cromolyn sodium Cromolyn sodium is contraindicated in clients with acute asthma exacerbation. Indications for cromolyn sodium are long-term prevention of symptoms in mild, persistent asthma; it may modify inflammation. Cromolyn sodium is also a preventive treatment before exposure to exercise or a known allergen. Albuterol, levalbuterol HFA, and ipratropium can be used to relieve acute symptoms.

Which of the following is a symptom diagnostic of emphysema?

-Dyspnea Dyspnea is characteristic of emphysema. A chronic cough is considered the primary symptom of chronic bronchitis. Refer to Table 11-1 in the text.

Although many signs and symptoms lead to a diagnosis of emphysema, one symptom stands as the primary presenting symptom. Which of the following is the primary presenting symptom?

-Dyspnea Dyspnea may be severe and often interferes with the patient's activities. It is usually progressive, worse with exercise, and persistent. As COPD progresses, dyspnea may occur at rest. Chronic cough and sputum production often precede the development of airflow limitation by many years. However, not all people with cough and sputum production develop COPD. The cough may be intermittent and unproductive in some patients.

The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client

-Exhales hard and fast with a single blow To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales hard and fast with a single blow. The client repeats this twice and records a "personal best" in an asthma diary.

Which exposure accounts for most cases of COPD?

-Exposure to tobacco smoke Exposure to tobacco smoke accounts for an estimated 80% to 90% of COPD cases. Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.

A nurse has established a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. The datum that best supports this diagnosis is that the client

-Has wheezes in the right lung lobes Of the data listed, wheezing, an adventitious lung sound, is the best datum that supports the diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. An increased respiratory rate and a report of dyspnea are also defining characteristics of this nursing diagnosis. They could support other nursing diagnoses, as would inability to perform activities of daily living.

In which grade of COPD is the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) greater than 80% predicted?

-I COPD is classified into four grades depending on the severity measured by pulmonary function tests. However, pulmonary function is not the only way to assess or classify COPD; pulmonary function is evaluated in conjunction with symptoms, health status impairment, and the potential for exacerbations. Grade I (mild): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 ≥80% predicted. Grade II (moderate): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 50% to 80% predicted. Grade III (severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% to 50% predicted. Grade IV (very severe): FEV1/FVC <70% and FEV1 <30% predicted.

A client diagnosed with asthma is preparing for discharge. The nurse is educating the client on the proper use of a peak flow meter. The nurse instructs the client to complete which action?

-If coughing occurs during the procedure, repeat it. Steps for using the peak flow meter correctly include (1) moving the indicator to the bottom of the numbered scale; (2) standing up; (3) taking a deep breath and filling the lungs completely; (4) placing the mouthpiece in the mouth and closing the lips around it; (5) blowing out hard and fast with a single blow; and (6) recording the number achieved on the indicator. If the client coughs or a mistake is made in the process, repeat the procedure. Peak flow readings should be taken during an asthma attack.

A nursing student understands the importance of the psychosocial aspects of disease processes. When working with a patient with COPD, the student would rank which of the following nursing diagnoses as the MOST important when analyzing the psychosocial effects?

-Ineffective coping related to anxiety Any factor that interferes with normal breathing quite naturally induces anxiety, depression, and changes in behavior. Constant shortness of breath and fatigue may make the patient irritable and apprehensive to the point of panic. Although the other choices are correct, the most important psychosocial nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD is ineffective coping related to a high level of anxiety.

Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma?

-Inflammation Inflammation is the key underlying feature and leads to recurrent episodes of asthma symptoms: cough, chest tightness, wheeze, and dyspnea.

A nurse is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

-It helps prevent early airway collapse. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent early airway collapse. Learning this technique helps the client control respiration during periods of excitement, anxiety, exercise, and respiratory distress. To increase inspiratory muscle strength and endurance, the client may need to learn inspiratory resistive breathing. To decrease accessory muscle use and thus reduce the work of breathing, the client may need to learn diaphragmatic (abdominal) breathing. In pursed-lip breathing, the client mimics a normal inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 1:2. (A client with emphysema may have an I:E ratio as high as 1:4.)

What is histamine, a mediator that supports the inflammatory process in asthma, secreted by?

-Mast cells Mast cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes play key roles in the inflammation associated with asthma. When activated, mast cells release several chemicals called mediators. One of these chemicals is called histamine.

The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old client diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which nursing intervention will be included in the client's care plan?

-Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered Nursing care includes helping clients manage pulmonary symptoms and prevent complications. Specific measures include strategies that promote removal of pulmonary secretions, chest physiotherapy, and breathing exercises. In addition, the nurse emphasizes the importance of an adequate fluid and dietary intake to promote removal of secretions and to ensure an adequate nutritional status. Clients with CF also experience increased salt content in sweat gland secretions; thus it is important to ensure the client consumes a diet that contains adequate amounts of sodium. As the disease progresses, the client will develop increasing hypoxemia. In this situation, preferences for end-of-life care should be discussed, documented, and honored; however, there is no indication that the client is terminally ill.

