exam 3 s&c

All of the following are physiological differences between elite long-distance cyclists and elite Olympic weight lifters EXCEPT: A. age-predicted HR max B. estimated VO² max C. cross-sectional area of the triceps brachii muscle D. proportion of Type I to Type II muscle fibers

A. age-predicted HR max

In a turn-and-run maneuver when transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint in the same direction, which of the following body parts initiates the movement? A. head B. shoulders C. hips D. feet

A. head

1. The intensity level of plyometric exercises can be increased by making all of the following changes EXCEPT: A. perform a double-arm swing between each hop B. perform the exercise with a single leg vs. double leg C. increase the speed of the movement D. increase the height of the cones people go over

A. perform a double-arm swing between each hop

Improving speed-endurance can BEST be accomplished by which of the following? A. performing interval sprints B. performing longer duration aerobic endurance training C. increasing the number of ballistic stretches following the workout D. increasing the intensity of the aerobic endurance workouts

A. performing interval sprints

When the athlete lands during squat jump, which of the following describes his proper body position? A. shoulders over the knees B. shoulders over the hips C. hips over the ankles D. hips over the knees

A. shoulders over the knees

Dynamically pre-stretching a muscle is associated with which type of subsequent muscle action? A. eccentric B. concentric C. isometric D. kinesthetic

B. concentric

When running, which of the following contributes the most to minimizing the braking effect of a heel foot strike? A. eccentric hip extension B. concentric hip extension C. eccentric hip adduction D. concentric hip adduction

B. concentric hip extension

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate type of surface for performing high-intensity lower-body plyometric drills? A. artificial turf B. grass field C. mini trampoline D. outdoor basketball court

B. grass field

How is the exercise technique needed for jogging modified when performing a warm-up drill for plyometrics? A. greatly increasing hip and knee flexion B. not allowing the heels to touch the ground C. extending the knees to touch heels to the buttocks D. limiting multidirectional changes

B. not allowing the heels to touch the ground

1. To improve lower body muscular power, which of the following exercises can be added to a traditional resistance training program? A. sit an reach B. squat jump C. hexagon drill D. stair climbing

B. squat jump

To improve lower body muscular power, which of the following exercises can be added to a traditional resistance training program? A. sit an reach B. squat jump C. hexagon drill D. stair climbing

B. squat jump

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to give to a sprinter who runs with too upright during acceleration? A. use a longer push-off with each stride B. raise the hips upward more than forward C. keep the torso in a more erect position D. focus eyes down to keep the head in line with the torso

D. focus eyes down to keep the head in line with the torso

As the rear leg swings forward for the next stride in sprinting, which of the following muscle groups (of that same leg) eccentrically controls forward momentum? A. quadriceps B. gastrocnemius C. iliopsoas D. hamstrings

D. hamstrings

1. Which of the following components of sprinting technique will be improved by an athlete performing a squat jump? A. an overspeed effect B. stride frequency C. an assisted speed effect D. stride length

D. stride length

Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%

a. 5%

An application of the principle of overload for an aerobic endurance athlete would be to have the athlete train: a. Above lactate threshold b. Below performance pace c. For a reduced duration d. While targeting aerobic pathways

a. Above lactate threshold

When running, which of the following contributes the most to absorbing landing shock? a. Eccentric plantar flexion b. Concentric knee extension c. Eccentric knee flexion d. Concentric plantar flexion

a. Eccentric plantar flexion

Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70% VO2max) combined with short, fast bursts of running (85-90% VO2max) for short time periods? a. Fartlek b. high-intensity interval c. aerobic-anaerobic interval d. pace/tempo

a. Fartlek

A runner is using a repetition training to improve her final kick in a 10 km (6.2 mile) race. Which of the following describes this type of training? I. Frequency: 1x/week II. Work/rest ratio: 1:1 III. Intensity: greater than VO2 max IV. Work bout duration: 3-5 minutes a. I and III only b. II and III only c. I, II, and IV only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

What type of drill used to warm up for a plyometric training session emphasizes posture and movement technique? a. Marching b. Jogging c. Skipping d. Footwork

a. Marching

Which of the following describes an athlete's maximum lactate steady state? a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance. b. Blood lactate concentration is greater than resting lactate levels. c. Maximal lactate production is greater than maximal lactate clearance. d. Blood lactate concentration is lower than resting lactate levels.

a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance.

Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold? a. Pace/tempo training b. Interval training c. Repetition traing d. Fartlek training

a. Pace/tempo training

Which of the following types of training programs involve exercise intensities GREATER than VO2 max? a. Repetition b. Interval c. Fartlek d. Pace/tempo

a. Repetition

Which of the following techniques should be emphasized when starting a sprint from starting blocks? a. Swing the arms through a large range of motion b. Immediately attain an upright position c. Minimize the initial knee lift d. Push-off with the front leg only

a. Swing the arms through a large range of motion

Which of the following is a method to increase the intensity of the plyometric lateral barrier hop drill? a. Use only one leg. b. Rest after each bound. c. Pause between jumps over the barrier. d. Change the barrier from a hurdle to a cone.

a. Use only one leg.

All of the following resistance training exercise develop the hip extensor of a sprinter EXCEPT: a. dorsiflexion pull b. step up and over c. overhead squat d. push press

a. dorsiflexion pull

When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete's change-of-direction and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered EXCEPT: a. duration of the test b. perceptual-cognitive ability c. ground contact times during the plant phase d. ground reaction forces during the plant phase

a. duration of the test

Which of the following is the best recommendation for combining plyometric training with resistance training in a single workout session? a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics b. low-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics c. high-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body plyometrics d. low-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body plyometrics

a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics

All of the following contribute to optimal stride length and frequency EXCEPT: a. minimal horizontal braking force b. maximal forward velocity of the leg and foot at ground contact c. brief support phase d. minimal vertical impulse

a. minimal horizontal braking force

Which of the following is a primary component of the series elastic component (SEC)? a. tendon b. muscle fiber c. actin d. ligament

a. tendon

Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training? a. 12 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks c. 2 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks d. 2 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks

b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks

Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)? a. 16 inches (41 cm) b. 18 inches (46 cm) c. 32 inches (81 cm) d. 42 inches (107 cm)

b. 18 inches (46 cm)

When performing the plyometric depth push-up, the athlete should begin with the hands on the a. Ground with the elbows extended. b. Ball with the elbows extended. c. Ground with the elbows flexed. d. Ball with the elbows flexed.

b. Ball with the elbows extended.

After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when developing a program for agility development? a. Plan the development of a primary area of need and a secondary area of need. b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards. c. Distribute the time available for agility development based on need identification. d. Provide a preliminary plan for transition of percent distribution through the training blocks.

b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards.

Which of the following energy pathways does the body primarily use when performing sprint intervals of 30-45 seconds with a work:rest ratio of 1:3? a. Phosphagen b. Fast glycolysis c. Slow glycolysis d. oxidative

b. Fast glycolysis

Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity? a. Oxygen consumption b. Heart rate c. Ratings of perceived exertion d. Race pace

b. Heart rate

When instructing an athlete to jump forward over a cone or mini hurdle, which of the following technique guidelines should be recommended? a. Avoid arm movement. b. Minimize lateral foot placement. c. Maximize leg countermovement depth. d. Do not keep the feet together.

b. Minimize lateral foot placement.

Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait? a. The foot should land in front of the hips to avoid "braking." b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body. c. The weight should transfer from the inside of the heel and continue to shift. d. The shoulders should be rounded.

b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body.

Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to work on eccentric strength? a. unilateral lifts b. deceleration drills c. leaning drills d. Olympic lifts

b. deceleration drills

Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's prematurely having an upright posture when starting a sprint? a. deficient force production b. inadequate push-off force c. insufficient mobility d. misunderstanding of force application

b. inadequate push-off force

Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability? a. decreased hip extension velocity b. lower center of mass height c. reduced braking impulse d. lessened lateral trunk tilt

b. lower center of mass height

Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump height than a countermovement jump? a. greater stored elastic energy b. lower potentiation c. more rapid eccentric element d. reduced range of motion

b. lower potentiation

Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent from the nervous system to the target muscles? a. elastic energy b. neural drive c. eccentric-concentric coupling d. stretch-shortening cycle

b. neural drive

The ability to maintain maximal velocity for greater than 2 s is referred to as which of the following types of endurance? a. special b. speed c. strength d. cardiovascular

b. speed

The loss of physiological adaptations upon cessation of training is an example of: a. Specificity training b. Cross-training c. Detraining d. Tapering

c. Detraining

During ground support, which of the following muscles contribute to movement via the recovery of stored elastic energy? I. gastrocnemius II. hamstrings III. quadriceps femoris IV. anterior tibialis a. I, II, and III only b. II. III, and IV only c. I and III only d. II, and IV only

c. I and III only

Which of the following should be assessed prior to beginning a lower-body plyometric training program? I. balance II. strength III. speed IV. lean body mass a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. I, II, IIII, and IV

c. I, II, and III only

Which of the following plyometric exercises is an appropriate progression from the squat jump? a. Tuck jump b. Single-leg hop c. Jump over barrier d. Lateral push-off

