Exam 4 Ch 12,13,16,17
Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) IV D) V
A) I
Which sample is consistent with a cell that is in telophase I? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II
A) I
Cell A has half as much DNA as cells B, C, and D in a mitotically active tissue. Cell A is most likely in ________. A) G1 B) G2 C) prophase D) metaphasev
A) G1
Which of the following events happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. B) The chromosome number per cell remains the same. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed.
A) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.
Amount of DNA per nucleus over the cell division cycle. G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cell division cycle in the accompanying figure? A) I and V B) II C) III D) IV
A) I and V
Which chromosomal configuration would be observed at prometaphase of mitosis? A) II B) III C) IV D) V
A) II
A cell has completed meiosis I and the first cytokinesis, and is just beginning meiosis II. Which of the following statements describes its genetic contents? A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis. B) It has twice the DNA of the cell that began meiosis. C) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the cell that began meiosis. D) It is genetically identical to the other cells produced by this cytokinesis.
A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
Amount of DNA per nucleus over the cell division cycle. A) Line 2 contains more DNA than line 1. B) Lines 1 and 2 contain the same amount of DNA. C) Line 1 cells reproduce by binary fission and line 2 cells reproduce by mitosis and cytokinesis. D) Line 2 has plant cells and line 1 has animal cells
A) Line 2 contains more DNA than line 1.
Which of the following statements describes a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism? A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I. B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis II. C) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I. D) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information
A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I.
Two different species of protists living in a tide pool. Species A reproduces both sexually and asexually, and Species B reproduce only asexually. The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses. Which species are more likely to survive in the changing environment? A) Species A only B) Species B only C) Both species are equally likely to survive. D) Neither species will be able to survive.
A) Species A only
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is ________. A) a sperm B) an egg C) a zygote D) a somatic cell of a male
A) a sperm
ghghghgWhich of the following characteristics are part of the sexual life cycle of most fungi but are not part of the sexual life cycles of plants or animals? A) a unicellular haploid stage B) fertilization C) gametes D) a zygote stage
A) a unicellular haploid stage
Which of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of metaphase? A) alignment of chromosomes on the equator of the cell B) separation of the centromeres C) cytokinesis D) separation of sister chromatids
A) alignment of chromosomes on the equator of the cell
Which of the following processes will most likely produce a human zygote with 45 chromosomes? A) an error during anaphase II while the sperm was produced B) failure of the egg nucleus to fuse with the sperm nucleus C) failure of an egg to complete meiosis II D) incomplete cytokinesis after meiosis I in sperm production
A) an error during anaphase II while the sperm was produced
In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in ________. A) cells with more than one nucleus B) cells that are unusually small C) cells lacking nuclei D) cell cycles lacking an S phase
A) cells with more than one nucleus
Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________. A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation B) suppression of cyclin production C) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation D) inhibition of DNA synthesis
A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation
During which of the following processes does independent assortment of chromosomes occur? A) in meiosis I only B) in meiosis II only C) in mitosis and meiosis I D) in mitosis and meiosis II
A) in meiosis I only
Which of the following cellular events occur in the G1 phase of the cell division cycle? A) normal growth and cell function B) DNA replication C) the beginning of mitosis D) break down of the nuclear membrane
A) normal growth and cell function
Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that ________. A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase B) DNA replicates before the division C) the daughter cells are diploid D) homologous chromosomes synapse
A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase
FtsZ is a bacterial protein that forms a contractile ring involved in binary fission. Its function is analogous to which of the following structures in eukaryotic cells? A) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells B) the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells C) the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells D) the microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells
A) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells
Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of which of the following processes? A) the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I B) the random combinations of eggs and sperm during fertilization C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II D) the diverse combination of alleles that may be found within any given chromosome
A) the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I
In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many centromeres will be found in a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32
B) 8
If there are 24 centromeres in a cell at anaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 6 B) 12 C) 24 D) 48
B) 12
If a cell at metaphase of mitosis contains 32 sister chromatids, how many chromosomes will be present in a G1 cell? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64
B) 16
The figure represents the nucleus of an animal cell about to enter mitosis. How many different chromosomes are present in the diagram? A) 1 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
B) 4
DNA strands are antiparallel. Which of the following statements defines "antiparallel"? A) The double helix structure of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) A 5' to 3' DNA strand is paired with the 3' to 5' DNA strand. C) Hydrogen bonds between base pairs cause DNA strands to cross. D) One DNA strand contains bases that complement the bases in the opposite strand.
B) A 5' to 3' DNA strand is paired with the 3' to 5' DNA strand.
