FINAL medsurg
The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a client who has coronary artery disease. The client asks why he has to take an aspirin every day if he doesn't have any pain. What would be the nurse's best response?
"An aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks.
A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurse's best response? A) "There's no way to be sure you won't get HIV except to use condoms correctly." B) "Only the correct use of a female condom protects against the transmission of HIV. "C) "There are new ways of pr
"D) "Other than abstinence, only the consistent and correct use of condoms is effective in preventing HIV."
The nurse has just completed discharge teaching for a client who had aortic valve replacement with a mechanical heart valve. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching has been effective? "I'm glad that I can continue taking my Ginkgo biloba." "I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables." "I will start applying vitamin E to my chest incision after showering." "I will shave with an electric razor from now on."
"I will shave with an electric razor from now on."
Last question
"some bullshit" - alyssa hahahhahaahha
components of passive immunity?
-those antibodies can be removed from the host and transferred into another recipient where they provide immediate passive immunity. -immediate protection -the naturally acquired way is to receive antibodies from mother in pregnancy and breastfeeding,
The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The patient has a nursing diagnosis of "ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion." What would be an expected outcome that the nurse would document for this diagnosis? A) Copes with sensory deprivation. B) Registers normal body temperature. C) Pays attention to grooming .D) Obeys commands with appropriate motor responses.
.D) Obeys commands with appropriate motor responses.
The nurse is planning teaching for a client newly diagnosed with Sjögren's syndrome. Which measures will the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1) Chewing sugar-free gum or using artificial saliva 2) scheduling regular dental examinations 3) showering with lukewarm water and avoiding harsh soaps 4) using OTC decongestants to alleviate nasal symptoms 5) using OTC lubricants to ease vaginal dryness
1) Chewing sugar-free gum or using artificial saliva 2) scheduling regular dental examinations 3) showering with lukewarm water and avoiding harsh soaps 5) using OTC lubricants to ease vaginal dryness
12 lead EKG, what order should the nurse apply the V Leads?
1, fourth intercostal space at right sternal angle V2, fourth intercostal space at left sternal border V3, midway between V2 and V4 V4, Fifth intercostal space at midclavicular line V5, left anterior axillary line at level of V4 horizontally
A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus
The student nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient being discharged status post MI. What should the student include in the teaching plan?
1. Need for careful monitoring for cardiac symptoms 2. Need for carefully regulated exercise 3. Need for dietary modifications
The nurse is mentoring a student nurse in the intensive care unit while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires that the nurse intervene most rapidly? 1.Entering the room without putting on a protective mask and gown 2.Instructing the family that visits are restricted to 10 minutes 3.Giving the client a warm blanket when he says he feels cold 4.Checking the client's pupil response to light every 30 minutes
1.Entering the room without putting on a protective mask and gown
The client has a sustained increased intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Which client position would be most appropriate? 1.the head of the bed elevated 15 to 20 degrees 2.Trendelenburg's position 3.left Sims' position 4.the head elevated on two pillows
1.the head of the bed elevated 15 to 20 degrees
The nurse assesses a patient who is admitted after a traumatic brain injury (TBI) to the frontal lobe. The nurse correlates which clinical manifestations to damage to this area of the brain? 1. Sensation difficulty 2. Expressive speech difficulty 3. Color perception impairment 4. Long-term memory impairment
2. Expressive speech difficulty
Which principal risk factor should the nurse assess for during the health history in a patient who is suspected of having peptic ulcer disease? 1)Stress 2)Anxiety 3)H. pylori infection 4)Use of acetaminophen
3)H. pylori infection
A patient diagnosed with Bell's palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions? A) Applying a protective eye shield at night B) Chewing on the affected side to prevent unilateral neglect C) Avoiding the use of analgesics whenever possible D) Avoiding brushing the teeth
A) Applying a protective eye shield at night
Which medication, acting as a physical barrier, does the nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with gastritis? 1) Maalox 2) Mylanta 3) Pepcid 4) Carafate
4) Carafate
The clinical trainer is reviewing the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system with graduate nurses duringorientation to the telemetry unit. In which order should the trainer discuss this system? (Enter the number ofeach step in the proper sequence 1)Sodium and water reabsorbed in the kidneys 2) Renin reacts with angiotensin to create angiotensin 1 3) Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs 4) Kidneys release renin in response to a drop in blood pressure 5) Angiotensin II influenc
42351
Interventions for Post Cardiac Cath
assess for hematoma & bleeding first hour: assess vitals every 15 min second hour: every 30 minutes After check each hour. assess pulses teach patient on 6 hour bedrest Gently clean the catheterisation site daily with soap and water.
