Exam 3-Adult Health-Immune Response: HIV/AIDS, TB
A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply. A) Current medication regimen B) Identification of patients support system C) Immune system function D) Genetic risk factors for HIV E) History of sexual practices
A,B,C,E. Nursing assessment includes numerous focuses, including identification of medication use, support system, immune function and sexual history. HIV does not have a genetic component.
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply. A) Serum albumin level B) Weight history C) White blood cell count D) Body mass index E) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
A,B,D,E. Nutritional status is assessed by obtaining a dietary history and identifying factors that may interfere with oral intake, such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, oral pain, or difficulty swallowing. In addition, the patients ability to purchase and prepare food is assessed. Weight history (i.e., changes over time); anthropometric measurements; and blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum protein, albumin, and transferrin levels provide objective measurements of nutritional status. White cell count is not a typical component of a nutritional assessment.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Which assessments, if made by the nurse, are consistent with the usual clinical presentation of TB? Select all that apply. A. Cough B. Dyspnea C. Weight gain D. High-grade fever E. Chills and night sweats
A,B,E. The client with TB usually experiences cough (productive or nonproductive), fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest discomfort or pain, chills and sweats (which may occur at night), and a low-grade fever.
A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy? A) Promoting appropriate use of complementary therapies B) Addressing possible barriers to adherence C) Educating the patient about the pathophysiology of HIV D) Teaching the patient about the need for follow-up blood work
B. ART is highly dependent on adherence to treatment, and the nurse should proactively address this. Blood work is necessary, but this will not have a direct bearing on the success or failure of treatment. Complementary therapies are appropriate, but are not the main factor in successful treatment. The patient may or may not benefit from teaching about HIV pathophysiology.
The nurse reads that a client's tuberculin skin test is positive and notes that previous tests were negative. The client becomes upset and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should base the response on which interpretation? A. Systemic tuberculosis B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. Exposure to tuberculosis D. No evidence of tuberculosis
C. A client who tests positive on a tuberculin skin test either has been exposed to tuberculosis (TB) or has inactive (dormant) TB. The client must then undergo chest radiography and sputum culture to confirm the diagnosis. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the data presented in the question.
Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. During transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear? A. N95 mask B. Surgical mask C. No special PPE is needed D. Face mask with shield
C. Patients with a latent tuberculosis infection are NOT contagious. Therefore, no special PPE is needed for the patient during transport. HOWEVER, if the patient had ACTIVE tuberculosis they would need to wear a surgical mask during transport.
A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results? A) Another EIA test B) Viral load test C) Western blot test D) CD4/CD8 ratio
C. The Western blot test detects antibodies to HIV and is used to confirm the EIA test results. The viral load test measures HIV RNA in the plasma and is not used to confirm EIA test results, but instead to track the progression of the disease process. The CD4/CD8 ratio test evaluates the ratio of CD4 and CD8 cells but is not used to confirm results of EIA testing.
The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for a client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. A. Activities should be resumed gradually B. Avoid contact with other individuals, except family members, for at least 6 months. C. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4weeks once medication therapy is initiated. D. Respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members already have been exposed. E. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and put used tissues in plastic bags. F. When 1 sputum culture is negative, the cli- ent is no longer considered infectious and usually can return to former employment.
A,C,D,E. The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client needs to follow the medication regimen exactly as prescribed and always have a supply of the medication on hand. Side and adverse effects of the medication and ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance should be explained. After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. Activities should be resumed gradually and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection should be consumed. Respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing, to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and to put used tissues into plastic bags. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated . When the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to former employment.
The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for a client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. A. Activities should be resumed gradually. B. Avoid contact with other individuals, except family members, for at least 6 months. C. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. D. Respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members already have been exposed. E. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and put used tissues in plastic bags. F. When 1 sputum culture is negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and usually can return to former employment.
A,C,D,E. The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client needs to follow the medication regimen exactly as prescribed and always have a supply of the medication on hand. Side and adverse effects of the medication and ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance should be explained. After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. Activities should be resumed gradually and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection should be consumed. Respiratory isolation is not necessary because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing, to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and to put used tissues into plastic bags. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. When the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to former employment.
The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply. A. Dyspnea B. Headache C. Night sweats D. A bloody, productive cough E. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum
A,C,D,E. Tuberculosis should be considered for any clients with a persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, fever, or chills. The client's previous exposure to tuberculosis should also be assessed and correlated with the clinical manifestations.