In bacteria, which of the following proteins is responsible for removing nucleotides from the RNA primer that is used for initiation DNA synthesis? A) Primase B) DNA pol I C) DNA pol III D) DNA ligase
B) DNA pol I
Which of the following statements describes one characteristic of each chromosome in a cell during the entire process of meiosis I? A) Each chromosome is paired with a homologous chromosome. B) Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere. C) Each chromosome consists of a single strand of DNA. D) Each chromosome is joined with its homologous pair to form a synaptonemal complex.
B) Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere.
Amount of DNA per nucleus over the cell division cycle. Which region of the accompanying figure represents S phase? A) I B) II C) III D) IV
B) II
For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the spindle. A) I B) II C) IV D) VI
B) II
Which sample is consistent with a cell that is entering mitosis? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II
B) II
Which sample is consistent with a cell that is in metaphase I? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II
B) II
Which diagram represents prophase of mitosis? A) I B) III C) IV D) VI
B) III
Which of the following statements about reproduction is correct? A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of only plants and fungi. B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit half of their nuclear genes to each of their offspring. C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis. D) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring
B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit half of their nuclear genes to each of their offspring.
Which of the following statements correctly describes a karyotype? A) It is a display of all of the cell types in an organism. B) It is an organized image of a cell's chromosomes. C) It reveals the appearance of an organism. D) It is a display of a cell's mitotic stages.
B) It is an organized image of a cell's chromosomes.
In E. coli, a mutation in a gene called dnaB prevents the helicase from binding at the origin of replication. Which of the following events would you expect to occur as a result of this mutation? A) Additional proofreading will occur. B) No replication fork will be formed. C) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone. D) Replication will require a DNA template from another source
B) No replication fork will be formed.
Which of the following statements accurately describes differences between DNA replication in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many. C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.
Which of the following statements best describes homologous chromosomes? A) They were inherited from the same parent. B) They carry information for the same traits. C) They carry the same alleles. D) They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
B) They carry information for the same traits.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prophase D) metaphase
B) anaphase
What is the name of the microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells as an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle? A) centriole B) centrosome C) centromere D) kinetochore
B) centrosome
Students in a biology lab isolated cells in various phases of the cell cycle. A population of cells that have twice the DNA of G1 phase cells was most likely isolated from which of the following part of the cell cycle? A) between the G1 and S phase B) in the G2 phase C) immediately after cytokinesis D) at the beginning of the S phase
B) in the G2 phase
Crossing over of chromosomes normally takes place during which of the following processes? A) meiosis II B) meiosis I C) mitosis D) mitosis and meiosis II
B) meiosis I
The two homologs of a pair move toward opposite poles of dividing cell during ________. A) mitosis B) meiosis I C) meiosis II D) fertilization
B) meiosis I
During which of the following processes do homologous pairs of chromosomes align adjacent to one another at the metaphase plate of a cell? A) metaphase of mitosis B) metaphase I of meiosis C) telophase II of meiosis D) metaphase II of meiosis
B) metaphase I of meiosis
Asexual reproduction occurs during which of the following processes? A) meiosis B) mitosis C) fertilization D) the exchange of chromosomes between organisms of different species
B) mitosis
Which of the following occurs during S phase? A) condensation of the chromosomes B) replication of the DNA C) separation of sister chromatids D) spindle formation
B) replication of the DNA
Which of the following processes occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) chromosome replication B) synapsis of chromosomes C) alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate D) condensation of chromosomes
B) synapsis of chromosomes
What is the name of the region on duplicated chromosomes where the sister chromatids are most closely attached to each other? A) the chromatin B) the centromere C) the cohesin D) the centrosome
B) the centromere
Somatic cells of roundworms have four individual chromosomes per cell. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an ovum from a roundworm? A) four B) two C) eight D) a diploid number
B) two
A (hypothetical) diploid organism has different genes that control wing length and wing color. A female of this species with short blue-colored wings has a chromosome pair with two shortwing alleles and a second chromosome pair with one blue-wing allele and one orange-wing allele. The eggs from this individual will have which of the following combinations of alleles? A) all of the eggs will have alleles for short blue-colored wings B) all of the eggs will have alleles for short orange-colored wings C) 1/2 of the eggs will have alleles for short blue-colored wings and ½ will have alleles for short orange-colored wings D) 3/4 of the eggs have alleles for short blue-colored wings and ¼ of the eggs have alleles for short orange-colored wings.
