FIN 360 Exam 3

Eric's property was damaged in an accident. He phoned his agent to see if the loss was covered under his property insurance policy. The agent said, "As long as the cause of loss is not specifically excluded in the policy, the loss is covered." Based on the agent's answer, what type of insuring agreement appears in the policy? A) unconditional coverage B) named-perils coverage C) extended-perils coverage D) "open-perils" coverage

"open-perils" coverage

XYZ Insurance Company uses class rating to determine the rate to charge for insurance. For one type of insurance, the pure premium XYZ actuaries calculated is $75 per unit. If XYZ's expense ratio is 25 percent, what is the gross rate for this coverage? A) $37.50 B) $55.25 C) $75.00 D) $100.00

$100.00

Connie has an individual medical expense policy with a $1,000 deductible. She is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. The insurer will pay 80 percent of expenses in excess of the deductible. If Connie has eligible medical expenses of $26,000, how much will be paid by her insurer? A) $10,000 B) $11,000 C) $20,000 D) $21,000

$20,000

ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $1 million when it sustained a $40,000 loss. How much will ABC Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $33,333 B) $35,000 C) $36,000 D) $40,000

$35,000

Ratemakers at ABC Insurance Company calculated the pure premium to be $280 for a risk they were considering insuring. What is the gross rate for this risk, assuming a 30 percent expense ratio? A) $364 B) $400 C) $430 D) $520

$400

XYZ Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $450,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $500,000 when it sustained a $50,000 loss. How much will XYZ Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $42,500 B) $45,000 C) $50,000 D) $56,250

$50,000

XYZ Insurance Company expects $500,000 in claims and loss adjustment expenses for each 1,000 properties that it insures in a certain category of business insurance. What pure premium should XYZ charge for each property insured? A) $69.99 B) $166.67 C) $350.00 D) $500.00

$500.00

David owns a commercial building with a replacement cost of $4 million. The building is insured on a replacement cost basis for $2.4 million under a fire insurance policy that has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. How much will David collect if the building sustains a covered fire loss with a replacement cost of $80,000? A) $50,000 B) $60,000 C) $66,667 D) $80,000

$60,000

Delta Insurance Company has a surplus-share treaty with Eversafe Reinsurance. Delta has a retention limit of $200,000, and nine lines of insurance are ceded to Eversafe. How much will Eversafe pay if a $1,600,000 building insured by Delta suffers an $800,000 loss? A) $600,000 B) $700,000 C) $720,000 D) $800,000

$700,000

Laura's medical insurance policy includes a $500 deductible. Laura is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible, and her insurer will pay 80 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. Laura was hospitalized and her covered medical expenses were $10,500. How much of the $10,500 will be paid by the insurer? A) $7,500 B) $7,900 C) $8,000 D) $10,000

$8,000

LMN Mutual Insurance Company has total liabilities of $300 million. The company has total assets of $380 million. What is LMN's policyholders' surplus? A) $680 million B) $340 million C) $80 million D) -$80 million

$80 million

Mark owns a building that he insured for $90,000. The replacement cost of the building is $100,000. Mark's property insurance policy has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. Ignoring any deductible, if Mark's building is destroyed by a covered peril, how much will Mark receive from his insurer? A) $80,000 B) $90,000 C) $101,250 D) $112,500

$90,000

Janice purchased a living room set for $1,000 and insured this furniture on an actual cash value basis. Two years later the living room set was destroyed by a covered peril. At the time of loss, the property had depreciated in value by 25 percent. The replacement cost of the furniture at the time of loss was $1,200. Assuming no deductible, how much will Janice receive from her insurer? A) $900 B) $950 C) $1,000 D) $1,200

$900

Sam's furniture was destroyed by a fire. The furniture cost $1200 when it was purchased, but similar new furniture now costs $1800. Assuming the furniture was 50 percent depreciated, what is the actual cash value of Sam's loss? A) $600 B) $900 C) $1200 D) $1800

$900

JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses 30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's combined ratio last year? A) 100.0 B) 103.3 C) 105.0 D) 108.3

108.3

JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's expense ratio last year? A) 5.0 percent B) 30.0 percent C) 33.3 percent D) 50.0 percent

33.3 percent

MedProf Insurance markets medical malpractice insurance. The company's combined ratio in 2015 was 95.4. Its expense ratio was 25.4. What was the company's loss ratio? A) 60.4 B) 70.0 C) 88.2 D) 120.8

70.0

JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000 Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000 Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000 Premiums Earned $100,000,000 Incurred Losses $70,000,000 What was JKL's loss ratio last year? A) 70.0 percent B) 75.0 percent C) 83.3 percent D) 90.0 percent

75.0 percent

ABC Insurance Company's investment income ratio last year was 4.2 percent. The company's combined ratio last year was 102.6 percent. What was ABC's overall operating ratio? A) 96.8 percent B) 98.4 percent C) 103.2 percent D) 106.8 percent

98.4 percent

Dave is an agent for Easy Pay Insurance. Easy Pay insures only high-quality applicants. Dave wanted to earn more commissions, so he sold some policies to applicants he knew were below-average risks. When these policyowners started filing claims, Easy Pay tried to deny the claims stating that Dave had not acted appropriately. Which general rule of agency makes Easy Pay responsible for the claims of the higher-than-average risk policyowners? A) There is no presumption of an agency relationship. B) Agents should be compensated based on the quality of the business they generate. C) A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority. D) An agent must have authority to represent the principal.

A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority.

Ann Parks and Robert Evans jointly own a grocery store. Ann and Robert are both named insureds on the property insurance covering the store, but Ann is the first named insured. Which of the following statements is true with regard to Ann's status as the first named insured? A) Any loss settlement is paid to Ann only. B) Ann is responsible for making sure that the premium has been paid. C) Ann can assign the policy without the consent of the insurer. D) Ann can waive policy conditions.

Ann is responsible for making sure that the premium has been paid.

Helen and John both own automobiles on which they carry liability insurance. If Helen is negligent and has an accident while driving John's car with his permission, how will each insurer respond to any liability judgment against Helen? A) The insurers will pay the judgment on a pro rata basis. B) John's insurer will pay on an excess basis if Helen's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. C) Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. D) The policies will pay the judgment on the basis of contribution by equal shares.

Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment.