In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the amount of red blood cells. Which term refers to this process?

-Polycythemia Polycythemia is an increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood. In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells.

The client is prescribed albuterol 2 puffs as a metered-dose inhaler. Which action by the client demonstrates understanding of administration for this medication?

-Positions the inhaler 2 finger widths away from the lips To administer a metered-dose inhaler, the client holds the inhaler upright and shakes the inhaler. The inhaler is positioned 2 finger widths away from lips. After administering the medication, the client holds the breath for as long as possible, at least 10 seconds. The client may administer the next puff in 15 to 30 seconds.

A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?

-Proventil Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?

-Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.

A patient is being treated for status asthmaticus. What danger sign does the nurse observe that can indicate impending respiratory failure?

-Respiratory acidosis In status asthmaticus, increasing PaCO2 (to normal levels or levels indicating respiratory acidosis) is a danger sign signifying impending respiratory failure. Understanding the sequence of the pathophysiologic processes in status asthmaticus is important for understanding assessment findings. Respiratory alkalosis occurs initially because the patient hyperventilates and PaCO2 decreases. As the condition continues, air becomes trapped in the narrowed airways and carbon dioxide is retained, leading to respiratory acidosis.

A nursing instructor is discussing asthma and its complications with medical-surgical nursing students. Which of the following would the group identify as complications of asthma? Choose all that apply.

-Status asthmaticus -Respiratory failure -Atelectasis Complications of asthma may include status asthmaticus, respiratory failure, pneumonia, and atelectasis. Pertussis and pneumothorax are not complications.

To help prevent infections in clients with COPD, the nurse should recommend vaccinations against two bacterial organisms. Which of the following are the two vaccinations?

-Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae Clients with COPD are more susceptible to respiratory infections, so they should be encouraged to receive the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. Clients with COPD aren't at high risk for varicella or hepatitis B. The HPV vaccine is to guard against cervical cancer and is recommended only for females ages 9 to 26 years.

The nurse is teaching the client about use of the pictured item with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse instructs the client as follows: (Select all that apply.)

-Take a slow, deep inhalation from the device. -Activate the MDI once. -The device may increase delivery of the MDI medication. The pictured device is a spacer, which is attached to an MDI for client use. The client activates the MDI once and takes a slow, deep inhalation, not normal inhalations. The client then holds the breath for 10 seconds. The spacer may increase delivery of the MDI medication.

Why would a client with COPD report feeling fatigued? Select all that apply.

-The client is using all expendable energy just to breathe. -Lung function gradually decreases over time in clients with COPD. The client is using all expendable energy just to breathe. Lung function, not muscle function, gradually decreases over time in clients with COPD. In a client with COPD, fatigue and a feeling of exhaustion stem directly from the disease, not from activity level.

The nurse is instructing the patient with asthma in the use of a newly prescribed leukotriene receptor antagonist. What should the nurse be sure to include in the education?

-The patient should take the medication an hour before meals or 2 hours after a meal. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the leukotriene receptor antagonist at least 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals.

A commonly prescribed methylxanthine used as a bronchodilator is which of the following?

-Theophylline Theophylline is an example of a methylxanthine. All the others are examples of inhaled short-acting beta2 agonists.

For a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?

-Using a Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as ordered The client with COPD retains carbon dioxide, which inhibits stimulation of breathing by the medullary center in the brain. As a result, low oxygen levels in the blood stimulate respiration, and administering unspecified, unmonitored amounts of oxygen may depress ventilation. To promote adequate gas exchange, the nurse should use a Venturi mask to deliver a specified, controlled amount of oxygen consistently and accurately. Drinking three glasses of fluid daily wouldn't affect gas exchange or be sufficient to liquefy secretions, which are common in COPD. Clients with COPD and respiratory distress should be placed in high Fowler's position and shouldn't receive sedatives or other drugs that may further depress the respiratory center.

A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. When should the nurse administer the pancreatic enzymes that the client has been prescribed?

-With meals Nearly 90% of clients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and require oral pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals.

The classification of grade I COPD is defined as

-mild COPD. Grade I is mild COPD. Grade II is moderate COPD. Grade III is severe COPD. Grade IV is very severe COPD.

A client is being admitted to an acute healthcare facility with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client had been taking an antibiotic at home with poor relief of symptoms and has recently decided to stop smoking. The nurse is reviewing at-home medications with the client. The nurse is placing this information on the Medication Reconciliation Record. Which of the following is incomplete information?

-salmeterol/fluticasone (Seretide) MDI daily at 0800 When providing information about medications, the nurse needs to include right drug, right dose, right route, right frequency, and right time. Salmeterol/fluticasone does not include how many puffs the client is to take.

The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as?

-severe COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.

The classification of Stage IV of COPD is defined as?

-very severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage III is severe COPD.

The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.

60 mm Hg; 90% Explanation: The goal is a PaO2 of at least 60 mm Hg and an SaO2 of 90%.

The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. The nurse understands that the goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain the patient's SaO2 level at or above what percent?

