Exam 3 Practice Questions

The nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea and vomiting b. Distended rigid abdomen c. Abdominal pain d. Bradycardia e. Decreased urinary output

ANS: A,C,D,E,F Peritonitis is an acute inflammatory disorder. Therefore, the client would likely have all of these signs and symptoms but would have tachycardia rather than bradycardia due to dehydration from fever.

A nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client who has Crohn disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L) b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 (8.2 109/L) d. Client's weight decreased by 3 lb (1.4 kg)

ANS: A Fistulas place the patient with Crohn disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and would cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

The nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

ANS: A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

The nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction would the nurse include in the health teaching? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You should only drink 1 L of fluids daily." c. "Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk." d. "Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea."

ANS: A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

After teaching a client with a high thoracic spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A The client with a cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury typically has weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and helps prevent atelectasis and other respiratory problems. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client would be encouraged to cough and clear secretions, and placed in high-Fowler position to prevent aspiration.

The nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-tinged output

ANS: A The nurse would assess the stoma for color and contact the primary health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark because these changes indicate possible lack of perfusion. The nurse would expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action would the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and barrier every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

ANS: A The nurse would empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy barriers would be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape would not be used.

A nurse cares for a client who had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon 2 weeks ago. The client states, "The stool in my pouch is still liquid." How would the nurse respond? a. "The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy." b. "Eating additional fiber will bulk up your stool and decrease diarrhea." c. "Your stool will become firmer over the next couple of weeks." d. "This is abnormal. I will contact your primary health care provider."

ANS: A The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. This finding is not abnormal. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the client's diet or with the passage of time.

The nurse assesses a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) for signs and symptoms consistent with this injury. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Sensitivity to light and sound b. Reports "feeling foggy" c. Unconscious for an hour after injury d. Elevated temperature e. Widened pulse pressure

ANS: A, B A mild TBI would possibly lead to sensitivity to light and sound and a feeling of mental fogginess. The patient would have been unconscious for less than 30 minutes. An elevated temperature is not related. A widened pulse pressure is indicative of increased intracranial pressure, not a mild TBI.

A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions would the nurse include in this client's assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. "Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms?" b. "Where is your pain or discomfort and what does it feel like?" c. "Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately?" d. "Are your stools soft, watery, and black?" e. "Do you often experience nausea and vomiting"

ANS: A, B The nurse would ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse would also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the patient's pain or discomfort. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight, have nausea and vomiting, or have stools that are black.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who is newly diagnosed with a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which questions would the nurse ask in preparation for discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Does your gym provide yoga classes? b. When should you contact your provider? c. What do you plan to eat for dinner? d. Do you have a scale for daily weights? e. How many bathrooms are in your home?

ANS: A, B, C, E A home assessment for a client who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease would include identifying adequacy and availability of bathroom facilities, opportunities for rest and relaxation, and the client's knowledge of dietary therapy, and when to contact the primary health care provider. The client does not need to perform daily weights.

The nurse assists the wound care/ostomy nurse assess a client prior to ostomy surgery. Which assessments would the nurse complete before marking the placement for the ostomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Contour of the abdomen when standing b. Location of the client's belt line c. Contour of the abdomen when lying d. Location of abdominal muscles e. Contour of the abdomen when sitting

ANS: A, B, C, E Before marking the placement for the ostomy, the nurse would consider the contour of the abdomen in lying, sitting, and standing positions, the location of the belt line and possible location in the rectus muscle. The location of abdominal muscles is not considered.

Based on the known risk factors for stroke, which health promotion practices would the nurse teach a client to promote heart health and prevent strokes? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure control b. Aspirin use c. Smoking cessation d. Low carbohydrate diet e. Cholesterol management f. Increased red wine consumption

ANS: A, B, C, E The evidence-based health promotion practices include blood pressure control, aspirin use, smoking cessation, and cholesterol management. There is no consensus on which diet is best to promote heart health and red wine does not protect the heart or prevent strokes.

The nurse is caring for a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) following a stroke. Which evidence-based nursing actions are indicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. b. Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. c. Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater. d. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. e. Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. f. Provide environmental stimulation to improve cognition.

ANS: A, B, C, E These precautions help prevent further increases in ICP. Clustering nursing activities and procedures and providing stimulation can increase ICP and should be avoided.

A nurse cares for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital with complications of diverticulitis. Which actions would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medications as prescribed. b. Palpate the abdomen for distention. c. Assess for sudden changes in mental status. d. Provide the client with a high-fiber diet. e. Evaluate stools for occult blood.

ANS: A, B, C, E When caring for an older adult who has diverticulitis, the nurse would administer analgesics as prescribed, palpate the abdomen for distention and tenderness, assess for confusion and sudden changes in mental status, and check stools for occult or frank bleeding. A low-fiber/residue diet would be provided when symptoms are present and a high-fiber diet when inflammation resolves.

After teaching a patient who has a permanent ileostomy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary items chosen for dinner indicate that the client needs further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Corn b. String beans c. Carrots d. Wheat rice e. Squash

ANS: A, B, D Clients with an ileostomy should be cautious of high-fiber and high-cellulose foods including corn, string beans, and rice. Carrots and squash are low-fiber items.

The nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding—erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation—localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon—transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction—paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula—dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with celiac disease and preparing to start natalizumab. Which health teaching would the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Need to have drug administered by a primary health care provider. b. Need to avoid crowds and individuals who have infection. c. Need to report injection reactions such as redness and swelling. d. Awareness of a rare but potentially fatal drug complication. e. Need to report any signs and symptoms of infection immediately.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of these choices are correct except that the drug is given intravenously. Therefore, there is no need to teach the client to report injection reactions because the client does not self-administer the medication subcutaneously. Natalizumab can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), but it is a very rare disorder causing cognitive, sensory, and/or motor changes

A nurse teaches a client with a fractured tibia about external fixation. Which advantages of external fixation for the immobilization of fractures would the nurse share with the client? (Select all that apply.) a. It leads to minimal blood loss. b. It allows for early ambulation. c. It decreases the risk of infection. d. It increases blood supply to tissues. e. It promotes healing.

ANS: A, B, E External fixation is a system in which pins or wires are inserted through the skin and bone and then connected to a ridged external frame. With external fixation, blood loss is less than with internal fixation, but the risk for infection is much higher. The device allows early ambulation and exercise, maintains alignment, stabilizes the fracture site, and promotes healing. The device does not increase blood supply to the tissues. The nurse would assess for distal circulation, movement, and sensation, which can be disturbed by fracture injuries and treatments.

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for carpal tunnel syndrome. Which health promotion activities would the nurse include in the health teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Frequently assesses the ergonomics of the equipment being used." b. "Take breaks to stretch fingers and wrists during working hours." c. "Do not participate in activities that require repetitive actions." d. "Take ibuprofen to decrease pain and swelling in wrists." e. "Adjust chair height to allow for good posture."

ANS: A, B, E Health promotion activities to prevent carpal tunnel syndrome include assessing the ergonomics of the equipment being used, taking breaks to stretch fingers and wrists during working hours, and adjusting chair height to allow for good posture. The client should be allowed to participate in activities that require repetitive actions as long as precautions are taken to promote health. Pain medications are not part of health promotion activities.

