exam 4
4 A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for AML reports pain in the low back. What is the nurse's first action? Correct response:
Assess renal function. Explanation: Chemotherapy results in the destruction of cells and tumor lysis syndrome. Uric acid and phosphorus concentrations increase, and the client is susceptible to renal failure. The nurse should assess renal function if the client complains of low-back pain, as this could be indicative of kidney stone formation. Heating pads, pain medication, and referrals could be instituted once the cause of the pain is determined. The priority is further assessment to rule out important problems.
A client who has idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) has a critically low platelet count. Which nursing intervention will be included in the care plan for this client?
Correct response: Administer eltrombopag Explanation: Thrombopoietin (TPO) is a cytokine that is necessary for the proliferation of megakaryocytes and subsequent platelet formation. Nonimmunogenic second-generation thrombopoietic growth factors (romiplostim and eltrombopag) were recently approved for the treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
A patient with chronic anemia has had many blood transfusions over the last 3 years. What type of transfusion reaction should the nurse monitor for that is commonly found in patients who frequently receive blood transfusions?
Correct response: Febrile nonhemolytic reactions Explanation: A febrile nonhemolytic reaction is caused by antibodies to donor leukocytes that remain in the unit of blood or blood component; it is the most common type of transfusion reaction. It occurs more frequently in patients who have had previous transfusions (exposure to multiple antigens from previous blood products) and in Rh- negative women who have borne Rh-positive children (exposure to an Rh-positive fetus raises antibody levels in the untreated mother).
What assessment finding best indicates that the client has recovered from induction therapy?
Correct response: Neutrophil and platelet counts within normal limits Explanation: Recovery from induction therapy is indicated when the neutrophil and platelet counts have returned to normal and any infection has resolved. Stable vital signs, lack of edema, and absence of pain are not indicative of recovery from induction therapy.
Which of the following are complications related to polycythemia vera (PV)? Select all that apply.
CVA MI Ulcers Hematuria Explanation: Patients with PV are at increased risk for thromboses resulting in a CVA or myocardial infarction. Bleeding can be significant and can occur in the form of nosebleeds, ulcers, frank gastrointestinal bleeding, and intracranial hemorrhage. Splenomegaly is a clinical manifestation of PV, not a complication.
Which patient assessed by the nurse is most likely to develop myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?
Correct response: A 72-year-old patient with a history of cancer Explanation: Primary MDS tends to be a disease of people older than 70 years. Because the initial findings are so subtle, the disease may not be diagnosed until later in the illness trajectory, if at all. Thus, the actual incidence of MDS is not known.
The nurse is interacting with a family that has been caring for a client with cancer for several months. What are the best interventions to assist in relieving caregiver stress in this family? Select all that apply..
Correct response: Educate the family about medications and side effects. Allow family members to express feelings. Suggest support for household maintenance. Explanation: Family members benefit from increased education on what to expect. Allowing family members to express their feelings has also been shown to relieve stress. Supporting the caregiver and family with help in household duties will also help the overburdened family. Antianxiety medications and church attendance have not been shown to reduce caregiver stress.
Place the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma in the correct order.
Correct response: Proliferation of abnormal plasma cells Release of osteoclast-activating factor Break down and removal of bone cells Increased blood calcium levels Explanation The pathophysiology of multiple myeloma is as follows: Proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, release of osteoclast-activating factor, break down and removal of bone cells, increased blood calcium levels.
When evaluating a patient's symptoms that are consistent with a diagnosis of leukemia, the nurse is aware that all leukemias have which common feature?
Correct response: Unregulated accumulation of white cells in the bone marrow, which replace normal marrow elements Explanation: The term leukemia means "white blood," which is used to describe the neoplastic proliferation of one hematopoietic cell type (granulocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes, and sometimes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes).
A client wants to donate blood before his or her abdominal surgery next week. What should be the nurse's first action?
Correct response: Explain the time frame needed for autologous donation. Explanation: Preoperative autologous donations are ideally collected 4 to 6 weeks before surgery. The nurse should first explain that time frame to this client. Surgery is scheduled in one week which means that autologous blood donation may not be an option for this client. A list of donation centers can be provided to the client; and even though iron is recommended and 2 units of blood may be suggested, the first action is to tell the client about the needed time frame for donation.
The nursing instructor is discussing disorders of the hematopoietic system with the pre-nursing pathophysiology class. What disease would the instructor list with a primary characteristic of erythrocytosis?