90% Explanation: The goal of supplemental oxygen therapy is to increase the baseline resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) to at least 60 mm Hg at sea level and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) to at least 90%.

The nursing instructor is teaching a class of level I nursing students how to do a physical assessment on a patient with lung disease and chronic hyperinflation of the lungs. What would a nurse most likely assess in this type of patient? a) Large, drooping eyes b) Long, thin fingers c) Dry, flaky skin d) A barrel chest

A barrel chest In COPD patients with a primary emphysematous component, chronic hyperinflation leads to the barrel chest thorax configuration. The nurse most likely would not assess dry, flaky skin; large, drooping eyes, or long, thin fingers.

A nurse would question the accuracy of a pulse oximetry evaluation in which of the following conditions?

A client experiencing hypothermia Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. The reading is referred to as SpO2. A probe or sensor is attached to the fingertip, forehead, earlobe, or bridge of the nose. Values less than 85% indicate that the tissues are not receiving enough oxygen. SpO2 values obtained by pulse oximetry are unreliable in states of low perfusion such as hypothermia.

Emphysema is described by which of the following statements?

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of over-distended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of the alveoli. Also, a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.

Which statement describes emphysema?

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli Emphysema is a category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In emphysema, impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange results from destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a pathologic term that describes an abnormal distention of the airspaces beyond the terminal bronchioles and destruction of the walls of alveoli; a chronic inflammatory response may induce disruption of the parenchymal tissues. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.

The nurse working in the radiology clinic is assisting with a pulmonary angiography. The nurse knows that when monitoring clients after a pulmonary angiography, what should the physician be notified about?

Absent distal pulses When monitoring clients after a pulmonary angiography, nurses must notify the physician about diminished or absent distal pulses, cool skin temperature in the affected limb, and poor capillary refill. When the contrast medium is infused, the client will sense a warm, flushed feeling.

A physician orders triamcinolone (Azmacort) and salmeterol (Serevent) for a client with a history of asthma. What action should the nurse take when administering these drugs?

Administer the salmeterol and then administer the triamcinolone. Explanation: A client with asthma typically takes bronchodilators and uses corticosteroid inhalers to prevent acute episodes. Triamcinolone is a corticosteroid; Salmeterol is an adrenergic stimulant (bronchodilator). If the client is ordered a bronchodilator and another inhaled medication, the bronchodilator should be administered first to dilate the airways and to enhance the effectiveness of the second medication. The client may not choose the order in which these drugs are administered because they must be administered in a particular order. Monitoring the client's theophylline level isn't necessary before administering these drugs because neither drug contains theophylline.

A patient is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress, coupled with pneumonia. The patient has no past medical history. However, the patient works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which of the following orders based on immediate needs for the patient?

Administration of antibiotics Explanation: Antibiotics are administered to treat respiratory tract infections. Chronic bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi caused by irritants or infection. Hence, smoking cessation and avoiding pollutants are necessary to slow the accelerated decline of the lung tissue. However, the immediate priority in this case is to cure the infection, pneumonia. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are administered to asthmatic patients when they show symptoms of wheezing. An ECG is used to evaluate atrial arrhythmias

A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be

Albuterol Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle

Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma?

Allergy Explanation: Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma.

The nurse at the beginning of the evening shift receives a report at 1900 on the following patients. Which patient would the nurse assess first? a) A 74 year old with chronic bronchitis who has BP 128/58, HR 104, and R 26 b) An 86 year old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office c) An 85 year old with COPD with wheezing and an O2 saturation of 89% on 2 L of oxygen d) A 62 year old with emphysema who has 300 mL of intravenous fluid remaining

An 86 year old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office On the patient's arrival at the emergency department, the first line of treatment is supplemental oxygen therapy and rapid assessment to determine if the exacerbation is life-threatening. Pulse oximetry is helpful in assessing response to therapy but does not assess PaCO2 levels. The fluids will not run out during the very beginning of the shift. The vital signs listed are normal findings for patients with COPD.

The nurse at the beginning of the evening shift receives a report at 1900 on the following patients. Which patient would the nurse assess first? a) A 74 year old with chronic bronchitis who has BP 128/58, HR 104, and R 26 b) A 62 year old with emphysema who has 300 mL of intravenous fluid remaining c) An 86 year old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office d) An 85 year old with COPD with wheezing and an O2 saturation of 89% on 2 L of oxygen

An 86 year old with COPD who arrived on the floor 30 minutes ago and is a direct admit from the doctor's office On the patient's arrival at the emergency department, the first line of treatment is supplemental oxygen therapy and rapid assessment to determine if the exacerbation is life-threatening. Pulse oximetry is helpful in assessing response to therapy but does not assess PaCO2 levels. The fluids will not run out during the very beginning of the shift. The vital signs listed are normal findings for patients with COPD

A nurse is caring for a client with status asthmaticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist helps promote bronchodilation, which improves oxygenation. Although an I.V. beta2-adrenergic agonist can be used, the client needs be monitored because of the drug's greater systemic effects. The I.V. form is typically used when the inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist doesn't work. A corticosteroid is slow acting, so its use won't reduce hypoxia in the acute phase.