A nurse assesses a patient who has celiac disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Anorexia c. Constipation d. Anal fistula e. Abdominal pain

ANS: B, C, E Signs and symptoms of celiac disease include weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and abdominal pain. Anal fistulas are not associated with celiac disease.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

The nurse is caring for a client who recently sustained a sports injury to his right leg. What nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Immobilize the right leg. b. Apply heat immediately after the injury. c. Use compression to support the leg. d. Obtain an x-ray to detect possible fracture. e. Elevate the right leg to decrease swelling. f. Administer an opioid every 4 to 6 hours.

ANS: A, C, D, E The client who experiences a sports injury should be managed using the RICE treatment plan. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation are all appropriate. Heat would increase swelling and probably pain. An x-ray would be obtained to determine if one or more fractures are present. Opioids may not be needed depending on the nature of the injury. DIF: Understanding

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) b. Loss of 15 lb (6.8 kg) without dieting c. Abdominal pain in upper quadrants d. Low-pitched bowel sounds e. Serum sodium of 121 mEq/L (121 mmol/L)

ANS: A, C, E Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L [3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L]) and hyponatremic (normal range is 136 to 145 mEq/L [136 to 145 mmol/L]). Abdominal pain across the upper quadrants is associated with small bowel obstruction. Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched sounds may be noted with small bowel obstructions.

The nurse is caring for a client who has perineal surgical wound. Which actions would the nurse take to promote comfort and wound healing? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client into a side-lying position. b. Use a rubber donut device when sitting up. c. Apply warm compresses three to four times a day. d. Instruct the client to wear boxer shorts. e. Place an absorbent dressing over the wound.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse would place an absorbent pad over the wound and apply warm compresses to the wound area. The nurse would also instruct the male client to wear jockey-type shorts for support rather than boxers, assume a side-lying position in bed, avoid sitting for long periods, and use foam pads or soft pillows whenever in a sitting position. The patient should avoid the use of air rings or rubber donut devices.

The nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements would the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."

ANS: A, D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

A nurse teaches a client about prosthesis care after amputation. Which statements would the nurse include in the health teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "The device has been custom made specifically for you." b. "Your prosthetic is good for work but not for exercising." c. "A prosthetist will clean your inserts for you each month." d. "Make sure that you wear the correct liners with your prosthetic." e. "I have scheduled a follow-up appointment for you."

ANS: A, D, E A client with a new prosthetic should be taught that the prosthetic device is custom made for the client, taking into account the level of amputation, lifestyle (including exercise preferences), and occupation. In collaboration with a prosthetist, the client should be taught proper techniques for cleansing the sockets and inserts, wearing the correct liners, and assessing shoe wear. Follow-up care and appointments are important for ongoing assessment.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube (NGT). Which actions would the nurse take for client care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours or per agency policy. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the client's chin. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the client's skin around the tube site for irritation.

ANS: A, D, E The nurse would frequently assess for NGT placement, patency, and output (drainage) every 4 hours or per agency policy. The nurse would also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the client's nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse would disconnect suction. NGT irrigation may or may not be prescribed. If it is prescribed, hourly irrigation is not appropriate.

The nurse is caring for a client who just had a minimally invasive inguinal hernia repair. Which nursing actions would the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply ice to the surgical area for the first 24 hours after surgery. b. Encourage ambulation with assistance within the first few hours after surgery. c. Encourage deep breathing after surgery but teach the client to avoid coughing. d. Assess vital signs frequently for the first few hours after surgery. e. Teach the client to rest for several days after surgery when at home. f. Teach the client not to lift more than 10 lb (4.5 kg) until allowed by the surgeon.

ANS: A,B,C,D,E,F All of these nursing actions are appropriate for the client having MIS for inguinal hernia repair.

A client is preparing to have a laparoscopic restorative proctocolectomy with ileo pouch-anal anastomosis (RCA-IPAA). Which preoperative health teaching would the nurse include? a. "You will have to wear an appliance for your permanent ileostomy." b. "You should be able to have better bowel continence after healing occurs." c. "You will have a large abdominal incision that will require irrigation." d. "This procedure can be performed under general or regional anesthesia."

ANS: B A RCA-IPAA can improve bowel continence although leakage may still occur for some clients. The procedure is a 2-step process performed under general anesthesia using a laparoscope which does not require an abdominal incision or permanent ileostomy.

A client who had a complete spinal cord injury at level L5-S1 is admitted with a sacral pressure injury. What other assessment finding will the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Quadriplegia b. Flaccid bowel c. Spastic bladder d. Tetraparesis

ANS: B A low-level complete spinal cord injury (SCI) is a lower motor neuron injury because the reflect arc is damaged. Therefore, the client would be expected to have paraplegia and a flaccid bowel and bladder. Quadriplegia and tetraparesis are seen in clients with cervical or high thoracic SCIs.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis (UC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I should wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab is an immune modulator that is given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

The nurse is caring for a client who is planning to have a laparoscopic colon resection for colorectal cancer tomorrow. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have less pain after this surgery compared to having a large incision." b. "I will probably be in the hospital for 3 to 4 days after surgery." c. "I will be able to walk around a little on the same day as the surgery." d. "I will be able to return to work in a week or two depending on how I do."

ANS: B All of these statements are correct about having minimally invasive laparoscopic surgery except that the hospital stay will likely be only 1 or 2 days.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lubiprostone for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C). What health teaching will the nurse include about taking this drug? a. "This drug will make you very dry because it will decrease your diarrhea." b. "Be sure to take this drug with food and water to help manage constipation." c. "Avoid people who have infection as this drug will suppress your immune system." d. "Include high-fiber foods in your diet to help produce more solid stools."

ANS: B Lubiprostone is an oral laxative approved for women who have IBS with constipation (IBS-C). Water and food will also help to improve constipation. The drug is not used for clients who have diarrhea and does not affect the immune system. Although high-fiber foods are important for clients who have IBS, this client does not need fiber to help make stool more solid. Instead the fiber will help prevent constipation.

The nurse plans care for a client with Crohn disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention would be the nurse's priority action? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a patient who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn disease also includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

ANS: B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse would encourage the client to discuss concerns by restating them in an open-ended manner. The nurse would not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which question would the nurse ask the client before starting this drug? a. "Are you taking Vitamin C or B? b. "Do you have any allergy to sulfa drugs?" c. "Can you swallow pills pretty easily?" d. "Do you have insurance to cover this drug?"

ANS: B Sulfasalazine is a sulfa drug given for clients who have ulcerative colitis. However, it should not be given to those who have an allergy to sulfa and sulfa drugs to prevent a hypersensitivity reaction.

A client is preparing to have a fecal occult blood test (FOBT). What health teaching would the nurse include prior to the test? a. "This test will determine whether you have colorectal cancer." b. "You need to avoid red meat and NSAIDs for 48 hours before the test." c. "You don't need to have this test because you can have a virtual colonoscopy." d. "This test can determine your genetic risk for developing colorectal cancer."

ANS: B The FOBT is a screening test that is sometimes used to assess for microscopic lower GI bleeding. To help prevent false positive results, the client needs to avoid red meat, Vitamin C, and NSAIDs. The test is not diagnostic nor does it determine a client's genetic risk for colorectal cancer.