C) 1/2 of the eggs will have alleles for short blue-colored wings and ½ will have alleles for short orange-colored wings
In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many sister chromatids will be found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32
C) 16
Beginning with a fertilized egg (zygote), how many cells will be present in the embryo following five rounds of cell division? A) 10 B) 16 C) 32 D) 6
C) 32
Quaking aspen trees usually reproduce by extending underground stems that then push aboveground and grow into trees. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but when it does happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the cells of the underground stems? A) 9 B) 19 C) 38 D) 76
C) 38
The sequence of nucleotides below is present at a DNA location where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C (T) G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A) 5' A G C C U A G G 3' B) 5' A C G T T A G G 3' C) 5' A C G U U A G G 3' D) 5' A G C C T A G G 3'
C) 5' A C G U U A G G 3'
ghghghgWhich of the following structures or molecules is required in order for motor proteins to facilitate movement of chromosomes toward the poles in mitosis? A) intact centromeres B) actin microfilaments C) ATP as an energy source D) intact cohesin
C) ATP as an energy source
Which of the following results when homologous chromosomes cross over in meiosis? A) Two sister chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA. B) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA. C) Corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged. D) DNA repair machinery alters maternal alleles so they match paternal ones
C) Corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged.
Eukaryotic chromatin is composed of which of the following macromolecules? A) DNA and RNA B) DNA only C) DNA and proteins D) DNA and phospholipids
C) DNA and proteins
In E. coli, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction? A) primase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III D) helicase
C) DNA polymerase III
Which of the following processes occur during meiosis but not mitosis? A) Haploid cells fuse to form diploid cells. B) Haploid cells multiply into more haploid cells. C) Diploid cells form haploid cells. D) A diploid cell combines with a haploid cell.
C) Diploid cells form haploid cells.
Which of the following statements is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A) The species is diploid and has 32 chromosomes per cell. B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C) Each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes. D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes
C) Each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes.
Which sample is consistent with a cell that has completed meiosis? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II
C) III
Which sample is consistent with a cell that has completed mitosis? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II
C) III
Amount of DNA per nucleus over the cell division cycle. Which numbered regions of the accompanying figure represent the DNA content associated with cells at metaphase? A) II and IV B) II only C) III only D) IV only
C) III only
Which of the following explanations correctly describes a reproductive approach? A) During mitosis, DNA replication occurs twice to insure each daughter cell contains a full set of chromosomes. B) Mitosis, followed by cytokinesis, produces daughter cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, thus insuring variation within the population. C) In asexual reproduction, a single individual is the sole parent and passes copies of its genes to its offspring without the fusion of gametes. D) Single-celled organisms can fuse their cells, to form new cells that are not identical to the parent cell.
C) In asexual reproduction, a single individual is the sole parent and passes copies of its genes to its offspring without the fusion of gametes.
Which of the following statements about the human X chromosomes is correct? A) It is present in every gametic cell of males and females. B) It is the smaller than other chromosomes C) It carries genes that influence an individual's biological sex. D) It is referred to as an autosome.
C) It carries genes that influence an individual's biological sex.
Which of the following statements describes a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis in a diploid animal? A) Homologous chromosomes align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II but not in mitosis. B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologous chromosomes separate in meiosis II. C) Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, while mitosis occurs in diploid cells. D) Crossing over of chromosomes takes place in meiosis II but not in mitosis.
C) Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, while mitosis occurs in diploid cells.
How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? A) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. B) The cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. D) The cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA
C) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
Which of the following statements best describes a cleavage furrow? A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate B) the separation of divided prokaryotes C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei D) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase
C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely ________. A) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis B) an animal cell in anaphase of mitosis C) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis D) a plant cell in metaphase of mitosis
C) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis
During which of the following phases of meiosis do centromeres split and sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell? A) anaphase I B) telophase I C) anaphase II D) telophase II
C) anaphase II
If a plant biologist succeeds in generating a single plant with a particularly desirable flower, which of the following approaches would be the most efficient way to generate more plants with this trait? A) backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits and cross the two B) breed this plant with a plant that does not flower C) clone the plant D) force the plant to self-pollinate
C) clone the plant
Which of the following events characterizes the beginning of anaphase? A) loss of kinetochores from the chromatids B) attachment of sister chromatids to each other by cohesin C) enzymatic cleavage of cohesin D) disappearance of the nuclear membrane
C) enzymatic cleavage of cohesin
Which of the following pairs of processes make the greatest contribution to genetic diversity between generations of a diploid insect? A) random fertilization and cytokinesis B) alternation of generations and crossing over C) independent assortment and random fertilization D) gametophyte fusion and mitotic division
C) independent assortment and random fertilization
Which of the following events would be most likely to produce cells with several nuclei? A) repeated cytokinesis without mitosis B) repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis C) repeated mitosis without cytokinesis D) multiple S phases without mitosis
C) repeated mitosis without cytokinesis
Which of the following processes facilitates the fastest way for animal species to adapt to a changing environment? A) mutation B) asexual reproduction C) sexual reproduction D) mitosis
C) sexual reproduction
Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most directly affected by a drug that prevents which of the following events? A) nuclear envelope breakdown B) elongation of microtubules C) shortening of microtubules D) formation of a cleavage furrow
C) shortening of microtubules
After DNA replication, each duplicated chromosome consists of two of which of the following structures? A) daughter chromosomes B) daughter nucleosomes C) sister chromatids D) sister chromatins
C) sister chromatids
If we continue to follow the cell lineage from question 4, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis II will be ________. A) 0.25x B) 0.5x C) x D) 2x
C) x
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I will be ________. A) 0.25x B) 0.5x C) x D) 2x
D) 2x
Radioactive thymine is added to media containing one actively dividing E. coli bacterium. Which of the following outcomes would be seen after a single cell division? A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. D) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
D) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.