A client with asthma is being treated with albuterol (Proventil). Which of the findings from the client's history would indicate to the nurse the need to administer this drug with caution?

Angina Explanation: Patients, especially older adults, with pre-existing cardiovascular disease may have adverse cardiovascular reactions with inhaled therapy. Albuterol does not increase the secretions of the GI tract or cause gastric irritation. It will not worsen a peptic ulcer.

A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?

Anxiety In a client with a respiratory disorder, anxiety worsens such problems as dyspnea and bronchospasm. Therefore, Anxiety is a likely nursing diagnosis. This client may have inadequate nutrition, making Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements an unlikely nursing diagnosis. Impaired swallowing may occur in a client with an acute respiratory disorder, such as upper airway obstruction, but not in one with a chronic respiratory disorder. Unilateral neglect may be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when neurologic illness or trauma causes a lack of awareness of a body part; however, this diagnosis doesn't occur in a chronic respiratory disorder.

Nursing management of the client with COPD involves a great deal of teaching. Which self-care activity would it be important for you to teach a client with COPD to do to avoid bronchospasm? a) Avoid going outdoors if the pollen count is high b) Assess the client for familiarity with potential side effects of prescribed medications c) Encourage the patient to be immunized against influenza and S. pneumoniae d) Monitor signs and symptoms of respiratory infection

Avoid going outdoors if the pollen count is high It is important to caution the patient to avoid going outdoors if the pollen count is high or if there is significant air pollution, because of the risk of bronchospasm. Encouraging the patient to get immunizations is an action to prevent infection. Monitoring the patient for signs and symptoms of respiratory infection is an action the nurse does, not something the nurse teaches the client to do. Assessing the client is not teaching a self-care technique.

The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction that leads to the collapse of alveoli. This complication is known as

Atelectasis Retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the aveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).

A client's spouse states that she is worried about her husband because he appears to be breathing "really hard." The nurse performs a respiratory assessment. What findings would indicate a need for further interventions?

BP 122/80, HR 116, R 24, pale and clammy skin, temp 101.3 °F (38.5 °C) Explanation: Bronchopulmonary infections must be controlled to diminish inflammatory edema and to permit recovery of normal ciliary action. Minor respiratory infections of no consequence to people with normal lungs can be life-threatening to people with COPD. The breathing pattern of most people with COPD is shallow, rapid, and inefficient; the more severe the disease, the more inefficient the breathing pattern. Any factor that interferes with normal breathing quite naturally induces anxiety, depression, and changes in behavior.

Which statement is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?

Both procedures improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. Treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat clients with bullous emphysema.

In a patient diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure (IICP), the nurse would expect to observe which of the following respiratory rate or depth?

Bradypnea Bradypnea is a slower than normal rate (<10 breaths/minute), with normal depth and regular rhythm. It is associated with IICP, brain injury, central nervous system depressants, and drug overdose. Tachypnea is associated with metabolic acidosis, septicemia, severe pain, and rib fracture. Hypoventilation is shallow, irregular breathing. Hyperventilation is an increased rate and depth of breathing.

Which of the following is a leading cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation?

Bronchitis A wide range of viral, bacterial, and mycoplasmal infections can produce acute episodes of bronchitis, a leading cause of exacerbations. Pneumonia, the common cold, and asthma are not leading causes of exacerbations.

A student nurse prepares to care for a patient with bronchiectasis. The student nurse should anticipate that what would be ordered for this patient? a) Diuretics b) Bronchodilators c) Potassium supplements d) Antihypertensives

Bronchodilators Bronchodilators, which may be prescribed for patients who also have reactive airway disease, may also assist with secretion management. Antihypertensives, potassium supplements, and diuretics would not be routinely administered to patients with bronchiectasis.

Which of the following is a second-line pharmacotherapy for smoking abstinence?

Catapres Second-line pharmacotherapy includes the antihypertensive agent clonidine (Catapres). However, its use is limited by its side effects. First-line therapy includes nicotine gum, Zyban, and Wellbutrin.

You are developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a patient with COPD. What would be an important component for you to emphasize? a) ADLs should be completed in the waking hours b) Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins causes lung damage c) Minor respiratory infections are not treated d) Smoking one-half of a pack weekly is allowable

Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins causes lung damage Other environmental risk factors for COPD include prolonged and intense exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals, indoor air pollution, and outdoor air pollution. Smoking cessation should be taught to all patients who are currently smoking. Minor respiratory infections that are of no consequence to the person with normal lungs can produce fatal disturbances in the lungs of the person with emphysema. Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be paced throughout day to permit patients to perform these without excessive distress.

When caring for a client with COPD, the nurse knows it is important to monitor what? a) Cognitive changes b) Bradycardia c) Increasing hyperpnea d) Support systems

Cognitive changes The nurse monitors for cognitive changes (personality and behavioral changes, memory impairment), increasing dyspnea, tachypnea, and tachycardia, which may indicate increasing hypoxemia and impending respiratory failure.

A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?