The nurse is teaching a client who had a descending colostomy 2 days ago about the ostomy stoma. Which changes in the stoma would the nurse teach the client to report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Stool consistency is similar to paste. b. Stoma becomes dark and dull. c. Skin around the stoma becomes excoriated. d. Skin around stoma becomes protruded. e. Stoma becomes retracted into the abdomen.

ANS: B, C, D, E A colostomy placed in the descending colon would be expect to have a paste-like stool consistency. However, if the stoma becomes retracted or discolored, the client should report those changes to the primary health care provider. Skin around the stoma that becomes protruded would suggest the formation of a peristomal hernia, and skin excoriation needs appropriate management. Therefore, both of those skin changes would need to be reported to the primary health care provider.

The nurse is caring for a client with probable colorectal cancer (CRC). What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Rectal bleeding c. Anemia d. Change in stool shape e. Electrolyte imbalances

ANS: B, C, D, F The client who has CRC usually experiences unintentional weight loss and rectal bleeding, either gross or occult. As a result of bleeding, the client has anemia and fatigue. Electrolyte imbalances are not common, but the client may note that the shape or consistency of stool has changed.

The nurse assesses a client who is admitted with a pelvic fracture. Which assessments would the nurse monitor to prevent or detect a complication of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Temperature b. Urinary output c. Blood pressure d. Pupil reaction e. Skin color

ANS: B, C, E With a pelvic fracture, internal organ damage may result in bleeding and hypovolemic shock. The nurse monitors the client's heart rate, blood pressure, urine output, skin color, and level of consciousness frequently to detect assess for shock. It is important to monitor the urine for blood to assess whether the urinary system has been damaged with the pelvic fracture. Changes in temperature and pupil reactions are not directly associated with hypovolemic shock. Temperature changes are usually associated with hypo- or hyperthermia or infectious processes. Pupillary changes occur with brain injuries, bleeds, or strokes.

A nurse cares for a patient who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which actions would the nurse take to prevent skin excoriation? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleanse the perineum with an antibacterial soap. b. Use medicated wipes instead of toilet paper. c. Identify foods that decrease constipation. d. Apply a thin coat of aloe cream to the perineum. e. Gently pat the perineum dry after cleansing.

ANS: B, D, E To prevent skin excoriation from frequent bowel movements associated with inflammatory bowel disease, the nurse would encourage good skin care with a mild soap and water and gently patting the area dry after each bowel movement. Using medicated wipes instead of toilet paper and applying a thin coat of aloe cream are appropriate. The client should identify and avoid foods that increase diarrhea. Antibacterial soaps are harsh and should not be used.

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove the vest for client bathing. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the patient's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: B, E The nurse would assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins. The nurse would also assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest. The vest is not removed for bathing and the pins are not intentionally loosened.

The nurse is caring for a client who just had a kyphoplasty. What nursing care is needed for the client at this time? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the client in a prone position to prevent pressure on the surgical area. b. Apply an ice pack to the surgical area to help relieve pain. c. Assess the client's pain level to compare it with pain before the procedure. d. Take vital signs, including oxygen saturation, frequently. e. Monitor for complications such as bleeding or shortness of breath. f. Perform frequent neurologic assessments and report major changes.

ANS: B,C,D,E,F All of the choices are correct except that the client should stay in a flat supine position immediately after the procedure.

A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client would have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this patient than heart rate and rhythm.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who has possible appendicitis. Which laboratory test finding would the nurse expect? a. Decreased potassium level b. Increased sodium level c. Elevated leukocyte count d. Decreased thrombocyte count

ANS: C Appendicitis is an acute inflammatory disorder that frequently results in elevation of leukocytes (white blood cells). Serum electrolytes are not affected because the client does not usually have diarrhea. Thrombocyte (platelet) count is unrelated to this GI disorder.

After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I must try to include at least 25 g of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

ANS: C Laxatives are not recommended for patients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of possible strangulated inguinal hernia. For which complication would the nurse monitor? a. Paralytic ileus b. Bowel volvulus c. Sepsis d. Colitis

ANS: C The client who has a strangulated inguinal hernia would likely develop bowel necrosis which can lead to sepsis. The nurse would observe for early signs and symptoms of sepsis such as fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia. If the client's condition is not promptly managed, bowel perforation, septic shock, and death can result.

A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colorectal cancer. Which dietary recommendation would the nurse teach the client? a. "Eat low-fiber and low-residual foods." b. "White rice and bread are easier to digest." c. "Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your diet." d. "Foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa."

ANS: C The client would be taught to modify his or her diet to decrease animal fat and refined carbohydrates. The client should also increase high-fiber foods and Brassica vegetables, including broccoli and cauliflower, which help to protect the intestinal mucosa from colon cancer.

The nurse is teaching a client how to avoid the formation of hemorrhoids. What lifestyle change would the nurse include? a. Avoiding alcohol b. Quitting smoking c. Decreasing fluid intake d. Increasing dietary fiber

ANS: C The major cause of hemorrhoid formation is constipation. Therefore, the nurse teaches the client ways to prevent constipation, which include increasing dietary fiber, increasing exercise and fluid intake, and avoiding straining when have a stool.

The nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Positive Murphy sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn disease. A positive Murphy sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds is not commonly found with Crohn disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn disease.

A nurse cares for a young client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

ANS: C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for patients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible.

A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action would the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Recommend that the client have computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

ANS: C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or high-pitched bowel sounds, is indicative of bowel obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse would contact the primary health care provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The nurse generalist is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional lumbar laminectomy with fusion. Which complications would the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e.Sudden and severe headache

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after open back surgery strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebrospinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.

After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the his understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of his injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection

After teaching a client who is recovering from a colon resection to treat early-stage colorectal cancer (CRC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I must change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed." b. "I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma." c. "I might start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed." d. "I will make sure that I make lifestyle changes to prevent constipation." e. "I will be sure to have the recommended colonoscopies."

ANS: C, D, E The client has had a colon resection for early CRC and there is no indication that the client also had a colostomy. Follow up with recommended colonoscopies are essential to monitor for CRC recurrence. Avoiding constipation will help improve intestinal motility which helps to decrease the risk for CRC recurrence. Exercise and other activities do not need to be restricted after the client has healed.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Reposition the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair several times a day. e. Apply a pressure-reducing mattress.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on the reddened areas include frequent repositioning, using a pressure-reducing mattress, and having the client sit in a chair to remove pressure from the hips and sacrum. Correct sitting position would allow the pressure to be on both ischial tuberosities. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with amnesia for the incident b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg and on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in patients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and amnesia for the incident are all either expected or positive findings.

The nurse teaches a client about how to prevent transmission of gastroenteritis. Which statement by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I won't let anyone use my dishes or glasses." b. "I'll wash my hands with antibacterial soap." c. "I'll keep my bathroom extra clean." d. "I'll cook all the meals for my family."

ANS: D All of these statements are correct except for that the client should not prepare meals for others to help prevent transmission of gastroenteritis.

After teaching a patient with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

ANS: D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup [240 mL] of bean soup) would be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

The nurse assesses a client with gastroenteritis. What risk factor would the nurse consider as the most likely cause of this disorder? a. Consuming too much fruit b. Consuming fried or pickled foods c. Consuming dairy products d. Consuming raw seafood

ANS: D Raw seafood is often contaminated and unless cooked can would most likely cause gastroenteritis. Any of the other food can also become contaminated if not stored properly or contaminated by workers/cooks who contaminate these foods.