You are the clinic nurse caring for a patient with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The patient has begun treatment with pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon). What change in status would most clearly suggest a therapeutic benefit of this medication? A) Increased muscle strength B) Decreased pain C) Improved GI function D) Improved cognition
A) Increased muscle strength
A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply. A) Pain control B) Management of treatment complications C) Interpretation of diagnostic tests D) Assistance with self-care E) Administration of treatments
A) Pain control B) Management of treatment complications D) Assistance with self-care E) Administration of treatments
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with Guillain-Barr syndrome. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritizefor this patient? A) Using the incentive spirometer as prescribed B) Maintaining the patient on bed rest C) Providing aids to compensate for loss of vision D) Assessing frequently for loss of cognitive function
A) Using the incentive spirometer as prescribed
The nurse is planning discharge education for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. The nurse knows to include information about factors that precipitate an attack. What would the nurse be correct in teaching the patient to avoid? A) Washing his face B) Exposing his skin to sunlight C) Using artificial tears D) Drinking large amounts of fluids
A) Washing his face
The nurse is working with a patient who is newlydiagnosed with MS. What basic information should the nurse provide to the patient? A)MS is a progressive demyelinating disease of the nervous system. B) MS usually occurs more frequently in men. C) MS typically has an acute onset. D) MS is sometimes caused by a bacterial infection.
A)MS is a progressive demyelinating disease of the nervous system.
A patient has developed diabetes insipidus after having increased ICP following head trauma. What nursing assessment best addresses this complication? A)Vigilant monitoring of fluid balance B)Continuous BP monitoring C)Serial arterial blood gases (ABGs) D)Monitoring of the patient's airway for patency
A)Vigilant monitoring of fluid balance
a nurse is teaching a client how to manage an external fixation device upon discharge. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (select all that apply)
A. "I will clean the pins twice a day." B. "I will use a separate cotton swab for each pin." C. "I will report loosening of the pins to my doctor." E."I will report increased redness at the pin sites."
Which drug classes are considered first-line treatment for heart failure? Select all that apply. A. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors B. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) C. Digoxin (cardiac glycoside) D. Beta-blockers E. Nesiritide (Natrecor), the B-type natriuretic peptide
A. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors B. Angiotensin II receptor bloc (kers (ARBs) D. Beta-blockers E. Nesiritide (Natrecor), the B-type natriuretic peptide (loopp diuretics as well)
The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a male client. Which assessment data does the nurse identify as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? Select all that apply. A. BMI of 26 B. BP of 120/66 mm Hg C. Triglycerides 140 mg/d lD. Moderate exercise for 20 to 30 minutes weekly E. Exposure to secondhand cigarette smoke F. History of repeated streptococcal tonsillitis G. Family history of cardiovascular disease
A. BMI of 26 D. Moderate exercise for 20 to 30 minutes weekly E. Exposure to secondhand cigarette smoke G. Family history of cardiovascular disease
The nurse is assessing a client with primary Sjogren's syndrome. Which interventions will the nurse add to this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
Analgesics for pain management -Education on proper sleep practices -Use of artificial tears -Increased fluid intake
manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy
Anxiety or irritability. Cognitive impairment (confused thinking or judgment). Coordination or balance problems. Difficulty concentrating or short attention span. Flapping hand motion (asterixis). Mood or personality changes. Muscle twitches (myoclonus). Reduced alertness.
During a shift assessment, the nurse is identifying the clients point of maximum impulse (PMI). Where will the nurse best palpate the PMI? A) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the level of the nipple B) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space C) Midline between the xiphoid process and the left nipple D) Two to three centimeters to the left of the sternum
B) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space
A patient with possible bacterial meningitis is admitted to the ICU. What assessment finding would the nurse expect for a patient with this diagnosis? A) Pain upon ankle dorsiflexion of the foot B) Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips C) Inability to stand with eyes closed and arms extended without swaying D) Numbness and tingling in the lower extremities
B) Neck flexion produces flexion of knees and hips Fever, neck stiffness, and altered mental status
the nurse educator is reviewing the assessment of cranial nerves. What should the educator identify as the specific instances when cranial nerves should be assessed? Select all that apply. A) When a neurogenic bladder develops B) When level of consciousness is decreased C) With brain stem pathology D) In the presence of peripheral nervous system disease E) When a spinal reflex is interrupted
B) When level of consciousness is decreased C) With brain stem pathology D) In the presence of peripheral
In the course of a focused neurologic assessment, the nurse is palpating the patient's major muscle groups at rest and during passive movement. Data gleaned from this assessment will allow the nurse to describe which of the following aspects of neurologic function? A)Muscle dexterity B)Muscle tone C)Motor symmetry D)Deep tendon reflexes
B)Muscle tone
Assessment is crucial to the care of patients with neurologic dysfunction. What does accurate and appropriate assessment require? Select all that apply. A)The ability to select mediations for the neurologic dysfunction B)Understanding of the tests used to diagnose neurologic disorders C)Knowledge of nursing interventions related to assessment and diagnostic testing D)Knowledge of the anatomy of the nervous system E)The ability to interpret the results of diagnostic tests
B)Understanding of the tests used to diagnose neurologic disorders C)Knowledge of nursing interventions related to assessment and diagnostic testing D)Knowledge of the anatomy of the nervous system
A nurse is caring for a client who has ulcerative colitis. The provider prescribes bed rest with bathroom privileges. When the client asks the nurse why he has to say in bed, which of the following responses should the nurse provide? A. "You need to conserve energy at this time." B. "Lying quietly in bed helps slow down the activity in your intestines. "C. "Staying in bed promotes the rest and comfort you need. "D. "Staying in bed will help prevent injury and minimize your fall risk."