Cromolyn sodium Explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator.

The admitting nurse is assessing a client with COPD. The nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds, which signify changes in the airway. These changes indicate to the nurse to monitor the patient for what?

Dyspnea and hypoxemia Correct These changes in the airway require that the nurse monitor the patient for dyspnea and hypoxemia. Clubbing of the fingers is not a sign of COPD. Cyanosis is a sign of hypoxemia.

A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one type of disorder within its classification. Which of the following is part of that disorder?

Emphysema COPD may include diseases that cause airflow obstruction (e.g., emphysema, chronic bronchitis) or any combination of these disorders. Other diseases such as cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, and asthma that were previously classified as types of COPD are now classified as chronic pulmonary disorders. Asthma is now considered a distinct, separate disorder and is classified as an abnormal airway condition characterized primarily by reversible inflammation.

Which of the following is a common irritant that acts as a trigger of asthma?

Esophageal reflux Explanation: Esophageal reflux, viral respiratory infections, cigarette smoke, and exercise are all irritants that can trigger asthma. Peanuts, aspirin sensitivity, and molds are antigens

The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client a) Sits in a straight-back chair and leans forward b) Inhales deeply and holds the breath c) Records in a diary the number achieved after one breath d) Exhales hard and fast with a single blow

Exhales hard and fast with a single blow To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales hard and fast with a single blow. The client repeats this twice and records a "personal best" in an asthma diary

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?

High-protein Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD

A nurse evaluates the results of a spirometry test to help confirm a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease. Which one of the following results indicates an initial early stage of COPD? (FEV1 refers to forced expired volume in 1 second.)

FEV1 > 80% Explanation: The FEV1 decreases as the severity of obstruction increases. Therefore, an FEV1 of more than 80% indicates an initial stage, and an FEV1 of 30% indicates a very severe stage.

As a cause of death in the United States, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) ranks

Fourth Currently, COPD and associated conditions (chronic lower respiratory diseases are the fourth leading cause of death in the United States, accounting for almost 125,000 American deaths per year.

Which of the following would be a potential cause of respiratory acidosis? a) Diarrhea b) Vomiting c) Hyperventilation d) Hypoventilation

Hypoventilation Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of CO, with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma CO concentration, which causes increased levels of carbonic acid. In addition to an elevated PaCO, hypoventilation usually causes a decrease in PaO

A nurse has just completed teaching with a client who has been prescribed a meter-dosed inhaler for the first time. Which statement if made by the client would indicate to the nurse that further teaching and follow-up care is necessary?

I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler. Mouth-washing and spitting are effective in reducing the amount of drug swallowed and absorbed systemically. Actuation during a slow (30 L/min or 3 to 5 seconds) and deep inhalation should be followed by 10 seconds of holding the breath. The client should actuate only once. Simple tubes do not obviate the spacer/VHC per inhalation.

Asthma is cause by which type of response?

IgE-mediated Explanation: Atopy, the genetic predisposition for the development of an IgE-mediated response to allergens, is the most common identifiable predisposing factor for asthma. Chronic exposure to airway allergens may sensitize IgE antibodies and the cells of the airway.

A client is admitted to a health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this client? a) Anxiety related to actual threat to health status b) Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction c) Risk for infection related to retained secretions d) Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction A patent airway and an adequate breathing pattern are the top priority for any client, making Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction the most important nursing diagnosis. Although Activity intolerance, Anxiety, and Risk for infection may also apply to this client, they aren't as important as Impaired gas exchange.

A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?

Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions Explanation: Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping patients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the patient on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the patient's appetite and result in an inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the patient's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.

A nurse is assisting a client with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to set a goal related to the condition. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for this client?

Increase walking distance around a city block without shortness of breath. If the client has mild COPD, goals are to increase exercise and prevent further loss of pulmonary function. The client who increases his walking distance without shortness of breath meets these criteria. If the client has severe COPD, goals are then to preserve current pulmonary function and relieve symptoms as much as possible. Examples of these goals are the other options, in which the activity level is at current and symptoms are relieved to tolerable or close to tolerable.

Which of the following measures may increase complications for a patient with COPD?

Increased oxygen supply Administering too much oxygen can result in the retention of carbon dioxide. Patients with alveolar hypoventilation cannot increase ventilation to adjust for this increased load, and increasing hypercapnia occurs. All the other measures are aimed at preventing complications.

Which of the following is an age-related change associated with the lung?

Increased thickness of the alveolar membranes Age-related changes associated with the lung include increased thickness of the alveolar membranes, decreased elasticity of alveolar air sacs, increased diameter of alveoli ducts, and increased collagen of alveolar membranes.

Which vaccine should a nurse encourage a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to receive?

Influenza Clients with COPD are more susceptible to respiratory infections, so they should be encouraged to receive the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. Clients with COPD aren't at high risk for varicella or hepatitis B. The HPV vaccine is to guard against cervical cancer and is recommended only for women ages 9 to 26.

A client has intermittent asthma attacks. Which of the following therapies does the nurse teach the client to use at home when experiencing an asthma attack?