A (hypothetical) diploid organism has different genes that control wing color and wing length. A female of this species has a paternal chromosome set containing one orange-wing allele and one long-wing allele and a maternal set containing one blue-wing allele and one shortwing allele. Which of the following types of eggs would she be expected to produce after meiosis? A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations. B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations. C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations. D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.
D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.
A particular organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this organism? A) It must be human. B) It must be an animal. C) It reproduces asexually. D) It produces gametes with 23 chromosomes
D) It produces gametes with 23 chromosomes
Genetic variation leads to genetic diversity in populations and is the raw material for evolution. Which of the following statements best represents the connection between reproduction and evolution? A) Plants that use sexual reproduction are rare since this type of reproduction in plants does not contribute to genetic diversity and evolutionary pressures select against them. B) In order for evolutionary pressures to affect sexually reproducing organisms, mutations must occur in the zygote after fertilization. C) Since prokaryotic organisms reproduce asexually, they have no mechanism to add genetic diversity for evolutionary pressures to act upon. D) Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation because random mutations can be shuffled between organisms.
D) Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation because random mutations can be shuffled between organisms.
Which of the following statements describes the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell after telophase of meiosis I? A) The cells are diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. B) The cells are diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. C) The cells are haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. D) The cells are haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
D) The cells are haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
Which chromosomal configuration would be observed in one daughter cell after telophase of mitosis? A) II B) III C) IV D) V
D) V
Which diagram represents anaphase II of meiosis? A) I B) III C) IV D) V
D) V
Which diagram represents metaphase of mitosis? A) I B) III C) V D) VI
D) VI
For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. Cohesins at centromeres of sister chromatids breakdown. A) III B) IV C) V D) VII
D) VII
For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. Haploid cells form containing joined sister chromatids. A) III B) IV C) VII D) VIII
D) VIII
For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes based on the independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis? A) 23 B) 46 C) about 1,000 D) about 8 million
D) about 8 million
During which of the following phases of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate? A) anaphase II B) prophase I C) mitosis D) anaphase I
D) anaphase I
ghghhgThe drug cytochalasin B blocks the polymerization of actin microfilaments. Which of the following events of the cell cycle in animal cells would be most directly disrupted by cytochalasin B? A) spindle formation B) spindle attachment to kinetochores C) movement of chromosomes to the poles during anaphase D) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
D) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
During which of the following processes do sister chromatids separate from each other? A) during meiosis I only B) during meiosis II only C) during both mitosis and meiosis I D) during both mitosis and meiosis II
D) during both mitosis and meiosis II
Many diploid organisms produce haploid gametes for reproduction. Which of the following best describes how the diploid number of chromosomes is restored in the offspring of these organisms? A) DNA replication creates homologous chromosomes B) independent assortment in meiosis allows random combinations of chromosomes C) synapsis during prophase of meiosis I creates random combinations of alleles D) fertilization combines chromosomes from each parent into resulting zygote
D) fertilization combines chromosomes from each parent into resulting zygote
Students in a biology lab isolated cells in various phases of the cell cycle. A population of cells that have 1 1/2 times the DNA of G1 phase cells was most likely isolated from which of the following parts of the cell cycle? A) between the G1 and S phases B) in the G2 phase C) in the M phase D) in the S phase
D) in the S phase
At which phase of the cell cycle do centrioles begin to move apart in animal cells? A) anaphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase
D) prophase
Which of the following events occurs during interphase of the cell cycle? A) condensation of the chromosomes B) separation of the spindle poles C) spindle formation D) replication of the DNA
D) replication of the DNA
If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in the accompanying figure continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) spindle formation B) nuclear envelope breakdown C) formation of telophase nuclei D) segregation of daughter chromosomes
D) segregation of daughter chromosomes
The mitotic spindle plays a critical role in which of the following processes? A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis B) triggering condensation of chromosomes C) dissolving the nuclear membrane D) separation of sister chromatids
D) separation of sister chromatids
Which of the following phrases defines the term genome? A) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides B) the complete set of a species' polypeptides C) The complete set of a species expressed traits D) the complete set of an organism's genes and other DNA sequences
D) the complete set of an organism's genes and other DNA sequences