Exam 3

28. The two MOST common causes of death from an electrical injury are: A) asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest. B) full-thickness burns and respiratory arrest. C) nervous system damage and massive sepsis. D) myoglobinuria and diaphragmatic paralysis.

A) asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest.

24. Unlike deceleration injuries, crush and compression injuries occur: A) at the time of impact. B) before impact occurs. C) after the initial impact. D) from penetrating mechanisms.

A) at the time of impact.

44. If your patient has an open wound in which there is a risk of air being drawn into the vasculature, you should: A) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. B) cover the wound with a hemostatic agent. C) apply direct pressure with moist dressings. D) transport quickly to a hyperbaric chamber.

A) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

42. Which of the following interventions encourages drainage from the site of a closed wound and reduces swelling? A) Elevation B) Splinting C) Firm compression D) Application of ice

A) Elevation

33. A healthy adult can tolerate blood loss of up to ____ mL over a period of 15 to 20 minutes without any negative effects. A) 500 B) 750 C) 1,000 D) 1,500

A) 500

42. Which of the following signs would you MOST likely observe in a patient with compensated shock? A) Anxiety or agitation B) Dilation of the pupils C) Absent peripheral pulses D) Response to painful stimuli

A) Anxiety or agitation

63. Which of the following factors would MOST likely produce a falsely normal pulse oximetry reading? A) Carboxyhemoglobin B) Peripheral vasodilation C) A dimly lit environment D) Heart rate above 120 beats/min

A) Carboxyhemoglobin

38. Which of the following types of shock is caused by poor blood vessel function? A) Septic B) Cardiogenic C) Hypovolemic D) Hemorrhagic

A) Septic

7. What type of thermal burn is MOST commonly associated with inhalation injury? A) Steam burns B) Flame burns C) Scald burns D) Arc burns

A) Steam burns

53. Your MAIN concern when caring for a patient with a soft-tissue injury to the face should be: A) airway compromise. B) hypovolemic shock. C) injuries to the eyes. D) preventing contamination.

A) airway compromise.

50. When caring for an amputated body part: A) early notification of the hospital is important. B) the body part should be kept at room temperature. C) the part should be tightly wrapped in a dry dressing. D) applying ice to the body part will keep the cells viable.

A) early notification of the hospital is important.

29. Compared to the bleeding from an open wound, bleeding from a closed wound: A) is limited because the skin is unbroken. B) generally requires surgical intervention. C) is not significant enough to produce shock. D) can usually be controlled with direct pressure.

A) is limited because the skin is unbroken.

91. In contrast to negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation: A) may impair blood return to the heart. B) moves air into the esophagus and trachea. C) causes decreased intrathoracic pressure. D) is the act of normal, unassisted breathing.

A) may impair blood return to the heart.

61. Pulse oximetry is used to measure the: A) percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen. B) exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level. C) percentage of carbon dioxide that is eliminated from the body. D) amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood.

A) percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen.

37. Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: A) perfusion. B) respiration. C) oxygenation. D) metabolism.

A) perfusion.

12. The amount of blood returned to the heart is called: A) preload. B) cardiac output. C) afterload. D) stroke volume.

A) preload.

42. Structural protection afforded to a motorcycle rider during a crash comes from: A) protective gear worn by the rider. B) the main frame of the motorcycle. C) side foot pedals and the handlebars. D) the handlebars and large engine block.

A) protective gear worn by the rider.

3. All of the following are functions of the skin, EXCEPT: A) providing the immune response for the body. B) protecting the underlying tissue from injury. C) sensing changes in the external environment. D) assisting in the regulation of body temperature.

A) providing the immune response for the body.

63. You have dressed and bandaged a laceration to the arm of a 16-year-old woman and are transporting her to the hospital. En route, the patient complains that her fingers are tingling. You touch her hand and note that it is cool. You should: A) readjust the bandage if needed and reassess distal neurovascular function. B) conclude that the laceration has probably severed a major nerve in her arm. C) elevate her arm, apply an icepack over the bandage, and reassess her hand. D) contact the receiving facility and have them place a neurosurgeon on standby.