Purposes of the coinsurance clause in health insurance contracts include which of the following? I. To reduce premiums. II. To exclude coverage for certain medical procedures. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about "open-perils" coverage is (are) true? I. All losses are covered except those losses specifically excluded. II. The burden of proof is on the insured to prove that a loss is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about a warranty in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. It is part of the insurance contract. II. Statements made by an insurance applicant are considered warranties rather than representations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about an insurable interest in life insurance is (are) true? I. It is required of any person named as beneficiary. II. It may result from a pecuniary (financial) interest. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about experience rating is (are) true? I. The insured's past loss experience is used to determine the premium for the next policy period. II. Its use is generally limited to small firms whose actual experience lacks credibility. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about property and casualty insurance company operating results is (are) true? I. An insurance company can have a combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) and still be required to pay income taxes. II. By all measures, the property and casualty insurance industry is highly profitable when compared to other industries. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about the definition of the insured is (are) true? I. In some cases, a person who is not specifically named may be classified as an insured. II. Under no circumstances can more than one person be named as an insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about the investments of property and liability insurers is (are) true? I. Income from investments is important in offsetting any unfavorable underwriting experience. II. Because premium income is continually being received, the investment objective of liquidity is of little importance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following statements about underwriting policy is (are) true? I. A company must establish an underwriting policy consistent with company objectives. II. Underwriting policy is usually subjective and allows the underwriter considerable flexibility with respect to lines written and forms used. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Which of the following types of insurance policies can usually be assigned without the insurer's consent? I. Life insurance II. Property insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

I only

Fundamental purposes of the principle of indemnity include which of the following? I. To reduce physical hazards II. To prevent the insured from profiting from insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements about consideration in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. The insured's total consideration is submission of a completed application. II. The insurer's consideration is the promise to do those things specified in the policy. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements about methods for estimating loss reserves for property and casualty insurers is (are) true? I. The judgment method involves the use of a statutory formula to estimate the loss reserve. II. The average value method is used when the number of claims is large and the claims are settled quickly. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements about the principle of insurable interest is (are) true? I. It makes it difficult to measure the amount of an insured's loss. II. It reduces moral hazard. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements is (are) true about the loss ratio method of class rating? I. The pure premium is calculated, and it is loaded to cover expenses, profit, and contingencies. II. The actual loss ratio is compared to the expected loss ratio, and the rate is adjusted accordingly. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to catastrophe bonds? I. The bonds are issued by the U.S. Government. II. The bonds have relatively high interest (coupon) rates. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

II only

Which of the following statements about offer and acceptance for insurance contracts is true? A) In property and liability insurance, agents typically do not have the authority to bind coverage. B) In life insurance, the agent can usually accept an offer by immediately binding coverage. C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral. D) In life insurance, completing the application and paying the first premium constitute acceptance of the offer from the insurer.

In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral.

Which of the following statements about claims settlement is true? A) Agents are never authorized to settle claims. B) Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors. C) A public adjustor is a salaried employee who works for one insurer. D) A staff claims representative is hired by a policyholder to represent him or her if the policyholder does not agree with the claim settlement offered by the insurer.

Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors.

Jacob sold his house to Shelia for $140,000 in cash. Jacob "threw in" insurance on the house as part of the deal and did not bother telling the insurer that there was a new owner. Four months after Shelia purchased the home, a windstorm damaged the roof. Which of the following legal characteristics of insurance contracts could the insurer use to legally deny payment for the damage to the roof? A) Insurance contracts are unilateral contracts. B) Insurance contacts are contracts of adhesion. C) Insurance contracts are aleatory contracts. D) Insurance contracts are personal contracts.

Insurance contracts are personal contracts

James purchased liability insurance with a $100,000 limit from Insurer A. When Insurer A denied a claim that James thought should be covered, he bought a second liability insurance policy with a $150,000 limit from Insurer B. Before he cancelled the policy with Insurer A, a $60,000 loss occurred. If this loss is settled on a pro rata basis, how much must each insurer pay? A) Insurer A will pay $10,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. B) Insurer A will pay $20,000 and Insurer B will pay $40,000. C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000. D) Insurer A will pay $40,000 and Insurer B will pay $20,000.

Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000.

Jane purchased a $50,000 liability insurance policy from Insurer A. Fearing that she did not have enough liability insurance, she purchased an additional $100,000 of liability coverage from Insurer B. As a result of a negligent act, Jane was ordered to pay $75,000 in damages. Assuming the coverage from Insurer A is primary and the coverage from Insurer B is excess, how will this claim be settled? A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000. B) Insurer A will pay $37,500 and Insurer B will pay $37,500. C) Insurer A will pay $25,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. D) Insurer A will pay nothing and Insurer B will pay $75,000.

Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000.

All of the following statements about regulatory objectives of insurance rate making are true EXCEPT A) One purpose of rate adequacy is to maintain the solvency of insurers. B) Rates unfairly discriminate if loss exposures that are similar with respect to losses and expenses are charged substantially different rates. C) Insurers know in advance if the coverages marketed will be profitable, so rate regulation is not needed. D) Rates are excessive if policyholders are paying substantially more than the actual value of their protection.

Insurers know in advance if the coverages marketed will be profitable, so rate regulation is not needed.

Which of the following statements about judgment rating is true? A) It involves the manual rating of exposures. B) It is used when the loss exposures are so diverse that a class rate cannot be calculated. C) It is a form of experience rating. D) It is only used when credible loss statistics are available.

It is used when the loss exposures are so diverse that a class rate cannot be calculated

Kate is covered under her employer's group health plan. She is also covered as a dependent under her husband's group health plan. Under the usual coordination-of-benefits provision, how will each company respond to a claim filed by Kate? A) Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess. B) Her husband's plan is primary, and Kate's plan is excess. C) The plan of the person with the birthday earliest in the year pays first, and the other plan is excess. D) Each plan will pay 50 percent of the claim.

Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess.

Which of the following statements describes how losses will be settled if a property insurance policy is written on a replacement cost basis? A) Losses are settled without the applicable deductible. B) Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation. C) The insurer must replace the damaged or destroyed property in lieu of a cash settlement. D) The policy is converted to a valued policy.

Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation.

One source of life and health insurance underwriting information is an organization that life and health insurance companies can join. As a member, life and health insurance companies report health impairments of applicants, and this information is shared with member companies. Although the information is shared, the underwriting decision of the member company is not disclosed. What is this organization called? A) Fair Isaac Corporation (FICO) B) Medical Information Bureau (MIB) C) National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) D) National Association of Mutual Insurance Companies (NAMIC)

Medical Information Bureau (MIB)

Why are insurance contracts said to be contracts of adhesion? A) The values exchanged by the parties to the contract are not equal. B) One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written. C) Only one party makes a legally enforceable promise. D) Conditions are placed on the insurer's promise to perform.

One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written.

Kevin has three liability policies which provide for contribution by equal shares if other insurance applies to a loss. How much will each policy pay for a $3,000,000 liability judgment if policy A provides $500,000 of coverage, policy B provides $1,000,000 of coverage, and policy C provides $3,000,000 of coverage? A) Each policy will pay $500,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $1,500,000. B) Policy A will pay $500,000, policies B and C will each pay $1,000,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $500,000. C) Policy A will pay nothing, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $2,000,000. D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.

Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.