Inhaled albuterol (Ventolin) For intermittent asthma, the preferred treatment is with an inhaled short-acting beta2-agonist. The other treatments are for persistent asthma.

A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess?

Lung sounds A client with COPD is at risk for developing pneumothorax. The description given is consistent with possible pneumothorax. Though the nurse will assess all the data, auscultating the lung sounds will provide the nurse with the information if the client has a pneumothorax.

Histamine, a mediator that supports the inflammatory process in asthma, is secreted by

Mast cells Mast cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes play key roles in the inflammation associated with asthma. When activated, mast cells release several chemicals called mediators. One of these chemicals is called histamine.

Which of the following medications are classified as leukotriene modifiers (inhibitors)? Select all that apply.

Montelukast (Singulair) Zafirlukast (Accolate) Zileuton (Zyflo) Singulair, Accolate, and Zyflo are leukotriene modifiers. Atrovent is a short-acting anticholinergic. Spiriva is a long-acting anticholinergic.

Upon palpation of the sinus area, what would the nurse identify as a normal finding?

No sensation during palpation Sinus assessment involves using the thumbs to apply gentle pressure in an upward fashion at the sinuses. Tenderness suggests inflammation. The sinuses can be inspected by transillumination, where a light is passed through the sinuses. If the light fails to penetrate, the cavity contains fluid.

A client being seen in the emergency department has labored respirations. Auscultation reveals inspiratory and expiratory wheezes. Oxygen saturation is 86%. The client was nonresponsive to an albuterol (Ventolin) inhaler and intravenous methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol). The nurse administers the following prescribed treatment first: a) Oxygen therapy through a non-rebreather mask b) Normal saline 0.9% at 100 mL/hr intravenously c) Intravenous magnesium sulfate d) Oral fluid of at least 2500 mL/day

Oxygen therapy through a non-rebreather mask The description is consistent with status asthmaticus. The client has not responded to treatment. Oxygen saturation is low. As oxygenation is the priority per Maslow's hierarchy of needs, oxygen therapy would be supplied first. Then, the nurse would initiate intravenous fluids and magnesium sulfate. Last, the nurse would encourage the client to drink fluids to prevent dehydration

A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?

Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.

The nurse is reviewing the blood gas results for a patient with pneumonia. What arterial blood gas measurement best reflects the adequacy of alveolar ventilation?

PaCO2 When the minute ventilation falls, alveolar ventilation in the lungs also decreases, and the PaCO2 increases.

You are a pediatric nurse practitioner caring for a child who has just been diagnosed with asthma. You provide the parents with information that includes potential causative agents for an asthmatic reaction. What would this information include as a potential causative agent for an asthma attack? a) Pets b) Rainstorm c) Hot shower d) Watching television

Pets Common causative agents that may trigger an asthma attack are as follows: dust, dust mites, pets, soap, certain foods, molds, and pollens. Watching television, hot showers, and rainstorms are not triggers for asthma attacks.

The client is prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) 2 puffs as a metered-dose inhaler. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client

Positions the inhaler 1 to 2 inches away from his open mouth To administer a metered-dose inhaler, the client holds the inhaler upright and shakes the inhaler. The inhaler is positioned 1 to 2 inches away from the client's open mouth. After administering the medication, the client holds the breath for as long as possible, at least 10 seconds. The client may administer the next puff in 15 to 30 seconds

Which of the following diagnostic test is the most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?

Pulmonary function studies Explanation: Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC). Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs, and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction.

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?

Respiratory acidosis Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.

A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect.

In which position should the patient be placed for a thoracentesis?

Sitting on the edge of the bed If possible place the patient upright or sitting on the edge of the bed with the feet supported and arms and head on a padded over-the-bed table. Other positions in which the patient could be placed include straddling a chair with arms and head resting on the back of the chair, or lying on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees if unable to assume a sitting position.

Your patient is experiencing shortness of breath. To relieve the symptoms in this patient, you would place your patient in what position? a) Sitting upright leaning forward slightly b) Low Fowler's c) Prone d) Trendelenburg

Sitting upright leaning forward slightly Shortness of breath has been cited as . Typical posture of a person with COPD is to lean forward and use the accessory muscles of respiration to breath. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

When developing a preventative plan of care for a patient at risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following should be incorporated?

Smoking cessation The most important risk factor for the development of COPD is cigarette smoking. The effects of cigarette smoke are complex and lead to the development of COPD in approximately 15% to 20% of smokers. Tobacco smoke irritates the airways and, in susceptible individuals, results in mucus hypersecretion and airway inflammation.

A client is being sent home with oxygen therapy. The nurse instructs that a) The client should raise the flow of oxygen if shortness of breath increases. b) The client will not be able to travel with oxygen. c) Oxygen is addictive and its use must be decreased. d) Smoking or a flame is dangerous near oxygen.

Smoking or a flame is dangerous near oxygen. The nurse should cautions the client against smoking or using a flame near oxygen. Oxygen is not addictive. Clients can travel with portable oxygen systems. Teaching also includes the proper flow of oxygen.