A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of colorectal cancer. The client states, "My father and my brother had colon cancer. What is the chance that I will get cancer?" How would the nurse respond? a. "If you eat a low-fat and low-fiber diet, your chances decrease significantly." b. "You are safe. This is an autosomal dominant disorder that skips generations." c. "Preemptive surgery and chemotherapy will remove cancer cells and prevent cancer." d. "You should have a colonoscopy more frequently to identify abnormal polyps early."

ANS: D The nurse would encourage the patient to have frequent colonoscopies to identify abnormal polyps and cancerous cells early. The abnormal gene associated with colon cancer is an autosomal dominant gene mutation that does not skip a generation and places the client at high risk for cancer. Changing the client's diet to more high-fiber (not low-fiber) and preemptive chemotherapy may decrease the client's risk of colon cancer but will not prevent it.

A nurse assesses a client with a pelvic fracture. Which assessment finding would the nurse identify as a complication of this injury? a. Hypertension b. Diarrhea c. Infection d. Hematuria

ANS: D The pelvis is very vascular and close to major organs. Injury to the pelvis can cause integral damage that may manifest as blood in the urine (hematuria) or stool. The nurse would also assess for signs of hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock, which include hypotension and tachycardia. Diarrhea and infection are not common complications of a pelvic fracture.

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

A nurse plans care for a client who has an external fixator on the lower leg. Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care to decrease the client's risk for infection? a. Washing the frame of the fixator once a day b. Releasing fixator tension for 30 minutes twice a day c. Avoiding moving the extremity by holding the fixator d. Scheduling for pin care to be provided every shift

ANS: D To decrease the risk for infection in a client with skeletal traction or external fixation, the nurse would provide routine pin care and assess for signs and symptoms of infection at the pin sites every shift.

The nurse is caring for a client with a large bowel obstruction due to fecal impaction. What position would be appropriate for the client while in bed? a. Prone b. Supine c. Recumbent d. Semi-Fowler

ANS: D Having the client in a semi-sitting position helps to decrease the pressure caused by abdominal distention and promotes thoracic expansion to facilitate breathing.

A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who has fractured her arm. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Remove the medical alert bracelet from the fractured arm. b. Immobilize the arm by splinting the fractured site. c. Place the client in a supine position with a warm blanket. d. Cover any open areas with a sterile dressing

ANS: A A client's medical alert bracelet or any other jewelry would be removed from the fractured arm before the affected extremity swells. Immobilization, positioning, and dressing should occur after the bracelet is removed.

A male client was admitted with a left-sided stroke this morning. The assistive personnel asks about meeting the client's nutritional needs. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation." b. "You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger." c. "Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration." d. "Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural."

ANS: A Any client who has or is suspected of having a stroke should have nothing by mouth until he or she is evaluated for any swallowing problem by the speech-language pathologist (SLP). If dysphagia is present, the SLP makes specific recommendations for the client's plan of care which all staff members must follow to prevent choking and aspiration/aspiration pneumonia.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a vertebroplasty, the nurse assesses the patient's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I can drive myself home after the procedure." b. "I will monitor the puncture site for signs of infection." c. "I can start walking tomorrow and increase my activity slowly." d. "I will remove the dressing the day after discharge."

ANS: A Before discharge, a client who has a vertebroplasty would be taught to avoid driving or operating machinery for the first 24 hours. The client should monitor the puncture site for signs of infection. Usual activities can resume slowly, including walking and slowly increasing activity over the next few days. The client should keep the dressing dry and remove it the next day.

A client has a brain tumor and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying that the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is correct? a. "Increased pressure from the tumor can cause seizures." b. "Preventing febrile seizures with a tumor is important." c. "Seizures always occur in clients with brain tumors." d. "This drug is used to sedate with a brain tumor."

ANS: A Brain tumors can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse would explain this to the spouse. Preventing febrile seizures is not related to a tumor. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain tumors. This drug is not used for sedation.

A client who has multiple sclerosis reports increased severe muscle spasticity and tremors. What nursing action is most appropriate to manage this client's concern? a. Request a prescription for an antispasmodic drug such as baclofen. b. Prepare the client for deep brain stimulation surgery. c. Refer the client to a massage therapist to relax the muscles. d. Consult with the occupational therapist for self-care assistance.

ANS: A Clients who have multiple sclerosis often have muscle spasticity which may be reduced by drug therapy, such as baclofen. While massage and assistance with self-care may be helpful, these interventions are not the most effective and therefore not the most appropriate in managing muscle spasticity. If drug therapy and other interventions do not help reduce muscle spasms, some client are candidates for deep brain stimulation as a last resort.

A client who had therapeutic hypothermia after a traumatic brain injury is slowly rewarmed to a normal core temperature. For which assessment finding would the nurse monitor during the rewarming process? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Loss of consciousness c. Nausea and vomiting d. Fever

ANS: A Due to fluid and electrolyte changes that typically occur during the rewarming process, the nurse monitors for cardiac dysrhythmias. The other findings are not common during this process.

A nurse is providing community screening for risk factors associated with stroke. Which person would the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for a stroke? a. A 27-year-old heavy-cocaine user. b. A 30-year-old who drinks a beer a day. c. A 40-year-old who uses seasonal antihistamines. d. A 65-year-old who is active and on no medications.

ANS: A Heavy drug use, particularly cocaine, is a risk factor for stroke. Heavy alcohol use is also a risk factor, but one beer a day is not considered heavy drinking. Antihistamines may contain phenylpropanolamine, which also increases the risk for stroke, but this person uses them seasonally and there is no information that they are abused or used heavily. The 65 year old has only age as a risk factor.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron. Which assessment question would the nurse ask this client before starting the drug? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse would assess the client for constipation because it places the client at risk for this complication. The other questions do not identify the risk for complications related to alosetron.

The nurse is caring for a 60-year-old female client who sustained a thoracic spinal cord injury 10 years ago. For which potential complication will the nurse assess during this client's care? a. Fracture b. Malabsorption c. Delirium d. Anemia

ANS: A Older adults who have impaired mobility due to a health problem or injury are at risk for complications of immobility, such as osteoporosis (bone loss) which leads to fracture. Being an older woman increases that risk due to loss of estrogen to protect bone loss. The other choices are not problems of immobility. Delirium is possible but is more common in clients over 70 years of age.

A client is in the clinic for a follow-up visit after a moderate traumatic brain injury. The patient's spouse is very frustrated, stating that the patient's personality has changed and the situation is very difficult. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Explain that personality changes are common following brain injuries. b. Ask the client why he or she is acting out and behaving differently. c. Refer the client and spouse to a head injury support group. d. Tell the spouse that this is expected and he or she will have to learn to cope.

ANS: A Personality and behavior often change permanently after head injury. The nurse will explain this to the spouse. Asking the client about his or her behavior isn't useful because the patient probably cannot help it. A referral might be a good idea, but the nurse needs to do something in addition to just referring the couple. Telling the spouse to learn to cope belittles his or her concerns and feelings.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open anterior cervical discectomy and fusion. Which complication would alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the primary health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders

ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.