Monopoly Insurance is the only company marketing a certain line of insurance in a state. After complaints from several consumers, the State Insurance Department investigated Monopoly's rates. The regulators determined that Monopoly was taking advantage of being the only insurer offering the line by charging more than double the actuarial cost of the coverage. Which regulatory rating objective was Monopoly violating? A) Rates must be adequate. B) Rates should encourage loss control. C) Rates must not be excessive. D) Rates must not unfairly discriminate.

Rates must not be excessive.

Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) Subrogation eliminates adverse selection. B) Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance. C) Subrogation results in violation of the principle of indemnity. D) Subrogation permits a party who caused a loss to avoid responsibility for the loss.

Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance.

All of the following statements about the settlement of a claim are true EXCEPT A) The insurance policy usually has a provision specifying how a notice of loss is to be made to the insurance company. B) One step in the investigation of a claim is to determine whether the policy was in force when the loss occurred. C) The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim. D) A policy provision may determine how disputes over claim settlements are resolved.

The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim.

All of the following statements about class rating are true EXCEPT A) Exposures with similar characteristics are placed in the same underwriting class. B) The rate charged for each class reflects the average loss experience for that class. C) The complexity of class rating makes it inappropriate for personal lines coverages. D) It is based on the assumption that future losses to insureds will be determined by the same classification factors currently in use.

The complexity of class rating makes it inappropriate for personal lines coverages.

What is the legal significance of a material concealment by an insurance applicant? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the concealment. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

The contract is voidable at the insurer's option.

What is the legal significance of a material misrepresentation in an insurance application? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the misrepresentation. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

The contract is voidable at the insurer's option.

Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) It is used primarily for losses paid under life insurance policies. B) It allows the insurer to sue its own insured who is negligent. C) The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs. D) The insurer is required to exercise its subrogation rights.

The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs.

What is the practical effect of an insurance policy being a conditional contract? A) The insurer can refuse to a pay claim if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The insured gets the benefit of the doubt if a policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

The insurer can refuse to a pay claim if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions.

All of the following statements about subrogation are true EXCEPT A) The general rule allows the insurer to recover up to the amount paid to its insured under the policy. B) Subrogation does not apply in life insurance C) Interfering with the insurer's subrogation rights can jeopardize indemnification of the insured. D) The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds.

The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds.

Which of the following statements about reinsurance is true? A) A reinsurer may not purchase reinsurance. B) The reinsurer is the first insurer that provides claims services to the insured after a loss occurs. C) The amount of insurance transferred to a reinsurer is called the net retention. D) The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding company.

The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding company.

A property and liability insurance company's loss ratio and expense ratio, respectively, for 2013 - 2015 were: 2013: 74% 31% 2014: 68% 33% 2015: 66% 30% Which of the following statements is true about the company's underwriting results for this time period? A) The insurer made money from its underwriting activities each year. B) The insurer's profitability from underwriting has been deteriorating each year. C) The insurer's profitability from underwriting has been improving each year. D) The insurer lost money from its underwriting activities each year.

The insurer's profitability from underwriting has been improving each year.

All of the following statements about life insurance company investments are true EXCEPT A) Funds for these investments are derived primarily from premium income, investment earnings, and maturing investments that must be reinvested. B) Income from these investments reduces the cost of insurance. C) A primary objective in making these investments is safety of principal. D) The majority of these investments are short-term investments.

The majority of these investments are short-term investments.

What is the practical effect of an insurance contract being a contract of adhesion? A) The insurer can refuse to pay claims if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties

Which of the following statements about retrospective rating is true? A) The premium for the current period is determined by the loss experience in prior periods. B) The premium for the current period is determined by the loss experience during the current period. C) The premium for the current period is determined by predicted future loss experience. D) The premium for future periods is determined by the loss experience for the current period.

The premium for the current period is determined by the loss experience during the current period.

All of the following statements about the rules governing agency relationships are true EXCEPT A) An agent must be authorized to act on behalf of a principal. B) An agency agreement may grant certain powers to the agent as well as denying the agent other powers. C) The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal D) Knowledge of the agent is presumed to be knowledge of the principal with respect to matters within the scope of the agency relationship.

The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal

All of the following statements about business objectives in designing a rating system are true EXCEPT A) The rating system should encourage loss control activities. B) The rating system should be independent of long-run changes in economic conditions. C) The rating system should be simple to understand. D) The rating system should be stable over short periods so that consumer satisfaction can be maintained.

The rating system should be independent of long-run changes in economic conditions.

Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) The reinsurer is required to underwrite each individual applicant that is reinsured. B) The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty. C) The ceding insurer can choose which business falling within the scope of the treaty it wishes to reinsure. D) It protects the reinsurer by requiring the ceding insurer to charge adequate premiums.

The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty.

When a fraternal insurer began operations, it asked each member, regardless of age, to pay $20 per month to the fraternal's group life insurance plan. In exchange, each member received the same amount of life insurance. Soon younger members of the group began to drop out when they realized their premiums were subsidizing a group with a higher chance of loss. Which important underwriting principle was violated in this case? A) An underwriting profit should be attained. B) Moral hazard should be avoided. C) Insureds should be selected according to underwriting standards. D) There should be equity among policyholders.

There should be equity among policyholders.

All of the following statements about endorsements and riders are true EXCEPT A) They are usually written. B) They can be used to add or delete policy provisions. C) They normally take precedence over other conflicting policy provisions. D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions.

They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions

Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) Under a surplus-share treaty, 100 percent of the ceding insurer's liability must be transferred to the reinsurer. B) Using a quota-share treaty increases the ceding insurer's unearned premium reserve. C) Under an excess-of-loss treaty, the reinsurer pays losses in full only if they are less than the ceding insurer's retention limit. D) Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.

Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.

The unearned premium reserve of an insurer is A) an asset representing the investments made with premium income. B) a liability representing the unearned portion of gross premiums on outstanding policies. C) a liability representing claims that have been filed, but not yet paid. D) the portion of the insurer's net worth belonging to policyowners.

a liability representing the unearned portion of gross premiums on outstanding policies.

What information is contained in the insuring agreement of an insurance policy? A) a description of the property or life to be insured B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer C) a summary of the obligations of the insured D) a list of the property, losses, and perils that are not covered

a summary of the major promises of the insurer

The primary purpose of coinsurance in property insurance is to A) reduce moral hazard. B) achieve equity in rating. C) minimize problems in settling claims. D) eliminate small losses.

achieve equity in rating.

The loss settlement under which of the following supports the principle of indemnity? A) life insurance B) valued policies C) replacement cost property insurance D) actual cash value property insurance

actual cash value property insurance

Sue double-majored in mathematics and statistics in college. She also enrolled in a number of finance courses. After graduation, she was hired by Econodeath Insurance Company. Her job is to calculate premium rates for life insurance coverages. Sue is a(n) A) actuary. B) underwriter. C) claims adjustor. D) producer.

actuary

Roger owns some farmland that he rents to a tenant. The tenant lives in an old farmhouse on the property and raises crops on the land. Roger is concerned about possible legal liability if the tenant injures someone. Roger requires the tenant to have liability insurance and to add himself to the liability coverage through an endorsement. Under the tenant's liability insurance, Roger is a(n) A) additional insured. B) first-named insured. C) second-named insured. D) other insured.

additional insured.