A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?

Sputum and a productive cough Explanation: Chronic bronchitis, a disease of the airways, is defined as the presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years.

A nurse notes that the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 70% and the FEV1 is 65% for a patient with COPD. What stage should the nurse document the patient is in?

Stage II All grades of COPD are associated with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%. Grade I (mild) is associated with an FEV1 of greater than or equal to 80%. Grade II (moderate) is associated with an FEV1 of 50%-80%. Grade III is associated with an FEV1 of <30%-50%. Grade IV is associated with an FEV1 of <30%.

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?

Stage III Explanation: Stage III patients demonstrate an FEV less than 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Stage II patients demonstrate an FEV of 30% to 80%. Stage I is mild COPD with an FEV less than 70%. Stage 0 is characterized by normal spirometry

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with asthma. Which teaching point has the highest priority? a) Change filters on heating and air conditioning units frequently. b) Avoid contact with fur-bearing animals. c) Take ordered medications as scheduled. d) Avoid goose down pillows.

Take ordered medications as scheduled. Although avoiding contact with fur-bearing animals, changing filters on heating and air conditioning units frequently, and avoiding goose down pillows are all appropriate measures for clients with asthma, taking ordered medications on time is the most important measure in preventing asthma attacks.

For a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention helps maintain a patent airway? a) Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing b) Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml/day c) Enforcing absolute bed rest d) Administering ordered sedatives regularly and in large amounts

Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing Controlled coughing helps maintain a patent airway by helping to mobilize and remove secretions. A moderate fluid intake (usually 2 L or more daily) and moderate activity help liquefy and mobilize secretions. Bed rest and sedatives may limit the client's ability to maintain a patent airway, causing a high risk of infection from pooled secretions

The clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient asks the nurse what he could have done to minimize the risk of contracting this disease. What would be the nurse's best answer?

The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking." The most important risk factor for COPD is cigarette smoking. Nutrition, exercise, and exposure to dust and pollen are not risk factors for COPD.

The client is returning from the operating room following a broncho scopy. Which action, performed by the nursing assistant, would the nurse stop if began prior to nursing assessment?

The nursing assistant is pouring a glass of water to wet the client's mouth. When completing a procedure which sends a scope down the throat, the gag reflex is anesthetized to reduce discomfort. Upon returning to the nursing unit, the gag reflex must be assessed before providing any food or fluids to the client. The client may need assistance following the procedure for activity and ambulation but this is not restricted in the post procedure period.

The nurse is caring for a client with COPD. It is time to do discharge teaching with this client. The nurse teaches the client about breathing exercises. What should the nurse include in the teaching? a) Use diaphragmatic breathing b) Exhale through an open mouth c) Make inhalation longer than exhalation d) Use chest breathing

Use diaphragmatic breathing Inspiratory muscle training and breathing retraining may help improve breathing patterns. Training in diaphragmatic breathing reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and, sometimes, helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and controls the rate and depth of respiration. It also promotes relaxation, which allows patients to gain control of dyspnea and reduce feelings of panic. Diaphragmatic breathing, not chest breathing, increases lung expansion

A nurse caring for a patient with a pulmonary embolism understands that a high ventilation-perfusion ratio may exist. What does this mean for the patient?

Ventilation exceeds perfusion. A high ventilation-perfusion rate means that ventilation exceeds perfusion, causing dead space. The alveoli do not have an adequate blood supply for gas exchange to occur. This is characteristic of a variety of disorders, including pulmonary emboli, pulmonary infarction, and cardiogenic shock.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction?

Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy. The client shouldn't smoke at all.

Which of the following would not be considered a primary symptom of COPD?

Weight gain Explanation: COPD is characterized by three primary symptoms: cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Weight loss is common with COPD.

A client is receiving theophylline for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms. Client education related to this medication will include

the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentrations. The nurse should inform clients about the importance of blood tests to monitor serum concentration. The therapeutic range of theophylline is between 5 and 15 μg/mL. The client is at risk of developing hypokalemia.

A client is chronically short of breath and yet has normal lung ventilation, clear lungs, and an arterial oxygen saturation SaO2 of 96% or better. The client most likely has:

a possible hematologic problem. SaO2 is the degree to which hemoglobin (Hb) is saturated with oxygen. It doesn't indicate the client's overall Hb adequacy. Thus, an individual with a subnormal Hb level could have normal SaO2 and still be short of breath, indicating a possible hematologic problem. Poor peripheral perfusion would cause subnormal SaO2. There isn't enough data to assume that the client's problem is psychosomatic. If the problem were left-sided heart failure, the client would exhibit pulmonary crackles.

Which of the following are risk factors for the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply.

a) Infection b) Air pollution c) Tobacco smoke d) Occupational dust e) Second-hand smoke Risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are tobacco smoke, environmental tobacco smoke, occupational dust and chemicals, indoor and outdoor air pollution, and infection.