A patient with HIV infection has begun experiencing severe diarrhea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate the diarrhea? A) Administer antidiarrheal medications on a scheduled basis, as ordered. B) Encourage the patient to eat three balanced meals and a snack at bedtime. C) Increase the patients oral fluid intake. D) Encourage the patient to increase his or her activity level.
A. Administering antidiarrheal agents on a regular schedule may be more beneficial than administering them on an as-needed basis, provided the patients diarrhea is not caused by an infectious microorganism. Increased oral fluid may exacerbate diarrhea; IV fluid replacement is often indicated. Small, more frequent meals may be beneficial, and it is unrealistic to increase activity while the patient has frequent diarrhea.
A nurse is planning the care of a patient with AIDS who is admitted to the unit withPneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient? A) Ineffective Airway Clearance B) Impaired Oral Mucous Membranes C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Activity Intolerance
A. Although all these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a patient with AIDS, Ineffective Airway Clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Airway and breathing take top priority over the other listed concerns.
Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV? A) Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men B) Recreational drug users C) Blood transfusion recipients D) Health care providers
A. Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men remain the population most affected by HIV and account for 2% of the population but 61% of the new infections. This exceeds the incidence among drug users, health care workers, and transfusion recipients.
A clinic nurse is caring for a patient admitted with AIDS. The nurse has assessed that the patient is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of what complication? A) HIV encephalopathy B) B-cell lymphoma C) Kaposis sarcoma D) Wasting syndrome
A. HIV encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The other listed complications do not normally have cognitive and behavioral manifestations.
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has histoplasmosis. The nurse should assess the client for which expected finding? A. Dyspnea B. Headache C. Weight gain D. Hypothermia
A. Histoplasmosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that can occur in the client with AIDS. The infection begins as a respiratory infection and can progress to disseminated infection. Typical signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea, cough, and weight loss. Enlargement of the client's lymph nodes, liver, and spleen may occur as well.
The nurse is preparing to care for a client who will be weaned from a cuffed tracheostomy tube. The nurse is planning to use a tracheostomy plug and plans to insert it into the opening in the outer cannula. Which nursing action is required before plugging the tube? A. Deflate the cuff on the tube. B. Place the inner cannula into the tube. C. Ensure that the client is able to speak. D. Ensure that the client is able to swallow.
A. Plugging a tracheostomy tube is usually done by inserting the tracheostomy plug (decannulation stopper) into the opening of the outer cannula. This closes off the tracheostomy, and airflow and respiration occur normally through the nose and mouth. When plugging a cuffed tracheostomy tube, the cuff must be deflated. If it remains inflated, ventilation cannot occur, and respiratory arrest could result. A tracheostomy plug could not be placed in a tracheostomy if an inner cannula was in place. The ability to swallow or speak is unrelated to weaning and plugging the tube.
An adult patient has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing patient teaching, what information should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen B) The fact that the disease is a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect ADLs C) The fact that TB is self-limiting, but can take up to 2 years to resolve D) The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists
A. Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable.
A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding? A. Positive B. Negative C. Inconclusive D. Need for repeat testing
A. The client with HIV infection is considered to have positive results on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm. The client without HIV is positive with an induration larger than 10 mm. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client. It is possible for the client infected with HIV to have false-negative readings because of the immunosuppression factor.
The nurse is caring for a client who had tuberculin skin testing 48 hours ago on admission to the nursing unit. The nurse reads the test result as positive. Which action by the nurse has the highest priority? A. Contact the health care provider (HCP). B. Document the finding in the client's record. C. Call the employee health service department. D. Call the radiology department for a chest radiographic study to be done.
A. The nurse who obtains a positive test reading should call the HCP immediately. The HCP will prescribe a chest x-ray study to determine whether the client has clinically active tuberculosis (TB) or old, healed lesions. A sputum culture would be obtained to confirm the diagnosis of active TB. The client can be placed on prophylactic TB precautions until a final diagnosis is made. Although the results of the test would be documented and the employee health service department would be notified, these are not the actions of highest priority among the options provided.
The public health nurse is administering Mantoux tests to children who are being registered for kindergarten in the community. How should the nurse administer this test? A) Administer intradermal injections into the childrens inner forearms. B) Administer intramuscular injections into each childs vastus lateralis. C) Administer a subcutaneous injection into each childs umbilical area. D) Administer a subcutaneous injection at a 45-degree angle into each childs deltoid.