Most insurance companies require their marketing representatives to submit an evaluation of the prospective insured. This important source of underwriting information is called the A) application. B) agent's report. C) inspection report. D) physical inspection.

agent's report.

The underwriting process begins with the A) agent. B) desk underwriter. C) inspection report. D) actuary.

agent.

A contract in which the values exchanged are not equal because chance is involved is called a(n) A) contract of adhesion. B) unilateral contract. C) conditional contract. D) aleatory contract.

aleatory contract

A total loss under a valued policy is settled on the basis of the A) market value of the loss. B) actual cash value of the loss. C) replacement value of the loss. D) amount of insurance covering the loss

amount of insurance covering the loss

If a third party is led to reasonably believe that an agent is acting within the scope of his/her authority, even though the agent is exceeding his/her authority, the principal may still be bound by the agent's actions. In this case, the agent has bound the principal by A) implied authority. B) apparent authority. C) incidental authority. D) express authority.

apparent authority.

Life insurance policyholders may borrow the cash value from their life insurance policies. Where are life insurance policy loans shown on a life insurance company's financial statements? A) as an asset B) as a liability C) as income D) as an expense

as an asset

One life insurance company reserve is designed to smooth the company's reported surplus over time by absorbing fluctuations in security prices that are not attributable to changing interest rates. This reserve is called the A) asset write-off reserve. B) reserve for amounts held on deposit. C) unearned premium reserve. D) asset valuation reserve.

asset valuation reserve.

Why can an insurer refuse to pay a claim if an insured fails to abide by the policy provisions? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

because insurance contracts are conditional

Why does the insured get the benefit of the doubt if an insurance policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

Dave and Meagan Philips borrowed $150,000 from Fifth National Bank to help fund the purchase of a new home. The home serves as collateral for the loan. Fifth National has an insurable interest in the home based on A) potential responsibility for legal liability. B) being a secured creditor. C) expectation of ownership. D) having a contractual right.

being a secured creditor.

Factors that may result in more restrictive underwriting decisions include which of the following? I. Inadequate rates. II. The unavailability of reinsurance at favorable terms. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Functions of an insurance company's legal department include which of the following? I. Lobbying for legislation favorable to the insurance industry. II. Drafting policy provisions. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Reasons for the unearned premium reserve include which of the following? I. To pay losses that occur during the policy period. II. To pay premium refunds to policyholders in the event of cancellation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Reasons why a peril may be considered uninsurable and therefore excluded from insurance contracts include which of the following? I. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be due to a predictable decline in value. II. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be incalculable and catastrophic. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements about problems arising from the use of a coinsurance clause is (are) true? I. The amount of insurance should be periodically evaluated to avoid a coinsurance penalty because of inflation. II. An agreed value coverage option is one method used to solve the problem of values that fluctuate throughout the policy term. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements about schedule rating is (are) true? I. It involves the determination of a basis rate for each exposure, which is then modified by credits or debits. II. It is based on the assumption that certain physical characteristics of the insured's operations will influence the insured's future loss experience. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements about underwriting standards is (are) true? I. One purpose of underwriting standards is to reduce adverse selection against the insurer. II. Equitable rates should be charged so that each group of policyowners pays its own way in terms of losses and expenses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements concerning regulatory objectives of rate making is (are) true? I. Rates must not be unfairly discriminatory. II. Rates must be adequate. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements is (are) true about life insurance company investments? I. The majority of life insurance company general account assets are invested in bonds. II. The majority of life insurance company separate account assets are invested in stocks. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning investments of property and casualty insurers and life insurers? I. Property and casualty insurance companies place greater emphasis on liquidity than do life insurers. II. Life insurance company investments are, on average, of longer duration than property and casualty insurance company investments. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

Which of the following statements is true regarding the information systems functional area of an insurance company? I. Computers and information systems are able to perform some tasks that previously were performed directly by employees. II. Information systems can speed the processing of policies by insurers. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

both I and II

A loss reserve established for each individual claim when it is reported to a property and casualty insurance company is call a(n) A) admitted asset. B) incurred-but-not-reported (IBNR) reserve. C) unearned premium reserve. D) case reserve.

case reserve.

Pac-Coast Insurance (PCI) concentrates its underwriting activities in California. The company is concerned that if a catastrophic earthquake occurs, it might threaten the solvency of the company. To address this risk, PCI issued some debt securities. If a catastrophic earthquake occurs, PCI does not have to repay the full amount borrowed or pay interest. The securities PCI issued are called A) catastrophe futures contracts. B) interest rate swaps. C) catastrophe bonds. D) contingent options contracts.

catastrophe bonds.

A property and casualty insurer's loss reserve includes estimates for all of the following EXCEPT A) claims anticipated but not yet incurred. B) claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid. C) claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted. D) claims incurred but not yet reported to the company.

claims anticipated but not yet incurred.

Which of the following statements about the combined ratio is true? A) It is equal to the loss ratio minus the expense ratio. B) A combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) means an underwriting loss has occurred. C) The combined ratio considers the company's investment income. D) A combined ratio less than 1 (or 100 percent) indicates an underwriting loss has occurred.

combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) means an underwriting loss has occurred.

Bob purchased insurance on his home with an insurer that was not licensed to do business in the state. In this case, which requirement to form a binding insurance contract is lacking? A) exchange of consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

competent parties

Hank bought a farm that had an old barn. He noticed one day that the roof of the barn was swaying in the wind. Hank went to see his insurance agent and he insured the barn for $20,000. The agent didn't ask if the roof might collapse, and Hank didn't say anything about it. One week later there was a strong wind and the roof collapsed. Assuming the insurer can prove it, under what legal grounds could the insurer deny payment of the claim? A) estoppel B) concealment C) warranty D) misrepresentation

concealment

Janet hit a wall causing a large dent in the fender of her car. She was busy at work and delayed reporting the damage to her insurer for 9 months. When she finally reported the claim, her insurer denied payment, stating, "Although such a loss is usually covered, you are required under the terms of the contract to provide prompt notification in case of loss." The prompt notification requirement is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) definition. C) insuring agreement. D) condition.

condition

The policy provision requiring the filing of proof of loss with the insurer is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) condition. C) insuring agreement. D) miscellaneous provision.

condition

The section of the insurance policy that includes provisions that qualify or limit the insurer's promise to perform is the A) definitions. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

conditions

Ted's insurance claim was denied by XYZ Insurance Company. When Ted inquired why the claim was denied, he was told to, "Read the exclusion on page 5 of the policy." Ted read the exclusion. In his opinion, the exclusion was poorly worded and vague. If a court of law agrees with Ted's assessment of the exclusion, Ted may still be able to have his claim paid by the insurer because insurance contracts are A) personal contracts. B) unilateral contracts. C) aleatory contracts. D) contracts of adhesion.

contracts of adhesion.

