Final Exam Review
Treponema pallidum has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium. can cross the placenta. is transmitted by direct sexual contact. has humans as the reservoir. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation? destroy microbes block further invasion start tissue repair mobilize and attract immune components to injury site cause a fever
Cause a fever
Pertussis
Caused by Bordetella; called "whooping cough"
Diptheria
Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae which eventually results in pseudo-membrane formation on the tonsils or pharynx
Select the statements that apply to all of the following nonhemorrhagic fever diseases: brucellosis, Q fever, cat-scratch disease, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Caused by a gram-negative bacterium
Sinusitis
Caused by a number of bacteria and results in nasal congestion, pressure above the nose or in the forehead, and headache
common cold
Caused by hundreds of viruses and results in sneezing, scratchy throat, and runny nose
What of the following describe the type of cells the RN would expect to visualize upon staining of a specimen from a patient with this disease caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
Gram-negative cocci
The RN advises the employee that she is at risk for which of the following diseases?
HIV Hep B Hep C
During the 2014 epidemic, a few patients were successfully treated with Z-MAPP, which is composed of ____________________ the virus.
antibodies to
The RN provides education for the patient regarding confirmation of the differential diagnosis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be ordered?
antibody titer
Which of the following make the third line of defense different than the first and second lines of defense?
antigen specificity development of memory
Helper T cells interact with target cells by recognizing
antigen-MHC protein complexes
______ are molecules that stimulate a response by T cells and B cells.
antigens
Allergens are:
antigens that do not affect some people but trigger extreme reactions in others.
_____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large-scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage. Bromine Iodine Fluorine All of the choices are correct. Chlorine
chlorine
Select the antiprotozoal drugs from this list.
chloroquine primaquine quinacrine metranidazole
Cat-scratch fever can be prevented by vaccine. cleaning the scratch wound. avoiding ticks. pasteurizing milk.
cleaning the scratch wound.
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by indirect contact. casual contact. close contact. fomites.
close contact.
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. common cause of bacterial pneumonia. more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. causes a serious meningitis.
common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
In 2004, MRSA infections began to appear in individuals with no history of hospitalization; these were classified as _______________ MRSA.
community associated
Antitoxins confer passive immunity. utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen. are always genetically engineered. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
confer passive immunity
Select the appropriate uses of hydrogen peroxide for antimicrobial purposes.
contact lens disinfection low temperature sterilizing cabinets for colonoscopes wound cleansing
It is spread by ____________________________, and in the United States, ___________________ are most at risk of contracting the infection.
contact with body fluids; health care workers
Select all of the correct statements concerning the normal biota of the gastrointestinal tract.
contains billions of microorganisms provides a protective function helps educate the immune system
Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA? contains uracil contains ribose contains nucleotides contains thymine contains adenine
contains thymine
After repeated exposure to foreign material, nonspecific immunity
continues to react the same way.
Reducing the intensity of light using the iris diaphragm or staining a specimen can improve ___________.
contrast
As the symptoms of the infection decline, the patient enters a period of recovery called the ________________ period.
convalescent
Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? bright field phase contrast electron dark field fluorescence
electron
After performing a thorough medical work up, the patient is diagnosed with breast cancer. Which of the following is the source of the patient's persistent fever?
endogenous pyrogens
The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is aerosol. indirect contact. opportunism. endogenous transfer.
endogenous transfer.
Which of the following would not be killed by standard-concentration hydrogen peroxide?
endospores
The three primary functions that complement carries out are
enhancing phagocytosis, causing inflammation, and killing target cells.
The patient's urine culture growth was observed on a medium containing growth factors and complex nutrients. Which term describes this type of medium?
enriched medium
Each of the following affect cell walls except vancomycin. cephalosporin. penicillin. erythromycin. isoniazid.
erythromycin.
The differential stage of the Gram stain is the application of _____.
ethanol
Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual, structural, and functional changes over long periods of time? genetics evolution phylogeny None of the choices is correct. morphology
evolution
Allograft
exchange between genetically different individuals belonging to the same species
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is hemolysin. enterotoxin. exfoliative toxin. erythrogenic toxin.
exfoliative toxin.
Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells by
exposing them to chemicals which induces apoptosis.
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by exposure in birth canal. hospital personnel. transplacental infection. exposure from other infants. breast feeding.
exposure in birth canal.
Interferon is produced by an animal cell that is infected by a bacterium.
f
Since the eye's primary function is vision, it is important to have a strong, easily initiated inflammatory response in this region.
f
A hapten is an antigen that is capable of causing antibody production on its own.
false
A technique called peptide nucleic acid FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) is used to identify 16s RNA sequences, but is a time-consuming process since the organism must first be cultured.
false
A xenobiotic is any compound that has been chemically altered to undergo biodegradation.
false
All coliform species are fecal bacteria; therefore, a high total coliform count indicates a substance is absolutely unsafe to drink.
false
Bacteria appear transiently in the stomach as they travel through the GI tract, but there are no normal biota members associated with the stomach.
false
Each B cell can react to many different types of antigens.
false
Helper T cells interact with Class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins.
false
If JV's cilia are unable to clear his lungs of mucus, what line of defense is being breached? first line of defense second line of defense first and second lines of defense third line of defense
first line of defense
There are ______ species of Plasmodium known to cause disease.
five
It has been hypothesized that global warming weather patterns like El Nino could increase the incidence of leptospirosis around the world by causing
flooding.
Corticosteroids will bind to histamine receptors on target organs. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. relieve inflammatory symptoms. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. block synthesis of leukotrienes.
inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
The drug AZT
inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
During the period of _____________, the infectious agent multiplies at high levels and becomes well established in its target tissue.
initiation
Select the examples of nonspecific host defense mechanisms in order to test your understanding of host defenses.
innate anatomical and physiological barriers innate cellular and chemical defenses phagocytosis and inflammation
The lab introduces the sample into a medium with the appropriate nutrients to sustain growth. What term describes this process?
inoculation
____________ involves placing a sample into a container of fresh medium.
inoculation
Which of the following is the most important topic of education regarding prevention of West Nile infection?
insect control
Cytokines that activate specific immune responses
interferon gamma interleukin 5 interleukin 12 interleukin 10
Cytokines that Regulate Lymphocyte Growth and Activation
interleukin 2 macrophage colony-stimulating factor
B-cell differentiation is stimulated by
interleukins
The specific immune response
involves memory of antigens from previous exposure.
Strategies are being developed to disrupt the ____________ capabilities of bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus, which may help wipe out antibiotic-resistant strains of this and other microorganisms.
iron-scavenging
If the patient develops rabies infection, the time from the bite to the appearance of symptoms is referred to as the period of invasion. incubation period. convalescent period. prodromal stage.
incubation period.
Hantavirus
induces inflammatory response
The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except identification. isolation. inoculation. infection. incubation.
infection
Select the correct statements concerning mumps, a gastrointestinal tract disease.
inflammation of the salivary glands humans the only host for the virus
Select the nonspecific processes below to test your understanding of the various categories of nonspecific immunity.
inflammatory response complement cascade phagocytosis interferon production
Biochemical, immunological, and genetic testing assist the microbiologist in ____________ so that a final ____________ can be made.
information gathering; identification
Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years. sterilization desiccation lyophilization flash freeze pasteurization
lyophilization
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is histamine. hydrochloric acid. bile. lactic acid. lysozyme.
lysozyme
Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?
macrophages and B cells
All the following are events of early inflammation except capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema. exudate and pus can accumulate. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
Host defense peptides, such as ____________ and protegins, along with bacterial defensive peptides such as ____________ , may be more effective than narrowly targeted drugs in current use and may be much less likely to foster resistance.
magainins; lantibiotics
Lowenstein-Jensen
malachite green allows for the growth of mycobacterium; selective media
The incidence of which disease is most likely to be impacted as a result of increased rainfall? hepatitis A Salmonella gastroenteritis malaria
malaria
All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except malaria. giardiasis. campylobacter. cyclosporiasis. cryptosporidiosis.
malaria.
Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their skin. biota. markers. cell walls. cell processes.
markers
When assisting with care activities for a patient with rotavirus, the RN should observe all of the following standard precautions, except
mask
IgE molecules attach to ____.
mast cells via their constant region
In providing education about E. coli, the RN most appropriately uses which of the following terms, meaning disease-causing, to describe this organism?
pathogen
During which stage of viral replication does amantadine exert its inhibitory effect?
penetration and uncoating
The RN ensures that chemotherapy begins as soon as possible. What is the initial drug the RN anticipates to be ordered for this patient?
penicillin G
What type of bonds are formed between adjacent amino acids? phosphate glycosilic disulfide peptide ester
peptide
What type of bonds link individual amino acids together? peptide bonds polymerizing bonds hydrogen bonds organic bonds
peptide bonds
Cytotoxic T cells produce _______.
perforin, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells
Involuntary muscle contractions which move a bolus through the gastrointestinal tract are called
peristalsis.
Microbial death occurs when there is a change in appearance. permanent loss of reproduction. All of these occur. no movement. a decrease in size.
permanent loss of reproduction.
Mannitol Salt Agar
phenol red allows for identification of staphylococcal species; differential media
Select the components of DNA and RNA to test your understanding of nucleic acid composition.
phosphate ribose and deoxyribose nitrogenous bases
The correct structure of DNA components can be presented as
phosphate-sugar-base.
The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called biotechnology. phylogeny. taxonomy. recombinant DNA. genetics.
phylogeny
Following assessment by the physician, the child is diagnosed with conjunctivitis. Which of the following is the common name for this disease?
pinkeye
Complement is part of a group of "second-line" host defenses which are nonspecific or mainly nonspecific. Which of these is NOT part of that group?
plasma cells
Which type of cells produce antibodies?
plasma cells
The patient likely has pneumonia and respiratory specimens are sent to the lab to confirm this initial diagnosis. In educating the patient about the diagnosis, which organism does the RN state is the primary cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
pneumococcus
As the RN, you document the care and assessment of the patient in the chart prior to transfer to an inpatient unit. What is the most appropriate term for the clinical manifestations of disease? syndromes signs symptoms signs and symptoms
signs
A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of capsule staining. simple staining. using an acidic dye. negative staining. using the acid-fast stain.
simple staining
Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory system? bronchi alveoli bronchioles sinuses
sinuses
All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy except systemic lupus erythematosus. eczema. drug allergy. anaphylaxis. allergic asthma.
systemic lupus erythematosus.
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have an expanded spectrum of activity. All of the choices are correct. are semisynthetic. target the cell wall. have resistance to the action of penicillinase.
target the cell wall
Select the statement that describes the antimicrobial activity of chlorhexidine.
targets cell membrane components and denatures proteins
biotechnology
technology that applies the power of microbes toward the manufacture of industrial products, foods, and drugs.
The ______________ as well as the ____ level of the environment will also influence the action of microbicidal agents.
temperature, pH
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? secondary latent All of the choices are correct. tertiary
tertiary
Serotyping of pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in Western blot. the Quellung test. Ouchterlony double diffusion. immunelectrophoresis.
the Quellung test.
Resolution
the ability to distinguish between two separate structures that are very close to one another
Magnification
the apparent increase in size of an image
Pertussis has the following characteristics except transmission is by droplet contact. DTaP immunization will prevent it. the disease progresses through several distinct stages. the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops."
the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops."
The patient's mother asks how to prevent the virus from spreading to her other two young children at home. All of the following are important education topics to be addressed by the RN prior to the patient's discharge, except:
the children at home should be started on antibiotics.
iris
the colored part of the eye.
cornea
the dome shaped central portion of the eye.
ATP is best described as an enzyme. an electron carrier. the energy molecule of cells. All of the choices are correct. a double helix.
the energy molecule of cells.
Hepatitis C is known as the "silent epidemic" for more than 4 million Americans are infected with this virus; however, infection rates in the United States and abroad are decreasing due to the implementation of a successful vaccine.
false
Lysis of sheep red blood cells indicates the patient has the antibody being tested for.
false
Mutations that inactivate the CCR5 receptor make an individual more susceptible to AIDS.
false
Regarding use of heat to control microbial growth, dry heat at lower temperatures is as effective as moist heat at the same temperature.
false
Superantigens are processed by antigen-presenting cells.
false
The Gardasil vaccine prevents infection by all types of human papillomaviruses.
false
The complement fixation test looks for the presence of specific antigens in the patient's blood.
false
The physiological reactions of bacteria to enzymes provide indirect evidence of the types of substrates present in a particular species
false
The polymerase chain reaction can only be employed on bacterial samples for pathogen diagnosis.
false
The respiratory system is protected from invading microorganisms by only first-line (innate) immune defenses.
false
Toxic shock syndrome is a mild disease similar to other mild allergic reactions.
false
True or False: Aspirin is used to control the patient's severe pain in cases of Dengue fever.
false
True or False: Based upon these results, the pathogen appears to be a bacterium.
false
True or False: Hemolytic transfusion reactions occur due to underreaction or loss of the immune system.
false
True or False: Influenza can be completely ruled out due to the negative rapid test.
false
True or False: LPS is responsible for the destruction of red blood cells in this reaction.
false
True or False: One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes but the antibodies will all have different specificity.
false
True or False: The patient could have been spared this infection if he was up to date on his vaccinations.
false
True or False: The patient in the case should have been adequately protected from infection with Bordetella pertussis from the vaccinations she had already received.
false
True or False: The patient most likely contracted the infection while working in his own backyard.
false
True or False: The patient must present the "whooping" sound during coughing to be positively diagnosed with pertussis.
false
True or False: The patient's condition is being caused by a prokaryotic organism.
false
True or False: There is only one serotype of Leptospira interrogans to treat.
false
True or False: U.S. residents have never been infected with Dengue fever virus while in their home country.
false
Waterborne pathogens are always bacterial in nature and have been known to cause disease epidemics.
false
Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right): kingdom, domain, phylum genus, species, family family, order, class family, genus, species class, phylum, order
family, genus, species
The RN advises the patient that without treatment, he is at risk of which of the following?
fatal encephalitis
Which factor would increase the risk of the unborn child being Rh+? history of preexisting type I hypersensitivity father being Rh+ previous child being Rh- both maternal grandparents being Rh-
father being Rh+
What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails? fatty acids All of the choices are correct. glycerol alcohol phosphate
fatty acids
What is the transmission of the polio virus? bat vector fecal-oral arthropod unsanitary food
fecal-oral
In the most recent epidemic, the first sign of Ebola infection that led to further diagnostic testing was .
fever
In which step of water purification does water move through sand beds and activated charcoal? chlorination sedimentation filtration
filtration
What two strategies are used in the United States to ensure potable drinking water? pasteurization and chlorination filtration and chlorination filtration and pasteurization
filtration and chlorination
What steps should you advocate to be taken by the doctor during this visit? nothing can be done about the Rh factor plan for first dose of RhoGAM immediately after birth first dose of RhoGAM should be administered nothing, since it is not known if the first child was Rh+ yet
first dose of RhoGAM should be administered
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is E. coli. Yersinia. Campylobacter.
Campylobacter.
E. Coli
Caustive agent of the most common bacterial forms of cystitis and pyelonephritis
What antibiotic does the RN expect to be ordered for this patient?
Cefotaxime
Which of the following represent the cellular targets for physical and chemical control agents?
Cell membrane Cellular synthesis of DNA and RNA Proteins Cell wall
Choose the five main targets of antimicrobial drugs.
Cell wall synthesis Cell membrane structure/function Protein synthesis DNA and RNA synthesis Folic acid synthesis
The viral antigen studies come back positive for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The parents are anxious that their older children (ages 10 years and 12 years) may have been exposed. Which of the following statements by the RN is most appropriate regarding the susceptibility of the other children?
Children younger than 2 years of age are the most susceptible to serious disease from RSV
______ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease. Incubation Passive Convalescent Chronic Asymptomatic
Chronic
Fecal transplants have been approved for use in patients with hard-to-treat _____________________ infection.
Clostridium difficile
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of Clostridium botulinum. All of the choices are correct. Clostridium difficile. Clostridium tetani.
Clostridium difficile.
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of All of the choices are correct. Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium tetani. Clostridium perfringens.
Clostridium tetani.
Select characteristics exhibited by endotoxins, but not exhibited by exotoxins.
Composed of lipopolysaccharide Heat-stable Fever-inducing
______________ occurs when the causative virus, which is strongly teratogenic, is transmitted to the fetus in utero; it can subsequently result in miscarriage or multiple permanent defects in the newborn.
Congenital rubella
Select possible modes of transmission for cholera.
Contaminated drinking water Ingestion of contaminated raw fish
T regulatory cell
Controls specific immune response; prevents autoimmunity; CD4 receptors expressed
A sputum sample is ordered. Which of the following represents the proper method of collection?
Coughing sample into sterile container
Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings? Cryptococcus neoformans Listeria monocytogenes Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus agalactiae Neisseria meningitidis
Cryptococcus neoformans
A patient's specimen contains a suspected pathogen that will display a distinctive reaction with red blood cells
Culture specimen on differential media
In the patient's specimen, the suspected pathogen is present in very small numbers
Culture specimen on enrichment media
A patient's nonsterile fecal specimen contains an array of bacterial species in addition to the suspected pathogen
Culture specimen on selective media
enterobius vermicularis
Cycle A, pinworm, diagnosis by adhesive tape method
trichuris trichiura
Cycle A, whipworm, humans are sole host
diphyllobothrium latum
Cycle C, fish tapeworm, transmitted by sushi
taenia solium
Cycle C, pork tapeworm, acquired by ingestion of undercooked pork
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely:
D. Bordetella pertussis.
Which form of treatment should be administered to the patient at this time?
D. Praziquantel
____________, like macrophages, are products of the monocytic cell line that reside throughout the tissues and present antigen to lymphocytes.
Dendritic cells
T cytotoxic cell
Destroys a target foreign cell by lysis; involved in graft rejection, CD8 receptors expressed
Choose the statement that best describes the indirect ELISA technique.
Detects the presence of antibody in a sample using a known antigen absorbed onto the well
Shigella dysenteriae
Diarrhea containing blood and mucus from the GI tract
vibrio cholerae
Diarrhea described as rice water stools
This pathogen appears to be a fastidious organism. What additional diagnostic test could be performed on the specimen to provide serologic information on the pathogen in a rapid manner?