A nurse cares for a client placed in skeletal traction. The client asks, "What is the primary purpose of this type of traction?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Skeletal traction will assist in realigning your fractured bone." b. "This treatment will prevent future complications and back pain." c. "Traction decreases muscle spasms that occur with a fracture." d. "This type of traction minimizes damage as a result of fracture treatment."

ANS: A Skeletal traction pins or screws are surgically inserted into the bone to aid in bone alignment. As a last resort, traction can be used to relieve pain, decrease muscle spasm, and prevent or correct deformity and tissue damage. These are not primary purposes of skeletal traction.

The nurse is teaching a client how to use a cane after a right surgical fractured fibula repair. What health teaching would the nurse include? a. "Place the cane on your left side." b. "Move the cane and your left leg at the same time." c. "Be sure the cane is parallel to your waist." d. "Use the cane only when your right leg is painful."

ANS: A The cane should be placed on the unaffected side (left for this client) and moved forward with the injured leg (right for this client) to provide support. The cane should be parallel to the stylus of the wrist and used at all times when ambulating.

A client is admitted with a sudden decline in level of consciousness. What is the nursing action at this time? a. Assess the client for hypoglycemia and hypoxia. b. Place the client on his or her side. c. Prepare for administration of a fibrinolytic agent. d. Start a continuous IV heparin sodium infusion.

ANS: A The cause of a sudden decline in level of consciousness may or may not be related to a neurologic health problem. Therefore, the client must be evaluated for other common causes, especially hypoglycemia and hypoxia. Placing the client on his or her side may be helpful to prevent aspiration in case the client experiences vomiting, but the clinical situation does not indicate that the client has nausea or vomiting. Administering either an anticoagulant like heparin or a fibrinolytic agent assumes that the client has an acute ischemic stroke, which has not been confirmed through imaging tests.

A nurse assesses an older adult who was admitted 2 days ago with a fractured hip. The nurse notes that the client is confused and restless with an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which action would the nurse take first? a. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Re-position to a semi-Fowler position. c. Increase the intravenous flow rate. d. Assess response to pain medication.

ANS: A The client is at high risk for a fat embolism syndrome and pulmonary embolus. Although these complications are life-threatening emergencies, the nurse would administer oxygen first and then notify the primary health care provider. Oxygen administration can reduce the risk for cerebral damage from hypoxia. Pain medication most likely would not cause the client to be restless.

A client who had a surgical fractured femur repair reports new-onset shortness of breath and increased respirations. What is the nurse's first action? a. Place the client in a high-Fowler position. b. Document the client's oxygen saturation level. c. Start oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. d. Contact the primary health care provider.

ANS: A The client is experiencing respiratory distress which could be due to pulmonary embolus, fat embolism syndrome, or anxiety. Regardless of the cause, the nurse would place the client in a sitting position first and then perform additional assessment. Oxygen would likely be needed, especially if the client's oxygen saturation was under 95%.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of cerebellar stroke. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the client's plan of care? a. Ambulate only with a gait belt. b. Encourage double swallowing. c. Monitor lung sounds after eating. d. Perform postvoid residuals.

ANS: A The client who has a cerebellar stroke would be expected to have ataxia, an abnormal gait. For the client's safety, he or she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.

A nurse cares for a client who states, "My husband is repulsed by my colostomy and refuses to be intimate with me." How would the nurse respond? a. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this." b. "You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance." c. "You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband." d. "If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity."

ANS: A The nurse would collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse would not minimize the client's concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by engaging in sexual activity.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional anterior cervical fusion. Which assessment findings would alert the nursing to a complication from this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Difficulty swallowing b. Hoarse voice c. Constipation d. Bradycardia e. Hypertension

ANS: A, B Complications of the open traditional anterior cervical discectomy and fusion include dysphagia and hoarseness. Constipation, bradycardia, and hypertension are not complications of this procedure.

The nurse would recognize which signs and symptoms as consistent with brainstem tumors? (Select all that apply.) a. Hearing loss b. Facial pain c. Nystagmus d. Vomiting e. Hemiparesis

ANS: A, B, C Hearing loss (CN VIII), facial pain (CN V), and nystagmus (CN III, IV, and VI) all are indicative of a brainstem tumor because these cranial nerves originate in the brainstem. Vomiting and hemiparesis are more indicative of cerebral tumors.

A nurse plans care for a client who is recovering from open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) surgery for a right hip fracture. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevate heels off the bed with a pillow. b. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day. c. Push the client's patient-controlled analgesia button. d. Re-position the client every 2 hours. e. pillows to encourage subluxation of the hip.

ANS: A, B, D Postoperative care for a client who has ORIF of the hip includes elevating the client's heels off the bed and re-positioning every 2 hours to prevent pressure and skin breakdown. It also includes ambulating the client on the first postoperative day, and using pillows or an abduction pillow to prevent subluxation of the hip. The nurse would teach the client to use the patient-controlled analgesia pump, but the nurse would never push the button for the client.

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What does the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age-group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age-group.

ANS: A, C, D Older adults often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data would the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments would be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for developing colorectal cancer? a. A 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily. b. A 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). c. A 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week. d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently.

ANS: D Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Coffee intake, IBS, and a heavy workload do not increase the risk for colon cancer.

A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which statement(s) would the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.) a. "Participate in an exercise program to strengthen back muscles." b. "Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness." c. "Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day." d. "Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight." e. "Avoid prolonged standing or sitting, including driving."

ANS: A, C, E Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. Women should avoid wearing high-heeled shoes because they cause misalignment of the back. Prolonged standing and sitting should also be avoided. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

A nurse assesses cerebrospinal fluid leaking onto a client's surgical dressing. What actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Place the client in a flat position. b. Monitor vital signs for hypotension. c. Utilize a bedside commode. d. Assess for abdominal distension. e. Report the leak to the surgeon.

ANS: A, E If cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is leaking from a surgical wound, the nurse would place the client in a flat position and contact the surgeon for repair of the leak. Hypotension and abdominal distension are not complications of CSF leakage.

The nurse is taking a history on an older adult. Which factors would the nurse assess as potential risks for low back pain? (Select all that apply.) a. Scoliosis b. Spinal stenosis c. Hypocalcemia d. Osteoporosis e. Osteoarthritis

ANS: A,B,C,D,E All of these factors place the client at risk for low back pain due to changes in spinal alignment, loss of bone, or joint degeneration. Bone loss worsens if serum calcium levels are below normal.

A nurse is caring for a group of stroke patients. Which clients would the nurse consider referring to a mental health provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Female client who exhibits extreme emotional lability b. Male client with an initial National Institutes of Health (NIH) Stroke Scale score of 38 c. Female client with mild forgetfulness and a history of depression d. Male client who has a past hospitalization for a suicide attempt e. Male client who is unable to walk or eat 3 weeks post-stroke

ANS: A,B,C,D,E Patients most at risk for poststroke depression are those with a previous history of depression, severe stroke (NIH Stroke Scale score of 38 is severe), and poststroke physical or cognitive impairment.

The nurse is assessing a client who has symptoms of stroke. What are the leading causes of a stroke for which the nurse would assess for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Heavy alcohol intake b. Diabetes mellitus c. Elevated cholesterol d. Obesity e. Smoking f. Hypertension

ANS: A,B,C,D,E,F The leading causes of stroke include all of these factors.