Which of the following is an expense for a life insurance company? A) loss reserves B) death benefits paid to a beneficiary C) unrealized capital gains D) realized capital gains

death benefits paid to a beneficiary

That part of a property and liability insurance contract that contains information about the property or activity to be insured is called the A) declarations. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

declarations.

An elimination (waiting) period is an example of a(n) A) exclusion. B) deductible. C) other-insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

deductible

The primary function of an actuary is to A) adjust claims. B) determine premium rates. C) negotiate reinsurance treaties. D) invest insurance company assets

determine premium rates.

The purpose of a coordination-of-benefits provision in group health insurance plans is to A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss. B) determine which health care provider an insured may use for his or her care. C) determine if the calendar-year deductible has been satisfied by the insured. D) determine if the employee is eligible for coverage under the group health plan.

determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss

One of the reasons that deductible are used in insurance policies is to A) eliminate coverage for small claims. B) place restrictions or limits on the insurer's promise to perform. C) provide broader coverage by increasing the number of perils covered. D) exclude perils that are not insurable

eliminate coverage for small claims.

Shauna hurt her back and was unable to work. She filed a claim under her disability income insurance policy. Under terms of the policy, a period of time must pass between when the injury occurred and when the insurer begins to replace lost earnings. This time period is called a(n) A) grace period. B) enrollment period. C) probationary period. D) elimination (waiting) period.

elimination (waiting) period

A provision in a disability income insurance policy that requires a person to be disabled for 60 days before receiving benefits is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) grace period. C) elimination period. D) probationary period.

elimination period.

Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on his personal property. He contacted his agent who said, "I'll simply add an amendment to your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost." The written provision the agent was referring to is called a(n) A) endorsement. B) coinsurance clause. C) binder. D) deductible

endorsement

Frank asked his company's employee benefits director if his group health coverage could be converted to individual coverage. The benefits director said, "Yes, you can convert to an individual policy, and the coverage is identical to your group coverage." Frank quit his job and converted to an individual policy. Six months later he filed a claim. He was dismayed to learn the conversion policy was more limited compared to the group coverage, and his claim was denied. What legal doctrine will allow Frank to bring a successful legal action against his former employer because he was financially harmed due to his reasonable reliance upon a representation of fact? A) adhesion B) waiver C) estoppel D) subrogation

estoppel

Huge Insurance Company is a property insurer that is interested in protecting itself against cumulative losses that exceed $200 million during the year. This protection can best be obtained using a(n) A) quota-share reinsurance treaty. B) surplus-share reinsurance treaty. C) excess-of-loss reinsurance treaty. D) reinsurance pool.

excess-of-loss reinsurance treaty.

The exclusion of flood in a homeowners policy is an example of an A) excluded activity. B) excluded condition. C) excluded property. D) excluded peril

excluded peril

Under one type of merit rating, the class or manual rate is adjusted upward or downward based on past loss history. This type of merit rating is called A) schedule rating. B) judgment rating. C) experience rating. D) retrospective rating.

experience rating.

The unit of measurement used in property and casualty insurance pricing is called the A) unit rate. B) premium. C) exposure unit. D) experience unit.

exposure unit.

In schedule rating, each building is individually evaluated based on several rating factors. One factor refers to the possibility that the building will be damaged or destroyed by a fire that starts at an adjacent property and spreads to the building. This rating factor is known as A) occupancy. B) protection. C) maintenance. D) exposure.

exposure.

Powers specifically conferred on an agent to act on behalf of a principal are A) incidental authority. B) apparent authority. C) implied authority. D) express authority.

express authority.

A reinsurance contract that is entered into on a case-by-case basis after an application for insurance is received by a primary insurer is called A) a reinsurance pool. B) automatic treaty reinsurance. C) retrocession. D) facultative reinsurance.

facultative reinsurance.

Some courts have ruled that an alternative to "replacement cost less depreciation" should be used to determine the actual cash value of a property loss. Under this alternative, the value of property lost is determined by the price a willing buyer would pay a willing seller for the property in a free market. This method of determining actual cash value is called the A) intrinsic value method. B) valued policy method. C) fair market value method. D) forensic cost method.

fair market value method.

All of the following will support an insurable interest for purposes of purchasing property and liability insurance EXCEPT A) former ownership of property. B) potential legal liability. C) secured creditors. D) contractual right.

former ownership of property.

As an alternative to coinsurance, rate discounts can be given as the amount of insurance to value increases. This alternative is called A) graded rates. B) agreed value coverage. C) retrospective rating. D) manual rating.

graded rates.

The authority of an agent to perform all incidental acts necessary to fulfill the purposes of the agency agreement is called A) implied authority. B) declared authority. C) apparent authority. D) express authority.

implied authority.

Beverly lives in a sparsely populated area in northern Idaho. Some insurance companies marketing coverage in northern Idaho cannot afford to have full-time adjustors there. Several insurers hire Beverly to adjust claims for their insureds. Beverly charges the insurers a fee for each claim that she settles. Beverly is a(n) A) public adjustor. B) adjustment bureau. C) independent adjustor. D) company adjustor.

independent adjustor.

If an underwriter suspects moral hazard, the underwriter may ask an outside firm to investigate the applicant and make a detailed report to the insurer. This report is called a(n) A) inspection report. B) application. C) M.I.B. report. D) agent's report.

inspection report.

Mark has been an underwriter for 20 years. An application he recently reviewed looked odd to him. The building value in the application seemed far too high, and Mark suspected the applicant might be planning to destroy the property after it is insured. Mark hired an outside firm to investigate the applicant and to prepare a report about the applicant. This report is called a(n) A) agent's report. B) binder. C) physical inspection. D) inspection report.

inspection report.

Insurers obtain data that can be used to determine rates from A) pricing pools. B) insurance advisory organizations. C) banks. D) reciprocal exchanges.

insurance advisory organizations.

The assets of a property and liability insurance company are primarily A) investments such as stocks and bonds. B) loss reserves. C) plant and equipment. D) premiums paid by policyholders.

investments such as stocks and bonds.

In determining insurance limits and deductibles, an important concept is that insurance should be used to pay big losses rather than small losses. The objective is to insure big losses that could cause financial ruin and to exclude small losses that can be budgeted out of current income. This concept is called the A) law of large numbers. B) efficient loss-cost concept. C) large-loss principle. D) retention-transfer tradeoff.

large-loss principle.