Direct antigen testing
restriction enzymes
Discovered by Daniel Nathans, Werner Arber, and Hamilton Smith in the 1970s, these "molecular scissors" cut DNA in a controlled manner.
In order to prevent the spread of disease to other patients, the RN observes all of the following precautions, except:
Disinfection of needles following injections
Infectious disease
Disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes or their products.
Order the following choices to reflect the organization of taxa, from the most general to the most specific, to test your understanding of levels of classification.
Domain - 1 Species - 4 Phylum - 2 Genus - 3
Which of the following drug therapies is most effective in early treatment of this disease?
Doxycycline and amoxicillin
T helper cell 2
Drives B-cell proliferation; secretes IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13; CD 4 receptors expressed
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen?
Droplet contact
Prior to ordering penicillin for this patient, which of the following components of the patient's medical history is most important to assess?
Drug allergies
Rheumatic Fever
Due to an immunological cross reaction between the streptococcal M protein and heart muscle
Following delivery, the mother is educated regarding future pregnancies. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement by the RN?
Due to the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, you will require treatment during future pregnancies.
When providing education about the organism Escherichia coli, the RN may also appropriately abbreviate the name as:
E. Coli
All of the following pertain to HIV except ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens. initial infection often associated with vague symptoms. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.
ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens.
Methicillin
Effective against penicillinase-producing bacteria
You are wondering what the specific causative agent is, so you do a search on PubMed from the hospital's medical library. What is the causative agent for polio? Streptococcus pneumoniae Poliovirus intoxicum Naegleria fowleri Enterovirus picornaviridae
Enterovirus picornaviridae
Fungi
Eukaryotes involved in decomposition; nucleus; cellular microbe
Which of the following presents the greatest risk for infection exposure to the patient?
Exposure to individuals with acute illness
Choose the statement that describes MHC class I molecules.
Expressed on all human nucleated cells
A narrow-spectrum antimicrobial would be an appropriate choice to treat an abscess caused by several different microbe species, including both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
F
B and T cells can only recognize and bind antigen that has been processed and presented on MHC molecules.
F
True or False: All bacteria can be classified as either gram-positive or gram-negative
F
True or False: Bacteria are larger than human cells.
F
True or False: The thinner peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria allows the crystal-violet-iodine complex to leave the cell.
F
True or false: The Wakefield paper accurately suggested that autism was linked to vaccination.
F
Viruses are able to multiply inside a nonliving cell.
F
Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope. variable Fab Fc terminal hinge
Fab
Most intermediate size antigen-antibody complexes are removed by phagocytosi
False
The CNS is an "immunologically privileged" site, which means that the immune response in these sites is enhanced.
False
__________ is initiated when a circulating substance called a _____________ resets the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher temperature.
Fever; pyrogen
What treatment may the RN anticipate to be ordered for an infected 18-month-old patient?
Fluid and electrolyte replacement
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as thymus. GALT. spleen. tonsils. lymph nodes.
GALT
Penicillin G and V
Generally most effective against gram-positive bacteria
All of the following factors increase the patient's risk for Clostridium difficile infection, except:
Genetic defect
Which of the following most likely explains the transmission of HIV from animals to humans?
HIV evolved from a similar virus in chimpanzees that was transmitted to hunters by bites, scratches, and blood products.
What is the most important point of teaching for visitors to prevent the patient's exposure to further infection?
Hand hygiene by washing or antiseptic application when entering or leaving room.
Passive Carrier
Health care workers who accidentally transfer pathogens to patients
Which cells possess the receptor complex for gp120, resulting in their destruction and the overall loss of immune function seen in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
Helper T cells and macrophages
Three days later, the patient is started on dialysis. Which of the following is a serious complication of the patient's infection, causing kidney damage and failure?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
The RN advises the patient that food should be stored at temperatures below 4°C or above 60°C. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the rationale behind this teaching?
High and low temperatures inhibit bacterial growth.
Choose the fungi that cause pneumonia to test your understanding of microorganisms that cause lower respiratory tract diseases.
Histoplasma capsulatum Pneumocystis jiroveci
The RN advises the patient that drug therapy is being started prophylactically. Which of the following statements by the patient best demonstrates understanding of this principle?
I am being treated to prevent the progression of latent to active tuberculosis infection.
The RN has administered a dose of antibiotics to the mother as ordered. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates understanding of the rationale for antibiotics?
I need antibiotics because my child is at risk of infection due to premature rupture of membranes.
The RN emphasizes the importance of a clean water source. Which of the following statements by a participant demonstrates an understanding of the education?
I should treat water from backcountry water sources before drinking.
Which of the following statements by a student demonstrates understanding of gonorrhea transmission?
If I have no symptoms, I can still pass the infection to others.
Select all of the statements that are factors affecting a person's susceptibility to TB to test your understanding of the epidemiology of tuberculosis infection.
Inadequate nutrition Poor access to medical care Crowded living conditions Compromised immune system
Which immunologic test could be used to determine the identity of the pathogen through the use of microscopy and fluorescently-tagged antibodies?
Indirect immunofluorescent staining
Asymptomatic carrier
Infected, but shows no symptoms of disease
Acute Infection
Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects
Systemic Infection
Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids, and may travel via nerves and CSF
Chronic Infection
Infection that persists over a long period of time (e.g., HIV)
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, and processed meats. Food gets contaminated by a human carrier. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
Which of the following presents the steps of inflammation in the proper order?
Injury, Vascular reaction, Edema/Pus formation, Scar formation
When activated by antigen-presenting cells, helper T cells release what cytokine that activates B-cells and cytotoxic T cells?
Interleukin - 2
Antigen-presenting cells release what cytokine to activate helper T cells?
Interleukin-1
Select all of the statements that apply to both Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
Involve IgG antibodies Involve IgM antibodies Involve the activation of complement
Autograft
Involve the activation of complement
Which is incorrect about shigellosis? Watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps. It is also called dysentery. Outbreaks have occurred in day care centers. It frequently involves septicemia.
It frequently involves septicemia.
Which of the statements about the emergence of HIV/AIDS is incorrect? The first cases of AIDS in the United States were seen in 1980. It is believed that HIV was spread to the United States from Southeast Asia during the Vietnam War. It is likely that HIV/AIDS began as a zoonotic disease, evolving from SIV, the simian immunodeficiency virus.
It is believed that HIV was spread to the United States from Southeast Asia during the Vietnam War.
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is leukemia. Kaposi's sarcoma. Hodgkin's lymphoma. myeloma.
Kaposi's sarcoma.
According to this data, what is the most common zoonotic infection leading to death?
Leptospirosis
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely:
Listeria monocytogenes.
Ms. Hungh's acid-fast stain results returned inconclusive for the presence of AFBs (acid-fast bacilli). Therefore, culturing of the sputum is performed in order to isolate microbial growth for further analysis. Which medium would be utilized to select for the growth of Mycobacterium species if present in the sample? Sabouraud's agar blood agar Lowenstein-Jensen MacConkey agar
Lowenstein-Jensen
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with Q fever. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. yellow fever. plague. Lyme disease.
Lyme disease.
The patient is noted to have lines of red streaking from the affected hand towards the armpit. The patient asks the RN what the streaks represent. The most appropriate response by the RN indicates the involvement of which of the following body systems?
Lymphatic system
Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? pertussis toxin M protein filamentous hemagglutinin
M protein
What vaccination protects children against measles?
MMR
Selective and differential media
MacConkey agar
Select the four main categories of antifungal agents.
Macrolide polyenes Azoles Echinocandins Flucytosine
Select all cell types below that can serve as antigen-presenting cells.
Macrophages B cells Dendritic cells
Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor? Microsporum Trichophyton Epidermophyton Malassezia
Malassezia
Select all of the characteristics of B lymphocytes, which are involved in specific immunity.
Mature in the bone marrow Move freely among lymphoid tissues and connective tissue Form specialized plasma cells that produce antibodies
Select all of the characteristics of T lymphocytes, which are involved in specific immunity.
Mature in the thymus Move freely among lymphoid tissues and connective tissue Responsible for cell mediated immunity
The immune system responds more swiftly by making antibodies to an antigen after the first exposure because
Memory B-cells are produced during the first response
Localized Infection
Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue
Which of the following causes a noncommunicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis? Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) Mycobacterium marinum Mycobacterium kansasii
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Genetic engineering
Newer technology that manipulates the genetics of microbes, plants, and animals to create new products and GMOs.
Upon delivery, blood type testing is done on the newborn. The newborn is found to have an AB positive blood type. Which of the following reactions may be expected?
No immune response in newborn or mother
People with this blood type are known as "universal donors."
O
Choose the statement that best describes septicemia.
Occurs when microorganisms are actively multiplying in the blood
The RN places the patient in which of the following positions for the procedure?
On her side with flexed neck and drawn knees or sitting upright with head and neck flexed forward
_________ pathogens, like Candida or Pseudomonas, are not usually pathogenic to healthy persons with normal immune system functions because these microbes do not have well-developed virulence factors.
Opportunistic
Based upon the patient history information, the patient appears to be in which stage of disease?
Paroxysmal
Why would the patient be restricted from consuming unpasteurized milk or fruit juices?
Pasteurization destroys nonresistant bacteria and destroys yeasts.
Infection
Pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the host defenses, enter the tissues, and multiply.
Targets the cell wall:
Penicillins Cephalosporins (cefotaxime, defaclor) Carbapenems (aztreonam) Bacitracin, Isoniazid, vancomycin
Algae
Photosynthetic plantlike organisms; has nucleus.
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called antibodies. plasma cells. sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. bursa cells.
Plasma Cells
Culturing of many respiratory pathogens is time consuming. What additional diagnostic test could be performed on the specimen to provide genotypic information on the pathogen in a rapid manner?
Polymerase chain reaction
The abnormal form of the protein is designated
PrPSc.
Colonization
Presence of organisms living in or on the body, but not causing any pathology.
What is the most appropriate method of sterilization for metallic surgical instruments?
Pressurized steam
Which of the following microbes may still be present on sterile surgical instruments?
Prions
From the list below, choose the two most resistant microbial forms.
Prions Endospores
T helper cell 17
Promotes inflammation; secretes IL-17; CD4 receptors expressed
The patient develops a high fever and flank pain. What complication may this indicate?
Pyelonephritis
____________ is a method that employs small pieces of nucleic acid to regulate the expression of genes in an attempt to shut down the metabolism of pathogenic microbes.
RNA interference
Convalescent carrier
Recuperating patients without symptoms; may shed viable microbes
Which of the following is most indicative of the development of AIDS from HIV?
Recurrent diseases
Choose the answer that explains the emergence of Lyme disease in the northeastern United States.
Restoration of woodland areas increased the deer tick population, the vector for transmission of Lyme disease to humans.
Choose the statement that best describes the PCR's usefulness in infectious disease diagnosis.
Results in amplification of sample DNA
Once a diagnosis of HIV is confirmed, HAART is initiated. Which of the following best describes the action of HAART?
Reverse transcriptase inhibitor and protease inhibitor
Phage typing is useful in identifying Treponema pallidum. Streptococcus. Mycobacterium leprae. Clostridium. Salmonella.
Salmonella.
The primary phase of wastewater treatment is Often uses ultraviolet radiation. Separates solid from liquid wastes. Removes harmful microorganisms.
Separates solid from liquid wastes.
Based upon all of this information, what additional testing should be done on the patient to identify the pathogen most rapidly?
Serological testing
Topical germicide on mouth ulcers and root canals Used in an ointment on second and third degree burns Antiseptic Incorporated into urinary catheters Pure silver ions
Silver nitrate Silver sulfadiazine Mercury merthiolate Pure silver ions
Protozoans
Single-celled eukaryotes. Has nucleus.
All of the following are appropriate descriptors of impetigo lesions, except:
Slightly-raised rash
Based upon the microscopic results, the pathogen appears to exhibit which morphology?
Spirochete
Leptospira interrogans
Spirochete bacterium shed in the urine of infected animals
Many microbes that inhabit the skin have the potential to cause disease. One such pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus. The genus name of this organism is aureus. Staphylococcus. staphylococcus. Aureus.
Staphylococcus
Psoriasis
Streptococcal toxins that act as superantigens and cause skin issues
A lumbar puncture is performed, which confirms a diagnosis of meningitis. Antibiotics are started right away. Amanda's cerebral spinal fluid is placed on a microscope slide and Gram-stained. On stain, you see gram-positive cocci in pairs. What is the most likely offending organism? Neisseria meningitides Streptococcus pneumoniae Listeria monocytogenes Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Select the correct statements about linezolid and synercid.
Synercid and linezolid are two of the newer antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. Synercid and linezolid are used to treat some of the very resistant gram-positive bacteria.
Which of the following autoimmune diseases is the most likely diagnosis based upon the patient's presentation?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Cell surface markers play important roles in the specific immune response, in the recognition of both self and nonself molecules.
T
Cells that lack compatible virus receptors are resistant to infection by that virus.
T
True or false: Brucellosis leads to more deaths each year than anthrax.
TRUE
Helminths
Term designating all parasitic worms; has nucleus.
Why does malaria mainly occur in equatorial or tropical areas and rain forests?
That is a major habitat for mosquitoes that transmit the disease
Enriched media
Thayer Martin (chocolate) agar
Primary Infection
The initial infection
The patient's caregiver asks if the student may return to school that day. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the RN?
The patient may return to school when symptoms improve and/or the patient may return to school 24 hours after antibiotics are started
Select all of the statements that apply to antimicrobial peptides serving as a natural defense present in the skin.
They are found in epithelial cells. They act by disrupting membranes of bacteria. They occur in many different types.
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the vestibular and vocal folds?
They are found in the pharynx
Which statements are true regarding the fluoroquinolones?
They inhibit DNA synthesis and transcription. Ciprofloxacin is an older commonly used fluoroquinolone.
Genotypic
This category includes techniques for the analysis of a microbe's DNA or RNA
The physician anticipates Streptococcus pyogenes to be the causative organism and orders penicillin for this patient. What is the rationale for initiating this antibiotic treatment prior to final identification and sensitivity results?
This particular pathogen is almost universally sensitive to penicillin.
Xenograft
Tissue transplant between individuals of different species
Isograft
Tissue transplant from an identical twin
Why are Mary's tonsils swollen? Mary's tonsils were probably ruptured by her intense cough, and the swelling is part of the normal wound-healing process. Tonsils are made of lymphatic tissue, and they probably became swollen by filtering out bacteria and their toxic products. Tonsils are very sensitive to stimulation, so they probably became swollen from Mary's constant picking.
Tonsils are made of lymphatic tissue, and they probably became swollen by filtering out bacteria and their toxic products.
Memory B cells are formed during the primary response so that upon a secondary antigen exposure a faster and more vigorous antibody response ensues.
True
Neonatal meningitis is almost always a result of an infection transmitted by the mother, either in utero or during the birthing process.
True
True or False: An attenuated vaccine usually provides better immunity than a killed or inactivated one.
True
Salmonella typhi
Typhoid fever characterized by progressive, invasive infection that leads to septicemia
Select all geographic locations where West Nile encephalitis has occurred to test your understanding of the geographical distribution of this disease.
United States Africa Middle East Parts of Asia
Which of the following is an effective form of prevention of gonorrhea?
Use of condoms and abstinence
What other way do we have to fight viral diseases?
Vaccines
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen?
Vehicle through contaminated food
Choose the statement that describes the normal microbiota of the oral cavity.
Very large, diverse population that includes bacteria, fungi, and protozoans
Influenza
Viral infection causing chills, body aches, headache, and fever
Choose the statement that describes rotavirus infections to test your understanding of GI tract diseases.
Virus has an unusual double-stranded RNA genome.
Select the characteristic that is exhibited by viruses.
Viruses are parasitic particles that invade host cells.
Which of the following symptoms exhibited by the patient include all the classic signs and symptoms of inflammation?
Warmth, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function
Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test for HIV? Western blot Ouchterlony double diffusion radioimmunoassay (RIA) Quellung
Western blot
What type of hypersensitivity, mediated by IgE, do the patient's symptoms demonstrate?
What type of hypersensitivity, mediated by IgE, do the patient's symptoms demonstrate?
When is the patient advised to stop taking his antibiotics?
When the full prescribed course is complete.
sclera
White fibrous tissue covering all of the eyeball except the cornea
Based upon this diagnosis, what disease is the patient suffering from?
Whooping cough
Isolation
a colony is spread onto a new plate of media using a quadrant streak method
What indicates the presence of the substance being tested for in the ELISA test?
a color change
Identification
a variety of biochemical tests are used to characterize a microbe.
Which of the following drugs should be used when listeriosis is first suspected?
a. Ampicillin b. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Contrast
ability to be distinguished from the surroundings
Virus
acellular microbes; no nucleus; non cellular microbe
Sabouraud's Agar
acidic media which allows for the growth of fungi; selective media
Choose the statement that best describes T helper 1 (TH1) cells.
activate cell-mediated immunity and phagocytic cells resulting in delayed hypersensitivity reactions
What kind of immunity will be conferred to the Smith's son through vaccination? passive artificial active natural active artificial passive natural
active artificial
The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to see motility. kill them. add contrast in order to see them better. enlarge the cells. secure them to the slide.
add contrast in order to see them better.
Which of the following is a nucleotide responsible for releasing and storing energy for cellular chemical reactions?
adenosine triphosphate
mycoplasma pneumoniae
adhesins
What are the characteristics of a clean, drinkable water supply?
all of these
What further symptoms can emerge if this disease is left untreated?
all of these
What may the RN expect to be ordered immediately in the case of a patient with this differential diagnosis?
all of these
Which hypothesis could explain the recent outbreaks of pertussis in Australia and California?
all of these
Contactant
allergens that enter through the skin
The building blocks of an enzyme are phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids. glycerol and fatty acids. nucleotides. amino acids. monosaccharides.
amino acids
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged? sensory nerves anterior horn cells diaphragm peripheral nerves
anterior horn cells
In indirect ELISA, what is added first to the microtiter well?
antigen
Which of the following stimulates cell-bound IgE molecules, resulting in degranulation of mast cells?
antigen
Immune complexes consist of
antigen plus antibody.