The nurse is preparing for discharge of a client who had a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting to prevent a stroke. For which signs and symptoms with the nurse teach the family to report to the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) a. Muscle weakness b. Hoarseness c. Acute confusion d. Mild neck discomfort e. Severe headache f. Dysphagia

ANS: A,B,C,E,F Muscle weakness, acute confusion, severe headache, and dysphagia are all signs and symptoms that could indicate that a stroke occurred. Hoarseness and severe neck pain and swelling may occur as a result of the interventional radiologic procedure.

A client is receiving IV alteplase and reports a sudden severe headache. What is the nurse's first action? a. Perform a comprehensive pain assessment. b. Discontinue the infusion of the drug. c. Conduct a neurologic assessment. d. Administer an antihypertensive drug.

ANS: B A severe headache may indicate that the client's blood pressure has markedly increased and, therefore, the drug should be stopped immediately as the first action. The nurse would then perform the appropriate assessments and possibly administer an antihypertensive medication.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative paralytic ileus following abdominal surgery. What drug is appropriate to manage this nonmechanical bowel obstruction? a. Alosetron b. Alvimopan c. Amitiptyline d. Amlodipine

ANS: B Alvimopan is the appropriate drug to promote peristalsis for clients who have a paralytic ileus. The

A client is admitted to the emergency department with a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle crash. What the nurse's priority action? a. Keep the client warm and comfortable. b. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. c. Maintain the client in a supine position. d. Immobilize the injured extremity with a splint.

ANS: B As part of the primary survey, the nurse would ensure that the client does not have any life-threatening problem by assessing the ABCs first. If there are not major problems, then the nurse could attend to the injured extremity.

A client who had a fractured ankle open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) 4 weeks ago reports burning pain and tingling in the affected foot. For which potential complication would the nurse anticipate? a.Delayed bone healing b.Complex regional pain syndrome c.Peripheral neuropathy d. Compartment syndrome

ANS: B Burning pain and tingling that occurs weeks or months after a fracture or other trauma may indicate complex regional pain syndrome. Compartment syndrome tends to occur within days of the initial injury.

A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide for chronic low back pain. Which assessment question would the nurse ask? a. "Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug?" b. "Have you been diagnosed with a mental health problem?" c. "Are you able to swallow oral medications?" d. "Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?"

ANS: B Clients who have a severe mental health or behavioral health problem would not take ziconotide because the drug can cause psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.

A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from an open traditional cervical spinal fusion. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's postoperative instructions? a. "Only lift items that are 10 lb (4.5 kg) or less." b. "Wear your neck brace whenever you are out of bed." c. "You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery." d. "You will be prescribed medications to prevent graft rejection."

ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a neck brace that they must wear throughout the healing process whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything more than 10 lb (4.5 kg). The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.

A nurse plans care for a client who is recovering from a below-the-knee amputation of the left leg. Which intervention would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Place pillows between the client's knees. b. Encourage range-of-motion exercises. c. Administer prophylactic antibiotics. d. Implement strict bedrest in a supine position.

ANS: B Clients with a below-the-knee amputation should complete range-of-motion exercises to prevent flexion contractions and prepare for a prosthesis. A pillow may be used under the limb as support. Clients recovering from this type of amputation are at low risk for infection and should not be prescribed prophylactic antibiotics. The client should be encouraged to re-position, move, and exercise frequently, and therefore should not be restricted to bedrest.

A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod. For which common side effect would the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Facial flushing c. Tachycardia d. Fever

ANS: B Fingolimod is an oral immunomodulator that has two common side effects—facial flushing and GI disturbance, such as diarrhea. Peripheral edema, tachycardia, and fever are not common side effects of this drug.

After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching? a. Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, carbonated beverage b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk

ANS: B Patients with IBS are advised to eat a high-fiber diet. Chicken with brown rice, broccoli, and apple juice has the highest fiber content. Clients should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

A client is scheduled for a percutaneous endoscopic lumbar discectomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have a lot less pain after surgery." b. "I'll be in the hospital for 2 to 3 days." c. "I should not have any major surgical complications." d. "I could possibly get an infection after surgery."

ANS: B Percutaneous endoscopic discectomy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that requires a shorter hospital stay (23 hours or less) when compared to open traditional surgery. The risk for surgical complications is very low and clients experience less far pain from this procedure. However, due to interrupting skin integrity, infection may occur at the surgical site.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care for a male client diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and left-sided weakness. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. I will use "yes" and "no" questions when communicating with the client." b. "I will remind the client frequently to not get out of bed without help." c. "I will offer a urinal every hour to the client due to incontinence." d. "I will feed the client slowly using soft or pureed foods."

ANS: B The client who has left-sided weakness has likely had a right-sided stroke in the brain. Clients who have strokes on the right side of the brain tend to be very impulsive and exhibit poor judgment. Therefore, to keep the client safe, the staff will need to remind the client to stay in bed unless he has assistance to prevent falling. There is no evidence in the clinical situation that the client has aphasia (which is less common in those with right-sided strokes), difficulty swallowing, or urinary incontinence.

A nurse cares for a client with a recently fractured tibia. Which assessment would alert the nurse to take immediate action? a. Pain of 4 on a scale of 0-10 b. Numbness in the extremity c. Swollen extremity at the injury site d. Feeling cold while lying in bed

ANS: B The client with numbness and/or tingling of the extremity may be displaying the first signs of acute compartment syndrome. This is an acute problem that requires immediate intervention because of possible decreased circulation. Moderate pain and swelling is an expected assessment after a fracture. These findings can be treated with comfort measures. Being cold can be treated with additional blankets or by increasing the temperature of the room.

A client who had a traumatic above-the-knee amputation states that he fears he will never have an intimate relationship again. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You'll be able to get a leg prosthesis soon." b. "You think you won't be able to have sex again?" c. "I will ask the social worker to talk with you." d. "Are you married now or have a girl friend?"

ANS: B The nurse's response needs to allow further exploration of the client's feelings. Referring the client to another health professional might be appropriate at a later time but discounts the client's current feelings. Asking about marriage or a girlfriend assumes that the client is heterosexual.

After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes, acute confusion, and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's urinary output. b. Assess the client's serum sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse would assess the client's serum sodium level first and then possibly increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt numbness in his left leg. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug would the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Alteplase b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol

ANS: B This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would likely be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition.

A nurse is caring for several clients with fractures. Which client would the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for developing deep vein thrombosis? a. An 18-year-old male athlete with a fractured clavicle b. A 36-year-old female with type 2 diabetes and fractured ribs c. A 55-year-old female prescribed ibuprofen for osteoarthritis d. A 74-year-old male who smokes and has a fractured pelvis

ANS: D Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as a complication with bone fractures occurs more often when fractures are sustained in the lower extremities and the client has additional risk factors for thrombus formation. Other risk factors include obesity, smoking, oral contraceptives, previous thrombus events, advanced age, venous stasis, and heart disease. The other clients do not have additional risk factors for DVT.

A nurse is discharging a client from the emergency department who has a mild traumatic brain injury. What information obtained from the client represents a possible barrier to self-management? (Select all that apply.) a. Does not want to purchase a thermometer. b. Is allergic to acetaminophen. c. Laughing, says "Strenuous? What's that?" d. Lives alone and is new in town with no friends. e. Plans to have a beer and go to bed once home.