Mark owns a bar. The bar has a back room where Mark has some slot machines. Mark lets some of his patrons play the machines, and Mark keeps any profits. This type of gambling is illegal where Mark lives. Mark wanted to purchase insurance in case his slot machines were confiscated by the police. Such an insurance contract would not be enforceable. Which requirement needed to form a valid insurance contract is missing? A) consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

legal purpose

A property and liability insurance company's loss reserve and unearned premium reserve are A) assets. B) liabilities. C) income. D) expenses.

liabilities.

Deductibles are not used in which of the following type of insurance? A) life insurance B) health insurance C) property insurance D) disability income insurance

life insurance

Nathan was hired as an actuary with ABC Insurance. Nathan was asked to calculate the annual premium for a new product and to explain his calculations to ABC's director of ratemaking. Nathan calculated the pure premium and presented this value as the final premium. After Nathan's presentation, the director of ratemaking said, "You left out something very important. If we sell coverage at the pure premium rate, we'll be out of business soon." What did Nathan overlook in his calculations? A) loading for expenses B) the underwriting cycle C) seasonality of claims D) investment income

loading for expenses

The portion of an insurance premium allocated to expenses, profit, and a margin for contingencies is called the A) loading. B) pure premium. C) gross premium. D) experience rate.

loading.

One liability on a property and liability insurance company's balance sheet is for the costs associated with settling and paying reserved claims. This liability is the A) pre-paid expense reserve. B) loss reserve. C) unearned premium reserve. D) loss adjustment expense reserve.

loss adjustment expense reserve.

Ross studied engineering in college. After graduation, he went to work for an insurance company. Ross visits properties insured by his company. He conducts inspections and makes recommendations about alarm systems, sprinkler systems, and building construction. In what functional area does Ross work? A) underwriting B) loss control C) information systems D) claims adjusting

loss control

Which of the following would not appear in the asset section of an insurance company's balance sheet? A) loss reserves B) bonds C) common stock D) real estate

loss reserves

One item that appears on an insurance company's financial statements is a liability that represents an estimate of the claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid, claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted, and claims incurred but not yet reported to the company. This liability is called the insurer's A) net income. B) loss reserves. C) admitted assets. D) unearned premium reserve

loss reserves.

Property insurance policies contain declarations, conditions, definitions, exclusions, and an insuring agreement. However, some policy terms, such as subrogation, cancellation, other insurance, and assignment do not fall into these categories. The part of an insurance contract in which these provisions can be found is the A) endorsements. B) binders. C) conditions. D) miscellaneous provisions.

miscellaneous provisions

A false material statement made by an applicant for insurance is an example of A) concealment. B) breach of warranty. C) lack of offer and acceptance. D) misrepresentation.

misrepresentation

When Ben applied for life insurance, he was asked on the application if he smoked or used tobacco products. Ben answered "No." In reality, Ben smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. The policy was issued at the "preferred, nonsmoker rate." If Ben dies 6 months after the policy is issued, upon what grounds will the insurer be able to legally deny the claim? A) warranty B) misrepresentation C) waiver D) concealment

misrepresentation

Which of the following statements about a calendar-year deductible is (are) true? I. It requires the insured to pay a specified amount of each claim regardless of when the claim occurs during the year and regardless of any previous claims during the year. II. It is used only in policies which cover direct property losses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

neither I nor II

Which of the following statements about claim settlement is (are) true? I. The fair payment of claims requires an insurer to adopt a very liberal claims policy. II. To prevent lawsuits, an insurer should provide no personal assistance to a claimant other than that which is required by contractual obligations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

neither I nor II

An Econodeath Insurance Company actuary calculated the present value of the expected death claim the company will pay if it sells whole life insurance to a 30-year-old woman. This value is called the A) net level premium. B) gross premium. C) net single premium. D) life insurance policy reserve.

net single premium.

A strip-mall includes eight identical-sized retail units. All of the units were built at the same time and each has an identical sprinkler system. Unit number two is a dry cleaning business. Unit number three is a bar and grill. Unit number four is a dress shop. The owners of these three units are all insured by the same insurance company, but the property insurance premiums vary significantly. Which of the following rating factors best explains the difference in premiums? A) exposure B) protection C) construction D) occupancy

occupancy

Chris applied for life insurance and paid the first premium on Monday. She was given an insurability premium receipt which specified that coverage was effective on the date of the application or the date of the medical exam, whichever is later. She took the medical exam the following Thursday. She was found to be in perfect health. On which day was her coverage effective? A) on Monday, when she completed the application and paid the first premium B) on Wednesday, two days after completing the application and paying the first premium C) on Thursday when she passed the medical exam D) on Saturday, two days after passing the medical exam

on Thursday when she passed the medical exam

When must an insurable interest legally exist in life insurance? A) only at the time of the insured's death B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the beneficiary is paid D) both at the time of the insured's death and at the inception of the policy

only at the inception of the policy

At what point in time must an insured meet the coinsurance requirement in a property insurance policy in order to avoid having to pay a portion of the loss? A) only at the time of loss B) only at the time when the policy is issued C) only at the time of policy application D) both at the time when the policy is issued and at the time of loss

only at the time of loss

When must an insurable interest legally exist in property insurance for an insured to receive payment for a loss from the insurer? A) only at the time of the loss B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the loss settlement takes place D) both at the time of the loss and at the inception of the policy

only at the time of the loss

An insurance policy provision that specifies how a property loss will be settled if more than one property insurance policy covers the loss is the A) insuring agreement provision. B) loss settlement provision. C) other insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

other insurance provision.

Homeowners insurance policies usually cover resident relatives of the named insured who are under age 24 and who are full-time students away from home. Under the homeowners policy, these full-time students are considered A) first named insureds. B) second named insureds. C) other insureds. D) additional insureds.

other insureds.

A pharmaceutical company employs a young chemist who is responsible for three new patents last year and for the development of the company's two best-selling drugs. The company purchased a large life insurance policy on the chemist. In this case, the insurable interest requirement was met because of a(n) A) ownership interest. B) close family relationship. C) pecuniary interest. D) economic family relationship.

pecuniary interest.

Lisa has three fire insurance policies on her office building. The policy from company A is for $400,000, and the policies from companies B and C are for $100,000 each. If Lisa has a $360,000 loss, how much of the loss will be covered by each policy if the loss is settled on a pro rata basis by the insurers? A) each policy: $120,000 B) policy A: $160,000; policies B and C: $100,000 each C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each D) policy A: $360,000; policies B and C: nothing

policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each

Which of the following items would appear in the income section of an insurance company's income and expense statement? A) underwriting expense B) bonds C) loss reserves D) premiums

premiums

Gwen is in charge of accounting at Integrity Insurance Company. Integrity is a publicly-traded insurer. In describing her job, Gwen said, "There aren't too many businesses where you are required to keep two sets of books." Gwen's comment most likely refers to her company A) preparing accounting statements using statutory and GAAP accounting. B) preparing one set of records for the insurer's managers and another set for the policyholders. C) preparing one set of books using dishonest values and another set using current market values. D) preparing one set of accounting statements considering investment income and another set of accounting statements not considering investment income.

preparing accounting statements using statutory and GAAP accounting

The purpose of other-insurance provisions is to A) eliminate the need for deductibles. B) penalize those insureds who carry inadequate amounts of insurance. C) specify who will pay losses if the insurer is bankrupt. D) preserve the principle of indemnity

preserve the principle of indemnity.