A. The purified protein derivative (PPD) is always injected into the intradermal layer of the inner aspect of the forearm. The subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not utilized.
The nurse has provided a client with tuberculosis (TB) instructions on proper handling and disposal of respiratory secretions. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding of the instructions when the client makes which statement? A."I will discard used tissues in a plastic bag." B."I need to wash my hands at least 4 times a day." C."I will brush my teeth and rinse my mouth once a day." D."I will turn my head to the side if I need to cough or sneeze."
A. Used tissues are discarded in a plastic bag. The client with TB should wash the hands carefully after each contact with respiratory secretions. Oral care should be done more frequently than once a day. The client should not only turn the head but also cover the mouth and nose when laughing, sneezing, or coughing.
Your patient is diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. Select all the correct statements that reflect this condition: A. "The patient will not need treatment unless it progresses to an active tuberculosis infection." B. "The patient is not contagious and will have no signs and symptoms." C. "The patient will have a positive tuberculin skin test or IGRA test. D. "The patient will have an abnormal chest x-ray." E. "The patient's sputum will test positive for mycobacterium tuberculosis."
B and C. The patient WILL need medical treatment to prevent this case of LBTI from developing into an active TB infection later on. The patient will NOT have an abnormal chest x-ray or a positive sputum test. This is only in active TB.
You're teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and symptoms of tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your education? A. Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks B. Night sweats C. Weight gain D. Hemoptysis E. Chills F. Fever G. Chest pain
B, D, E, F, and G. Option A is wrong because a cough should be present for 3 weeks or more (NOT 6 weeks). Option C is wrong because the patient will experience weight LOSS (not gain).
A patient has a positive PPD skin test that shows an 8 mm induration. As the nurse you know that: A. The patient will need to immediately be placed in droplet precautions and started on a medication regime. B. The patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm the test results before treatment is provided. C. The patient will need an IGRA test to help differentiate between a latent tuberculosis infection versus an active tuberculosis infection. D. The patient will need to repeat the skin test in 48-72 hours to confirm the results.
B. A positive PPD result does NOT necessarily mean the patient has an active infection of TB. The patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to determine if mycobacterium tuberculosis is present and then treatment will be based on those results. The IGRA test does NOT differentiate between LTBI or an active TB infection. Patients are placed in airborne precautions (NOT droplet) if they have ACTIVE TB.
A hospital nurse has experienced percutaneous exposure to an HIV-positive patients blood as a result of a needlestick injury. The nurse has informed the supervisor and identified the patient. What action should the nurse take next? A) Flush the wound site with chlorhexidine. B) Report to the emergency department or employee health department. C) Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the wound site. D) Follow up with the nurses primary care provider.
B. After initiating the emergency reporting system, the nurse should report as quickly as possible to the employee health services, the emergency department, or other designated treatment facility. Flushing is recommended, but chlorhexidine is not used for this purpose. Applying a dressing is not recommended. Following up with the nurses own primary care provider would require an unacceptable delay.
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with stage 3 HIV. After assessing the patients gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, what is most likely to be the priority nursing diagnosis? A) Acute Abdominal Pain B) Diarrhea C) Bowel Incontinence D) Constipation
B. Diarrhea is a problem in 50% to 60% of all AIDS patients. As such, this nursing diagnosis is more likely than abdominal pain, incontinence, or constipation, though none of these diagnoses is guaranteed not to apply.
A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority? A) Oral temperature of 100F B) Tachypnea and restlessness C) Frequent loose stools D) Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday
B. In prioritizing care, the pneumonia would be assessed first by the nurse. Tachypnea and restlessness are symptoms of altered respiratory status and need immediate priority. Weight loss of 1 pound is probably fluid related; frequent loose stools would not take short-term precedence over a temperature or tachypnea and restlessness. An oral temperature of 100F is not considered a fever and would not be the first issue addressed.
A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is distressed over fatigue and the loss of physical stamina. What should the nurse tell the client? A. This is expected and will last for at least 1 year. B. This is expected, and the client should gradually increase activity as tolerated. C. This is an unexpected finding with TB, but it should resolve within 1 month or so. D. This is a short-lived problem that should be gone within 1 week after beginning medication therapy.