ANS: B, D, E Clients who have mild traumatic brain injuries should take acetaminophen for headache. An allergy to this drug may mean that the patient takes aspirin or ibuprofen, which should be avoided. The patient needs neurologic checks every 1 to 2 hours, and this client does not seem to have anyone available who can do that. Alcohol needs to be avoided for at least 24 hours. A thermometer is not needed. The patient laughing at strenuous activity probably does not engage in any kind of strenuous activity, but the nurse should confirm this.

A client is admitted with a confirmed left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Apraxia e. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia f. Ptosis

ANS: B,C,D,E,F All of these assessment findings are common in clients who have a stroke caused by an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery with the exception of ataxia (most often present in clients who have cerebellar strokes). This artery supplies the majority of the left side of the brain where motor, sensory, speech, and language centers are located.

A client is admitted with a traumatic brain injury. What is the nurse's priority assessment? a. Complete neurologic assessment b. Comprehensive pain assessment c. Airway and breathing assessment d. Functional assessment

ANS: C Although the client has a brain injury, the most important assessment is to assess the client's ABCs, which includes airway, breathing, and circulation. The other assessments are performed later after the client is stabilized.

A client with multiple sclerosis is being discharged from rehabilitation. Which statement would the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching? a. "Be sure that you use a wheelchair when you go out in public." b. "Wear an undergarment brief at all times in case of incontinence." c. "Avoid overexertion, stress, and extreme temperature if possible." d. "Avoid having sexual intercourse to conserve energy."

ANS: C Clients who have multiple sclerosis have chronic fatigue and are prone to disease exacerbation (flare-up) is they overexert, are stressed, or are exposed to extreme temperature and humidity. They should not wear briefs unless they have actual problems with continence and should not use a wheelchair if they are able to ambulate with a cane or walker. Maintaining independence and self-esteem is important, so participating in sexual activities is encouraged.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about taking glatiramer acetate. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will rotate injection sites to prevent skin irritation." b. "I need to avoid large crowds and people with infection." c. "I should report any flulike symptoms to my primary health care provider." d. "I will report any signs of infection to my primary health care provider."

ANS: C Glatiramer is given by subcutaneous injection. The first dose is administered under medical supervision, but the nurse teaches the client how to self-administer the medication after the initial dose, reminding the client about the need to rotate injection sites. Like other immunomodulators, this drug can make the client susceptible to infection. However, flulike symptoms occur more commonly with interferons rather than glatiramer.

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech- language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that the expected outcome for this problem has been met? a. Chooses preferred items from the menu. b. Eats 75 to 100% of all meals and snacks. c. Has clear lung sounds on auscultation. d. Gains 2 lb (1 kg) after 1 week.

ANS: C Impaired swallowing can lead to aspiration and then aspiration pneumonia, so the expected outcome for this problem is to experience no aspiration. Clear lung sounds is the best indicator that aspiration has not occurred. Choosing menu items is not related to this problem. Eating meals does not indicate that the client is not still aspirating. A weight gain indicates improved nutrition but still does not show a lack of aspiration.

A client who is experiencing a traumatic brain injury has increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). What drug will the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Phenytoin b. Lorazepam c. Mannitol d. Morphine

ANS: C Increased intracranial pressure is often the result of cerebral edema as a result of traumatic brain injury. Therefore, as osmotic diuretic such as mannitol or a loop diuretic like furosemide is administered. The other drugs are not appropriate to manage increasing ICP.

A nurse cares for a client with colorectal cancer who has a new colostomy. The client states, "I think it would be helpful to talk with someone who has had a similar experience." How would the nurse respond? a. "I have a good friend with a colostomy who would be willing to talk with you." b. "The ostomy nurse will be able to answer all of your questions." c. "I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America." d. "You'll find that most people with colostomies don't want to talk about them."

ANS: C Nurses need to become familiar with community-based resources to better assist clients. The local chapter of the United Ostomy Associations of America has resources for clients and their families, including ostomates (specially trained visitors who also have ostomies). The nurse would not suggest that the client speak with a personal contact of the nurse. Although the ostomy nurse is an expert in ostomy care, talking with him or her is not the same as talking with someone who actually has had a colostomy. The nurse would not brush aside the client's request by saying that most people with colostomies do not want to talk about them. Many people are willing to share their ostomy experience in the hope of helping others.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I don't understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How would the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let your primary health care provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many patients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

A nurse is caring for an older client who is recovering from a leg amputation surgery. The client states, "I don't want to live with only one leg. I should have died during the surgery." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Your vital signs are good, and you are doing just fine right now." b. "Your children are waiting outside. Do you want them to grow up without a father?" c. "This is a big change for you. What support system do you have to help you cope?" d. "You will be able to do some of the same things as before you became disabled."

ANS: C The client feels like less of a person following the amputation. The nurse would help the client to identify coping mechanisms that have worked in the past and current support systems to assist with coping. The nurse would not ignore the client's feelings by focusing on vital signs. The nurse would not try to make the client feel guilty by alluding to family members. The nurse would not refer to the patient as being "disabled" as this labels the client and may fuel poor body image.

A nurse is caring for a client recovering from an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. The client reports pain in the right foot. Which prescribed medication would the nurse most likely administer? a. Intravenous morphine b. Oral acetaminophen c. Intravenous calcitonin d. Oral ibuprofen

ANS: C The client is experiencing phantom limb pain, which usually manifests as intense burning, crushing, or cramping. IV infusions of calcitonin during the week after amputation can reduce phantom limb pain. Opioid analgesics such as morphine are not as effective for phantom limb pain as they are for residual limb pain. Oral acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not used in treating phantom limb pain.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. After raising the head of the bed, what action would the nurse take next? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Recheck the client's blood pressure. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury such as s stroke. The other actions are not appropriate for this complication.

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department after experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Before discharge, which factor would the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for a stroke? a. Age greater than or equal to 75 b. Blood pressure greater than or equal to 160/95 c. Unilateral weakness during a TIA d. TIA symptoms lasting less than a minute

ANS: C The client who has a TIA is at risk for a stroke is he or she has one-sided (unilateral) weakness during a TIA. Risk factors also include an age greater than or equal to 60, blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 (either or both systolic and diastolic), and/or a long duration of TIA symptoms. One minute is not a very long time for symptoms to occur.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a complete small bowel obstruction. For what priority problem is this client most likely at risk? a. Abdominal distention b. Nausea c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Obstipation

ANS: C The client who has a small bowel obstruction is at the highest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, especially dehydration and hypokalemia due to profuse vomiting. Nausea, abdominal distention, and obstipation are also usually present, but these problems are not as life threatening as the imbalances in electrolytes.

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interprofessional health team member would the nurse collaborate to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the patient in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with other issues.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a closed reduction of the left arm and notes a large wet area of drainage on the cast. What action is the most important? a. Cut off the old cast. b. Document the assessment. c. Notify the primary health care provider. d. Wrap the cast with gauze.

ANS: C The primary health care provider should be notified to examine the client and determine the source of the drainage. The nurse's assessment should be documented, but that is not the most important action.