B lymphocytes:
are activated by T helper cell interaction.
Antigens
are molecules that are recognized by B or T cells.
Which of the following microbes are targeted by alcohol-based hand cleaners? fungi viruses bacteria bacteria, viruses, and fungi
bacteria, viruses, and fungi
Scientists are also reevaluating the therapeutic use of ____________ , which exhibit precise target specificity and have been shown in limited studies to be useful in the treatment of some biofilm infections.
bacteriophages
MacConkey Agar
bile and crystal violet allow for the growth of gram - negative enterics; selective media
Superantigens
bind without antigen specificity to the outer portion of T helper cells and antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
Which of the following anatomical structures is a part of the lower respiratory tract?
bronchus
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent plague. endocarditis. tularemia. brucellosis.
brucellosis.
The classical complement pathway is activated when:
c1 binds to the anitbody in an antigen-antibody complex
Rod-shaped bacteria
can be either gram-positive or gram-negative.
What is the most concerning possible cause of the patient's persistent fever and other symptoms?
cancer
Streptococcus pneumoniae
capsule
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except coats itself with host proteins. is often from an endogenous source. causes impetigo. causes gas gangrene. secretes streptokinase.
causes gas gangrene.
Drug-resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with tetracyline. cefotaxime. vancomycin.
cefotaxime.
Choose the best definition of virulence factors.
characteristics of a microorganism that enable it to establish infection and cause disease
Which event occurs in the early stages of inflammation?
chemical mediators and cytokines are released
What chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to give long-term disinfection? activated charcoal chlorine fluorine
chlorine
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is staphylokinase. hyaluronidase. coagulase. kinase.
coagulase.
A clean-catch urine sample is ordered for culture. All of the following are important in the collection of the sample, except:
collection of first voided urine.
Inspection
colonies are closely observed and Gram stains are prepared and examined microscopically
Epidemiology is the study of disease in the __________.
community
The ____________________ of the agent as well as its _____________________ against microbes also play a role in its ability to inactivate microbes.
concentration, mode of action
Warts produced by human papillomavirus infection range from tiny, flat bumps to extensive, branching, cauliflower-like masses called __________________.
condyloma acuminata
The membrane attack complex kills cells by
creating holes in plasma cell membranes.
Outbreaks of which disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated drinking water? cryptosporidiosis trichinosis None of the choices is correct.
cryptosporidiosis
In providing education for this patient, the nurse describes the physiology of an allergic response. What is primarily responsible for her allergy symptoms?
cytokines
Select characteristics exhibited by all cells.
cytoplasmic membrane DNA ribosomes
In IgE-mediated hypersensitivity, all of the following are needed EXCEPT:
cytotoxic T cells
The most significant cells in graft rejection are suppressor T cells. delayed hypersensitivity T cells. cytotoxic T cells. helper T cells. natural killer (NK) cells.
cytotoxic T cells.
From 1994 to 2008, the rates of MMR vaccination in England and Wales ________.
declined
Surfactants work by blocking transport out from the organism. blocking transport into the organism. disrupting membrane integrity. All of the choices are correct. coating the organism, preventing interaction with its environment.
disrupting membrane integrity.
Select the applications of ethylene oxide sterilization.
dried food and spices plastics prepackaged medical devices
The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is direct contact. endogenous. exotoxin.
endogenous.
The outermost portion of the skin is the ___________, whose surface is _____________ and contains antimicrobial ___________ to prohibit microbial penetration.
epidermis; keratinized, peptides
A selected component of a microbe, called an _________, is used to stimulate immunity in the creation of __________ vaccines.
epitope; subunit
Delayed hypersensitivity is due to the effects of the humoral part of the immune system.
false
What is the most important action by the RN prior to beginning the dressing change?
hand hygiene
Based upon these results, the pathogen appears to be a
helminth
Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the following symptoms except:
high fever
The asexual phase of the life cycle of Plasmodium takes place in:
humans
Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except pasteurization. HEPA filters. ultraviolet radiation. hydrogen peroxide. boiling water.
hydrogen peroxide.
Select the correct answers that identify the Five I's of culturing microorganisms.
identification inspection inoculation isolation incubation
The RN advises the patient to seek medical attention:
immediately
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is hemopathology. humoralpathology. epidemiology. immunopathology. histopathology.
immunopathology
Allergens that enter by the nose are called ________.
inhalants
Protease inhibitors ____.
inhibit processing of long polypeptide chains
____________ involves the observation of macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of microbes in samples.
inspection
When a cell is infected by a virus, __________ is produced and is secreted from the infected cell to protect nearby uninfected cells by binding to surface receptors and initiating synthesis of antiviral proteins.
interferon
Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? All of the choices are correct. interferon valacyclovir
interferon
All of the following disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane except detergents. iodine. quaternary ammonium compounds. high concentration phenols.
iodine
Interferon
is produced by one cell and used to warn nearby cells of the same type
Cytotoxic T cells know that a cell is infected because
it has antigens from the disease-causing microbe on its surface
Select the patterns of direct transmission of infectious disease.
kissing, touching mother to fetus (vertical) droplet
Increased rainfall in some areas of the world could lead to an increased incidence of which of the following diseases?
malaria yellow fever
Phagocytic cells that leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages
monocytes
Which of the following is the correct order for the major parts of the gastrointestinal tract?
mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
The association of fever with infection is beneficial due to the fact that it inhibits ___________ of many microbes and reduces their ability to acquire
multiplication; iron
However, live attenuated viruses have the ability to be transmitted to other people and may mutate or revert back to a virulent strain.
mutate
Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms except transposons. mutation. All of the choices provide for transfer of drug resistance. R-plasmids. conjugation.
mutations
Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of autoimmune disease?
my body has formed antibodies against itself
In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane. cells in thyroid follicles. acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system.
myelin sheath cells of the nervous system.
Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? suppressor T cells cytotoxic T cells delayed hypersensitivity T cells helper T cells natural killer (NK) cells
natural killer (NK) cells
Display no antigen specificity but are active against tumor and virally infected cells
natural killer cells
In a _________ stain, the dye stains the background, forming a silhouette around the unstained organism.
negative
MacConkey Agar
neutral red allows for identification of lactose fermenting bacteria; differential media
Main phagocytes in circulation
neutrophils
Extravasation, also known as diapedesis or transmigration, occurs when:
neutrophils squeeze through the vessel walls
The nervous system represents an organ system free of ____________; the presence of microbes in nervous tissue indicates a deviation from the normal, healthy state of the body.
normal biota
Inoculation
patient specimen is spread onto several types of culture media
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except pertussis. scarlet fever. erythrogenic rash.
pertussis.
Which of the following is part of the body's second line of defense?
phagocytosis
Antibodies are produced by
plasma B cells
What two drugs target the cell membrane?
polymyxin daptomycin
Taenia solium is a
pork tapeworm.
Cells, like bacteria and archaea, that do not have a nucleus in their cells have traditionally been called pathogens. fermenters. eukaryotes. decomposers. prokaryotes.
prokaryotes
Antibodies are composed of _____.
proteins
HIV attaches to host cells by binding to:
receptors
All of the following procedural risks should be presented prior to consent for the tonsillectomy, except
recurrent tonsilitis
Anaerobic media
reducing media
Select the advantages of phenolic compounds as antimicrobial agents.
remain effective in the presence of organic matter strongly microbicidal
All of the following are important points of education by the RN, except
reporting of infection to the CDC by the patient.
After a merozoite from the liver enters a red blood cell, it will next turn into a(n):
ring trophozoite
The primary viral cause of chronic diarrhea, globally, is astrovirus. norovirus. cryptosporidium. adenovirus. rotavirus.
rotavirus.
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage. mumps influenza rubella croup measles (rubeola)
rubella
Inflammation is characterized by redness, warmth, swelling, and pain. In Latin, the term ______ means redness.
rubor
Which of the following is least likely to transmit cholera? human fecal contamination of water used to irrigate fruits and vegetable crops human fecal contamination of drinking water supplies run-off from large dairy and beef farms into water sources
run-off from large dairy and beef farms into water sources
Potable water is contaminated. safe to drink. polluted.
safe to drink.
Select the levels of protein structure that would be disrupted by heat or solvent changes that would disrupt hydrogen bonding.
secondary tertiary quaternary
Complement proteins are found in:
serum
In the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium, you will see:
sporozoites from the mosquito turn into merozoites
Interferon degrades mRNA and prevents synthesis of viral protein.
t
Which vaccine may a 35-year-old man who will become a father in the next 6 months be advised to receive?
tdap
Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of AIDS?
there is no cure for HIV
Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?
ticks
differential media
urea broth
conjunctiva
very thin membranelike tissue that covers the eye except the cornea
Which of the following is an example of a probiotic? micafungin penicillin fructans yogurt
yogurt
Which of the following statements by a new nurse demonstrates understanding of the teaching? "All colonization leads to infection." "All patients could harbor infectious agents and must be treated with an equal degree of care." "All contact with infectious material leads to colonization." "All infections lead to disease."
"All patients could harbor infectious agents and must be treated with an equal degree of care."
The patient's sputum culture returns a positive result for Streptococcus pneumoniae. As the RN, you are aware this capsule-forming bacterium possesses virulence factors to make it difficult to treat. In providing education to the patient regarding the disease process, which of the following statements is most appropriate? "Fluid is building up in your lungs because white blood cells are effectively lysing the encapsulated bacteria." "This bacterium secretes toxins that directly damage your lungs." "Fragments of this bacterium's cell wall directly harm your lungs." "Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe."
"Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe."
Which of the following statements by a new nurse is accurate regarding hand washing in infection control? "I should wash my hands before applying gloves." "I should wash my hands when they are visibly contaminated, but also before and after using gloves." "I should wash my hands when they are visibly contaminated." "I should wash my hands after removing gloves."
"I should wash my hands when they are visibly contaminated, but also before and after using gloves."
Upon admission to the inpatient unit, a respiratory sputum culture and blood culture are sent. Prior to obtaining the blood culture, you provide education to the patient. Which of the following statements, by the patient, best demonstrates understanding of the rationale for the blood culture? "The blood culture will be able to determine which virus is causing the infection in my lungs." "The blood culture will be able to determine if the microbe causing the infection is present and multiplying in my blood, putting me at risk for septicemia." "The blood culture will be able to determine if the infection has infected other body tissues." "The blood culture will be able to determine which bacterium is causing the infection in my lungs."
"The blood culture will be able to determine if the microbe causing the infection is present and multiplying in my blood, putting me at risk for septicemia."
Nucleic acids
- DNA - RNA - composed of nucleotides
Select the three basic ways in which microbes cause tissue damage.
- Microbes release toxins that cause tissue damage. - Microbes release enzymes that break down host tissue. - Microbes activate a host response that is itself destructive to host tissue.
Type 2
- involves IgG & IgM - blood group incompatibility
Carbohydrates
- monosaccharides - disaccharides - polysaccharides - glucose - starch
Exoenzyme
- mucinase produced in amoebic dysentery - hyaluronidase produced by strep and staph - coagulase produced by staph - kinases (streptokinase, staphylokinase)
Label the image, including the definitions at the bottom, to review various methods of microbial control.
-definitions the destruction of vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores. = disinfection the complete removal or deconstruction of all viable microorganisms = sterilization chemicals applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens = antisepsis the mechanical removal of most microbes = decontamination
Place the following steps of viral replication in their correct order: 1. release 2. adsorption 3. assembly 4. uncoating 5. synthesis
2 4 5 3 1
Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur during clonal selection. 1. Helper T cells are activated. 2. Macrophages ingest antigen. 3. B cells differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells.
2, 1, 3
Percentage of IgM antibody in serum
6
Which of the following antigens are present on the patient's red blood cells?
A antigen
Which form of treatment should be administered to the patient at this time?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Doxycycline C. Levofloxacin
Which of the drugs mentioned is used to treat patients with HIV?
AZT
Which of the following types of acquired immunity may explain why the patient's onset of recurrent infections did not begin until the age of 2 months?
Active artificial immunity
The mother has a second child who has Rh negative blood. What is the most appropriate action during her third pregnancy?
Administration of RhoGAM between 28 and 32 weeks of pregnancy and immediately after delivery
Based on the initial assessment, what is the RN's priority intervention for this patient?
Administration of supplemental oxygen
Which step in the viral replication cycle would probably be the most efficient way to prevent viral infections?
Adsorption
The mother of an infected 18-month-old patient expresses concern that she may acquire rotavirus infection. Which of the following responses is most appropriate by the RN?
Adults may acquire rotavirus infection, but symptoms are generally mild.
A patient reports a reaction to an influenza vaccine the previous year. She describes her symptoms to the RN as redness at the injection site and low-grade fever for 2 days. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the RN?
Advise the patient that she experienced a local reaction and that it does not indicate an allergy to the vaccine.
A properly functioning immune system is responsible for Recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material. recognition of foreign material. surveillance of the body. destruction of foreign material. All of the above choices are correct.
All of the above choices are correct.
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface include Streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. develop a biofilm. All of the choices are correct. include Lactobacilli and Streptococci, which ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
All of the choices are correct.
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? Cell walls have waxy lipids. They are long, slender rods. They are acid fast. Usually have a slow growth rate. All species are human pathogens.
All species are human pathogens.
Secondary Infection
An example is influenza complicated by pneumonia
Point-source epidemic
An outbreak of Staphylococcal food poisoning among individuals who attended a family reunion and ate the potato salad.
Propagated epidemic
An outbreak of chickenpox among unvaccinated children in a large Amish community
Which of the following statements is not true concerning vaccines? They consist of killed or inactivated cells. It is possible to be allergic to vaccine preparations. Autism only happens in rare instances of vaccination. They consist of live but weakened microbes.
Autism only happens in rare instances of vaccination.
Which antibiotic is prescribed for treatment of Chlamydia infection?
Azithromycin
Acquired specific immunity involves the response of skin barriers. interferon. B and T lymphocytes. lysozyme. mucous membranes.
B and T lymphocytes.
Which of the following is part of the body's third line of defense?
B cells
_____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. B cells, neutrophils B cells, T cells monocytes, basophils T cells, B cells basophils, T cells
B cells, T cells
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely:
B. Bacillus anthracis
Which form of treatment should be administered to the patient at this time?
B. Erythromycin C. Supportive care as needed, including breathing
Bacteria
Belong to one of two domains of life: Bacteria or Archaea; no nucleus; cellular microbe.
What accounts for a color change in a direct ELISA?
Binding between the second antibody and the substrate
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen?
Biological vector
Which of the following drug therapies is ordered initially?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic
ampicillin
Broad-spectrum drug, active against gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative enteric bacteria
Both the classical and alternative complement pathways create
C3 convertase.
C3 convertase cleaves C3 into:
C3a and C3b
Helper T cells interact with target cells by recognizing antigens that are complexed with MHC proteins.
true
In some inherited cases, the normal prion protein can convert spontaneously to the abnormal form, but at a slow rate.
true
It is hard to create a vaccine against HIV infection because the virus has a high mutation rate.
true
Like the nervous system, the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems are closed systems with no normal access to microbes from the external environment.
true
MRSA infections that occur in individuals who have had no recent history in hospitals or clinics are termed community-acquired or CA-MRSA cases.
true
Plasma cells are B cells that produce antibodies.
true
Pregnant women are an important risk group for group B Streptococcus infections due to their ability to pass this dangerous organism to the infant during the birthing process.
true
Spread of HIV through heterosexual contact has significantly increased as compared to data from the start of the epidemic.
true
The flushing action of urine is a defense mechanism that prevents microbial invasion of the urinary system.
true
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani blocks the inhibition of muscle contraction resulting in spastic paralysis.
true
The second and third lines of host defenses determine whether cells are self or nonself by examining cell surfaces for identifying molecular markers.
true
The vast majority of septicemias are caused by bacteria, therefore treatment should begin with broad-spectrum antibiotics.
true
To reduce the threat to public health, patients with MDR-TB are treated with directly observed therapy.
true
True or False: A person deficient in cytotoxic T cells may be more susceptible to cancer.
true
True or False: It is important to vaccinate your dog against leptospirosis.
true
True or False: The patient most likely did not have influenza 4 weeks ago, but exhibited the signs and symptoms of initial (primary) infection with this pathogen.
true
True or False: Vaccination could have prevented the development of this disease in the patient.
true
True or False: Vaccinations depend on the anamnestic response to successfully protect a person from infection.
true
Western blotting is the second (verification) test for preliminary positive HIV screening tests because it can detect the presence of microbial-specific antigens or antibodies in a highly specific and sensitive manner.
true
When receiving a DNA vaccine, human cells accept a plasmid-containing pathogen DNA, and subsequently express foreign proteins on their cell surface that stimulate an inflammatory response.
true
Nonspecific Mediators of Inflammation and Immunity
tumor necrosis factor interferons interleukin (IL) 1 interleukin - 6
What type of hypersensitivity reaction will Marian's babies be at risk for upon delivery? type II type IV type I type III
type II
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Jonathan at risk for? type II type III type IV type I
type IV
The 2014 epidemic in Africa was hard to control because it was spreading through __________ areas.
urban
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
- immediate - IgE-mediated, involving mast cells and basophils - anaphylaxis, allergies, asthma
Type 3
- immune complex mediated - IgG complexes in basement membranes - SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness
Endotoxin
- lipopolysaccharride - systemic effect on many tissues and organs - fever-inducing
Select potential new antimicrobial therapies that are under investigation.
- methods that interfere with the iron-scavenging capabilities of bacteria - bacteriophage therapy - making use of host and bacterial defense peptides - RNA interference-directed at bacterial mRNAs
Urogenital tract
- microbes enter through mucosa of penis or vagina - HIV, trichomoniasis, candida albicans
Gastrointestinal tract
- microbes enter via food, water or fomites - salmonella, shigella, hepatitus A
Respiratory tract
- microbes enter via inhalation - flu, mycobacterium, TB, cryptococcus
Skin
- microbes enter via insect bites, conjunctiva, or oral mucous membranes - staph, herpes simplex (type 1), and west nile virus
Which of the following bacteria are classified as "urgent" threats due to drug resistance?
- carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) - drug-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Select all answers that are roles played by microorganisms in our environment.
- carry out photosynthesis - biological decomposition - nutrient recycling
Which of the following is the most likely causative organisms for this patient's condition?
Gram-negative bacteria or gram-positive bacteria
Choose the statement that best describes the probe used in the hybridization method of microbe identification.
Labeled complementary DNA
The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years is Escherichia coli. Lactobacillus. Staphylococcus.
Lactobacillus.
Choose the statement that best describes characteristics of leptosporosis.
Leptosporosis can be marked by the development of Weil's syndrome, a cluster of symptoms characterized by kidney invasion, hepatic disease, jaundice, anemia, and neurological disturbances.
The RN advises the patient that the drug therapy may be hepatotoxic. This will require the monitoring of which of the following blood labs during the course of treatment?
Liver function tests
_______ stands for ____________-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, even though these strains are usually resistant to multiple antibiotics.
MRSA' methicillin
If the Gram's iodine step was skipped in Gram stain procedure, what color would the cells likely be when viewed under the microscope?
Most cells would appear red/pink.
Otitis Media
Most common cause is Streptococcus pneumoniae and results in a sensation of fullness or pain in the ear
mezlocillin
Most extended spectrum of "-cillins"
campylobacter jejuni
Most frequent cause of diarrhea resulting in watery stools, fever, vomiting, headaches, and severe abdominal pain
Choose the statement that best describes acute endocarditis to test your understanding of cardiovascular diseases caused by microorganisms.
Most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Choose the microorganism that is the causative agent of the most serious acute form of bacterial meningitis in adults to test your understanding of this disease.
Neisseria meningitidis
What is the most common bacterial cause of this disease in children younger than 2 years of age?
Neisseria meningitidis
This image depicts an acid-fast stained sputum sample showing red bacilli. What might be a preliminary diagnosis for this patient?
Tuberculosis
What type of hypersensitivity do the patient's symptoms demonstrate?
Type III: Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
RSV Infection
Viral infection characterized by giant multinucleated cells
Which of the following is the most likely differential diagnosis for this patient?
Viral meningitis and bacterial meningitis
Which is not associated with tularemia? sometimes called rabbit fever a gram-positive bacterium mammals are the chief reservoir a zoonosis symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia
a gram-positive bacterium
A positive indirect ELISA result requires All of the choices are correct. a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody two known antibodies and one known antigen. one known antibody, one unknown antibody, and an unknown antigen.
a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody
Antibody testing requires both a known antigen and a known antibody. either a known antigen or a known antibody. a known antigen.
a known antigen.
In the beginning of the complement fixation test
a patient's serum is heated to destroy complement and a measured amount of complement and antigen is added.
Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta. a reservoir is human carriers. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension.
a reservoir is human carriers.
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is endospores. an exotoxin. an endotoxin.
an exotoxin.
Hypersensitivity or allergy is:
an excessive immune response that damages tissues.
The genus of mosquito that transmits malaria is:
anopheles
The RN expects all of the following to be ordered as treatment for this patient, except
antibiotics.
Select statements that apply to the theory of evolution to test your understanding of evolution.
- has undergone years of testing - has not been disproven - is a well-established natural phenomenon
Exotoxin
- hemolysins produced by streptococcus pyogenes - action is specific to one cell type - clostridium tetrani tetanospasmin
RSV disease
- caused by a paramyxovirus that causes giant multinucleated cells called syncitia in the respiratory tract. - passive antibody preparation used for prevention in high-risk children since no vaccine is yet available
Bacteria/Archaea
- cell type that lacks a nucleus - Size range: 1-10 um
Botulism
- characterized by flaccid paralysis - treatment involves the use of a trivalent antitoxin to inactivate the exotoxin made by the causative bacterium
Tetanus
- characterized by spastic paralysis - prevention is the tDap vaccine, along with TD boosters every 10 years
Proteins
- composed of amino acids - enzymes - exhibit 1, 2, 3 or 4 degree structure
Eukaryote
- contains a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles.
Targets DNA or RNA
- fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, trovafloxacin) - Rifamycin (Rifampin)
Select all of the correct statements concerning SLE to test your understanding of the pathogenesis of autoimmune diseases.
- Autoantibodies bind self antigens forming immune complexes that accumulate in basement membranes of various organs. - Autoantibodies include those against white and red blood cells, and platelets.
The major groups of microorganisms studied by microbiologists include:
- bacteria - helminths - algae - fungi - viruses - archaea - protozoa
One student came back to school the next day with a note from her mother stating her child's doctor had prescribed oral ceftriaxone. She is really not comfortable with the use of antibiotics. What is the best response to the mother's question? "Antibiotics are often given prophylactically, even if viral conjunctivitis is suspected." "Antibiotics are needed to reduce her daughter's chances of contracting MRSA." "Antibiotics were not indicated in her daughter's case; she actually needed an antiprotozoal drug for treatment." "Antibiotics are effective at clearing viral infections."
"Antibiotics are often given prophylactically, even if viral conjunctivitis is suspected."
The morning after the Smith's son is vaccinated, Mrs. Smith calls you at the office to report that their son has now developed a low-grade fever. She is afraid that he is developing meningitis from one of the vaccines, because he is also fussy. What is a proper response? "I understand you are frightened. However, site pain and low fever are common side effects. You can help minimize both with Tylenol." "This fever and fussiness are probably from an unrelated illness, and it's just a coincidence he just received vaccinations." "I'm very sorry I didn't listen to your concerns earlier. Bring your son to the closest ER for evaluation immediately."
"I understand you are frightened. However, site pain and low fever are common side effects. You can help minimize both with Tylenol."
After further investigation, it is learned that the father is Rh+, and so was the first child. However, Marian declines the RhoGAM injection because "there were no complications with my first pregnancy and delivery, how can you be sure there will be with this one?" Plus, she also explains how unpleasant the RhoGAM injection was with her first pregnancy, and she would like to avoid it, if at all possible. What is an appropriate response? "You were probably sensitized to Rh factor with your first pregnancy, so the chances are decreased that this child will develop hemolytic disease of the newborn. I'll ask the doctor if we can forego the injection." "It is important that we keep you from being sensitized to Rh factor, otherwise future pregnancies will be at risk for developing hemolytic disease of the newborn." "It is important you receive your RhoGAM injection, because this child will probably develop hemolytic disease of the newborn if you don't."
"It is important that we keep you from being sensitized to Rh factor, otherwise future pregnancies will be at risk for developing hemolytic disease of the newborn."
The Smiths are concerned when they hear that vaccines consist of microbes, even if they have been inactivated. They say that they do not want whole bacteria being put into their son, even if it is inactive. What is a proper response? "The bacteria is inactive, so there's no risk of it harming your son." "The chances of the bacteria infecting your son are very slim." "We keep our vaccines in the refrigerator here, and the cold inhibits mutations." "Vaccines haven't actually contained whole bacteria since 2008."
"Vaccines haven't actually contained whole bacteria since 2008."
JV is very intelligent and realizes that he needs to be more diligent with his mucus clearing exercises. He asks you if it is okay if he only does his exercises when he is not feeling well, even though the doctor tells him he must do them every day. What is a correct response? "It's okay to not do them if you're not feeling sick. Your body will protect itself." "As long as you do them twice as much when you start to feel sick, you'll make up the difference." "Probably the doctor is overreacting. Do them half as much and you should be fine." "Your body doesn't have the ability to protect itself because of its damaged immunity. You must do your exercises regularly."
"Your body doesn't have the ability to protect itself because of its damaged immunity. You must do your exercises regularly."
JV asks you, as his bedside nurse, to explain to him why he keeps getting sick from the same bacteria. What is an appropriate response? "You don't have second and third line defenses." "Your mucus traps and harbors the microorganisms, and when they can't get cleared, they begin to breach your second and third lines of defense." "Your lungs produce these organisms because your cilia are permanently damaged."
"Your mucus traps and harbors the microorganisms, and when they can't get cleared, they begin to breach your second and third lines of defense."
Immunologic methods
-
Select all of the statements that apply to the disease diphtheria to test your understanding of upper respiratory diseases caused by microorganisms.
- A characteristic pseudomembrane forms on the tonsils and in the pharynx - Disease can be prevented by use of a toxoid containing vaccine - Toxin can enter bloodstream and cause myocarditis and neuritis
Select the five major mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance.
- A microbial enzyme inactivates the antimicrobial agent. - Microbial efflux pumps remove the antimicrobial agent by pumping it out of the cell. - An altered target site prevents the antimicrobial agent from binding to its target. - The microbe uses an alternative pathway to circumvent the blocked pathway. - The permeability of the microbial envelope to the antimicrobial agent is decreased.
Virus
- Acellular particle - Smallest microbes (10 - 200 nm)
Targets Protein Synthesis
- Aminoglycoside (streptomycin) - Tetracyclines - Glycylcyclines - Macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin)
Select all of the statements that apply to acute encephalitis caused by arboviruses.
- An arthropod bite is involved in transmission - Insect control is the main method of prevention - No satisfactory treatment exists
Please select all of the correct statements regarding sample collection from patients to test your understanding of infectious agent specimen collection.
- Aseptic techniques and sterile containers and tools should be used - Special transport media is used to maintain the specimen for a period of time before clinical analysis
Select those statements that are true about the treatment of biofilm infections.
- Bacteria in biofilms have different susceptibility patterns than their free-living counterparts - Bacteria in biofilms may be inhibited by drugs that interfere with quorum sensing. - Antibiotics' penetration of biofilms may be improved by adding DNase with the antibiotic. - Antibiotic-impregnated biomaterials that are inserted into the body prevent biofilm development on those materials.
Select all of the statements that apply to the hemorrhagic disease yellow fever.
- Caused by an arbovirus - Virus causes capillary fragility and disrupts the blood clotting system - vector is the mosquito
Select all of the correct answers concerning the disease schistosomiasis to test your understanding of GI tract diseases caused by Schistosoma sp.
- Chronic infection results in liver disease, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. - Schistosomes are trematodes often referred to as blood flukes. - Fluke cloaks itself with host proteins to evade the immune response.
Select all of the statements that apply to the natural defenses present in the nervous system.
- Defenses are mainly structural - Blood vessels that serve the brain have restricted permeability - Some nervous system cells have phagocytic capabilities
Select all of the correct statements regarding the types of tests performed on microbial isolates versus those performed on patients themselves in the process of microbial identification.
- Disease diagnosis begins with patient analysis for signs of microbial infection (i.e., fever, wound exudate, mucus production, abnormal lesion). - Antibody titers in patient blood can be checked without the isolation of microbes from the patient. - Biochemical testing is a type of culture test that can be performed on microbial isolates obtained from the patient. - Acid-fast staining is a direct testing method that can be performed on microbial isolates obtained from the patient.
Select all statements that apply to hemolytic disease of the newborn to test your understanding of this disorder.
- Fetal RBC leakage sensitizes the mother to make anti-Rh antibodies. - Anti-Rh antibodies that are IgG can cross the placenta and induce complement-mediated lysis of fetal RBCs. - Hemolytic disease is a Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Influenza
- H and N spikes - caused by one of three orthomyxoviruses; Types A, B, or C - Virulence of the causative agent due to its ability to alter envelope glycoprotein spikes - seasonal vaccines exist for this disease, though new pandemic strains have prompted the development of additional vaccines
Select all of the statements that apply to HIV and AIDS.
- HIV can infect and/or destroy many of the very cells needed to combat it, including the helper (T4 or CD4) class of lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, and even B lymphocytes. - Neonates who have escaped HIV infection prior to and during birth can still become infected through nursing. - HAART, the use of multiple simultaneous antiretrovirals, has shown to be an effective treatment and has reduced the rate of HIV drug resistance.
Order the following choices to reflect the relative sizes of microorganisms as compared to each other and other cells and molecules, ranging from the largest to the smallest.
- Hydrogen atom - 5 - Fungus - 2 - Most bacteria - 3 - Viruses - 4 - Helminths - 1
Select all of the statements that apply to the pathogenesis of malaria to test your understanding of this disease.
- Hypoglycemia is a symptom due to parasite metabolism of glucose. - Enlargement of liver and spleen. - RBCs adhere to blood vessels in the brain.
What are some limiting factors of using culturing techniques to diagnosis infections?
- It can be difficult to isolate the actual causative agent from other bacteria in the collected specimen. - Culturing takes 18-24 hours for incubation which limits the ability to quickly and effectively treat some fatal infections. - Many infections are actually caused by more than one organism.
Select all of the statements that apply to subacute endocarditis to test your understanding of cardiovascular disease caused by microorganisms.
- Most often caused by low pathogenicity oral streptococci - Almost always preceded by some form of damage to heart valves - Prevention involves prophylactic antibiotic therapy before invasive procedures
Select all of the correct statements concerning SCIDs to test your understanding of severe combined immunodeficiency disease.
- Most serious and lethal of the primary immunodeficiency diseases, caused by genetic defects - Involves loss or dysfunction of both humoral and cell-mediated immunity - Requires vigorous adherence to aseptic techniques to prevent infection
Select which methods are the most prominent biochemical tests used in microbial identification.
- Observation of acid and/or gas production from carbohydrate fermentation - Analysis of the hydrolysis of gelatin, starch, and other polymers - Analysis of the reactions of enzymes such as catalase, oxidase, and coagulase
Select all of the statements that apply to healthcare-associated or nosocomial pneumonia to test your understanding of the differences between healthcare-associated and community-acquired pneumonia.
- Often are polymicrobial in origin - Bacteria enter lower respiratory tract due to abnormal breathing - Bacteria enter lower respiratory tract due to mechanical ventilation - Can be caused by coliform bacteria
Type 4
- T-cell mediated - delayed hypersensitivity - contact dermatitis, graft rejection
Select all of the statements that correctly describe the infectious dose.
- The infectious dose is the minimum number of organisms that must be present for an infection to proceed. - Microbes with low infectious doses are usually highly virulent. - Certain infections, like tuberculosis and giardiasis, may proceed even if only a small number of microbial cells are present.
Select those circumstances in which Koch's postulates cannot be readily applied or would be inappropriate to establish the cause of a disease.
- The suspected pathogen cannot be cultured in the laboratory. - There is not a suitable experimental host for the suspected pathogen. - The disease is polymicrobial, caused by more than one pathogen.
Select the two major goals of the Human Microbiome Project.
- To enumerate all of the members of the human microbiota, both those that can be cultured and those that are nonculturable - To determine the role the human microbiota plays in health and disease
Choose the response(s) that pertain to the relative burden of human infectious diseases in the world today.
- nearly 2000 microbes can cause human disease today - Many diseases that used to be considered noninfectious probably do involve microbial infection based upon current studies. - There is an increase in microbes that are resistant to drugs today.
Select the main groups of macromolecules found in living things.
- nucleic acids - lipids - proteins - carbs
Genotypic Methods
- polymerase chain reaction - hybridization of probes
Select the three primary mechanisms by which antiviral medications work.
- preventing entry of the virus into the host cell - blocking transcription and translation of viral proteins - preventing the maturation of viral particle
Review the table below, and choose the statements that are correct regarding the top causes of death by disease.
- respiratory illness is the leading cause of death by an infectious disease both in the United States and worldwide. - Across the globe, influenza and pneumonia will kill almost half as many individuals as heart disease. - Around the world in 2011, over 6.5 million individuals died of an infectious disease.
Rabies
- slow, progressive encephalitis transmitted by bites or droplets - treatment is postexposure active and passive immunization
Select the three ways in which microorganisms acquire antimicrobial resistance.
- spontaneous mutation - transfer of genes from other microorganisms - entering a dormant state in the presence of antibiotics, and resuming normal metabolic functions in the absence of antibiotics
Lipids
- triglycerides - phospholipids - waxes - steroids - mycolic acid - cholesterol
Polio
- virus is transmitted by vehicles or the fecal-oral route - IPV is used for prevention today in the US
Pertussis
- whooping cough - caused by bordetella pertussis, transmitted by droplet contact which uses many toxins for virulence - DTaP acellular vaccine used for prevention
Select all of the statements that apply to Chlamydia infection to test your understanding of genitourinary tract diseases characterized by discharge.
-Causative agent is an obligate intracellular parasite. -Causative agent has two stages: elemental body and reticulate body. -Neonate eye infections are more prevalent than those associated with gonorrhea.
Move the types of physical control to their correct category to review methods of microbial control.
-dry heat incineration hot air oven -radiation gama and x-rays ultraviolet rays -moist heat boiling water pasteurization non-pressurized steam steam under pressure -dessication dehydration by expo to normal room air
Label the image to review the relative resistance of various microbes to microbial control agents.
-from top to bottom prions bacterial endospores mycobacterium staphylococcus and pseudomonas protozon cysts protozon throphozoites most gram negative bacteria fungi and fungal spores non enveloped virus most gram positive bacteria enveloped virus
Move the correct terms into their corresponding empty boxes within the figure to complete the concept map.
-left side from the top down heat steam under pressure dry oven
Label the image, including the definitions at the bottom, to review various methods of microbial control.
-pink side (top to bottom/L=left R=right) physical agents L heat R radiation L dry R moist L incineration R boiling water, hot water, past. L ionizing R non ionizing L x-ray, cathode, gama R uv -blue side gases -green side filtration
Move the correct terms into their corresponding empty boxes within the figure to complete the concept map.
-right side nonionizing
Label the image to review how various antimicrobial agents alter protein structure and function.
-top image complete denaturation -left image top-native state L-substrate R-enzyme -right image different shape -bottom image blocked active site
A rod-shaped bacterium is measured as 0.3 micrometers (μm) in length using an ocular micrometer. Your instructor wants you to report the length in millimeters (mm) to test your understanding of metric conversions. What is the length of the organism in millimeters? 0.0003 mm 3 mm 300 mm 0.03 mm
0.0003
A child with a genetic disorder that does not allow immature B cells to develop would therefore not be able to make
antibodies
Percentage of HIV+ individuals who are nonprogressors
1
Percentage of IgD antibody in serum
1
Percentage of U.S. population that is seropositive for past or present West Nile virus infection
1
Order the following structures of the upper respiratory tract, going from the uppermost structure to the lowest structure in the tract, to test your understanding of respiratory anatomy.