Correct response: Polycythemia vera Explanation: Polycythemia vera is associated with a rapid proliferation of blood cells produced by the bone marrow. In sickle cell disease, HbS causes RBCs to assume a sickled shape under hypoxic conditions. Aplastic anemia has a deficiency of erythrocytes. The other options do not have the characteristics of erythrocytosis.
A nurse is reviewing a client's morning laboratory results and notes a left shift in the band cells. Based on this result, the nurse can interpret that the client
Correct response: may be developing an infection. Explanation:Less mature granulocytes have a single-lobed, elongated nucleus and are called band cells. Ordinarily, band cells account for only a small percentage of circulating granulocytes, although their percentage can increase greatly under conditions in which neutrophil production increases, such as infection. An increased number of band cells is sometimes called a left shift or shift to the left. Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of white blood cells in circulation. Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.
Which cell of hematopoiesis is responsible for the production of red blood cells (RBCs) and platelets?
Myeloid stem cell Myeloid stem cells are responsible not only for all nonlymphoid white blood cells (WBC) but also for the production of red blood cells and platelets. Lymphoid cells produce either T or B lymphocytes. A monocyte is large WBC that becomes a macrophage when is leaves the circulation and moves into body tissues, and not responsible for RBC production.. A neutrophil is a fully mature WBC capable of phagocytosis and not responsible for RBC production.
16 A nurse cares for a client with megaloblastic anemia who had a total gastrectomy three years ago. What statement will the nurse include in the client's teaching regarding the condition?
Correct response: "The condition is likely caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency." Explanation: Vitamin B12 combines with intrinsic factor produced in the stomach. The vitamin B12 -intrinsic factor complex is absorbed in the distal ileum. Clients who have had a partial or total gastrectomy may have limited amounts of intrinsic factor, and the absorption of vitamin B12 may be diminished. Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by a folate deficiency; however, the client's history of gastrectomy indicates the likely cause is a vitamin B12 deficiency. Megaloblastic anemia causes large erythrocytes (RBCs), not small or rigid.
10 A client receiving a blood transfusion reports shortness of breath, appears anxious, and has a pulse of 125 beats/minute. What is the best action for the nurse to take after stopping the transfusion and awaiting further instruction from the health care provider?
Correct response: Ensure there is an oxygen delivery device at the bedside. Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of circulatory overload. After stopping the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse should place the client in a more upright position with the legs dependent to decrease workload on the heart. The IV line is kept patent in case emergency medications are needed. Oxygen and morphine may be needed to treat severe dyspnea. Administering an anti-anxiety agent is not a priority action over ensuring oxygen is available.
The hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. The client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. What action will the nurse take?
Correct response: Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs. Explanation: With platelets less than 10,000/mm³ there is a risk for spontaneous bleeding, including within the cranial vault. The nurse performs a neurologic examination to assess for this possibility. Though the client is receiving immunosuppressants, it is not necessary to use contact precautions with this client. Contact precautions are used with clients who have known or suspected transmittable illnesses. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation and inhibit accurate assessment of the client's gastrointestinal bleeding. If the client strains when having a bowel movement, the client could bleed even more. The client is not to floss vigorously; doing so can cause bleeding.
The nurse is assessing a client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis with an elevated red blood cell count. The admitting diagnosis is polycythemia vera. What is the hallmark clinical sign of PV?
Correct response: splenomegaly Explanation: Splenomegaly is the hallmark of PV. Patients typically have a ruddy complexion and splenomegaly. Symptoms result from increased blood volume (headache, dizziness, tinnitus, fatigue, weight loss, paresthesias, and blurred vision). Edema, pale body color, and weight gain are not classic symptoms of PV.
A nurse is caring for an asymptomatic client with acute myelogenous leukemia. The client has a total white blood cell (WBC) count of 0, a platelet count of 3,000 mm2, and a hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl. The client has a single lumen central venous catheter in place and the health care provider has ordered the nurse to administer imipenem cilastatin 500 mg every 8 hours, transfuse 1 unit packed red blood cells (RBCs), give amphotericin B 40 mg I.V. over 4 hours, and transfuse 2 pheresis units of platelets. In what order should the nurse infuse these medications and blood products?
You Selected: Packed RBCs, platelets, imipenem cilastatin, amphotericin B Correct response: Platelets, imipenem cilastatin, amphotericin B, packed RBCs Explanation: Although the client is currently asymptomatic, a platelet count of 3,000 mm2 puts the client at risk for spontaneous hemorrhage. A WBC count of 0 clearly indicates neutropenia; the client needs an antibiotic and antifungal therapy to prevent infection. Although the client is anemic, the client currently asymptomatic. The absence of clinical manifestations makes the need for a transfusion less urgent.