B. The client with TB has significant fatigue and loss of physical stamina. This can be very frightening for the client. The nurse teaches the client that this symptom will resolve as the therapy progresses and that the client should gradually increase activity as energy levels permit.
A patient is in the primary infection stage of HIV. What is true of this patients current health status? A) The patients HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus. B) The patient is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies. C) The patients risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. D) The patient may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.
B. The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection. The virus is not being eradicated and infection is certain. Opportunistic infections emerge much later in the course of the disease.
A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold? A) 75 cells/mm3 of blood B) 200 cells/mm3 of blood C) 325 cells/mm3 of blood D) 450 cells/mm3 of blood
B. When CD4+ T-cell levels drop below 200 cells/mm3 of blood, the person is said to have AIDS.
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors? A) The nurse wears face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound. B) The nurse washes the hands with a waterless antiseptic agent after removing a pair of soiled gloves. C) The nurse puts on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves while performing a bloody procedure. D) The nurse places a used needle and syringe in the puncture-resistant container without capping the needle.
C. Gloves must be changed after contact with materials that may contain high concentration of microorganisms, even when working with the same patient. Each of the other listed actions adheres to standard precautions.
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy tube who is receiving mechanical ventilation. The nurse is monitoring for complications related to the tracheostomy and suspects tracheoesophageal fistula when which occurs? A. Suctioning is required frequently. B. The client's skin and mucous membranes are light pink. C. Aspiration of gastric contents occurs during suctioning. D. Excessive secretions are suctioned from the tube and stoma.
C. Necrosis of the tracheal wall can lead to formation of an abnormal opening between the posterior trachea and the esophagus. The opening, called a tracheoesophageal fistula, allows air to escape into the stomach, causing abdominal distention. It also causes aspiration of gastric contents.
A patient has a PPD skin test (Mantoux test). As the nurse you tell the patient to report back to the office in _________ so the results can be interpreted? A. 24-48 hours B. 12-24 hours C. 48-72 hours D. 24-72 hours
C. The patient should report back in 48-72 hours. If they fail to, the test must be repeated.
A patients primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the patients immune response. This physiologic state is known as which of the following? A) Static stage B) Latent stage C) Viral set point D) Window period
C. The remaining amount of virus in the body after primary infection is referred to as the viral set point, which results in a steady state of infection that lasts for years. This is not known as the static or latent stage. The window period is the time a person infected with HIV tests negative even though he or she is infected.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Assess the patient for additional signs and symptoms of Kaposis sarcoma. B) Review the patients most recent viral load and CD4+ count. C) Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. D) Perform oral suctioning to reduce the patients risk for aspiration.
C. These signs and symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, not Kaposis sarcoma; prompt assessment and treatment is necessary. There is no indication of a need for oral suctioning and the patients blood work will not reflect the onset of this opportunistic infection.
A patient taking Isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for what deficiency? A. Vitamin C B. Calcium C. Vitamin B6 D. Potassium
C. This medication can lead to low Vitamin B6 levels. Most patients will take a supplement of B6 while taking this medication.
The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? A. Chest x-ray B. Bronchoscopy C. Sputum culture D. Tuberculin skin test
C. Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.
The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? A. Chest x-ray B. Bronchoscopy C. Sputum culture D. Tuberculin skin test
C. Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.
The nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB) who is fearful of the disease and anxious about the prognosis. In planning nursing care, the nurse should incorporate which intervention as the best strategy to assist the client in coping with the illness? A. Allow the client to deal with the disease in an individual fashion. B. Ask family members whether they wish a psychiatric consultation. C. Encourage the client to visit with the pastoral care department's chaplain. D. Provide reassurance that continued compliance with medication therapy is the most proactive way to cope with the disease.
D. A primary role of the nurse working with a client with TB is to teach the client about medication therapy. An anxious client may not absorb information optimally. The nurse continues to reinforce teaching using a variety of methods (repetition, teaching aids), and teaches the family about the medications as well. The most effective way of coping with the disease is to learn about the therapy that will eradicate it. This gives the client a measure of power over the situation and outcome. Allowing the client to deal with the disease in an individual fashion gives no active assistance to the client. Asking family members whether they wish a psychiatric consultation does not involve the client. Although visiting with the pastoral care department's chaplain may be helpful, it is not the best strategy among the options provided.