A) readjust the bandage if needed and reassess distal neurovascular function.

76. You are transporting a conscious but confused 29-year-old man after he was electrocuted. The patient is on high-flow oxygen, has an IV line of normal saline in place, is on a cardiac monitor, and has his spine fully immobilized. During transport, it is especially important for you to: A) remain alert for lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and be prepared to defibrillate. B) administer at least 2 L of normal saline solution to prevent renal failure. C) thoroughly assess and clean the entry and exit wounds to prevent an infection. D) reassess his vital signs every 15 minutes and treat any fractures or dislocations.

A) remain alert for lethal cardiac dysrhythmias and be prepared to defibrillate.

58. A 30-year-old man presents with jaw and neck stiffness and fever. During your assessment, he tells you that he cut his hand on a piece of metal about a week ago. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has: A) tetanus. B) meningitis. C) a viral infection. D) a staph infection.

A) tetanus.

11. Supraglottic damage following a burn is MOST often caused by: A) the inhalation of superheated gases. B) exposure to carbon monoxide or cyanide. C) the inhalation of hot particulate steam. D) direct flame exposure to the oropharynx.

A) the inhalation of superheated gases.

227. The external jugular veins run ____________ and are located ____________ to the cricothyroid membrane. A) vertically, lateral B) vertically, medial C) horizontally, lateral D) horizontally, medial

A) vertically, lateral

19. Which of the following patients is at HIGHEST risk for a pressure injury? A) An obese patient B) A bedridden patient C) A hypertensive patient D) A patient with diabetes

B) A bedridden patient

31. Which of the following types of medication would MOST likely reduce a patient's ability to compensate when in shock? A) Tricyclic antidepressants B) Calcium channel blockers C) Nasal decongestants D) Beta-2 adrenergic agonists

B) Calcium channel blockers

20. Atelectasis occurs when: A) the alveoli are overinflated and rupture. B) a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse. C) deoxygenated blood diffuses across the alveoli. D) surface tension on the alveolar walls is decreased.

B) a deficiency of surfactant causes alveolar collapse.

104. Indications for CPAP include: A) cardiopulmonary arrest. B) acute pulmonary edema. C) severe opiate toxicity. D) acute bacterial pneumonia.

B) acute pulmonary edema.

61. Which of the following statements regarding primary blast injuries is correct? A) Primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious injuries. B) Primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. C) Primary blast injuries are the result of flying glass or shrapnel. D) Primary blast injuries are due entirely to intense heat.

B) Primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

1. Which of the following components is LEAST crucial to the continuous circulation of oxygenated blood throughout the body? A) Heart B) Spleen C) Vasculature D) Fluid volume

B) Spleen

45. You have successfully controlled a large arterial hemorrhage from a 42-year-old man's leg with direct pressure and a pressure dressing. He is conscious, but restless. His blood pressure is 84/58 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min, and respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A) keep him warm, administer high-flow oxygen, establish one large-bore IV line at the scene, and transport. B) administer high-flow oxygen, keep him warm, transport, and establish two large-bore IV lines en route. C) administer high-flow oxygen, start two large-bore IV lines at the scene and give a 2- to 3-L fluid bolus, and transport. D) Keep him warm, assist his ventilations, place a hemostatic agent in the wound, transport, and start a large-bore IV en route.

B) administer high-flow oxygen, keep him warm, transport, and establish two large-bore IV lines en route.

54. When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you note increased compliance. This means that: A) you are meeting resistance when ventilating. B) air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease. C) a lower airway obstruction should be suspected. D) the patient likely has an upper airway obstruction.

B) air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease.

70. A 52-year-old man sustained superficial and partial-thickness burns to his left arm approximately 15 minutes ago when he opened the radiator cap on his car. He is conscious, alert, and in severe pain. His BP is 138/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. He denies any other injuries. Initial management for this patient involves: A) applying ice to the burn to provide immediate pain relief. B) applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevating his arm. C) starting an IV of normal saline and administering 2 mg of morphine. D) administering oxygen and applying an anesthetic cream to the burn.

B) applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevating his arm.

38. When assessing a burn patient, it is MOST important to: A) accurately calculate the extent of body surface area burned. B) be alert for occult trauma that could affect patient outcome. C) apprise medical control of the situation as soon as possible. D) rapidly determine if the patient will require an escharotomy.

B) be alert for occult trauma that could affect patient outcome.

6. Hemoglobin functions by: A) dissolving in blood plasma to create the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. B) binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues. C) absorbing hydrogen ions in the blood in order to maintain acid-base balance. D) transporting red blood cells throughout the body to ensure adequate oxygenation.

B) binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues.

45. After a motorcyclist is ejected from his or her motorcycle, secondary collisions: A) most commonly involve a stationary object. B) cause an unpredictable combination of blunt injuries. C) typically cause bilateral fractures of the femurs and tibias. D) result in less severe injuries if the rider is wearing leather.

B) cause an unpredictable combination of blunt injuries.

44. A superficial burn is: A) usually painless because the nerve endings are not exposed. B) characterized by reddened skin with varying degrees of pain. C) painful, but will heal spontaneously, often with scar formation. D) a second-degree burn that is characterized by blister formation.

B) characterized by reddened skin with varying degrees of pain.

42. Patients suspected of having burns to the upper airway will benefit MOST from: A) unhumidified oxygen. B) cool, humidified oxygen. C) an inhaled beta-2 agonist. D) anticholinergic bronchodilators.

B) cool, humidified oxygen.

48. Elevation of an extremity that has a venous laceration to it: A) is often the only intervention needed to control the bleeding effectively. B) helps control the bleeding when used in conjunction with direct pressure. C) should only be performed if pressure point control has proven ineffective. D) is of minimal to no benefit if the patient is bradycardic and hypotensive.

B) helps control the bleeding when used in conjunction with direct pressure.

50. The condition in which the body's tissues and cells do not receive enough oxygen is called: A) anoxia. B) hypoxia C) asphyxia. D) hypoxemia.

B) hypoxia

17. An object increases its kinetic energy more by: A) decreasing its speed than by increasing its mass. B) increasing its velocity than by increasing its mass. C) decreasing its velocity than by decreasing its mass. D) increasing its mass than by increasing its velocity.

B) increasing its velocity than by increasing its mass.

138. Decreased ventilation compliance following intubation is LEAST suggestive of: A) gastric distention. B) left bronchus intubation. C) esophageal intubation. D) tension pneumothorax.

B) left bronchus intubation.

25. When applying a tourniquet to control major external hemorrhage from an extremity injury, you should: A) apply the tourniquet over a joint, as this will further help compress blood vessels. B) maintain direct pressure to the wound until the tourniquet has been fully applied. C) secure the tourniquet in place until the pulses distal to the injury have weakened. D) apply a pressure dressing over the tourniquet to further help control the bleeding.

B) maintain direct pressure to the wound until the tourniquet has been fully applied.

16. The "platinum 10 minutes" refers to the: A) maximum amount of time to extricate a patient. B) maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient. C) amount of time before decompensated shock occurs. D) amount of time taken to perform a rapid assessment.

B) maximum time spent at a scene for a trauma patient.

51. Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest: A) require the paramedic to incise the burn to decompress it. B) may cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion. C) are generally not significant unless the skin is unyielding. D) necessitate immediate intubation and ventilatory support.

B) may cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion.

40. Common air bag-related injuries include: A) spinal fractures. B) minor skin burns. C) hyperflexion injuries. D) abdominal abrasions.

B) minor skin burns.

27. Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury: A) is caused by excess serum potassium levels. B) occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin. C) can be prevented with boluses of lactated Ringer's. D) is the result of electricity passing through the kidneys.

B) occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin.

25. Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning: A) most commonly experience blast-type injuries. B) often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern. C) typically experience intractable ventricular fibrillation. D) experience full-thickness burns that require debridement.

B) often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern.

8. Perfusion is defined as: A) the effective exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the lungs and at the cellular level. B) the circulation of blood through an organ or tissue in amounts adequate to meet the body's demands. C) an ejection fraction that is adequate to maintain radial pulses or a systolic blood pressure of at least 90 mm Hg. D) the circulation of an adequate volume of blood to ensure uninterrupted cerebral and myocardial oxygenation.

B) the circulation of blood through an organ or tissue in amounts adequate to meet the body's demands.

16. The MOST significant factor that determines how well the body compensates for blood loss is: A) the patient's pulse rate at the time of the injury. B) the period of time over which the blood is lost. C) whether the bleeding is internal or external. D) whether the bleeding is venous or arterial.

B) the period of time over which the blood is lost.

34. The severity of hyperextension injuries to the neck following a rear-end collision depends MOSTLY on: A) the proper use of seat belts. B) the position of the headrest. C) proper deployment of the air bags. D) whether the driver tenses up.

B) the position of the headrest.

1. The acute physiologic and structural change that occurs in a patient's body when an external source of energy dissipates faster than the body's ability to sustain and dissipate it is called: A) injury. B) trauma. C) deceleration. D) kinematics.

B) trauma.

88. The nasal cannula is of MOST benefit to patients: A) who require high oxygen concentrations. B) with mild hypoxemia and claustrophobia. C) with an acute exacerbation of emphysema. D) who are hypoxic and are mouth-breathers.

B) with mild hypoxemia and claustrophobia.

40. The FIRST aspect to address in any patient with a soft-tissue injury is: A) bleeding. B) your safety. C) airway patency. D) decontamination.

B) your safety.

51. In which of the following patients should the impaled object be removed? A) Apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the center of the chest B) Pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the lower abdomen C) Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the back D) Semiconscious patient with a screwdriver impaled in the side of the head

C) Cardiac arrest patient with an ice pick impaled in the center of the back

34. Which of the following statements regarding crush injury is correct? A) A crush injury can occur if the PASG is left in place for greater than 1 hour. B) Gangrene often sets in if a body part is entrapped for longer than 30 minutes. C) Crush syndrome can occur if the body part is entrapped for more than 4 hours. D) In a crush injury, the external appearance is a good predictor of internal damage.

C) Crush syndrome can occur if the body part is entrapped for more than 4 hours.

21. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of necrotizing fasciitis? A) A fungal infection B) Clostridium tetani C) Hemolytic streptococci D) Clostridium perfringens

C) Hemolytic streptococci

9. Which of the following organs or body systems requires a constant blood supply, regardless of external factors? A) Skin B) Muscles C) Kidneys D) Gastrointestinal tract

C) Kidneys

4. Which of the following two factors DIRECTLY affect cardiac output? A) Preload and afterload B) Vessel size and stroke volume C) Stroke volume and pulse rate D) Blood pressure and pulse rate

C) Stroke volume and pulse rate

36. Which of the following statements regarding rollover motor vehicle crashes is correct? A) Injuries to the passengers are usually not serious if seat belts are worn properly. B) Ejection of the patient from the vehicle increases the chance of death by 5 times. C) Unrestrained passengers are struck with each change in direction the car makes. D) The restrained occupant's head and neck usually remain stationary during a rollover.

C) Unrestrained passengers are struck with each change in direction the car makes.

4. Thermal burns are MOST commonly caused by exposure to: A) hot liquids. B) hot solid objects. C) an open flame. D) superheated steam.

C) an open flame.

43. You are treating a 20-year-old man with a large laceration involving the brachial artery. The patient is confused, is pale, and has weak peripheral pulses. Your initial attempts to control the bleeding have failed. You should: A) administer high-flow oxygen, establish vascular access at the scene, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet en route. B) administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet and establish vascular access en route. C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route. D) control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal pressure point, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route.