Easy Pay Insurance Company may require insureds who suffer a loss to submit a sworn statement to substantiate that a loss occurred and to describe the conditions under which the loss occurred. This sworn statement is called a(n) A) binder. B) proof of loss. C) inspection report. D) notice of loss.

proof of loss.

In schedule rating, each building is individually rated on several factors. One factor refers to the quality of the city's water supply and fire department, and the risk control devices installed in the building. This factor is called A) exposure. B) occupancy. C) protection. D) housekeeping.

protection.

A special coverage policy is a policy that A) has no exclusions. B) provides open-perils coverage. C) provides coverage under special conditions. D) has coverage for multiple lines of insurance.

provides open-perils coverage.

All of the following are methods that a property and liability insurance company can use to protect against catastrophic losses EXCEPT A) sale of catastrophe bonds. B) purchase of common stock. C) purchase of excess-of-loss reinsurance. D) quota share reinsurance with a low retention percentage.

purchase of common stock.

Liability Insurance Company (LIC) was approached by a regional airline to see if LIC would write the airline's liability coverage. LIC agreed to write the coverage and entered into an agreement with a reinsurer. Under the agreement, LIC retains 25 percent of the premium and pays 25 percent of the losses, and the reinsurer receives 75 percent of the premium and pays 75 percent of the losses. This reinsurance arrangement is best described as A) excess-of-loss reinsurance. B) surplus-share reinsurance. C) quota-share reinsurance. D) pool reinsurance.

quota-share reinsurance.

The price per unit of insurance is called the A) premium. B) loss adjustment expense. C) rate. D) loss reserve.

rate.

One method through which reinsurance is provided is through an organization of insurers that underwrites insurance on a joint basis. Through the organization, financial capacity is available for large commercial risks. This reinsurance arrangement is a(n) A) quota-share treaty. B) surplus-share treaty. C) excess-of-loss treaty. D) reinsurance pool.

reinsurance pool.

Small Town used to be just that—a small town 6 miles from Large City. Over the years, the area between Small Town and Large City has developed, and now Small Town is part of the suburbs surrounding Large City. An auto insurer that operated in the area had a large increase in auto claims from Small Town insureds. The insurer did not adjust its rates, and this year will lose money because of claims attributable to higher population density. Which business rating objective did this insurer fail to meet? A) simplicity B) stability C) responsiveness D) encouragement of loss control

responsiveness

A manufacturing company just hired a new risk manager, and she has instituted several employee safety programs. She has persuaded the insurer writing the company's workers compensation insurance to base the premium on the company's actual loss experience during the current coverage period rather than on the company's historical performance. This type of plan is called a(n) A) retrospectively rated plan. B) class rated plan. C) experience rated plan. D) judgment rated plan.

retrospectively rated plan.

Amy heads the legal staff of a large property and liability insurance company. Amy's staff is likely involved in which of the following activities? A) reviewing investment options for the insurer's assets B) reviewing language and policy provisions in insurance contracts C) calculating premiums to be charged for the insurer's products D) reviewing applications to determine if the company should insure the risk

reviewing language and policy provisions in insurance contracts

Maggie purchased a life insurance policy. She was concerned that if she became disabled, she would no longer be able to pay the premiums. Her agent added an amendment of the policy stating that if she became disabled, future premium payments would be waived. Such an amendment to a life insurance policy is called a(n) A) binder. B) rider. C) warranty. D) schedule.

rider.

The process of transferring risk to the capital markets through the use of financial instruments such as bonds, futures contracts, and options is known as A) consolidation of risk. B) avoidance of risk. C) securitization of risk. D) compartmentalization of risk.

securitization of risk.

To protect policyholders, state laws place limitations on a life insurance company's investments. The assets backing interest-sensitive products, such as variable life insurance and variable annuities, are not subject to these restrictions. Assets backing interest-sensitive products are placed in a special account called the life insurer's A) policy reserve account. B) policy loan account. C) separate account. D) policyholders surplus.

separate account.

A highly specialized technician who provides local agents in the field with technical help and assistance with marketing problems is called a(n) A) general agent. B) actuary. C) Certified Financial Planner. D) special agent.

special agent

Catastrophe bonds are made available to institutional investors in the capital markets through an entity that is specially created for that purpose. This is entity is called a A) risk retention group. B) fraternal insurance company. C) captive insurance company. D) special purpose reinsurance vehicle

special purpose reinsurance vehicle.

ABC Insurance Company entered into a reinsurance agreement with XYZ Reinsurance. Under the contract, XYZ Re has no liability unless ABC's loss ratio exceeds 85 percent for the year. XYZ Re agreed to pay all losses in excess of the 85 percent loss ratio. ABC Insurance Company is using reinsurance to A) stabilize profits. B) reduce the unearned premium reserve. C) provide large risk capacity. D) retire from a line or territory.

stabilize profits.

Morgan was hired by an insurance company after she graduated from college. Upon completion of a training program, Morgan was assigned to a territory where she adjusts claims of the insurer's policyowners. Morgan is a(n) A) public adjustor. B) staff claims representative. C) agent. D) independent adjustor.

staff claims representative.

Under the terms of Jenny's auto insurance policy, she must pay the first $500 of any physical damage loss to her vehicle before her insurer will pay anything. What type of deductible is included in Jenny's auto insurance policy? A) calendar-year deductible B) waiting period C) straight deductible D) aggregate deductible

straight deductible

The deductible used for automobile collision losses is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) elimination period. C) straight deductible. D) aggregate deductible.

straight deductible.

Sue's office building was damaged by a fire caused by a careless tenant. After paying Sue for the loss, the insurance company sued the tenant to recover its loss. This suit is based on the principle of A) warranty. B) insurable interest. C) utmost good faith. D) subrogation

subrogation

The principle of utmost good faith is supported by all of the following legal doctrines EXCEPT A) representations. B) warranty. C) subrogation. D) concealment.

subrogation.