A patients current antiretroviral regimen includes nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). What dietary counseling will the nurse provide based on the patients medication regimen? A) Avoid high-fat meals while taking this medication. B) Limit fluid intake to 2 liters a day. C) Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day. D) Take this medication without regard to meals.
D. Many NRTIs exist, but all of them may be safely taken without regard to meals. Protein, fluid, and sodium restrictions play no role in relation to these drugs.
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response? A) There is no way to know that for certain, but we do know that your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV. B) Your physician is likely the best one to ask that question. C) If the baby is HIV positive there is nothing that can be done until it is born, so try your best not to worry about it now. D) Its possible that your baby could contract HIV, either before, during, or after delivery.
D. Mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1 is possible and may occur in utero, at the time of delivery, or through breast-feeding. There is no evidence that the infants risk is 25%. Deferral to the physician is not a substitute for responding appropriately to the patients concern. Downplaying the patients concerns is inappropriate.
A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurses best response? A) Theres no way to be sure you wont get HIV except to use condoms correctly. B) Only the correct use of a female condom protects against the transmission of HIV. C) There are new ways of protecting yourself from HIV that are being discovered every day. D) Other than abstinence, only the consistent and correct use of condoms is effective in preventing HIV.
D. Other than abstinence, consistent and correct use of condoms is the only effective method to decrease the risk of sexual transmission of HIV infection. Both female and male condoms confer significant protection. New prevention techniques are not commonly discovered, though advances in treatment are constant.
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what? A) The patient is immune to HIV. B) The patients immune system is intact. C) The patient has AIDS-related complications. D) The patient has been infected with HIV.
D. Positive test results indicate that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood. The presence of antibodies does not imply an intact immune system or specific immunity to HIV. This finding does not indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
The nurse has conducted discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? A. ."I need to continue medication therapy for 1 month." B. ."I can't shop at the mall for the next 6 months." C. ."I can return to work if a sputum culture comes back negative." D."I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy."
D. The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy. The client is instructed to wear a mask if there will be exposure to crowds until the medication is effective in preventing transmission. The client is allowed to return to work when the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative.
The nurse has conducted discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? A. "I need to continue medication therapy for 1 month." B. "I can't shop at the mall for the next 6 months." C. "I can return to work if a sputum culture comes back negative." D. "I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy."
D. The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy. The client is instructed to wear a mask if there will be exposure to crowds until the medication is effective in preventing transmission. The client is allowed to return to work when the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative.
The nurse is assessing a client with the typical clinical manifestations of tuberculosis (TB). During history-taking the nurse anticipates that the client will report presence of cough and fatigue for what period of time? A. 1 or 2 days B. 1 to 2 weeks C. Almost 1 week D. Several weeks to months
D. The client with TB may report signs and symptoms that have been present for weeks or even months. These may include fatigue, lethargy, chest pain, anorexia and weight loss, night sweats, low-grade fever, and cough with mucoid or blood-streaked sputum. It may be the production of blood-tinged sputum that finally forces some clients to seek care.
The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, what should the nurse tell the attendees? A) Attach the condom prior to erection. B) A condom may be reused with the same partner if ejaculation has not occurred. C) Use skin lotion as a lubricant if alternatives are unavailable. D) Hold the condom by the cuff upon withdrawal.
D. The condom should be unrolled over the hard penis before any kind of sex. The condom should be held by the tip to squeeze out air. Skin lotions, baby oil, petroleum jelly, or cold cream should not be used with condoms because they cause latex deterioration/condom breakage. The condom should be held during withdrawal so it does not come off the penis. Condoms should never be reused.
The clinic nurse administers a tuberculin skin test to a client. The nurse tells the client to return to the clinic for the results in how long? A. 6 to 12 hours B. 12 to 24 hours C. 24 to 28 hours D. 48 to 72 hours
D. The tuberculin skin test is an accurate and reliable test that will provide information to the health care provider about the client's possible exposure status to tuberculosis. Interpretation of the skin test result should be done 48 to 72 hours after the injection.
During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection? A) Salmonella infection B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Clostridium difficile D) Pneumocystis pneumonia
D. There are a number of opportunistic infections that can infect individuals with AIDS. The most common life-threatening infection in those living with AIDS is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), caused by P. jiroveci (formerly carinii). Other opportunistic infections may involve Salmonella,Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Clostridium difficile.