1 - Nasal cavity 2 - Pharynx 3 - Epiglottis 4 - Larynx
Order the following steps of clonal selection and expansion, from the first step to last step.
1 - bone marrow stem cells differentiate into lymphocytes 2 - lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid tissues 3- stimulation by antigen 4 - lymphocytes undergo mitotic division
Order the four steps of Koch's postulates as they would normally be applied.
1 - find evidence of a particular microbe in every case of a particular disease 2 - isolate the suspected microbe from an infected host and cultivate it in pure culture in the lab 3 - inoculate a susceptible healthy subject with lab isolate of the potential pathogen and observe the resultant disease 4 - reisolate the disease agent from the test subject which now shows signs of disease
Order the four stages in the course of an infection.
1 - incubation period 2 - prodromal stage 3 - period of invasion 4 - convalescent period
Salmonelloses are associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. not caused by Salmonella typhi. All of the choices are correct. types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement.
All of the choices are correct.
1 An antimicrobial agent's adverse effect on cells is known as its ______________________. 2 Such antimicrobials exhibit a range of cellular targets, the_____________ selective being the most effective against the widest range of microbes and the ______________ selective agents exhibiting specificity in terms of cellular targets and microbial types they are effective against. 3 Potential cellular targets of various physical and chemical forms of antimicrobials include the ______________, whose synthesis can be blocked by these agents or whose structure can be altered as well. 4 Another potential target is the __________________, whose surface tension can be reduced by various microbicidal agents resulting in a loss of selective permeability in the cell. 5 Finally, physical and chemical agents can interfere with ______________ synthesis and activity through denaturation, and they can also disrupt the synthesis or structure of ____________________.
1 mode of action 2 least, most 3 cell wall 4 cell membrane 5 protein, nucleic acid
1 Adequate sterilization requires that both ___________________ and length of ________________ be properly controlled. 2 In general, _____________ temperatures allow _______________ exposure times, while ______________ temperatures require _______________ exposure times. 3 In terms of these strategies, the _____________________________ is defined as the shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature. 4 An optional measurement used to compare the susceptibility of microbes to heat is the _______________________, which is defined as the lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a sample in 10 minutes.
1 temperature, exposure 2 higher, shorter, lower, longer 3 thermal death time 4 thermal death point
What line of defense do the tonsils serve?
1-3rd line of defense; all of these
1. Percentage of bacteria and fungi (vegetative stages) destroyed by pasteurization 2. Percentage of iodine in surgical scrubs 3. Percentage of hydrogen peroxide used in sterilization of delicate instruments 4. Percentage of ethyl alcohol in most skin degerming agents
1. 97-99% 2. 2-10% 3. 35% 4. 70%
Fatality rate of botulism cases
10
Percentage of individuals allergic to penicillin
10
Percentage of males with gonorrhea who are asymptomatic
10
Percentage of salt tolerated by S. aureus in its environment
10
Percentage of FUOs caused by collagen vascular diseases
10-20
Percentage of population prone to atopic allergy
10-30
Percentage of adults thought to be infected with HHV-6 by adulthood
100
Percentage of IgA antibody in serum
13
In the late ____________ , ____________ designed several simple ____________ .
1600S; van Leeuwenhoek; microscopes
In the mid ____________ , ____________ was the first surgeon to introduce aseptic techniques into the operating room in an effort to reduce microbes and prevent infection.
1800s; Lister
Around ____________ , ____________ established four proofs that could be used to determine an organism's pathogenicity and related disease. He also developed many of the laboratory techniques that are still used today.
1875; Koch
Percentage of healthcare-associated infections involving surgical sites
19%
Generally, it is not possible to have an allergic reaction the ____ time a person is exposed to an antigen.
1st
Place the following reactants in the proper order of their usage in the indirect ELISA test. 1 = enzyme-linked antibody 2 = known antigen 3 = patient serum 4 = substrate
2 3 1 4
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include All of the choices are correct. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. prevention of drug entry into the cell. bacterial chromosomal mutations.
All of the choices are correct.
Match the term with its description to test your understanding of microbial control terminology. 1. Decontamination 2. Sterilization 3. Antisepsis 4. Disinfection
2. Destruction of all microbial life including bacterial endospores 4. Reduction of most microbial life on inanimate surfaces 3. Reduction of most microbial life on living tissue 1. Mechanical removal of most microbes from living or inanimate surfaces
__________________ new infections occurred in 2013, but there has been a ____ decrease in new infections over the past three years.
2.1 million; 13%
How many quarantine stations are located in the United States?
20
Percent reduction in childhood mortality from malaria due to bed-net use
20
Percentage of U.S. adults with genital herpes
20
Percentage of individuals with no recoverable bacteria in their eyes
20
The latency period of syphilis can last up to 20 years or more. 3 to 6 months. Syphilis is never a latent infection. 1 year.
20 years or more.
Percetage of FUOs caused by cancers
20-30
Mortality rate for septicemia, even with available treatments
20-50
Human Microbiome Project (HMP)
2010s and beyond; provided detailed information about the microorganisms that live on or in our bodies.
3. An enveloped virus measures 0.02 micrometers (μm) in diameter. What is the diameter of this virus in nanometers (nm)? 20 nm 0.00002 nm 0.2 nm 2 nm
20mm
Skin lesions due to hypersensitivity appear
24 hours after second exposure to antigen
The RN provides education to the students at the college regarding measles symptoms. All of the following presentations, suspicious of measles, are likely contagious, except:
24-year-old male with no fever and resolving generalized rash.
Percentage of healthy middle-aged adults carrying H. pylori in the stomach
25
Unfortunately, access to treatment drugs is still not adequate. For every 2 people receiving treatment, 5 new people will contract the infection.
2; 5
Percentage of adults who are asymptomatic carriers of S. aureus
30
The RN educates the patient regarding the importance of proper cooking temperatures to destroy microbes. As a general rule, she advises the patient to heat meat to at least 80°C and hold it there for how long?
30 minutes
Percentage of FUOs caused by infections
30-40
Worldwide, it is estimated that _____________________ individuals are HIV+, with over__________ of these individuals living in the United States.
32-38 million; 1 million
Chance of transmission of toxoplasmosis from an infected pregnant woman to her fetus
33
Percentage of mumps cases that are subclinical
40
Percentage of healthcare-associated infections involving the urinary tract
40%
Percentage of women under the age of 25 who are HPV+
46
The reticuloendothelial system is a support network of connective tissue fibers. All of the choices are correct. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. is heavily populated with macrophages. originates in the cellular basal lamina.
All of the choices are correct.
Percentage of all persons taking antimicrobial drugs that experience serious adverse reations
5
Average rate of healthcare-associated infections in all admitted patients
5%
Percentage of hospitalized patients experiencing drug allergy reactions
5-10
Percentage of patients with FUO who never receive a diagnosis
5-15
Percentage of all viral diarrhea cases leading to morbidity and mortality caused by rotavirus
50
Percentage of antibiotic prescriptions that are not needed or not optimally prescribed
50
Percentage of individuals who remain chronically infected with HBV when infected after the age of 5
6
Fatality rate of EEE infection
70
Percentage of Lyme disease cases presenting erythema migrans
70
Percentage of allergic patients that benefit from desensitization therapy
70
How many people die from rabies across the globe each year?
70,000
Percentage of Chlamydia infections that are asymptomatic
75
Percentage of individuals who remain chronically infected with HCV
75-85
Percentage of IgG antibody in serum
80
Percentage of humans expressing Rh antigen on RBCs
85
Percentage of world's population infected with EBV
90
In 2013, a study was published that indicated a _____ cure rate in patients treated with these transplants.
94%
Percentage of UTIs caused by microbes that are considered normal biota
95
Percentage of population exhibiting periodontal disease by age 45
97
Percentage of variant CJD cases that originated in the United Kingdom
98
Percentage of all healthcare-associated infections caused by gram-negative intestinal biota
>50%
All are important topics to teach an employee, except which of the following?
A patient's infectious status must be known when reporting to employee health so immediate treatment may be initiated.
Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled, and cooled? a pure culture a liquid medium a contaminated medium a mixed culture a solid medium
A solid medium
In direct ELISA, what is added first to the microtiter well?
antibodies
The lab calls to notify the RN that the 12-hour growth on the respiratory bacterial culture is negative. Based upon this result, which of the following is the most likely causative organism in this otherwise healthy 5-month-old child?
A virus
Which form of treatment should be administered to the patient at this time?
A. Doxycycline C. Amoxicillin
The patient's symptoms are most concerning for which of the following infectious organisms as the cause of acute diarrhea?
A. E. coli O157:H7
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes All of the choices are correct. washing bite with soap or detergent. debridement. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).
All of the choices are correct.
Nonspecific chemical defenses of the human host include all of the following except:
antibodies
Which of the following statements describes a microarray?
Absorbent plates ("chips") are loaded with thousands of potential gene sequences from different organisms, and patient specimens are incubated on the plates, allowing a computer to detect regions where there is a match.
Biofilms
Accumulations of bacteria and other microbes on surfaces that over the past 20 years have been identified to play a role in disease development.
T helper cell 1
Activates the cell-mediated immunity pathway; secretes TNF and interferon gamma; responsible for delayed hypersensitivity; CD4 receptors expressed
Which of the following conditions occurs if the blood-borne bacteria colonize the heart valves, causing impaired cardiac function?
Acute endocarditis
The patient has not yet received his scheduled 6-month immunizations. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the RN?
Administer inactivated vaccines to the patient, after consultation with physician
Which pathway accurately represents the spread of West Nile virus in the late 1990s through the 2000s?
Africa—eastern United States—western United States.
Select all of the correct statements concerning the female genital tract to test your understanding of the normal biota present in the genitourinary tract.
After puberty, estrogen production leads to glycogen release in the vagina lowering the pH. After puberty, Lactobacilli dominate discouraging growth of other microbes.
What is the goal of the use of a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter in the patient's room?
Air decontamination
Which of the following is most appropriate for use for skin antisepsis when performing a routine dressing change of the central venous line?
Alcohol and Chlorhexidine
Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis. digesting it. blocking its synthesis. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Cholera symptoms include All of the choices are correct. loss of blood volume. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst. hypotension, tachycardia, and shock. copious watery diarrhea.
All of the choices are correct.
Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by contaminated water. ingestion of cysts of the pathogen. contaminated food. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Meningococcemia is best treated with ceftriaxone or aztreonam. All of the choices are correct. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae.
All of the choices are correct.
Nonspecific chemical defenses include lysozyme. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. stomach hydrochloric acid. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include Alpha-hemolytic streptococci. Streptococcus pyogenes. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Neisseria meningitidis. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Plague includes disease control; control of rodent population. All of the choices are correct. bubonic form; buboes develop. pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious. septicemic form; called Black Death.
All of the choices are correct.
Two key parts of the mechanisms responsible for transfusion reactions are:
antibodies and complement.
Trichinosis includes all the following except associated with undercooked pork or bear meat. migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues. coiled larvae encyst in skeletal muscle. encysted larvae get ingested. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection? cilia mucus All of the choices are correct. macrophages nasal hairs
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? operating room air meats like ground beef and pork All of the choices are correct. surgical gloves human tissues such as heart valves and skin
All of the choices are correct.
Yellow fever and dengue fever are zoonoses. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. caused by arboviruses. transmitted by a mosquito vector. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
The physician prescribes the drug oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for this patient. Which of the following describes the action of Tamiflu?
All of these
Select all of the beta-lactam antibiotics.
All penicillin drugs All cephalosporins Imipenem Aztreonam
Choose the statement that does not describe the anaphylactic response to test your understanding of anaphylaxis.
Allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation.
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
Anamnestic response
Which of the following reactions by the patient would demonstrate an allergic response? difficulty breathing anaphylaxis rash Anaphylaxis, rash development, and difficulty breathing could all indicate allergic response in a patient.
Anaphylaxis, rash development, and difficulty breathing could all indicate allergic response in a patient.
What was the most likely source of the endospores the patient came in contact with leading to infection?
Animals and animal hides
Enterococcus
Another common cause of UTIs, but vancomycin-resistant forms of this agent are listed in the Serious Threat category
The antibiotics listed here all have similar MICs. Please choose the antibiotic that would be the best option for treatment.
Antibiotic Y Therapeutic index = 100
The causative organism (bacterial or viral) of the patient's infection is not confirmed. The RN may anticipate the treatment plan to include which of the following?
Antibiotic eye drops and teaching regarding frequent hand washing
Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. _______ are substances that provoke a specific immune response which is so discriminating that only a single molecular fragment, called an __________, actually interacts with the lymphocyte's receptor.
Antigens; epitope
Select all of the statements that illustrate examples of natural defenses present in the skin.
Antimicrobial peptides, which disrupt membranes of bacteria Lysozyme, which breaks down peptidoglycan Keratin, which prevents microbe penetration Sloughing of skin, which removes attached microbes
The wound care RN uses hydrogen peroxide in wound cleansing. Which of the following terms best represents the treatment goal with the application of this chemical agent?
Antisepsis
Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents would the RN anticipate to be ordered for this patient?
Antiviral
Which of the following medications might the RN expect to be ordered for this patient?
Any of these
What group of protozoans does Plasmodium belong to?
Apicomplexans (sporozoans)
A blood culture is ordered. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of blood collection?
Aseptic cleansing of puncture site and sterile needle aspiration
If you were a microbiologist in 1950, which of the following scientific principles would you already know? Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting. Biofilms can form on implanted objects in the human body and be responsible for infection. Enzymes found in bacteria can be used to cut DNA. Very little DNA is transcribed into RNA that is then translated into proteins.
Aseptic techniques could reduce the number of wound infections in the surgical setting.
During a surgical procedure, the RN observes a surgeon wearing sterile gloves brush his posterior hand surface on a tray. The tray had been cleaned with a liquid chemical agent. What is the most appropriate action by the RN?
Assertion to the surgeon that a change of gloves is necessary before continuing the procedure
Choose the statement that best describes the virulence factor shared by the yellow fever, Dengue fever, Ebola, Marburg, and Lassa fever to test your understanding of hemorrhagic fever diseases.
Associated with disruption of clotting factors
The mother displays no evidence of active Hepatitis B disease as her carrier status was discovered with routine prenatal screening. What term best describes her carrier state?
Asymptomatic carrier
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
In order to bind to a host cell, the spikes of HIV have to attach to:
CD4 and a coreceptor
Disease symptoms are believed to be the result of dense aggregates of the abnormal protein.
true
Most antibiotics are derived from which bacterial and fungal genera?
Bacillus Streptomyces Penicillium Cephalosporium
Which of the following are correctly matched?
Bactericidal—kills bacteria Bacteriostatic—inhibits the growth of bacteria
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Bacterium that causes a very small percentage of community UTIs and catheter-associated UTIs
Select all of the statements that apply to keratitis, a serious eye infection.
Blindness due to herpes is the leading infectious cause of blindness in the United States. Keratitis can be caused by a eukaryotic organism. Acanthamoeba infection can cause keratitis, especially in those who wear contact lenses.
E. coli
Bloody diarrhea with development of hemolytic uremic syndrome in 10% of patients
The causative organism of whooping cough is Haemophilus influenzae. Bordetella pertussis. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Bordetella pertussis.
A common cardiovascular/lymph system disease in AIDS patients is Burkitt's lymphoma. ehrlichioses. herpes simplex virus. acute endocarditis
Burkitt's lymphoma.
The chills and fever seen in malaria patients happen at what point in the parasite's life cycle?
Bursting of the red blood cells
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely
C. Leptospira interrogans.
Which form of treatment should be administered to the patient at this time?
C. Supportive care with fluid replacement therapy
After discharge, the patient calls the urgent care clinic to report a feeling of tightness in his throat and difficulty breathing within 30 minutes of taking his first dose of penicillin. What should the RN advise the patient?
Call 911 for emergency medical attention.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate by the RN?
Call the child's mother for pick up as the child is highly contagious.
The most common cause of vaginitis is Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus. Escherichia coli. Candida albicans.
Candida albicans.
The membrane attack complex is made from:
C5b, C6, C7, C8, & C9
An antiviral factor called ________ has been found in ________ cells.
CAF ; CD8
The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the United States Department of Agriculture. Infection Control Committee. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. National Institutes of Health. World Health Organization.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
The RN notifies the patient of the procedure. In her teaching, she verbalizes that the purpose of a lumbar puncture is to collect which type of body fluid?
Cerebrospinal fluid
Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, although entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumoniae Coccidioides immitis Cryptococcus neoformans
Coccidioides immitis
Choose the statement that best describes the normal biota of the upper respiratory tract.
Contains a variety of microbes including some that can cause serious disease
Based upon all of the information obtained through specimen testing, along with the patient's symptoms, the pathogen is most likely:
Dengue fever virus
The patient's caregiver reports that numerous cases of conjunctivitis have been reported in the child's school. Which of the following is the most common method(s) of transmission of bacterial and viral forms of this disease?
Direct contact and indirect contact
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen?
Direct contact with contaminated water through skin abrasions
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen?
Direct contact with endospores
Following collection of the specimens, the RN is called to another patient and forgets to label the specimens. She returns in 20 minutes and the specimens are sitting on the patient's bedside table. What is the most appropriate action by the RN?
Discard the specimens and re-collect.
What is the RN's most appropriate action with used needles following the completion of the procedure?
Discarding
Which of the following is the most common causative organism for urinary tract infections?
E. coli
Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests. direct fluorescent antibody None of the choices is correct. ELISA Western blot
ELISA
Hep B
Enveloped DNA virus that is transmitted by blood contact and is associated with cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma
__________, an increase in certain granular leukocytes, is a hallmark of helminthic infections.
Eosinophilia
True or False: Bacteria are only visible with an electron microscope.
F
True or False: The presence of flagella can be determined by a Gram stain.
F
True or False: Cytotoxic T cells directly kill the viruses found inside of infected cells.
False
True or False: In a subunit vaccine, the subunit must come from the outer surface of the pathogen.
False
Which of the following is not true of coliforms? They include E. coli, Enterobacter, and Citrobacter. They are gram-negative, lactose-fermenting, and gas-producing bacteria. Coliform bacteriophages are currently used as good fecal indicators. Fecal coliform assays are very specific.
Fecal coliform assays are very specific.
Hep E
Fecal-oral route of transmission and infection has no long-term consequences except in pregnant women
Select the typical symptoms that are present in cases of meningitis, regardless of the causative agent.
Fever Headache Painful or stiff neck
The RN advises the community of the symptoms of West Nile infection. Which of the following are initial symptoms of infection?
Fever, body aches, and rash
Select all of the correct statements pertaining to the protective characteristics of urine to test your understanding of the natural defenses of the genitourinary tract.
Has acidic pH Contains lysozyme which breaks down peptidoglycan Contains lactoferrin, an iron-binding protein Contains secretory IgA
The patient developed the infection since hospitalization. Which of the following terms best describes this type of infection?
Healthcare-associated infection
Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract? All of the choices are correct. IgE IgM IgG IgA
IgA
The antibody involved in Type I hypersensitivity is _____.
IgE
Which of these describes Type I hypersensitivity?
IgE-mediated and involves mast cells, helper T-cells, and histamine
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract? IgG flushing action of urine lysozyme
IgG
_____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum. IgM IgE IgA IgD IgG
IgG
The basic mechanism in Type II hypersensitivities involves:
IgG and IgM triggering cell destruction by complement and other mechanisms.
Early in the primary response, most of the antibodies are the ____ type.
IgM
The first class of antibody synthesized in the host's first encounter with antigen is ________.
IgM
The RN collects a patient history from the parents. Which of the following statements would raise concern for the potential of serious disease in the patient?
Ingestion of undercooked hot dog at county fair
Which of the following are correct descriptions of the first line of defense?
Involves barriers at portals of entry Includes chemicals such as lysozyme and lactic acid Examples include the ciliated epithelium of the respiratory passages, excretion of urine, and production of tears
Ionizing and nonionizing radiation can be used in microbial control. Which of the following statements are true regarding the use of radiation?
Ionizing radiation has good penetrating power. UV light is an example of nonionizing radiation. Nonionizing radiation cannot penetrate solid objects.
It is important to rapidly identify Listeria monocytogenes in pregnancy to save the life of the fetus. What characteristic of this pathogen hampered the diagnosis through routine culturing?
It is best cultured using cold enrichment methods.
Select all of the statements that apply to gonorrhea to test your understanding of genitourinary tract diseases characterized by discharge.
It is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus. Infection can render both males and females sterile. It can result in eye and respiratory infections of neonates during birthing process.
Select all of the statements that apply to bacterial conjunctivitis.
It is caused by more than one type of bacteria. In children and adults, prevention is through good hygiene.
Select all of the statements that accurately describe the OPV.
It is easily administered by mouth. It is prepared from animal cell culture. It contains attenuated virus.
Choose the statement that best describes the characteristics of lymph.
It is formed by fluid that leaves circulation into the surrounding extracellular spaces.
Which individual successfully traced the source of a cholera outbreak in London to a particular contaminated well? Louis Pasteur Robert Koch John Snow
John Snow
Choose the method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing that involves measuring and evaluating zones of inhibition around antibiotic disks placed on a culture of bacteria prior to incubation.
Kirby-Bauer test
The physician orders blood cultures, antibiotic therapy, oxygen administration, and a fluid bolus for blood pressure support. The RN most appropriately prioritizes these tasks in which order?
Oxygen administration, fluid bolus, blood culture, antibiotic initiation
When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes, which test can be effectively used? direct fluorescence antibody Weil-Felix reaction direct antigen reaction PCR
PCR
Which of the following is used for initial detection of C. trachomatis?
PCR or ELISA
Which of the following are possible symptoms of gonorrhea in males?
Painful urination and yellowish discharge and no symptoms
The causative organism for mumps is Morbillivirus. Vibrio. Streptococcus pyogenes. Paramyxovirus.
Paramyxovirus.
Which of the following is the first exposure of the infant to environmental microbes?
Passage through vaginal canal
Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. _________ is the ability of a microbe to cause disease, whereas _________ refers to the relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microorganism.
Pathogenicity; virulence
Which is true?
Patients differ in the amount of complement naturally found in their serum.
Which of the following statements is true of penicillin's mechanism of action and demonstrates the concept of selective toxicity?
Penicillin inhibits the synthesis of the cell wall in bacteria by blocking the chemical peptidoglycan.
The patient is experiencing severe diarrhea every 6 hours. Which phase of infection is she most likely experiencing?
Period of invasion
Choose the statement that describes the first stage of phagocytosis.
Phagocytes move with deliberation along a gradient of stimulatory products at the site of injury
Choose the statement that best describes second-line (secondary) immune defenses of the respiratory tract.
Phagocytic cells inhabit the alveoli and tonsils.
Targets cell membranes
Polymyxins (daptomycin, polymyxins B and E
Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections? group B Streptococcus Schistosoma haematobium Treponema pallidum Proteus mirabilis
Proteus mirabilis
Hep C
RNA virus transmitted by blood contact and results in liver failure
Select all of the statements that are correct for rabies.
Rabies is a classic zoonotic infection because it is transmitted to humans from animals, rather than human-to-human transmission. Rabies is almost always fatal.
Select all of the characteristics shared by both B- and T-cell receptors.
Receptors are formed by genetic recombination. Receptors are inserted into the cell membrane.
If the patient is found to test positive for HIV, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C, which of the following actions is legally required by the hospital facility?
Reporting the patient's positive test result to public health authorities
What is the most appropriate type of isolation for this patient while awaiting the results of the bacterial and viral studies?
Respiratory precautions (droplet mask, gown, and gloves)
Gamma-delta T cell
Respond to PAMPs like nonspecific cells do but also produce memory cells when activated
All of the following are essential education points by the RN, except:
Restriction on blood donation until viral levels are undetectable
Scarlet Fever
Results from a Streptococcus pyogenes strain that is infected with a toxin-coding bacteriophage and is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash
Glomerulonephritis
Results from streptococcal proteins forming immune complexes which are deposited on the basement membranes of the kidney
Which of the following is mismatched? Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever Bartonella quintana - trench fever Yersinia pestis - plague Coxiella burnetii - Q fever
Rickettsia typhi - Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Mixed infection
Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site
Chronic carrier
Shelters the infectious agent in a latent form for a long period after recovery
The RN applies a silver-impregnated dressing to the ulcer. What is the rationale for the use of silver dressings in wound care?
Silver possesses antimicrobial activity.
Incubating carrier
Spreads the infectious agent before the appearance of the first symptoms
For which bacterial genus does mannitol salt agar differentiate between species? Escherichia Streptococcus Neisseria Staphylococcus Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Which of the following is the causative organism of impetigo?
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Select all of the statements that apply to the pathological aspects of impetigo, a skin disease.
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are the causative organisms. The most common modes of transmission are direct and indirect contact.
Superantigens are produced by
Staphylococcus aureus in toxic shock syndrome.
Which scientific name is written correctly? STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus Aureus Staphylococcus aureus- *italics* Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus aureus- *italics*
Choose the microorganism that is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults to test your understanding of this disease.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Bacterial Pharyngitis
Streptococcus pyogenes infection that results in a sore throat with reddened mucosa, swollen tonsils, and pus nodules
Which of the following helminths is paired with a correct characteristic/s of its pathogenesis? Ascaris lumbricoides - life and transmission cycle B Strongyloides stercoralis - life and transmission cycle B Trichuris trichuria - life and transmission cycle B
Stronyloides stercoralis - life and transmission cycle B
A toxoid would best be described as an example of which type of vaccine?
Subunit vaccine
Individual viral particles have only one type of nucleic acid.
T
Margination occurs when neutrophils stick to the lining of the endothelium.
T
True or False: Some hosts are genetically immune to the diseases of other hosts.
T
The RN provides education to the family regarding the diagnosis of severe combined immunodeficiency. He explains that the disorder results from defective hematopoietic precursor cells. Which of the following immune cell types may be affected?
T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
MHC class II receptors are found on all of the following EXCEPT
T-Cells
True or False: Self-proteins of infected cells are not recognized by cytotoxic T cells.
True
The RN educates the student about the virulence of S. aureus related to lesion formation in impetigo. Which of the following statements by the student demonstrates an understanding of this teaching?
The bacteria make a toxin that makes it so my skin cells do not bind well.
What laboratory action created a situation in which workers were exposed to Bacillus anthracis in the June 2014 incident?
The chemical treatment used was not sufficient to inactivate the endospores of this organism.
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? The incubation temperature was incorrect. The culture medium must be differential. The culture is contaminated. The culture medium must be selective. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
The culture medium must be selective.
What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the role of helper T cells?
The helper T cells regulate immune reactions through B cells and T cells.
Focal Infection
The infectious agent spreads to other tissues from a local site
Choose the statement that best describes the normal biota of the eye.
The normal biota of the eye is generally sparse
What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain have in common? The outcome is based on cell differences. They are simple stains. They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. They use a negative stain technique.
The outcome is based on cell differences.
Common - source epidemic
The persistent cholera epidemic studied by John Snow in London during the mid-1050s, during which he traced the source to a sewage-contaminated community pump.
When an egg is fried, what happens to the protein in the egg? Amino acids form new proteins. The heat converts the protein into water. Because the heat removes water, the hydrophilic amino acids leave the pan. The protein is denatured.
The protein is denatured.
The patient verbalizes concern of the risk of paralysis from the procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the RN?
The puncture is done below the level of spinal cord termination.
The patient asks the RN how she could have acquired the infection without noticeable symptoms. What is the most appropriate reply by the RN?
The vast majority of people infected with Chlamydia do not have symptoms.
Which of the following statements is true regarding reportable diseases?
There are over 75 reportable diseases caused by a large variety of microorganisms.
Choose the statement that identifies the major disadvantage of both cold and desiccation in terms of microbial control. These methods are technically difficult and labor intensive. These methods may encourage growth of microbial populations. These methods are bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal. These methods produce harmful by-products and are costly.
These methods are bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal.
Small RNAs
These molecules were first identified in the 2000s, and appear to play critical roles in regulating what happens in the cell.
Immunologic
This category includes techniques for the analysis of a microbe using antibodies, or of patients' antibodies using prepackaged antigens.
Phenotypic
This category includes techniques for the observation of a microbe's microscopic and macroscopic morphology, physiology, and biochemical properties.
Select the two correct answers to test your understanding of the primary goals of antimicrobial treatment.
To destroy the infective agent To be nontoxic to the host and produce no side effects
What is the purpose of booster shots?
To stimulate a secondary or anamnestic response
What is the function of the tonsils?
Trapping invading organisms and killing invading organisms
True or False: In addition to apoptosis of infected host cells, apoptosis of lymphocytes also occurs during embryonic development.
True
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that microbes are found on dust particles. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
Intermediate size complexes
activate complement
Backyard composting in either a pile or a bin is generally an _____________ process. aerobic anaerobic
aerobic
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? agglutination opsonization complement fixation neutralization anamnestic response
agglutination
Inhalant
airborne environmental allergen such as pollen
The patient's initial treatment plan involves all of the following, except:
albuterol inhaler
After Gram's iodine is added, what color do the cells appear under a light microscope?
all cells appear purple
Possible symptoms of toxic shock syndrome include
all of the above
1. The patient has a central venous line for administration of IV fluids and medications. Which of the following interventions demonstrates aseptic technique by the RN when manipulating the line?
all of these
HIV is a retrovirus in the genus Lentivirus. Which of the following is true of retroviruses?
all of these
If the patient is diagnosed with this infectious disease, the RN anticipates that treatment of the patient will include which of the following?
all of these
Surface receptors on immune system cells function in ___.
all of these
The RN anticipates the physician will order which of the following tests?
all of these
The RN may anticipate which of the following medications to be initiated for this patient?
all of these
The occurrence of which of the following symptoms in an 18-month-old patient would cause concern for infection with rotavirus?
all of these
Tissue injury leading to inflammation can be due to
all of these
Water acquires microorganisms from which of the following?
all of these
Which of the following are functions of inflammation in the body?
all of these
Which of the following are possible symptoms of gonorrhea in females?
all of these
Which of the following cells can be a target for cytotoxic T cells?
all of these
Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the purpose of vaccination?
all of these
Which of the following methods of vector control should be emphasized in the community education program?
all of these
Which of the following organs may be affected in the patient's disease?
all of these
Which of the following types of cells are infected and destroyed by HIV?
all of these
Which of the following would be utilized for treatment for this patient?
all of these
The physician orders phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for the patient. Which of the following should be included in the teaching by the RN?
all of these are correct
Injectant
allergens such as drugs or venoms that pierce the skin
Ingestant
allergens that enter by mouth
After hearing about what vaccines are and having some of their misconceptions addressed, the Smiths decide to have their son vaccinated. What is an important part of the family history to elicit? dairy sensitivity incidence of failed vaccination allergies to eggs or shellfish incidence of autism acute illness during pregnancy
allergies to eggs or shellfish
Interferons provide defense against viruses and other microbes, and are found in three major types: __________ and beta, which are made by lymphocytes and fibroblasts; and ___________, a product of___cells.
alpha; gamma; T
The RN educates the parents regarding the functional importance of proteins as performing metabolic reactions and forming cellular structure. Which of the following are the building blocks of proteins?
amino acids
Gram-negative rods are often treated with isoniazid. aminoglycosides. synercid. vancomycin. penicillin G.
aminoglycosides.
An example of a macrolide polyene drug used to treat systemic fungal infections and lesions caused by Candida albicans is ______________.
amphotericin B
Antifungal drugs
amphotericin B miconazole micafungin flucytosine
No Hypersensitivity Reaction Occurs
an An rH positive mother is carrying her first rH positive fetus
An allergy is best described as ____.
an exaggerated immune response
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
The betadine swab before blood donation is an example of decontamination. sterilization. antisepsis. sanitation. disinfection.
antisepsis.
The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed antisepsis. fegerming. disinfection. sterilization. decontamination.
antisepsis.
As the RN, you cleanse the urethral opening with an iodine swab. Which of the following terms most appropriately describes this method of microbial control? sterilant disinfectant antiseptic decontaminant
antiseptic
Which test is used to confirm scarlet fever? ELISA Widal test antistreptolysin O complement fixation
antistreptolysin O
Monitoring of drinking water and recreational water is done by testing for indicator bacteria. Indicator bacteria are bacteria typically found in the mammalian gastrointestinal tract. are bacteria known to cause human disease. are bacteria known to proliferate in aquatic environments and fish.
are bacteria typically found in the mammalian gastrointestinal tract.
All infectious diseases involve viruses as the pathogen. only occur in humans. are contagious. are caused by microorganisms or their products. are caused by vectors.
are caused by microorganisms or their products.
All of the following pertain to genital warts except are sexually transmitted. includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate. are not common in the United States.
are not common in the United States.
T cells
are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that are too small to be seen with the unaided eye. can only be found growing in laboratories. are infectious particles. cause human disease. lack a cell nucleus.
are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
What is the most common mode of transmission for West Nile virus?
arthropod bites
Vaccination provides what type of acquired immunity?
artificial active immunity
Vaccination is a type of ____________, _____________ immunity and serves to stimulate a primary and a memory response that primes the immune system for future exposure to a pathogen.
artificial, active
One characteristic of the Plasmodium lifecycle is:
asexual division, called schizogony, occurs in the liver.
Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called secondary infections. inflammation. asymptomatic. malaises. syndromes.
asymptomatic
Aminoglycosides interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. block folic acid synthesis. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. damage cell membranes.
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
Live chickenpox virus can be used in a(n) ___.
attenuated vaccine
Placing organisms at 4oC is sterilization. None of the choices is correct. bacteriostatic. bacteriocidal. decontamination.
bacteriostatic.
Based upon these results alone, the pathogen appears to be a(n)
bacterium
Based upon these results, the pathogen appears to be a:
bacterium
Based upon these results, the pathogen appears to be a:
bacterium.
Parallel eosinophil function in being involved in inflammation and allergic reactions
basophils
What would have been the best way for Amanda to prevent getting this strand of meningitis? drink plenty of fluids be vaccinated with Pneumovax take antibiotics with every cold not live in a college dormitory
be vaccinated with Pneumovax
On first exposure to antigen, T helper cells
become activated and increase in number.
A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? thioglycollic acid NaCl sheep red blood cells peptone bile salts
bile salts
An antihistamine will relieve inflammatory symptoms. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles. bind to histamine receptors on target organs. block synthesis of leukotrienes.
bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
C3b
binds to both the surfaces of microorganisms and surfaces of phagocytes
Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called decomposition. mineralization. recycling. synergism. bioremediation.
bioremediation.
If you can block the effect of HIV protease, you will:
block cleavage of the HIV polyprotein into individual proteins
Sulfonamides attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. block folic acid synthesis. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. damage cell membranes.
block folic acid synthesis.
Penicillins and cephalosporins damage cell membranes. block folic acid synthesis. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Chemokines appear to inhibit HIV infection by
blocking the CXCR4 and CCR5 coreceptors.
The suffix -emia means tumor. pertaining to. a disease or morbid process. blood. an inflammation.
blood
Although the ________________________ restricts permeability of blood vessels in the brain and prohibits most microbes from entering, it also makes ________ treatment in this area difficult if required.
blood-brain barrier; drug
Which of the following treatments may be presented to the family as the only curative method for SCID?
bone marrow transplant
For example, ____________ structures of the skull are a structural barrier to the entry of pathogens.
bony
Impetigo is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Propionibacterium acnes. Streptococcus pyogenes. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? All of the choices are correct. both skin graft and organ transplantation organ transplantation blood transfusion skin graft
both skin graft and organ transplantation
The HIV proviral DNA inserted into the host cell's DNA is used to make:
both viral genome RNA and mRNA
Which is the exotoxin of botulism? peroxidases factor V tetanospasm botulinum
botulinum
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is botulism. gastrointestinal anthrax. bacillus cereus intoxication. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. All of the choices are correct.
botulism
An antimicrobial drug that is effective against a very diverse array of bacteria is described as _______ spectrum.
broad
A harmless PrP is converted into the infective PrP
by an abnormal PrP which binds to the normal protein and causes it to become misfolded.
In order for proper gas exchange to occur, alveoli are surrounded by pulmonary:
capillaries
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its fimbriae. capsule. enterotoxin. None of the choices is correct.
capsule.
Which of the following atmospheric gases have been increasing in concentration and are believed to be contributors to climate change? hydrogen and carbon dioxide carbon dioxide and methane methane and oxygen
carbon dioxide and methane
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a reservoir. source. fomite. vector. carrier.
carrier
The trachea is an airway that is kept open by rings of:
cartilage
All of the following are probable causes for the patient's new-onset of allergies, except:
cat dander
All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme ____________ that is easily detected in the lab. exfoliative toxin B lactase exfoliative toxin A staphlokinase catalase
catalase
Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the coagulase test. Gram stain. catalase test. fermentation of mannitol.
catalase test.
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis? modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water infections of both the brain and meninges causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective causative organisms are viruses
causative organisms are viruses
To identify the microbe, one step of inspection involves examination for colony growth characteristics. All the following are macroscopically observed characteristics except:
cell shape
A lumbar puncture is used to collect a sample of _______ ____________ from a patient with a suspected infection of the .
cerebrospinal fluid; central nervous system
A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified, and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed None of the choices is correct. chemically defined. enriched. complex. reducing.
chemically defined.
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with infectious mononucleosis. herpes labialis. chickenpox. herpes keratitis.
chickenpox.
A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body. sweat chill All of the choices are correct. heat pain
chill
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except:
chills
The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is syphilis. gonorrhea. HIV. chlamydia.
chlamydia.
The most common reported STD in the United States is genital herpes. gonorrhea. syphilis. chlamydia.
chlamydia.
The final step of sewage treatment before release into the environment is sludge digesting. aeration. chlorination.
chlorination.
The patient asks how microbes from her body can be grown in the lab. You explain that specimens are introduced to nutrient medium and that any growth of the microbe that appears after incubating the specimen is called the microorganism. culture. infectious agent. colony.
culture
Incubation
culture media are placed at the proper growth temperature and allowed time to grow
The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is culturing of the organism is not required. they are widely available. All of the choices are correct. they are less expensive than other methods.
culturing of the organism is not required.
Based upon this diagnosis, what disease is the patient suffering from?
cutaneous anthrax
Helper T cells secrete ________ to stimulate the proliferation of B cells.
cytokines
In educating the patient about the prevention of community-acquired pneumonia, all of the following are emphasized by the RN as effective methods except:
daily antibiotics
Selective toxicity refers to damage to nucleic acids. damage to pathogenic organisms. damage to prokaryotic cell membranes. damage to the target organisms but not host cells. None of the choices is correct.
damage to the target organisms but not host cells.
The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called pathogens. fermenters. decomposers. eukaryotes. prokaryotes.
decomposers
One of the goals of wastewater treatment is to _____________ the biological oxygen demand (BOD). decrease increase neutralize
decrease
A superinfection results from an immune system reaction to the drug. All of the choices are correct. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species. the wrong drug administered to the patient. buildup of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.
decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
Select two methods that can be used for long-term preservation of microbial cultures. irradiation deep freezing (-70oC to -135oC) filtration pasteurization lyophilization
deep freezing (-70oC to -135oC) lyophilization
In the presence of activated complement, neutrophils
degranulate and release enzymes that cause tissue damage
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils histamine acts on smooth muscle degranulation prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
degranulation
Blood Agar
demonstrates hemolysis of streptococcus species; differential media
Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state (three-dimensional configuration) of the proteins. denature bind activate dissolve All of the choices are correct.
denature
Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones? Lassa fever Ebola yellow fever dengue fever
dengue fever
The most common infectious disease in humans is dental caries. diarrhea. pharyngitis.
dental caries
Blood vessels are found in the dermis. subcutaneous layer. stratum corneum. stratum basale. dermis and subcutaneous layer.
dermis and subcutaneous layer.
Choose the statement that describes the best method of prevention of dental caries.
dietary restriction of carbohydrates
What general type of stain is used to separate types of bacteria based on their cellular structures?
differential
Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? selective enumeration enriched reducing differential
differential
The Gram stain, which employs different colored dyes to analyze bacterial cell wall structure, is an example of which type of staining method?
differential stain
An ELISA to detect the hCG hormone, elevated during pregnancy, would be classified as a(n) ________ ELISA.
direct
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo? fomites mechanical vectors direct contact blood body fluids
direct contact
Which test is especially good for bacteria that are not readily cultivated in the lab? Gram stain dichotomous key direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) testing direct antigen testing
direct fluorescence antibody (DFA) testing
Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. A(n) _________ would be used to destroy bacteria on a countertop whereas a(n) _________ would be used on skin prior to making an incision. antiseptic; disinfectant antiseptic; sterilant disinfectant; antiseptic sterilant; disinfectant
disinfectant; antiseptic
The advantage of live attenuated vaccines over killed vaccines is their ability to confer long-lasting protection while requiring fewer __________ and boosters as compared to other vaccine types.
doses
The term "latent" is used to describe some of the HIV virus inside of infected host cells because:
double-stranded viral DNA (provirus) is inserted into the host DNA
Cold viruses are transmitted by direct contact. All of the choices are correct. endogenous. None of the choices is correct. droplet contact and indirect contact.
droplet contact and indirect contact.
Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission? droplets water fomites aerosols droplet nuclei
droplets
Following the procedure, all of the following are important interventions, except:
early ambulation.
A teacher walking through her first-grade classroom pauses to pick up a used tissue that had ended up on the floor instead of in the waste basket. Unfortunately, after discarding the tissue, she doesn't immediately wash her hands, and acquires a strain of rhinovirus. Several days later she begins to experience symptoms of a cold. Based upon this scenario, please select the mode of disease transmission demonstrated here.
fomite
You indicate to the patient that research has demonstrated that probiotics may also be useful in the management of allergies caused by detergents. pollen. food. animal dander.
food
Select the patterns of indirect transmission of infectious disease.
food, water fomites air
Immunoassays are useful:
for all of these
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes? sensitive to bacitracin gram positive beta hemolytic forms spores
forms spores
The antigens that trigger Type II hypersensitivity are typically:
found on cell surfaces.
There are ____________ distinct phases of infection and disease.
four
Match the carbohydrate class with the appropriate example of a carbohydrate in that class.
fructose - 1 lactose - 3 cellulose - 2
Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. fungal helminthic viral protozoan bacterial
fungal
The RN educates the group about the most prominent waterborne pathogens. She includes all of the following, except
fungi
Which of the following block HIV binding to host cell receptors? fuzeon amantidine nevirapine acyclovir AZT
fuzeon
Antiviral drugs
fuzeon amantadine acyclovir ribavirin zidovudine
The mosquito is infected with the malaria parasite when it ingests or draws in ______ from an infected human.
gametocytes
Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? vancomycin penicillins bacitracin cephalosporins gentamicin
gentamicin
The organism's two part scientific name originates from which of the levels of taxonomy?
genus and species
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis? wear insect repellent trifluridine or acyclovir treatment good hygiene ivermectin treatment
good hygiene
The two viral proteins inserted into the host cell membrane as the virus leaves or buds out of the cell are gp41 and:
gp120
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? host rejection of graft None of the choices is correct. hypogammaglobulinemia formation of autoantibodies graft versus host disease
graft versus host disease
What is the most universal diagnostic staining technique used for bacterial identification and classification?
gram stain
Based upon the staining results, the pathogen appears to be a(n):
gram-negative coccobacillus
Which of the following is not true of Propionibacterium acnes? releases lipase present in hair follicles gram-negative rod attracts white blood cells
gram-negative rod
Based upon the staining results, the pathogen appears to be a(n):
gram-positive bacillus.
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors. monocytes None of the choices is correct. granulocytes leukocytes agranulocytes
granulocytes
In addition to perforins, which chemical(s) is/are also secreted by cytotoxic T cells?
granzymes
Select the nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides that make up DNA.
guanine thymine adenine cytosine
Select the nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides that make up RNA.
guanine uracil adenine cytosine
The purine___ always binds with the pyrimidine__ in DNA and RNA. thymine, guanine adenine, guanine guanine, cytosine cytosine, guanine
guanine, cytosine
Syphilitic tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis. ulcers chancres gummas
gummas
Each of the following are appropriate specimens for bacterial culture except spinal fluid. throat. skin. hair. saliva.
hair.
Each of the following is true for Toxoplasma gondii except has a narrow host range. All of the choices are true. is a flagellated parasite. can cause stillbirth. is often fatal for AIDS patients.
has a narrow host range.
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. have an immunodeficiency. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States.
have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States.
Select all of the conditions that result from IgE- and mast-cell-mediated allergic reactions.
hay fever allergic asthma food allergy reactions drug allergy reactions eczema
Which is mismatched? food allergy - type I hypersensitivity hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity
hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
Typical side effects include ___________ and tenderness at the site of the needle insertion.
headache
An infection that is acquired or develops during a person's stay in a hospital or other health facility is called a(n) _____________
healthcare-associated
S. aureus is a common and hardy contaminant on surfaces, and it can cause bloodstream infections in hospitalized patients, known as __________________ MRSA.
healthcare-associated
Which of the following lymphocytes are affected by HIV?
helper T cells
Ebola virus causes a _______________ fever, resulting from a disruption of blood clotting factors.
hemorrhagic
When a large percentage of a population is vaccinated against an infection, the causative microbe is unable to spread easily through that population. Because of this, susceptible individuals who cannot be vaccinated are protected to some extent by the community around them. This phenomenon is known as _____________.
herd immunity
In most parts of the world, ________________ intercourse is the primary mode of transmission for HIV, with rates increasing dramatically in adolescent and young adult ____________ populations.
heterosexual; female
Ebola has a very ______ mortality rate but a ________infectiousness.
high; low
Vasoactive Mediators
histamine serotonin bradykinin
As the RN, you educate the new nurses about the prevalence of healthcare-associated infections. All of the following are frequent sources of patient infection except endotracheal tube. hospital beds. surgical incision. urinary catheter.
hospital beds.
In the stable form of protein, what is generally oriented to the interior of the protein molecule? large portions random portions hydrophobic portions hydrophilic portions
hydrophobic portions
Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. Immunopathology is the study of disease states or immune dysfunctions, which are divided into two categories: ___________ diseases (i.e., allergy) or diseases associated with __________ (i.e., AIDS).
hypersensitivity; immunodeficiency
Triple-sugar Iron Agar
identification of hydrogen sulfide producing bacteria; differential media
Edward Jenner's work involved inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. development of passive immunotherapy. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. All of the choices are correct. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes
impetigo cellulitis, which can produce lymphangitis
The complement components react
in a cascade
When does the RN advise the patient to see the physician?
in the next 24 hours
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Albert Sabin. inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Albert Sabin. inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk. oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV) developed by Jonas Salk.
inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk.
The injectable form of the influenza vaccine is an example of what type of vaccine?
inactivated vaccine
Select the choice that is not an example of acellular, subcellular, or subunit vaccines to test your understanding of major vaccine categories.
inactivated viruses
During 2007, there were 3.6 new cases of pertussis per 100,000 susceptible individuals in the United States, part of a steady increase that has been occurring since the 1980s.(http://www.cdc.gov/pertussis/clinical/index.html). Please select the term that is illustrated by this statistic.
incidence
Choose the method used to sterilize a bacteriologic loop before and after inoculating a culture in the laboratory. hot air tyndallization incineration radiation pasteurization
incineration
In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using chemicals. incineration. moist heat. filtration. ethylene oxide.
incineration
Innate, nonspecific physical barriers of host defenses
include the skin. include the mucous membranes.
The number of confirmed measles cases in England and Wales ________ during that same time period.
increased
The RN collects a complete blood count with differential to assess the patient's response to infection. Which of the following results in the differential is most indicative of bacterial infection and initiation of the inflammatory response?
increased neutrophils
Hepatitis B infection can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. is responsible for most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature to encourage growth. All of the choices are correct. streaked poured incubated contaminated
incubated
Multiplication of an organism in a culture is promoted by
incubation
The _____________ period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms.
incubation
Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. is more commonly found in adults. has a 30- to 50- day incubation. can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.
is more commonly found in adults.
Lactobacillis in the female reproductive tract can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. is the causative agent in common yeast infections. is protective.
is protective.
Pour plating, streak plating, and spread plating are ____________ methods for separating individual microbes from each other.
isolation
The culture is stored at the proper growth temperature for three days. Upon assessment, visible growth is noted. In order to separate a single microbe, a sample is transferred onto a separate medium to allow for colony growth. What term describes this process?
isolation
As air enters the nasal cavity
it is cleaned before entering the rest of the respiratory system
Select the antihelminthic drugs from this list.
ivermectin mebendazole praziquantel
What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry? lysozyme salt sebum sweat keratin
keratin
One type, called _________ vaccines, are prepared by cultivating the desired pathogen and then treating with chemicals to destroy their ability to ___________ but not their antigenicity.
killed; multiply
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? lack cell structure lack a nucleus cannot be seen without a microscope contain genetic material cause human disease
lack cell structure
Which organ of the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms? liver salivary glands large intestine
large intestine
Which role does histamine play during inflammation?
leads to vasodilation
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? pertussis plague legionellosis
legionellosis
The patient's culture is found to have growth of gram-negative bacteria. What unique component of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria acts as an endotoxin, causing symptoms of shock?
lipopolysaccharide
Based upon the animation presented, which of the following virulence factors is produced by Listeria monocytogenes allowing it to escape the host cell endocytic vacuole?
listeriolysin
Based upon this information, what is the patient's diagnosis and what infection ended the life of the fetus?
listeriosis; neonatal meningitis
Select the characteristics exhibited by effective vaccines.
little or no adverse side effects protect against exposure to wild-type, natural pathogens stimulate a B-cell or T-cell response relatively long shelf life
On the other hand, __________________ vaccines contain microbes whose virulence has been modified or eliminated via genetic manipulation or altering of growth conditions.
live attenuated
The first place in the human body where the malaria parasite reproduces is the:
liver
What organ produces bile?
liver
Based upon the patient's history, what is the most likely cause of the superinfection? fecal-oral contamination community-acquired MRSA long-term antibiotic therapy poor hygiene
long-term antibiotic therapy
Which of the following tests will be most helpful in confirming Amanda's diagnosis? CT scan lumbar puncture chest X ray complete blood count
lumbar puncture
Which of the following diseases represents a newly emerged zoonotic disease (over the past few decades)?
lyme disease
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's rash, based on her reported symptoms?
lyme disease
Based upon the patient's report, the RN infers that the tender, palpable lump under the right arm is most likely which of the following?
lymph node
In providing education to the patient and family, the RN explains that the tonsils are part of what body system?
lymphatic
Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte? lymphocyte Kupffer cell neutrophil macrophage monocyte
lymphocyte
The blood is full of leukocytes, such as ________, which are responsible for specific immunity, and various phagocytes which are critical to both nonspecific and specific immune responses.
lymphocytes
In describing sample processing, the RN refers to the process of inoculation. He explains that the sample is introduced to a nutrient-rich substance capable of sustaining microbe growth. What is the name of this sterile substance that allows for microorganism multiplication?
medium
This procedure is often used in the diagnosis of _____________ or in situations where fever is present in young children without any other symptoms.
meningitis
What is the most likely diagnosis for Amanda? prolonged sinus infection meningitis necrotizing encephalitis tumor of the cervical spine
meningitis
Fecal transplants involve administration of an enema containing donor feces in an effort to replace the normal ______________ of the gastrointestinal tract.
microbiota
Phagocytic ____________ cells and brain macrophages also provide antimicrobial activity in the nervous system, though their action is reduced compared to other areas of the body.
microglia
Which type of neuroglia has phagocytic capabilities in the CNS? astrocytes neurons Schwann cells macrophages microglial cells
microglial cells
_____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat. Moist, high High, moist High, dry Moist, dry Dry, moist
moist, dry
Which of the following is not considered a microorganism? virus fungus protozoan mosquito bacterium
mosquito
Select all of the sites where it was previously known that normal microbiota existed in large populations in/on the human body.
mouth throat colon skin vagina
In large metropolitan areas worldwide, infection from the use of contaminated needles during drug use is growing more rapidly than any other mode of transmission, which greatly influences the rate of sexual forms of transmission as well.
needles
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is reverse transcriptase. catalase. hyaluronidase kinase. neuraminidase.
neuraminidase.
Prions are believed to cause _______ diseases.
neurodegenerative
Viruses may also be carried from patient to patient transmitting disease, even though they differ from bacteria in that they are infectious proteins. parasitic invertebrate animals. noncellular particles. metabolically active eukaryotes.
noncellular particles.
In light of all of these natural defense mechanisms, however, the skin still harbors ________________ such as Corynebacterium, Propionibacterium, Candida, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus species.
normal biota
In providing education about genetic disorders, the RN would most accurately describe which of the following cellular macromolecules as responsible for the transmission of genetic information?
nucleic acids
Bacteria were traditionally considered prokaryotes. The defining feature of a prokaryotic cell was the absence of what cellular structure?
nucleus
The _____________ of microbes affects the action of an agent, as does the ______________ of the population.
number, composition
General-purpose media
nutrient agar
Why must fresh cells be used when performing a Gram stain?
old cells may not Gram-stain properly
Choose the answer that best completes this statement. Gentamicin, streptomycin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and erythromycin are examples of:
older antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis.
What structures found in the stomach of an infected mosquito turn into sporozoites, which then travel to the mosquito's salivary glands?
oocysts
Match the statements to the terms they describe to test your understanding of the possible end results of antibody binding antigen.
opsonization correct Coating of microbe with antibody to enhance phagocytosis neutralization correct Antibodies fill the surface receptors on microbes to prevent its attachment to the host antitoxin correct Antibody that neutralizes bacterial exotoxins agglutination correct Cross linkage of cells or particles into large clumps
Finally, the presence of _______________ matter, such as saliva and blood, also inhibit the action of many microbicidal agents.
organic
All of the following are potential differential diagnoses that the RN may anticipate for this patient except:
otitis media
The oval structure visualized by bright-field microscopic analysis of the patient's fecal sample is a(n)
ovum
All of the following are restricted in the patient's low bacteria diet, except
packaged cheddar cheese.
Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through parenteral entry. droplets. ingestion. casual contact.
parenteral entry.
As a leading microbiologist during the 1800s, ____________ disproved the theory of ____________ and completed several studies leading to the germ theory of disease.
pasteur; abiogensis.
This organism is a gram- _____________ bacterium and causes pseudomembranous colitis, infection of the ________________.
positive; colon
Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? streak plate All of the choices are correct. pour plate None of the choices is correct. spread plate
pour plate
Antihelminthic drugs
praziquantel ivermectin
Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as probiotics. lantibiotics. prebiotics. phytobiotics. riboswitches.
prebiotics.
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test. sensitivity specificity agglutination cross reactions precipitation
precipitation
During a recent survey, 0.014% of the population showed evidence of a particular respiratory infection. Please select the term that is illustrated by this statistic.
prevalence
Antiprotozoal drugs
primaquine chloroquine metronidazole
The uses of ____________ , preparations of live microorganisms that are ingested to improve intestinal biota, and ____________ , nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial intestinal microbes, are being pursued as alternatives to the use of traditional antibiotics that are more problematic.
probiotics; prebiotics
Bioremidiation
process that involves the introduction of microbes into the environment to restore stability or to clean up toxic pollutants.
The earliest notable symptoms of most infections appear during a short period known as the _____________ stage.
prodromal
Plasma cells All of the choices are correct. function in cell-mediated immunity. are derived from T lymphocytes. function in blood clotting. produce and secrete antibodies.
produce and secrete antibodies.
Shigella species have the following characteristics except the reservoir is human carriers. they are nonmotile, gram-negative rods. they produce enterotoxin called shiga toxin. produce urease and hydrogen sulfide.
produce urease and hydrogen sulfide.
Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? produces urease that buffers stomach acidity produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea gram negative
produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
The boxlike repeated structures seen through bright-field microscopic analysis of the patient's fecal sample are
proglottids.
The patient could have avoided infection with this organism by
properly preparing the salmon they consumed.
___________ is inflammation of a male reproductive gland accompanied by pain in the pelvic area and lower back, difficulty urinating, and painful ejaculation.
prostatitis
If you look inside the core or capsid of HIV, you will find three enzymes: reverse transcriptase, integrase, and:
protease
A patient asks the RN about the advantages of intranasal administration. All of the following are true of intranasal vaccine administration, except
protection against more strains of the disease.
Complement is a group of ______ found in the bloodstream.
proteins
To combat infection, a variety of antimicrobial __________ are employed by various cell types.
proteins
The causative organism of malaria is a protozoan. prion. fungus. bacterium.
protozoan.
A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the hypersensitivity dose. desensitizing dose. provocative dose. allergic dose. sensitizing dose.
provocative dose.
Travelers are at high risk for developing Dengue fever when vacationing in which country?
puerto rico
When ethanol is applied correctly, gram-positive cells appear ____ and gram-negative cells appear _____.
purple; colorless
Fever is initiated when a substance in circulation, called a(n) _________, acts on the hypothalamus causing it to reset body temperature to a higher setting.
pyrogen
Select the methods below that enable the isolation of bacteria.
quadrant streak plate loop dilution use of selective media spread plate
Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections? flucytosines synthetic azoles quinolones macrolide polyene antibiotics griseofulvins
quinolones
Most cases of human rabies outside of the United States result from exposure to other rabid humans. rabid raccoons. rabid dogs.
rabid dogs.
Which of the following diseases is the greatest risk to the patient, considering the mechanism of injury?
rabies
Which animal is associated with the transmission of the helminth Baylisascaris procyonis?
raccoon
Syphilis can be diagnosed by the latex agglutination test. Widal test. antistreptolysin O test. Weil-Felix reaction. rapid plasma reagin test.
rapid plasma reagin test.
The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by None of the choices is correct. neurological involvement. red blood cell lysis. liver cell lysis.
red blood cell lysis.
In the complement fixation test
red blood cells settle to the bottom if the patient has antibody being tested for.
Allergies run in families because relative production of IgE is inherited. the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined. All of the choices are correct. immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus. immunoglobulins pass through breast milk.
relative production of IgE is inherited.
When T helper cells are exposed for the second time to hapten-peptide on antigen-presenting cells, they
release cytokines which attract more macrophages.
By law, certain _________ diseases must be recorded with the public health authorities in order to maintain proper surveillance at the local, state, national, and international levels.
reportable
Select characteristics exhibited by exotoxins, but not exhibited by endotoxins.
require very small doses to cause toxic effects secreted from a living cell have very specific targets
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are resistant to mupirocin. responsive to penicillin derivatives. resistant to penicillin derivatives. responsive to mupirocin.
resistant to penicillin derivatives.
Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? magnification resolving power refraction All of the choices are correct. None of the choices is correct.
resolving power
Which of the following is not true of septicemia? drop in blood pressure fever and shaking chills respiratory acidosis endotoxic shock
respiratory acidosis
Microbes have played a significant role in the advances of the last century, such as ____________ for cutting DNA and ____________ to better understand the microbes that live on and in our bodies.
restriction enzymes; genome sequencing.
Blisters are confined to the epidermis. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis. originate in the subcutaneous layer. None of the choices is correct. originate in the dermis.
result from a separation of epidermis from dermis.
What group of viruses does HIV belong to?
retroviruses
HIV, and related viruses such as HTLV, possess which unusual virally-encoded enzyme?
reverse transcriptase
Select the components of ATP from the list provided.
ribose adenine phosphate
Select all of the accessory organs of the gastrointestinal system that add digestive fluids to test your understanding of the anatomy of the gastrointestinal system.
salivary glands liver gallbladder pancreas
The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is disinfection. antisepsis. sterilization. degermation. sanitization.
sanitation
Caused by S. aureus
scaled skin syndrome localized skin lesions
Caused by S. pyogenes
scarlet fever pharyngitis that can lead to rheumatic fever if untreated
In addition to impetigo, Staphylococcus aureus may cause all of the following skin infections, except:
scarlet fever.
Deep to this area of the skin, ___________ glands within the dermis produce a _____ pH secretion called sebum, which exhibits antimicrobial activity.
sebaceous; low
The helix that forms in a protein chain as a result of hydrogen bonds and other weak forces is an example of primary structure of protein. secondary structure of protein. tertiary structure of protein. nonlinear structure of protein.
secondary structure of protein.
Plasma cells directly destroy target cells. secrete antibodies. activate B cells and other T cells. function in allergic reactions. suppress immune reactions.
secrete antibodies.
Choose the description that best fits a medium that has been designed to support the growth of MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) while inhibiting all species and strains of other bacteria.
selective
The patient's culture was introduced to a liquid medium. In addition to liquid, which of the following are physical types of media?
semisolid solid, not convertible to liquid solid, convertible to liquid
The RN is suspicious of an infection of the patient's blood. Which of the following terms is descriptive of an infection of the blood?
septicemia
Diseases that cause long-term or permanent damage are called chronical. latent. direct. sequelae. indirect.
sequelae
Because of its resistance, MRSA is classified as a ________threat in the CDC Antibiotic Resistance Report.
serious
Which component of blood contains antibodies?
serum
The influenza virus is able to evade the immune response by two mechanisms: antigenic _______, which is the swapping out of one of the gene strands with a gene strand from a different influenza virus, and antigenic ________, in which the antigens gradually change their amino acid composition.
shift; drift
The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a(n) pathology. symptom. inflammation. sign. syndrome.
sign
Evidence suggests that people with high numbers of the bacteria associated with periodontitis may also have increased rates of cardiovascular disease.
true
The ______ forms the integument, and it is the first barrier against microbial invasion.
skin
Which of the following is the most common allergic reaction to penicillin?
skin rash
Most nutrient absorption occurs in the
small intestine
Which of the following interactions is most likely to transmit the disease?
sneezing
Enterococcus faecalis broth
sodium azide allows for the growth of fecal enterococci; selective media
Based upon the information presented here, and in Chapter 17, the USDA recommends that pregnant women avoid the consumption of ________ to avoid listeriosis.
soft, unpasteurized cheeses
The three physical forms of laboratory media are aerobic, anaerobic, and micro aerobic. None of the choices is correct. streak plate, pour plate, and broth. solid, liquid, and gas. solid, semisolid, and liquid.
solid, semisolid, and liquid.
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others is sensitivity. specificity. cross reaction. precipitation.
specificity.
Arthrospores of Coccidioides immitis develop into _____ that will release endospores into the lungs. capsids capsules buds spherules
spherules
Proteins that project or stick out from the envelope of HIV and attach or adsorb to host cells are called ______
spikes
Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? GALT lymph nodes thymus spleen tonsils
spleen
All of the following are potential complications of gonorrhea, except:
spontaneous abortion.
All of the following are potential complications of untreated Chlamydia infection, except
spontaneous abortion.
Louis Pasteur hypothesized that microbes were in the air and dust. Through experiments using swan-necked flasks, he disproved the concept of aseptic theory. spontaneous generation. biogenesis. spontaneous mutation.
spontaneous generation.
The RN anticipates the specimen will be prepared in the lab and examined for identification. What is the term describing any procedure that applies dye to a specimen smear?
staining
The term used to describe a cluster of spherical bacteria is _________.
staphylococci
Requires use of an autoclave. To sterilize, temperature must reach 121°C for a minimum of 15 minutes. Requires three successive cycles of exposure to free-flowing steam (100°C) alternating with 24-hour incubation periods. Will not kill endospores. Heat applied to beverages to prevent spoilage and kill pathogens. Protocols include holding liquids at 71.6°C for 15 seconds or at 63°C for 30 minutes. Does not sterilize. 100°C, 30 minutes will disinfect but will not sterilize.
steam under pressure tyndallization pasteurization boiling water
The physician orders cultures to be drawn from the patient's invasive intravenous lines. What term describes the technique the RN must utilize in specimen collection to ensure a proper culture?
sterile
To maintain its _____________ environment, the nervous system possesses natural defense mechanisms.
sterile
T cells
stimulate B cells and other T cells
Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the
stomach
As the infectious disease RN, you review the concept of normal biota. A positive Escherichia coli culture would be unremarkable for which of the following body fluids? blood sputum stool cerebrospinal fluid
stool
The _____________________ is the uppermost layer of the epidermis, and regularly undergoes ___________________ which removes attached microbes.
stratum corneum; sloughing
Which of the following is not a prion disease? All of the choices are prion diseases. bovine spongiform encephalopathy Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease scrapie subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
The test requires the insertion of a needle into the _______________________________ , where the sample can be collected.
subarachnoid space
Targets folic acid synthesis
sulfonamides (trimethoprim)
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except summer outbreaks in the United States have been increasing recently. caused by enterovirus. transmitted primarily by fecal-contaminated water. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed.
summer outbreaks in the United States have been increasing recently
Yeast infections of the vaginal tract and Clostridium difficile colitis following antibiotic treatment are examples of _____________.
superinfections
Select the three most prevalent types of healthcare-associated infections.
surgical site infections urinary tract infections respiratory infections
Histoplasma capsulatum
survival in phagocytes
________ glands, also within the dermal layer, produce secretions containing _________ that degrades peptidoglycan found in many bacterial cells.
sweat; lysosome
As the RN, you document the care and assessment of the patient in the chart prior to transfer to an inpatient unit. What is the most appropriate term for the clinical manifestations of disease as reported by the patient? syndromes signs symptoms signs and symptoms
symptoms
What is the function of the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
synthesizes DNA from RNA
The following are characteristics of chlamydias except the formation of elementary bodies is not part of the lifecycle. their reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies. they are obligate parasites that need host cells for growth. their elementary bodies are the infectious form. they are gram negative.
the formation of elementary bodies is not part of the lifecycle.
In order to make the second strand of DNA when HIV starts replicating inside of a cell:
the original HIV RNA is broken down and its dna copy is the template for a second DNA strand
A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that the patient is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis. All of the choices are correct. the patient has active tuberculosis. the patient has been exposed to tuberculosis.
the patient has been exposed to tuberculosis.
indogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are the patient's own normal biota. in the air. transmitted from one person to another. in food. on fomites.
the patient's own normal biota.
Based upon this information, the anthrax cases in 2001 in the United States were transmitted through
the postal service
What is the function of selectins?
the promote sticking of neutrophils to the inner vessel wall
When interferon from one cell attaches to a second cell
the recipient cell makes enzymes that degrade mRNA and prevent viral protein synthesis
Which of the following is not true of prostatitis? the specific agent is easy to determine caused by GI tract biota accompanied by pain and frequent, difficult urination
the specific agent is easy to determine
The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the death phase point. thermal death time (TDT). sporicidal time. None of the choices is correct. thermal death point (TDP).
thermal death point (TDP).
The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the thermal death point (TDP). death phase point. None of the choices is correct. sporicidal time. thermal death time (TDT).
thermal death time (TDT).
JV asks you to explain what cilia are to him. All of the following are correct answers except they compose a sort of ciliary "escalator." they form a microscopic brushlike lining. they are chemical-excreting fighter cells. they help move and expel foreign invaders.
they are chemical-excreting fighter cells.
What role do cytokines play in this allergic reaction?
they stimulate b cells to proliferate
Select all of the components of the mononuclear phagocyte system to test your understanding of the components of this system.
thymus lymph nodes, spleen, GALT macrophages
The patient asks the RN how she may have acquired this disease. Which of the following is the most common vector?
ticks
The effectiveness of a particular microbicidal agent is governed by several factors besides ______________.
time
The shortest length of time required to kill all test microbes at a specified temperature is the thermal death __________ whereas the lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a sample within 10 minutes is the thermal death _________. time; point time; temperature window; point point; time
time; point
Select all of the correct tissues that make up GALT to test your understanding of the defenses present in the gastrointestinal tract.
tonsils and adenoids in the oral cavity lymphoid tissues in the esophagus Peyer's patches in the small intestine appendix
Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. Direct damage to tissue or an organ due to the effect of an antimicrobial on that tissue or organ is known as drug ________, whereas an inappropriate immune reaction to an antimicrobial is known as drug-induced ________.
toxicity; allergy
A special type of subunit vaccine is the _________, which is a purified bacterial exotoxin that has been denatured but still allows for antitoxin production in a treated individual.
toxoid
One must note that ____________ of a microbe during these four stages varies for every pathogen.
transmissibility
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except can progress to a septicemia. transmitted by human feces. caused by Yersinia pestis. patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
transmitted by human feces.
Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? pathogen produces resistant spores is a zoonosis humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread transmitted by lice
transmitted by lice
Which drugs target folic acid synthesis?
trimethoprim sulfonamides
Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis? tetracyclines erythromycin aminoglycosides trimethroprim gentamicin
trimethroprim
After complement activation, basophils may degranulate causing vasodilation.
true
Anthrax is a good potential bioterrorism weapon because Bacillus anthracis is a spore-forming bacterium that initiates disease symptoms that mimic many other infections.
true
Both innate and specific immune mechanisms protect the cardiovascular system.
true
All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it requires an ultraviolet radiation source. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections. uses electrons to produce a specimen image. is a type of compound microscope
uses electrons to produce a specimen image.
The ELISA test _______.
uses enzymes and substrates
All of the following are aseptic techniques to prevent contamination of food in the kitchen, except
using a common cutting board for meat and vegetables.
The rash of secondary syphilis appears within 1 to 2 days of infection. usually disappears spontaneously after a few weeks. is intensely painful.
usually disappears spontaneously after a few weeks.
Which of the following is the most effective method of measles prevention?
vaccination
The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus. None of the choices is correct. herpes simplex smallpox herpes virus 6 vaccinia
vaccinia
The RN anticipates that any of these antibiotics may be ordered for treatment, except
vanco
Which antibiotic(s) is/are best suited to treat this particular infection? penicillin V TMP-SMZ vancomycin and ceftriaxone amoxicillin
vancomycin and ceftriaxone
Typical treatments for this infection include the use of potent antibiotics such as ______________; however, the use of this drug only results in a ____ cure rate.
vancomycin; 31%
The symptoms of inflammation are mostly due to
vasodilation
The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are mycobacteria and staphylococci. protozoan cysts. prions. endospores. vegetative bacteria and fungi.
vegetative bacteria and fungi.
A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth while performing a test in the lab. This specimen was from an HIV-positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is fomite. direct. vehicle. droplet nuclei. aerosol.
vehicle
Based upon this identification, what was the most likely mode of transmission of this pathogen in the patient?
vehicle transmission
Treatment of HIV-infected mothers with anti-HIV drugs has dramatically reduced the rate of __________________ transmission of HIV during pregnancy.
vertical
If an infant is exposed to Hepatitis B from breast milk, which term best describes the pattern of transmission?
vertical transmission
Cytotoxic T cells recognize ___.
viral antigens and class I MHC
What is the most likely diagnosis based on your clinical findings? viral conjunctivitis keratitis bacterial conjunctivitis neonatal conjunctivitis The discharge must be cultured to make a diagnosis.
viral conjunctivitis
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a helminth. bacteria. All of the choices are correct. virus. protozoan.
virus
The causative organism for measles is a:
virus
Which of the following is not an independent cellular organism, but rather a collection of contained genetic material that transmits information to a host cell?
virus
When interferon attaches to a cell
virus can enter the cell but cannot replicate.
When AZT is present, which enzyme is inhibited?
vital reverse transcriptase
When forming a semisolid gel such as gelatin, what type of molecule does the process of protein coagulation entrap? protein water carbohydrate lipid
water
Select those characteristics of a chemical control agent that make it a desirable agent.
water or alcohol soluble and stable cidal to a wide range of microbes, but nontoxic to humans and animal tissue rapidly effective in low concentrations inexpensive
From which of the following water sources would the patient be restricted?
well water
The physician orders allergy skin testing to be performed on this patient. Following the antigenic challenge, what observation would indicate a positive atopic sensitivity to the given allergen?
wheel of 15mm
Categories of vaccines include _______________vaccines, which are very effective as they employ large and complex immunogens.
whole cell
CA-MRSA is more common in __________ populations, and its incidence is ________________.
younger; increasing