30. Primary treatment in the prehospital setting for an abrasion involves: A) administering a narcotic analgesic. B) applying an antibiotic ointment or cream. C) covering it lightly with a sterile dressing. D) thoroughly cleaning it to prevent infection.

C) covering it lightly with a sterile dressing.

109. A gastric tube is MOST useful for: A) performing prehospital gastric lavage in patients with a toxic ingestion. B) blocking off the esophagus so that an ET tube can be placed. C) decompressing the stomach and decreasing pressure on the diaphragm. D) removing blood from the esophagus in patients with esophageal varices.

C) decompressing the stomach and decreasing pressure on the diaphragm.

22. Most external hemorrhage can be controlled with a combination of: A) pressure dressings and ice. B) elevation and immobilization. C) direct pressure and pressure dressings. D) pressure point control and elevation. Ans: C

C) direct pressure and pressure dressings.

19. The law of conservation of energy states that: A) kinetic energy can be converted only to thermal or chemical energy. B) the force that an object can exert is the product of its mass multiplied by its acceleration. C) energy can be neither created nor destroyed; it can only change form. D) a body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force.

C) energy can be neither created nor destroyed; it can only change form.

9. Burn shock is caused by: A) a massive infection that occurs when microorganisms breach burned skin. B) renal failure secondary to excess myoglobin production from burned muscle. C) fluid loss across damaged skin and volume shifts within the rest of the body. D) acute dehydration, and it commonly manifests within 30 minutes after the burn.

C) fluid loss across damaged skin and volume shifts within the rest of the body.

55. The MOST acute complication associated with large body surface area burns is: A) infection. B) hypovolemia. C) hypothermia. D) myoglobinemia.

C) hypothermia.

52. Unlike blunt trauma, penetrating trauma: A) is especially common during the primary blast injury following an explosion. B) often causes damage to a large body surface area, even from a single projectile. C) involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area. D) is usually more fatal because of the severe external bleeding that accompanies it.

C) involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area.

18. A wound is at HIGHEST risk for infection if: A) the patient uses an antibacterial spray. B) it occurs to any part of the facial area. C) it is caused by a human or animal bite. D) the patient has poor peripheral circulation.

C) it is caused by a human or animal bite.

26. Cardiac arrest following an electrical shock: A) typically presents as pulseless atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. B) is most often caused by an electrical current stronger than 1 ampere. C) may occur secondarily from hypoxia or as a direct result of the shock. D) is typically of short duration and is often reversed with 2 minutes of CPR.

C) may occur secondarily from hypoxia or as a direct result of the shock.

28. The fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) increases with: A) increased tidal volume. B) forceful inhalation. C) supplemental oxygen. D) an increase in respirations.

C) supplemental oxygen.

38. What type of injuries will MOST likely occur if a passenger is wearing his or her lap belt above the pelvic bone during a frontal impact? A) Pelvic and lumbar spine B) Femur and thoracic spine C) Kidney and thoracic spine D) Abdominal and lumbar spine

D) Abdominal and lumbar spine

18. Which of the following factors would have the MOST negative effect on the body's process of hemostasis? A) Bradycardia B) Hyperthermia C) Chronic heroin use D) Anticoagulant use

D) Anticoagulant use

7. What aggregates in a clump and forms much of the foundation of a blood clot during the process of coagulation? A) Fibrin B) Calcium C) Plasmin D) Platelets

D) Platelets

15. When summoning an air transport service to transport a critically injured patient, it is MOST important to: A) determine the flight crew's credentials. B) ensure that the fire department is present. C) predetermine the destination facility. D) activate the service as soon as possible.

D) activate the service as soon as possible.