The nurse is collaborating with the occupational therapist to assist a client with a complete cervical spinal cord injury to transfer from the bed to the wheelchair. What ambulatory aid would be most appropriate for the client to meet this outcome? a. Rolling walker b. Quad cane c. Adjustable crutches d. Sliding board

ANS: D A client who has a complete cervical spinal cord injury is unable to use any extremity except for parts of the hands and possibly the lower arms. Therefore, the client would be unable to use any of these ambulatory aids except for a sliding board, also known as a slider, which provides a "bridge" between the bed and a chair. The client uses his or her arms in a locked position to support the body while moving slowly across the board.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who have a regional nerve blockade for a surgical tibial fracture repair this morning. What assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Client reports nausea and vomiting. b. Client reports tingling in the surgical leg. c. Client responds well to imagery. d. Client reports little to no pain.

ANS: D A regional nerve blockade can last for about 24 hours so the client has little to no pain until it wears off. The blockade is localized and therefore does not cause nausea or vomiting.

The nurse is preparing to administer IV alteplase for a client diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. Which statement is correct about the administration of this drug? a. The recommended time for drug administration is within 90 minutes after admission to the emergency department. b. The drug is given in a bolus over the first 3 minutes followed by a continuous infusion. c. The maximum dosage of the drug, including the bolus, is 120 mg intravenously. d. The drug is not given to clients who are already on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy.

ANS: D Alteplase is a thrombolytic which dissolves clots and can cause bleeding as an adverse effect. Clients who are already taking an anticoagulant or antiplatelet agent are at risk for bleeding and therefore they are not candidates for alteplase therapy.

A nurse receives a hand-off report on a female client who had a left-sided stroke with homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder and bowel retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking for diminished breath sounds. c. Support the client's left side when sitting in a chair or in bed. d. Remind the client to move her head from side to side to increase her visual field.

ANS: D Homonymous hemianopsia is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control.

A nurse cares for a client who had a wrist cast applied 3 days ago. The client states, "The cast is loose enough to slide off." How would the nurse respond? a. "Keep your arm above the level of your heart." b. "As your muscles atrophy, the cast is expected to loosen." c. "I will wrap a bandage around the cast to prevent it from slipping." d. "You need a new cast now that the swelling is decreased."

ANS: D Often the surrounding soft tissues may be swollen considerably when the cast is initially applied. After the swelling has resolved, if the cast is loose enough to permit two or more fingers between the cast and the client's skin, the cast needs to be replaced. Elevating the arm will not solve the problem, and the client's muscles should not atrophy while in a cast for 6 weeks or less. An elastic bandage will not prevent slippage of the cast.

A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for low back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant. b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques. c. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker. d. A 65-year-old female with osteoarthritis.

ANS: D Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the client's risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk.

A client with a severe traumatic brain injury has an organ donor card in his wallet. Which nursing action is appropriate? a. Request a directive form the client's primary health care provider. b. Ask the family if they agree to organ donation for the client. c. Wait until brain death is determined before acting on organ donation. d. Contact the local organ procurement organization as soon as possible.

ANS: D The appropriate nursing action is to respect the client's desire to be an organ donor and contact the local organ procurement organization even if family members do not agree. In most agencies, the primary health care provider does not have to write an order or directive to approve the organ donation. Family consent is not required.

After teaching a client with a fractured humerus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary choice demonstrates that the client correctly understands the nutrition needed to assist in healing the fracture? a. Baked fish with orange juice and a vitamin D supplement b. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich with a vitamin B supplement c. Vegetable lasagna with a green salad and a vitamin A supplement d. Roast beef with low-fat milk and a vitamin C supplement

ANS: D The client with a healing fracture needs supplements of vitamins B and C and a high-protein, high-calorie diet. Milk for calcium supplementation and vitamin C supplementation is appropriate. Meat would increase protein in the diet that is necessary for bone healing. Fish, a sandwich, and vegetable lasagna would provide less protein.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a hemorrhagic stroke. Which assessment finding is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) for this client? a. Projectile vomiting b. Dilated and nonreactive pupils c. Severe hypertension d. Decreased level of consciousness

ANS: D The earliest sign of increasing ICP is decreased level of consciousness. The other signs occur later.

The nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise due to interference with diaphragmatic innervation. The other actions would be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.

An older client who fell at home is admitted to the emergency department and reports pain in her left groin and behind her left knee. What action would the nurse anticipate? a. Administer IV push morphine. b. Prepare for application of a leg cast. c. Begin oxygen at 6 L/min via mask. d. Obtain a left hip x-ray.

ANS: D The location of the client's pain indicates a possible fractured hip and therefore an x-ray of the hip is needed. A leg cast is not appropriate and oxygen may not be needed. Medication to make the client more comfortable would likely be needed after a diagnosis is determined.

The nurse is taking a history from a daughter about her father's onset of stroke signs and symptoms. Which statement by the daughter indicates that the client likely had an embolic stroke? a. Client's symptoms occurred slowly over several hours. b. Client because increasingly lethargic and drowsy. c. Client reported severe headache before other symptoms. d. Client has a long history of atrial fibrillation.

ANS: D The major cause of embolic strokes is a history of heart disease, especially atrial fibrillation. Most clients who have an embolic stroke have acute sudden neurologic symptoms but stay alert rather than lethargic. Decreasing level of consciousness and severe headache are more common in clients who have hemorrhagic strokes.

he nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment for an older client who has an extremity fracture. How many seconds would the nurse expect for a capillary refill in it is within normal range? a. 20 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 5 seconds

ANS: D The normal capillary refill is usually 3 seconds, but for older adults, the refill usually takes up to 5 seconds due to vascular changes associated with aging.

A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from an above-the-knee amputation and reports pain in the limb that was removed. How would the nurse respond? a. "The pain you are feeling does not actually exist." b. "This type of pain is common and will eventually go away." c. "Would you like to learn how to use imagery to minimize your pain?" d. "How would you describe the pain that you are feeling?"

ANS: D The nurse would ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 0-10 and describe how the pain feels. Although phantom limb pain is common, the nurse would not minimize the pain that the client is experiencing by stating that it does not exist or will eventually go away. Although imagery may help, the nurse must assess the client's pain before determining the best action.

A nurse teaches assistive personnel (AP) about providing hygiene for a client in traction. Which statement would the nurse include as part of the teaching about this client's care? a. "Remove the traction when re-positioning the client." b. "Assess the client's skin when performing a bed bath." c. "Provide pin care by using alcohol wipes to clean the sites." d. "Ensure that the weights remain freely hanging at all times."

ANS: D Traction weights should be freely hanging at all times. They should not be lifted manually or allowed to rest on the floor. The client should remain in traction during hygiene activities. The nurse would assess the client's skin and provide pin and wound care for a patient who is in traction; this would not be delegated to the AP.

A client continues to have persistent low back pain even after using a number of nonpharmacologic pain management strategies. Which prescribed drug would the nurse anticipate that the client might need to manage the pain? a. Oxycontin b. Gabapentin c. Lorazepam d. Tramadol

ANS: D When non-pharmacologic strategies, including physical therapy, are not effective in managing pain, current standards recommend a mild opioid such as tramadol or serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Strong opioids such as oxycontin and benzodiazepines such as lorazepam are not considered best practice.