c. Jump over barrier

Which of the following is the best example of proper exercise progression of lower body plyometric drills (low intensity to high intensity)? a. Depth jump, double leg tuck jump, pike jump, double leg hop b. Standing long jump, single leg vertical jump, double leg hop, squat jump c. Squat jump, double leg tuck jump, alternate leg bound, single leg hop d. Squat jump, single leg hop, zigzag hop, double leg bound

c. Squat jump, double leg tuck jump, alternate leg bound, single leg hop

Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete? a. 505 test b. pro agility test c. T-test d. L-run

c. T-test

The jump and reach plyometric drill is similar to the tuck jump because BOTH drills a. Emphasize maximum horizontal displacement. b. Are classified as "high" intensity. c. Begin with a countermovement. d. Should not involve double-arm action.

c. begin with a countermovement.

Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle? a. amortization, concentric, eccentric b. concentric, eccentric, amortization c. eccentric, amortization, concentric

c. eccentric, amortization, concentric

For a sprint athlete, which of the following exercises is best used to help develop the stretch-shortening cycle? a. Squat b. overhead press c. hang snatch d. walking lunge

c. hang snatch

All of the following are benefits from resistance training for a highly trained aerobic endurance athlete EXCEPT: a. enhancement in short-term exercise performance b. prevention of overuse injuries c. improvement in VO2 Max d. reduction of muscle imbalances

c. improvement in VO2 Max

When performing plyometric jumps in place, the athlete should focus on: a. Gastrocnemius activity b. Knee flexion c. Jump height d. The transition between eccentric and concentric muscle actions

c. jump height

Which of the following structures depicts rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Pacinian corpuscle c. muscle spindle d. extrafusal muscle fiber

c. muscle spindle

All of the following are phases of the stretch shortening cycle EXCEPT: a. concentric b. amortization c. stabilization d. eccentric

c. stabilization

To promote optimal sprint start speed, the knee of the rear leg of a sprinter in the starting bloods should be at which of the following angles? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 120 degrees

d. 120 degrees

What work to rest ratio is most appropriate between sets of plyometric drills? a. 1:2 b. 1:4 c. 1:3 d. 1:5

d. 1:5

Which of the following drills is generally considered most intense? a. Box jumps b. Jumps in place c. Bounds d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

Which of the following characterize optimal leg recovery patterns? I. foot contact slightly behind the center of gravity during support II. foot moving rapidly backward at ground strike III. minimal knee flexion IV. high knee lift a. I, II, and III only b. II. III, and IV only c. I and III only d. II, and IV only

d. II, and IV only

Which of the following progressions is recommended for Week #5 of an off-season aerobic conditioning program for a deconditioned American football lineman who is currently walking on the treadmill for 18 minutes per day, 3 days per week, and 70% of his age-predicted maximal heart rate? a. Change mode of exercise to cycle ergometry b. Increase frequency to 6 days per week c. Increase intensity to 80% of age-predicted max heart rate d. Increase duration to 20 minutes

d. Increase duration to 20 minutes

The highest duration of training should be performed during which of the following sport seasons? a. Postseason b. Preseason c. In-season d. Off-season

d. Off-season

Sally spent her Spring break training in the heat in Florida. She pushed herself more than usual and refused to take off any days. On three days she doubled her workout by running her program the morning and again in the evening. When she returned from break, she found that her resting heart rate was higher than normal. This increase in heart rate was likely due to this: a. Detraining b. Maintenance c. Overload d. Overtraining syndrome

d. Overtraining syndrome

Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed? a. Acceleration b. Maximal velocity c. Capacity to produce force d. Perceptual cognitive ability

d. Perceptual cognitive ability

Toni wants to increase the speed at the end of her endurance running performance. The best training method for achieving his goal is: a. Fartlek b. Interval c. Pace/tempo d. Repetition

d. Repetition

Which of the following components of sprinting technique will be improved by an athlete performing jumping over a cone? a. An overspeed effect b. Speed-frequency c. An assisted speed effect d. Speed-strength

d. Speed-strength

When training to develop agility, which of the following should be done first? a. Establish a base of aerobic fitness b. Begin a plyometric program c. Perform Olympic lifts d. Teach proper exercise technique

d. Teach proper exercise technique

What type of lower body plyometric drill requires a higher horizontal speed than the other types of drills? a. jump in place b. standing jump c. multiple hops d. bounding

d. bounding

Which of the following is the cause of an athlete's overstriding when sprinting at maximum velocity? a. deficient force production b. inadequate push-off force c. insufficient mobility d. misunderstanding of force application

d. misunderstanding of force application