Granite Insurance Company entered into a treaty reinsurance agreement with Rock Solid Reinsurance (RSR). Granite's retention limit is $400,000 and RSR agreed to provide reinsurance for up to $2.0 million. If Granite writes an $800,000 policy, RSR is responsible for 50 percent of the losses. If Granite insures a $1.6 million risk, RSR is responsible for 25 percent of any losses. What type of reinsurance arrangement did Granite enter into with RSR? A) facultative reinsurance B) surplus share reinsurance C) quota share reinsurance D) excess of loss reinsurance

surplus share reinsurance

Under one method of estimating a loss reserve, the reserve is based on life expectancy, duration of disability, and similar factors. This method of estimating loss reserves is called the A) judgment method. B) tabular value method. C) loss ratio method. D) average value method.

tabular value method.

Common sources of underwriting information for life and health insurance include all of the following EXCEPT A) the application. B) a physical examination. C) the Medical Information Bureau. D) the applicant's income tax return.

the applicant's income tax return.

Under which of the following rules is actual cash value determined by taking into consideration all relevant factors an expert would use to determine the value of the property? A) the circumstantial evidence rule B) the broad evidence rule C) the property indemnity rule D) the objective value rule

the broad evidence rule

Maria's home was damaged by an earthquake. As Maria has open-perils coverage on her home, she was surprised to learn that her loss was not covered. Which section of a property insurance policy specifies which perils, property, and types of losses are not covered? A) the declarations B) the exclusions C) the conditions D) the insuring agreement

the exclusions

ABC Life Insurance Company insures both smokers and nonsmokers. Beth lied on her life insurance application, checking the box for "no" in response to the question of whether she smokes cigarettes or uses other tobacco products. Even though Beth smokes 10 to 15 cigarettes each day, the policy was issued at the "preferred nonsmoker rate." Beth's lie is materiel in this case because A) it was in writing on the application. B) it was given with the intent to deceive. C) the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts. D) the policy would have been issued for a lower face value if the insurer knew the true facts.

the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts.

The general rule that ambiguity in insurance contracts is construed against the insurer is reinforced by an important legal principle. This principle states the insured is entitled to coverage under a policy that he or she would assume the policy would provide, and exclusions must be conspicuous, plain, and clear. This principle is known as A) the principle of utmost good faith. B) the principle of reasonable expectations. C) the principle of subrogation. D) the principle of indemnity.

the principle of reasonable expectations.

Melody's car was damaged when another driver ran a stop sign and hit her car. Melody decided to collect from her own insurer and to let her insurer recoup the loss payment from the negligent driver who hit her. What fundamental legal principle is illustrated in this scenario? A) the principle of utmost good faith B) the principle of insurable interest C) the principle of subrogation D) the principle of reasonable expectations

the principle of subrogation

In a reinsurance transaction, the ceding commission is paid by A) the insured to the ceding company. B) the reinsurer to the ceding company. C) the ceding company to the insured. D) the ceding company to the reinsurer.

the reinsurer to the ceding company.

Charles Blake told Wendy that he was an agent for Easy Pay Life Insurance Company. He presented no credentials. He asked Wendy some questions about her health and activities, and recorded the answers on scrap paper. He collected a $250 cash premium from Wendy. When Wendy did not receive a policy from Easy Pay, she contacted the company. Easy Pay said they do not have an agent named Charles Blake. Easy Pay is not responsible for Wendy's loss of $250 because A) the principal is never responsible for the acts of its agents. B) there is no presumption of an agency relationship. C) limitations can be placed on the powers of agents. D) knowledge of the agent is assumed to be knowledge of the principal.

there is no presumption of an agency relationship.

Which of the following is a function of the marketing department of an insurance company? A) to settle claims after a loss has been reported B) to determine the cost of products the insurer sells C) to make final underwriting decisions D) to identify production goals

to identify production goals

All of the following are reasons for a primary insurer to use reinsurance EXCEPT A) to increase the unearned premium reserve. B) to increase underwriting capacity. C) to protect against catastrophic losses. D) to stabilize profits.

to increase the unearned premium reserve.

Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of the principle of indemnity? A) to reduce moral hazard B) to minimize physical hazards C) to settle property insurance losses on a replacement cost basis D) to require deductibles in all property insurance policies

to reduce moral hazard

New Liability Insurance Company began operations last year and has been very successful. The company's ability to grow is being restricted by an accounting rule that requires insurers to realize acquisition expenses immediately, while not realizing premiums received as income until some time has passed. Reinsurance is often used in such cases for which of the following purposes? A) to stabilize profitability B) to reduce the unearned premium reserve C) to provide protection against catastrophic losses D) to withdraw from a line of business or territory

to reduce the unearned premium reserve

Exclusions are used in insurance policies for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce moral hazard. B) to waive policy conditions. C) to eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils. D) to eliminate coverage not needed by typical insureds.

to waive policy conditions.

Jan is employed by an insurance company. She reviews applications to determine whether her company should insure the applicant. If insurable, Jan assigns the applicant to a rating category based on the applicant's degree of risk. Jan is a(n) A) underwriter. B) actuary. C) loss control engineer. D) claims adjustor

underwriter.

Which distinct legal characteristic of insurance contracts states that only the insurer's promise to perform is legally enforceable? A) contracts of adhesion B) unilateral contracts C) aleatory contracts D) personal contracts

unilateral contracts

Kim purchased a one-year property insurance policy. She agreed to pay half the premium when she bought the coverage, and the other half six months later. If Kim fails to pay the second premium, the insurer cannot sue her for the premium because insurance contracts are A) unilateral contracts. B) contracts of adhesion. C) personal contracts. D) aleatory contracts.

unilateral contracts.

Some states have a law that requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law. These laws are called A) agreed amount laws. B) replacement cost laws. C) homestead laws. D) valued policy laws.

valued policy laws.

State insurance regulators require LMN Life Insurance Company to maintain a separate account. The assets in the separate account would support the liabilities for which of the following products? A) term life insurance B) whole life insurance C) fixed annuity D) variable life insurance

variable life insurance

Antonio is a claims adjustor for LMN Insurance Company. After the insurer is notified that there has been a loss, Antonio meets with the insured. The first step in the claims process that Antonio should follow is to A) determine the amount of the loss. B) attempt to deny the claim regardless of whether he believes the claim is covered. C) verify that a covered loss has occurred. D) delay paying the claim if the claim is covered.

verify that a covered loss has occurred.

The voluntary relinquishment of a legal right is called A) subrogation. B) adhesion. C) estoppel. D) waiver.

waiver.

David owns a liquor store in a high-crime area. In order to obtain a reduced insurance premium, David promised to have a burglar alarm operating at the store when the store was closed. This agreement, which was incorporated into the insurance contract, is an example of a A) representation. B) binder. C) rider. D) warranty.

warranty

Robin plans to open a bar in a high-crime area. She had difficulty obtaining insurance for the business. She found an insurer willing to write the coverage, but only if Robin agreed to have a security alarm system in operation at all times when the business is closed. Robin's promise to have a security alarm system operational as a condition of having the insurance coverage in force is a A) binder. B) warranty. C) waiver. D) deductible.

warranty.