75. A 24-year-old woman was struck by lightning. Bystanders moved the patient to an area of safety but did not provide any other care before your arrival. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. You begin CPR and apply the cardiac monitor, which reveals asystole. After requesting a backup paramedic unit, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves: A) instructing your partner to resume one-rescuer CPR, establishing an IV of normal saline, and reassessing her cardiac rhythm in 5 minutes. B) continuing CPR, providing full spinal precautions, intubating her trachea, and ventilating her at a rate of 20 to 24 breaths per minute. C) performing adequate BLS, following standard ACLS protocol, and considering terminating your efforts if asystole persists after 10 minutes. D) continuing CPR, protecting her spine while ventilating, reassessing her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes of CPR, and defibrillating if necessary.

D) continuing CPR, protecting her spine while ventilating, reassessing her cardiac rhythm after 2 minutes of CPR, and defibrillating if necessary.

78. An artificial airway adjunct: A) effectively protects the airway from aspiration. B) is a suitable substitute for manual head positioning. C) should be inserted in any patient who is semiconscious. D) does not obviate the need for proper head positioning.

D) does not obviate the need for proper head positioning.

19. If you suspect internal bleeding during the primary assessment, you should: A) stop the assessment and transport at once. B) start two large-bore IV lines of normal saline. C) determine the source of the internal bleeding. D) keep the patient warm and administer oxygen.

D) keep the patient warm and administer oxygen.

25. The swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by: A) inflammation of the injured blood vessels. B) rupture of large blood vessels in the dermis. C) aggregation of platelets to the injured site. D) leakage of fluid into spaces between the cells.

D) leakage of fluid into spaces between the cells.

30. A trauma patient with hypotension secondary to internal hemorrhage should receive IV fluid boluses in order to: A) increase the systolic blood pressure to at least 110 mm Hg. B) restore the patient's blood pressure to its pretrauma reading. C) increase the pulse rate by no more than 10 beats/min. D) maintain the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range.

D) maintain the systolic blood pressure in a low normal range.

49. You should splint an open soft-tissue injury to an extremity because: A) most patients do not keep the extremity still when asked to do so. B) most open soft-tissue injuries are associated with a fracture. C) splinting is an excellent means of providing relief from pain. D) motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood-clotting process.

D) motion of the extremity may disrupt the blood-clotting process.

103. Physiologic effects of CPAP include: A) increased intrathoracic pressure. B) forcing of fluid into the alveoli. C) increased alveolar surface tension. D) opening of collapsed alveoli.

D) opening of collapsed alveoli.

24. An infection characterized by painful muscle contractions is called: A) pertussis. B) polio. C) rabies. D) tetanus.

D) tetanus.

60. During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when: A) hollow organs rupture due to the pressure wave. B) the patient is thrown against a stationary object. C) the patient sustains severe burns from the intense heat. D) the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.

D) the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.

28. The MOST reliable indicator that significant energy was dissipated by braking before a motor vehicle collision is: A) deformity to the driver's brake pedal. B) severe damage to the front rims of the tires. C) a trail of debris leading to the site of impact. D) the presence of tire skid marks at the scene.

D) the presence of tire skid marks at the scene.

45. The use of wet dressings in the field is limited because: A) their use may result in severe hypothermia. B) they are of no value in providing pain relief. C) their sterility cannot be maintained in the field. D) they provide a medium for pathogens to grow.

D) they provide a medium for pathogens to grow.

10. Anatomically, the ________ is directly anterior to the glottic opening. A) thyroid gland B) vallecular space C) cricoid cartilage D) thyroid cartilage

D) thyroid cartilage

7. Physical injury to the skin: A) causes a decrease in the production of macrophages and lymphocytes, thus increasing the risk of infection. B) commonly destroys the stratum corneum, the deep dermal layer of the skin, and causes nerve damage. C) promotes cutaneous vasoconstriction, which shunts blood away from the injury and manifests as pallor around the injury site. D) triggers mast cells to degranulate and synthesize special chemical mediators, which causes the injured area to become warm and red.

D) triggers mast cells to degranulate and synthesize special chemical mediators, which causes the injured area to become warm and red.

34. The physiologic process of hemostasis is achieved through: A) an increased production of red blood cells. B) the destruction of fibrin and platelets. C) the use of anticoagulants such as Coumadin. D) vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

D) vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.