At 11 p.m., a client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute. He's anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation is 86%, and he's still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:

albuterol (Proventil). The client is hypoxemic because of bronchoconstriction as evidenced by wheezes and a subnormal arterial oxygen saturation level. The client's greatest need is bronchodilation, which can be accomplished by administering bronchodilators. Albuterol is a beta2 adrenergic agonist, which causes dilation of the bronchioles. It's given by nebulization or metered-dose inhalation and may be given as often as every 30 to 60 minutes until relief is accomplished. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic and central nervous system depressant, which could suppress the client's breathing. Propranolol is contraindicated in a client who's wheezing because it's a beta2 adrenergic antagonist. Morphine is a respiratory center depressant and is contraindicated in this situation.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can't produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for:

atelectasis. In a client with COPD, an ineffective cough impedes secretion removal. This, in turn, causes mucus plugging, which leads to localized airway obstruction — a known cause of atelectasis. An ineffective cough doesn't cause pleural effusion (fluid accumulation in the pleural space). Pulmonary edema usually results from left-sided heart failure, not an ineffective cough. Although many noncardiac conditions may cause pulmonary edema, an ineffective cough isn't one of them. Oxygen toxicity results from prolonged administration of high oxygen concentrations, not an ineffective cough.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD?

c) Barrel chest Explanation: In patients with COPD who have a primary emphysematous component, chronic hyperinflation leads to the "barrel chest" thorax configuration. This configuration results from a more fixed position of the ribs in the inspiratory position (due to hyperinflation) and from loss of lung elasticity. Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum; it is associated with Marfan's syndrome or rickets.

A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:

diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. In the case of a pneumothorax, auscultating for breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Tracheal deviation occurs in a tension pneumothorax. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in cardiac tamponade.

In relation to the structure of the larynx, the cricoid cartilage is

the only complete cartilaginous ring in the larynx. The cricoid cartilage is located below the thyroid cartilage. The arytenoid cartilages are used in vocal cord movement with the thyroid cartilage. The thyroid cartilage is the largest of the cartilage structures and part of it forms the Adam's apple. The epiglottis is the valve flap of cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease tells a nurse that he feels short of breath. The client's respiratory rate is 36 breaths/minute and the nurse auscultates diffuse wheezes. His arterial oxygen saturation is 84%. The nurse calls the assigned respiratory therapist to administer an ordered nebulizer treatment. The therapist says, "I have several more nebulizer treatments to do on the unit where I am now. As soon as I'm finished, I'll come and assess the client." The nurse's most appropriate action is to:

give the nebulizer treatment herself. The client's needs are preeminent, so the nurse should administer the nebulizer treatment immediately. The nurse can deal with the respiratory therapist's lack of response after the client's condition is stabilized. There is no need to involve the physician in personnel issues. Staying with the client is important, but it isn't a substitute for administering the needed bronchodilator. The order is for a nebulizer treatment not a metered-dose inhaler, so the nurse can't change the route without a new order from the physician.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. To help this client maintain a patent airway and achieve maximal gas exchange, the nurse should:

instruct the client to drink at least 2 L of fluid daily. Mobilizing secretions is crucial to maintaining a patent airway and maximizing gas exchange in the client with COPD. Measures that help mobilize secretions include drinking 2 L of fluid daily, practicing controlled pursed-lip breathing, and engaging in moderate activity. Anxiolytics rarely are recommended for the client with COPD because they may cause sedation and subsequent infection from inadequate mobilization of secretions. Because COPD rarely causes pain, pain medication isn't indicated

The classification of Stage II of COPD is defined as?

moderate COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage III is severe COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.

A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds aren't audible. This change occurred because:

the airways are so swollen that no air can get through. During an acute asthma attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollen that air can't get through. If the attack is over and swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern. Crackles don't replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack.

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:

uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.

Following are statements regarding medications taken by a patient diagnosed with COPD. Choose which statements correctly match the drug name to the drug category. Select all that apply.

• Albuterol is a bronchodilator. • Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic. • Prednisone is a corticosteroid. Theophylline, albuterol, and atropine are bronchodilators. Dexamethasone (Decadron) and prednisone are corticosteroids. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and cotrimoxazole (Bactrim) are antibiotics. These are all drugs that could be prescribed to a patient with COPD.

After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options. a) Increase oxygen distribution b) Reduce airway obstruction c) Alter smooth muscle tone d) Decrease alveolar ventilation

• Increase oxygen distribution • Reduce airway obstruction • Alter smooth muscle tone Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction by allowing increased oxygen distribution throughout the lungs and improving alveolar ventilation.

A nursing student is taking a pathophysiology examination. Which of the following factors would the student correctly identify as contributing to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Choose all that apply.

• Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow • Mucus secretions that block airways • Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange Because of chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the proximal airways, changes include increased numbers of goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing.

The nursing student recalls that the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes the following components: (Select all that apply.)

• Mucus secretions block airways. • Overinflated alveoli impair gas exchange. • Inflamed airways obstruct airflow. Because of the chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing (obstructive bronchiolitis). The airways are actually moist, not dry. In the proximal airways, changes include increased goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus.