FINAL GENETICS
After which stage or phase of the cell cycle does cytokinesis occur? A. M phase B. G1 C. G2 D. S E. G0
A. M phase
Which of the following formulas can be used to calculate broad sense heritability (H^2)? A. R/S B. (VA+VD+VI)/VP C. VA/VP D. S x h2 E. VE/VP
B. (VA+VD+VI)/VP
In a group of 500 people, the frequency of the genotype NN is 40%. Assuming both autosomal inheritance and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would you expect to have the MN genotype? A. 258 B. 68 C. 232 D. 300 E. 200
C. 232
If there is a 24% guanine in a DNA molecule, then there is ___________ cytosine. A. 24% B. 26% C. 48% D. 52% E. Not possible to determine
A. 24%
Which type of mutation is possible due to the redundant nature of the genetic code? A) silent B) missense C) nonsense D) frameshift E) splice site
A) Silent
Which region of the λ phage genome enables the linear chromosome to circularize when it enters a host cell? A) cohesive (cos) site B) IS10 C) early operators D) integrase (int) gene E) excisionase (xis) gene
A) cohesive (cos) site
Which of the following mutants are noninducible? A) lacIS B) lacI - C) lacI+ D) lacOC E) lacO+
A) lacIS
In a group of 600 people, the frequency of genotype NN is 40%. Assuming both autosomal inheritance and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would you expect to have the MN genotype? A) 278 B) 68 C) 232 D) 300 E) 200
A) 278
Prokaryotes and eukaryotes produce which of the following types of RNA? A. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA B. mRNA, gRNA, sqRNA C. qRNA, suRNA, snRNA D. 1RNA, pRNA iRNA E. miRNA, rRNA, snRNA
A. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
Sexual reproduction uses _________ to generate ___________ gametes, which join at fertilization. A. meiosis; haploid B. mitosis; haploid C. meiosis; diploid D. mitosis; diploid E. mitosis; identical
A. meiosis; haploid
A single nucleotide in a genome can be targeted for mutagenesis using the technique, adapted from a bacterial defense system. A) CRISPR-cas B) RNAi silencing C) PCR and DNA sequencing D) transposon insertion
A) CRISPR-cas
Studies of gene mutation frequencies have shown that ________. A) mutations are rare B) mutation are common and adaptive C) mutation frequencies are consistent between organisms, and each region of DNA is equally susceptible to random mutations D) mutations occur only at certain nucleotides and not others E) mutations affect RNA, but do not change DNA sequence
A) Mutations are rare
You have conducted an Ames test on a given compound. Which of the following would be classified as a positive result on the Ames test? A) his- strain grows on an his- plate. B) his- strain grows on an his+ plate. C) his+ strain grows on an his- plate. D) his+ strain grows on an his+ plate. E) his+ strain grows on either an his- or an his+ plate.
A) his- strain grows on an his- plate.
What term describes a gene or region of a genome where mutations occur much more often than average? A) hotspots of mutation B) mutation central C) mutation sink D) mutation vacuum E) universe of mutations
A) hotspots of mutation
Most of the regulation of gene expression in bacteria occurs at the ________ level. A) transcriptional B) translational C) post-translational D) chromosomal E) plasmid
A) transcriptional
A mutation in the Oca2 gene (a gene involved in pigmentation) results in an albino phenotype. What type of mutation could have occurred? A) frameshift B) deletion C) insertion D) synonymous mutation E) missense mutation
A, B, C
If a eukaryotic chromosome was composed of 20% adenine, how much cytosine should theoretically be present in that same chromosome? A. 30% B. 20% C. 60% D. 40% E. 10%
A. 30%
All of the following are hallmarks of cancer except ________. A. Apoptosis B. Angiogenesis C. Evasion of growth suppression D. Metastasis E. Sustained Cell production
A. Apoptosis
Which is more likely to be the case for gene A found at the hub of a genetic network, compared to gene B, in the same network but not in a hub? A. Gene A controls the expression of many genes B. Gene B encodes a protein that interacts with many different proteins C. Gene A encodes a transcription factor that controls the expression of one gene D. Gene A is highly expressed E. Gene A is a nuclear gene, while gene B is mitochondrial
A. Gene A controls the expression of many genes
Assuming independent assortment, what phenotypic ratio would you expect to see if an individual with the genotype RrGg is self-crossed? A. 1:3 B. 9:3:3:1 C. 1:3:2:1 D. 1:3:2:1 E. 3:1
B. 9:3:3:1
Where would you expect to find telomerase activity? A. At the end of a chromosome in a normal healthy eukaryotic body (somatic) cell. B. At the end of a chromosome in a cancerous eukaryotic body cell. C. On the leading strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell. D. On the lagging strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell. E. At the centromere of a chromosome in a healthy eukaryotic reproductive cell.
B. At the end of a chromosome in a cancerous eukaryotic body cell.
Previously unidentifiable microorganisms have now been identified through __________. A. Metagenomics B. Transcriptomics C. Reverse transcription D. Evolutionary genomics E. Proteomics
A. Metagenomics
What are two distinguishing features of RNA? A. RNA has a ribose sugar and uracil nitrogenous base. B. RNA contains a methylated form of thymine. C. RNA forms a double helix of reverse complementary strands. D. RNA contains a pyrophosphate group bound to the ribose. E. RNA contains phosphodiester bonds as part of its sugar backbone
A. RNA has a ribose sugar and uracil nitrogenous base.
Cancer cells can divide indefinitely, which is also known as _________. A. cellular immortality B. mitotic arrest C. cellular differentiation D. checkpoint function E. resistance to cell death
A. cellular immortality
A balancer chromosome includes a recessive lethal allele, a marker dominant allele, and ____________. A. inversion(s) B. must have multiple copies C. a GFP signal D. can only be used in Drosophila
A. inversion(s)
King George III of England and other members of the royal family were afflicted with a series of strange, seemingly unrelated symptoms including abdominal pain, rapid pulse, convulsions, and insanity. It has been determined that he likely suffered from porphyria, caused by a mutation in a single allele. What is the genetic term describing the alteration of multiple, distinct traits of an organism by a mutation in a single gene? A. pleiotropy B. incomplete dominance C. codominance D. epistasis E. incomplete penetrance
A. pleiotropy
Shotgun sequencing requires all of the following except? A) software capable of comparing DNA sequence B) a genetic map C) a DNA sequencing technology D) many overlapping DNA sequences E) a computer
B) a genetic map
Transposons can integrate into the promoters of genes, what is the most likely outcome of such an event? A) frame shift B) altered gene expression C) amino acid substitution D) point mutation E) deamination
B) altered gene expression
Which type of sequencing involves first creating a physical map? A) paired-end sequencing B) clone-by-clone sequencing C) annotation sequencing D) whole-genome shotgun sequencing E) metagenomic sequencing
B) clone-by-clone sequencing
Which of the following usually causes a change in a reading frame? A) transversion B) deletion C) missense D) transition E) transversion or missense
B) deletion
Between glucose and lactose, which is the preferred substrate for the lac operon? A) lactose B) glucose C) neither D) both are the same E) none of the above
B) glucose
What is the process by which a bacterium switches from a lysogenic to lytic cycle? A) transformation B) induction C) deletion D) transposition E) elongation
B) induction
Somatic mutations: A) are normally passed from one generation to the next B) occur in cells that are not part of the germ line C) are not known to occur D) are always nonsense mutations E) all of the above
B) occur in cells that are not part of the germ line
In λ phage, which protein, the product of the cI gene, blocks the transcription required to initiate the lytic cycle? A) cro B) repressor C) enhancer D) integrase E) operator
B) repressor
The Ames test is designed to identify the rate of ________ that restore the ability of bacteria to synthesize their own histidine, thus eliminating the need for histidine supplementation of the growth medium. A) forward mutations B) reversion mutations C) chromosome rearrangements D) transduction events E) none of the above
B) reversion mutations
Cancer susceptibility can run in families due to ________. A. Sporadic causes B. Germline mutation C. Inbreeding D. Population migration E. Somatic mutation
B. Germline mutation
In reverse genetics, what is the correct order in which the experimenter proceeds? A. Random bombardment of the DNA with a known mutagen, followed by observation of offspring for newly acquired traits. B. Identification of a gene of interest followed by screening for mutations in that gene and studies of the phenotypes caused by those mutations C. Screening individuals by PCR/DNA sequencing to associate altered genes with the trait of interest D. Selection of mutants with a phenotype of interest and then mapping to locate the effected gene(s). E. Silencing the genes in question using RNAi, followed by mapping to locate the gene.
B. Identification of a gene of interest followed by screening for mutations in that gene and studies of the phenotypes caused by those mutations
What is the DNA replication fork? A. It is the binding site on the chromosome for DNA polymerase. B. It is the site where the DNA helix opens to two single DNA strands. C. It is the DNA bound inside the DNA polymerase active site. D. It is the site where the leading and lagging strands meet on chromosome. E. It is the DNA strand that wraps around DNA polymerase and serves as the template for the lagging strand.
B. It is the site where the DNA helix opens to two single DNA strands.
Which of the following is true of a bacterial strain that is his+lac+gal-ampR. A. It is auxotrophic for histidine. B. It will grow on ampicillin. C. It is unable to synthesize histidine. D. It can use galactose as an energy source. E. It is unable to break down lactose.
B. It will grow on ampicillin.
What chemical group appears on the 5' carbon of a DNA nucleotide? A. Carboxyl group B. Phosphate group C. Amino group D. Hydroxyl group E. Nitrogenous base
B. Phosphate group
What is the role of a promoter region of a gene? A. Bind RNA Polymerase and no other proteins to the transcriptional start site. B. Recruit transcription factors that form the initiation complex C. Serve as the original region of transcription of a gene. D. Protect the gene from mutations in intergenic regions. E. Recruit rho protein to assist in transcription.
B. Recruit transcription factors that form the initiation complex
What does it mean for two codons to be synonymous? A. they share two of the same nucleotides in their codon sequence. B. They share one of the same nucleotides in their codon sequence. C. They encode the same amino acid. D. They are adjacent on the mRNA. E. They occur in equal abundance in an mRNA sequence.
C. They encode the same amino acid.
Deafness is caused by recessive mutations in any one of at least five genes. Two deaf individuals have nin children, all of whom have normal hearing. Which of the following can you conclude? A. The parents have mutations in the same gene. B. The parents have mutations in different genes. C. The parents have the same mutated protein involved in inner ear development. D. The mutations are codominant to the normal allele. E. The mutations are incompletely dominant to the normal allele.
B. The parents have mutations in different genes.
Which of the following is false regarding plasmids? A. They are small double-stranded circular DNA molecules. B. They contain essential genes for metabolism. C. They can have genes that promote their own transfer from one bacterium to another. D. They can carry genes for antibiotic resistance. E. They generally replicate autonomously.
B. They contain essential genes for metabolism.
What is the process of synthesizing single-stranded RNA from template DNA? A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Transformation E. Transduction
B. Transcription
What technique would you use to detect a target sequence in an intact chromosome using a labeled molecular probe? A. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B. fluorescent in stiu hypridization (FISH) C. western/immuno blotting D. DNA sequencing E. Karyotyping
B. fluorescent in stiu hypridization (FISH)
Which enzyme is required to initiate 5' capping of eukaryotic mRNA transcripts by removing the terminal phosphate group? A. ribozyme B. guanylyl transferase C. methyl transferase D. adenylyl cyclase E. phosphodiesterase
B. guanylyl transferase
When a diploid cell divides by mitosis, the end result is _____________. A. identical haploid cells B. identical diploid cells C. unique diploid cells D. unique haploid cells E. a zygote
B. identical diploid cells
Which mode of inheritance produces heterozygotes with phenotypes that differ from either homozygote but typically more closely resembles one homozygous phenotype than the other? A. complete dominance B. incomplete dominance C. codominance D. epistasis E. incomplete penetrance
B. incomplete dominance
The most common cause of cancer formation is _________. A. Inheriting a tumor B. Mutation in a single gene C. Accumulation of mutations in a large number of genes D. Germline mutations. E. Recessive alleles
C. Accumulation of mutations in a large number of genes
What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA? A. glycosidic bond B. phosphodiester bond C. ester linkage D. Hydrogen bond E. ionic bond
B. phosphodiester bond
Which phenomenon explains differences in the inheritance patterns of the appearance of a chin beard between males and females of certain species of goats, even when their genotypes are the same? A. sex-limited trait B. sex-influenced trait C. incomplete penetrance D. variable expressivity E. lethal allele
B. sex-influenced trait
Messenger RNA (mRNA) is __________. A. the major structural material making up ribosomes B. the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA and is used as a template for protein synthesis C. the major structural component of chromosomes D. a molecule that incorporates a specific amino acid into the growing protein when it recognizes a specific group of three bases E. the monomer of polypeptides
B. the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA and is used as a template for protein synthesis
Which of the follow refers to all the RNA produced by transcription of DNA? A. proteome B. transcriptome C. genome D. translatome E. Population genetics
B. transcriptome
The trp operon is what type of operon? A) inducible B) Non-expressed C) Repressible D) Constitutive E) Preferable
C) Repressible
In producing a recombinant plasmid to be used to clone a given donor insert, it is possible to cut both the donor and plasmid with the same restriction enzyme, resulting in complementary sticky ends. Assuming plenty of plasmid DNA is available, why is further selection necessary before the introduction of the plasmid into a cellular system? A) Contamination will have introduced other donor inserts. B) Some donor inserts will be single stranded and deteriorate. C) Some donor strands will be inserted with an incorrect orientation. D) Some donor inserts will be sensitive to particular antibiotics. E) Some donor pieces will remain uninserted.
C) Some donor strands will be inserted with an incorrect orientation.
In the lac operon, what acts as the inducer? A) glucose B) permease C) allolactose D) β-galactosidase E) transacetylase
C) allolactose
The genetic switch controlling whether a bacterium enters the lytic or lysogenic cycle relies on the binding of which two proteins? A) telomerase and ligase B) polymerase and ligase C) cro and λ repressor D) all of the above E) none of the above
C) cro and λ repressor
You have identified a mutation in a gene that seems to decrease transcription of another gene 2000 bp away from the mutation site in a eukaryote. What is the regulatory sequence, which can be found within another gene, has likely been mutation in this instance? A) core promoter B) proximal elements C) enhancer sequence D) homeodomain motif E) upstream activator sequence
C) enhancer sequence
Bacteria grown at 45°C initiate expression of which two types of proteins? A) polymerases I and III B) ligases and restriction endoncleases C) heat shock and chaperone D) all of the above E) none of the above
C) heat shock and chaperone
Trans-acting regulators of gene expression include? A) introns B) silencers C) histone deacetylases D) the TATA box E) promoters
C) histone deacetylases
The enzyme β-galactosidase catalyzes what reaction? A) allolactose → glucose + lactose B) lactose → glucose + fructose C) lactose → galactose + glucose D) glucose → galactose + lactose E) galactose → glucose + lactose
C) lactose → galactose + glucose
Localized mutations that occur at a specific location, rather than over a larger span on a gene are better known as what? A) copy number variants B) monosomies C) point mutations D) transposable elements E) none of the above
C) point mutations
What phenotypic ratio would you expect as a result of a test cross between two individuals where one that is homozygous recessive for alleles at two independent loci? A. 3:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 1:1:1:1 D. 9:3:3:1 E. 9:4:2:1
C. 1:1:1:1
Which of the following is NOT a step in transformation? A. Donor cell DNA binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell. B. The donor cell lyses, releasing pieces of its chromosome into the environment. C. Both strands of the donor cell DNA are degraded. D. DNA fragments pair with homologous regions of the recipient cell chromosome. E. DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
C. Both strands of the donor cell DNA are degraded.
How is a tRNA able to recognize its proper mRNA codon? A. The amino acid on the tRNA recognizes the mRNA codon through hydrogen and ionic bonding. B. Appropriate shape of the tRNA allows it to fit onto the extended mRNA strand. C. Complementary hydrogen bonding between the anticodon of the tRNA and the codon of the mRNA. D. Ionic bonds between the tRNA and the active site of the ribosomal subunits promote binding to the mRNA. E. Hydrogen bonding between the ribosomal subunits and mRNA creates the proper active site conformation to allow tRNA binding
C. Complementary hydrogen bonding between the anticodon of the tRNA and the codon of the mRNA.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the formation of transgenic animals? A. For a transgenic animal line to be produced from a chimera, the transgene must be carried by germ line or germ cells. B. Either integration of multiple copies of the transgene or position effect can lead to variability in the expression of the transgene. C. Homologous recombination occurs much more frequently than illegitimate recombination. D. DNA is usually inserted into eggs or embryos since totipotency is not characteristic of most animal cells. E. If some cells of the embryo do not receive the introduced DNA, the result is an organism with cells of different genotypes; the organism is known as a chimera.
C. Homologous recombination occurs much more frequently than illegitimate recombination.
What kind of bond is formed between complementary base pairs to join the two DNA strands into a double helix? A. Ionic bond B. Phosphodiester bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Disulfide bond E. Peptide bond
C. Hydrogen bond
Two pure-breeding mutant plants produce white flowers. When they are crossed, all of the progeny have wild-type purple flowers. What does this genetic complementation tell you? A. The genes are part of two distinct biosynthetic pathways. B. The two lines exhibit different mutations in the same gene. C. More than one gene is involved in determining the phenotype. D. The allele is pleiotropic. E. The allele exhibits incomplete dominance.
C. More than one gene is involved in determining the phenotype.
Why might the expression of a transgene be especially abnormal in vertebrates with larger average size of genes and amount of heterochromatin in their genomes? A. Vector insufficiency B. Mitotic recombination C. Position effect D. Unequal crossing over E. Homologous recombination
C. Position effect
Age is the greatest of all risk factors for cancer because ____________. A. Germline mutations accumulate with age. B. Cell division is rare in older people C. Somatic mutations accumulate with age. D. Tumor suppressors do not work as well in older people. E. Older people have weaker immune systems.
C. Somatic mutations accumulate with age.
Which of the following is true of the sequences found in DNA libraries from human tissues? A. Those in a brain cDNA library should all be present a muscle cDNA library. B. Those in a muscle genomic library should not be found within a brain genomic library. C. Those in a muscle cDNA library should all be present in a brain genomic library. D. Those in a brain cDNA library should not be found within a muscle genomic library. E. Those in a muscle cDNA library should all be present in a brain cDNA library.
C. Those in a muscle cDNA library should all be present in a brain genomic library.
Which of the following is incorrect about genetic analysis and mapping in bacteria and bacteriophages? A. Conjugation requires cell-to-cell contact. B. Generalized transduction uses lytic phage and specialized transduction uses a lysogenic phage. C. Transformation requires a vector to carry donor DNA fragments to the recipient cell. D. Conjugation, transformation, and transduction all require recombination. E. Conjugation, transformation, and transduction can all be used to map the order of genes on a bacterial chromosome.
C. Transformation requires a vector to carry donor DNA fragments to the recipient cell.
Mitosis is a process of cell division that results in A. Two unique daughter cells B. Four unique daughter cells C. Two identical daughter cells D. Three identical daughter cells E. Four identical daughter cells
C. Two identical daughter cells
A researcher is annotating a newly-sequenced chromosome that they constructed from contigs sequenced from a sample of Antarctic ice. The cell/organism that the chromosome came from is not known, however it yielded a single circular chromosome. You are asked to run a BLAST search to help this researcher identify the most related organism in GenBank. What would be the best strategy? A. Compare the most unusual portion of this newly-discovered chromosome to al known animal genomes. B. Look for an exact match to the whole chromosome. C. Use several ~1000 bp portions of the DNA sequence to search for the closest matches from among the entire available database. D. Look for a nearly identical match to a very small part (20-40 bp) of the chromosome from all known ice bacteria. E. Perform many careful one-by-one comparisons between the newly-discovered DNA sequence and species selected from GenBank, one at a time.
C. Use several ~1000 bp portions of the DNA sequence to search for the closest matches from among the entire available database.
Which dosage compensation mechanism is employed by female mammals? A. Synteny B. Y-inactivation C. X-inactivation D. X-nondisjunction E. X chromosome crossing over
C. X-inactivation
Which mode of inheritance results in both alleles being detected equally in the heterozygous phenotype? A. complete dominance B. incomplete dominance C. codominance D. epistasis E. incomplete penetrance
C. codominance
If the first nucleotide in a codon is mutated to a different nucleotide, what would be the effect on the encoded protein? A. No effect as the problem nucleotide would be corrected by RNA editing mechanisms. B. A missense mutation from one encoded amino acid changing to another. C. A frameshift mutation for all of the subsequent amino acids in the protein. D. A silent mutation and no change in the encoded amino acid. E. It depends on what the changed nucleotide is.
E. It depends on what the changed nucleotide is.
What type of allele is often detected as a distortion in segregation ratios, where one class of expected progeny is missing? A. dominant negative allele B. temperature-sensitive allele C. lethal allele D. partially dominant allele E. incompletely penetrant allele
C. lethal allele
In selecting recombinant bacteria, cells are chosen that are resistant to a specific antibiotic. How are the bacteria made resistant? A) Resistance is activated by the recombination event. B) The antibiotic resistance gene is encoded on the donor insert. C) Resistance is activated when the cells are provided with the antibiotic D) The antibiotic resistance gene is encoded in the vector. E) They are pre-selected for the experiment on this basis.
D) The antibiotic resistance gene is encoded in the vector.
A group is experimenting with selection in a mouse model for a disease that is lethal in mid-life. After 30 generations of exposure, the population's average life span is near that of a wild-type mouse population. What type of selection did the model mouse population undergo? A) threshold effect B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) directional selection E) additive genes
D) directional selection
Which region of the lac operon would you target if you want to disrupt the -10 and -35 consensus sequences? A) lacZ B) lacY C) lacI D) lacP E) lacO
D) lacP
Huntington's disease is caused by what kind of mutation? A) base substitution mutation B) frameshift mutation C) pericentric inversion D) trinucleotide repeat expansion E) not due to a mutation
D) trinucleotide repeat expansion
What is true concerning transitions/transversions? Circle all correct answers. A) transversions occur more frequently B) transitions and tranversions occur at roughly equal rates C) C substituted for G and A substituted for T is considered a transition D) C substituted for T and G substituted for A is considered a transition E) C substituted for G and A substituted for T is considered a transversion
D, E
A couple has four children. What is the probability that they have four boys? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/16 E. 1/32
D. 1/16
The incidence of Tay Sachs, an autosomal recessive disorder, is approximately 1 in 3,500 in a certain population of Ashkenazi Jews. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of CARRIERS for the Tay Sachs allele in this population? A. 98.5% B. 1.5% C. 1.7% D. 3.3% E. 2.9%
D. 3.3%
What is one difference between DNA replication in bacteria versus eukaryotes? A. Eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated bi-directionally, while bacterial chromosomes are replicated in one direction. B. Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication and replicate bi-directionally, while bacteria have only one origin of replication and replicate uni-directionally. C. Bacterial chromosomes are replicated bi-directionally, while eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated in one direction. D. Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin of replication. E. The process is identical in bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication.
D. Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin of replication.
Groups of genes that are evolutionarily related are called __________. A. Gene domains B. SNPs C. Metagenomes D. Gene families E. Gene duplications
D. Gene families
Which of these statements about heritability is FALSE? A. Twin studies can offer insight into broad sense heritability of human traits. B. Broad sense heritability measures the ratio of genetic variance to phenotypic variance. C. Narrow sense heritability measures the contribution of additive genotypic variance to phenotypic variance. D. Heritability measures the extent to which environmental variation contributes to the total phenotypic variation. E. High narrow sense heritability values are correlated with a greater degree of response to artificial selection.
D. Heritability measures the extent to which environmental variation contributes to the total phenotypic variation.
Which of the following lists the steps for cDNA library preparation in the correct order? I. Partially degrade the mRNA with RNase H II. Isolate mRNA from a specific cell/ tissue with an oligo-dT primer that hybridizes to poly-A tail III. Synthesize a strand of cDNA using DNA polymerase with mRNA fragments as primers IV. Ligate cDNAs into a cloning vector V. Create a single-stranded DNA molecule complementary to the mRNA using reverse transcriptase A. II, V, IV, III, I B. II, III, V, I, IV C. I, II, III, IV, V D. II, V, I, III, IV E. V, III, I, IV, II
D. II, V, I, III, IV
Common mutational targets affecting cancer susceptibility include all of the following except __________. A. Checkpoint cycles B. The cell cycle C. DNA repair genes such as BRCA1 D. Mitochondrial function E. Growth-limiting genes such as APC
D. Mitochondrial function
Most cancers are caused by _________ mutations whereas a minority of cancers is caused by _________ mutations. A. Germline; Inherited B. Germline; Somatic C. Inherited; Somatic D. Somatic; Germline E. Somatic; Random
D. Somatic; Germline
Which of the following is true of the gametes of a human female who has nondisjunction of her X chromosomes in meiosis I? A. All the gametes contain 23 chromosomes. B. All the gametes contain 22 chromosomes. C. All the gametes contain 24 chromosomes. D. The gametes contain 22 or 24 chromosomes. E. The gametes contain 22, 23, or 24 chromosomes.
D. The gametes contain 22 or 24 chromosomes.
Biological sex in some species, such as Drosophila, is determined by genes present on both the ________. A. haploid and diploid chromosomes B. nuclear and mitochondrial DNA C. stem and gonad cells D. autosomal and sex chromosomes E. Prophase and Telophase chromosomes
D. autosomal and sex chromosomes
Gene interactions in which an allele of the one gene modifies or prevents expression of alleles of another gene is known as _______. A. pleiotropy B. incomplete dominance C. codominance D. epistasis E. incomplete penetrance
D. epistasis
A cultivator is breeding a crop for increased fruit production. The mean fruit weight in the population is 500g and the plants selected for breeding have an average fruit weight of 450g. The response to selection (R) is -25g. What is the narrow sense heritability (h2)? A. h2 = 0.20 B. h2 = 2.00 C. h2 = 0.05 D. h2 = 0.50 E. h2 = 0.06
D. h2 = 0.50
Suppose the incidence of Tay Sachs, an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, is approximately 1 in 5,300 in a certain population of Ashkenazi Jews. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of carriers for the Tay Sachs allele in this population? A) 98.5% B) 1.5% C) 1.7% D) 3.3% E) 2.7%
E) 2.7%
As broad sense heritability (H2) approaches 0.0, which of the following must be true? A) Identical (MZ) twins are virtually all discordant. B) Narrow sense heritability (h2) approaches 1. C) Almost all the variation in phenotype is VG. D) Fraternal (DZ) twins are virtually all concordant. E) Almost all the variation in phenotype is VE.
E) Almost all the variation in phenotype is VE.
Which of the following statements is true of non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)? A) it is a single-strand repair pathway B) it does not occur C) it is error-free D) it does not involve DNA repair E) it is error-prone
E) it is error-prone
Sickle cell anemia is: A) always due to the same mutation B) due to a single base substitution in the β globin gene C) due to a single amino acid substitution in the β globin protein D) all of the above E) none of the above
E) none of the above
Multicellular organisms generally utilize more complex gene regulation than unicellular organisms via mechanisms that include? A) transcriptional repression B) polycistronic RNAs C) epigenetic modification D) polycistronic RNAs and transcriptional repression E) transcriptional repression and epigenetic modification
E) transcriptional repression and epigenetic modification
Which enzyme is required to mobilize transposons of any type? A) RNA helicase B) telomerase C) terminal inverted repeats D) reverse transcriptase E) transposase
E) transposase
A mutant DNA polymerase that increases the frequency of strand slippage would increase the frequency of which type of mutation? A) missense B) transposition C) splice site D) transition E) triplet-repeat expansion
E) triplet-repeat expansion
Efficient production of eukaryotic proteins in E. coli may require all of the following except? A. Altered codon usage within the heterologous sequences to approximate the codon bias in E. coli B. An E. coli expression vector with a Shine- Dalgarno sequence for efficient translation C. The use of cDNAs, that are free of introns, as eukaryotic transgenes D. An E. coli expression vector with a promoter sequence that binds RNA polymerase E. A negative selectable marker to select against nonhomologous recombination events
E. A negative selectable marker to select against nonhomologous recombination events
Cancer therapy includes which of the following? A. Drug treatments targeting dividing cells B. Radiation targeting cancerous cells C. Modified immune cells D. Drugs targeting specific enzymes/proteins E. All of these are possible treatment strategies
E. All of these are possible treatment strategies
A group is experimenting with selection in an insect species due to exposure to a newly developed insecticide, cpd AW143. The group has found that after 10 generations of exposure, the population is now bimodal in its response to the drug. Close to 30% of the population are completely normal white 70% live only about 1/6 of the normal lifetime. This is an example of ___________. A. Stabilizing selection B. Directional selection C. Threshold effect D. Additive genes E. Disruptive selection
E. Disruptive selection
Cloning animals by nuclear implantation involves all of the following except? A. Induction of cell division and implantation of blastocyst in the surrogate mother B. Removal of somatic cells and extraction of a diploid donor nucleus from the animal to be cloned C. Removal of an egg cell, extraction of the nucleus, and injection of the diploid donor nucleus D. A low frequency of success likely due to variations in the completeness of epigenetic programming of the somatic cell nucleus E. Fertilization of the cell egg with a sperm cell followed by implantation in a surrogate mother
E. Fertilization of the cell egg with a sperm cell followed by implantation in a surrogate mother
Once a chromosomal position for a putative gene associated with Parkinson disease is verified, which of the following is a next step? A. Ascertaining all living and at-risk individuals who are family members of the affected test subjects B. Determining whether this locus is mutated in all Parkinson patients C. using a genome-wide linkage SNP panel to identify more minor genes D. Developing a FISH screening test to identify pre-Parkinson patients E. Fine mapping of the linkage region to identify particular variants for influencing risk
E. Fine mapping of the linkage region to identify particular variants for influencing risk
You want to calculate the frequency of the allele causing sickle cell disease in your patients, and you know the genotypes of ever individual. Assuming the population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium due to population substructure, which method can be used to calculate allele frequency? A. Square-root method B. Allele-counting method C. Binomial expansion D. Chi-square test E. Genotype proportion method
E. Genotype proportion method
Which of the following regarding lateral gene transfer is false? A. It may occur by conjugation, transformation, or transduction. B. It facilitates rapid genome evolution. C. It can convert benign bacteria into pathogens that cause disease. D. It allows an organism to rapidly acquire whole segments of chromosomes containing multiple genes. E. It increases the efficiency of antibiotics against normally sensitive strains.
E. It increases the efficiency of antibiotics against normally sensitive strains.
QTL mapping resembles linkage analysis primarily because ____________. A. The distances are reported in cM B. It uses statistics to analyze its data C. It uses the three-point mapping method D. The results are quantifiable. E. It uses the location of a known DNA marker
E. It uses the location of a known DNA marker
Which region(s) of a gene are NOT found within the mRNA transcript? A. Exons B. Introns C. Stop codon D. Promoter and stop codon E. Promoter and termination region
E. Promoter and termination region
A gene has acquired a mutation in which the protein product has 50 additional amino acids at the end. Which region of the gene was likely mutated? A. Coding region B. Start codon C. Promoter sequence D. Terminator sequence E. Stop codon
E. Stop codon
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell initiate replication of its nuclear DNA? A. Metaphase B. Gap 1 phase C. Gap 2 phase D. Gap 0 phase E. Synthesis phase
E. Synthesis phase
A mutagenesis screen provides 24 alleles shown by complementation analysis to be in the same gene, which of the following is true? A. The gene being studied must be present in more than one copy per haploid genome. B. The gene must be highly conserved in evolution. C. The gene, in whole or in part, must be involved in transformation. D. The gene must be involved in regulating a signal pathway. E. These mutants can be used to identify the function of this gene.
E. These mutants can be used to identify the function of this gene.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding human multifactorial traits? A. Their phenotype can be maximized by environmental factors to reach a genetic potential. B. They are influenced by multiple genes. C. They are influenced by genetic and environmental factors. D. They are usually quantitative rather than qualitative. E. They usually exhibit discontinuous variation.
E. They usually exhibit discontinuous variation.
Which type of chromosome has no p arms? A. metacentric B. submetacentric C. acrocentric D. subacrocentric E. telocentric
E. telocentric