B. "Lying quietly in bed helps slow down the activity in your intestines.
A client is scheduled for a total hip replacement and the surgeon has explained the risks of blood loss associated with orthopedic surgery. The risk of blood loss is the indication for which of the following actions? A. Prophylactic blood transfusion B. Autologous blood donation C. Use of a cardiopulmonary bypass machine D. Postoperative blood salvage
B. Autologous blood donation
Kate with severe head injury is being monitored by the nurse for increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). Which finding should be most indicative sign of increasing intracranial pressure? A. Tachypnea B. Increased Restlessness C. Intermittent tachycardia D. Polydipsia
B. Increased Restlessness
A nurse enters a client's room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is
B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis? A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction. B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days. C. Viral infection of the glomeruli. D. Nephrotic syndrome.
B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
A client is admitted with a head injury. Which vital sign assessment is most indicative of increased ICP? BP 120/80, pulse 120, respirations 20 BP 180/98, pulse 50, temperature 102 F BP 98/60, pulse 132, temperature 97.6 F BP 170/90, pulse 80, respirations 24
BP 180/98, pulse 50, temperature 102 F
A nurse is providing instructions for a 52-year-old client who is schedule for a colonoscopy. The client reports that he has not had the procedure before and is very anxious about feeling pain during the procedure. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Before the examination, your provider will give you a sedative that will make you sleepy."
s4 , the fourth heart sound in the cardiac cycle. It occurs late in diastole on contraction of the atria. Rarely heard in normal subjects, it indicates an abnormally increased resistance to ventricular filling, as in hypertensive cardiovascular disease, coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy, and aortic stenosis.
atrial gallop
The nurse is discharging a patient home after surgery for trigeminal neuralgia. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient in order to reduce the risk of injury? A) Avoid watching television or using a computer for more than 1 hour at a time. B) Use OTC antibiotic eye drops for at least 14 days. C) Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face. D) Rinse the eye on the affected side with normal saline daily for 1 wee
C) Avoid rubbing the eye on the affected side of the face.
A nurse is planning the care of a 28-year-old woman hospitalized with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What approach would be most appropriate for the care and scheduling of diagnostic procedures for this patient? A) All at one time, to provide a longer rest period B) Before meals, to stimulate her appetite C) In the morning, with frequent rest periods D) Before bedtime, to promote rest
C) In the morning, with frequent rest periods
When caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness, the nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve VII. What assessment technique would most likely elicit a response from cranial nerve VII? A) Palpate trapezius muscle while client shrugs shoulders against resistance. B) Administer the whisper or watch-tick test. C) Observe for facial movement symmetry, such as a smile. D) Note any hoarseness in the client's voice.
C) Observe for facial movement symmetry, such as a smile
The critical care nurse is admitting a patient in myasthenic crisis to the ICU. The nurse should prioritize what nursing action in the immediate care of this patient? A) Suctioning secretions B) Facilitating ABG analysis C) Providing ventilatory assistance D)Administering tube feedings
C) Providing ventilatory assistance
. A 48-year-old patient has been diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia following recent episodes of unilateral face pain. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnosis? A) The patient will likely require lifelong treatment with anticholinergic medications. B) The patient has a disproportionate risk of developing myasthenia gravis later in life. C) The patient needs to be assessed for MS. D) The disease is self-limiting and the patient will achieve pain relief over time..
C) The patient needs to be assessed for MS. Severe stabbing recurrent pain along trigeminal nerve,usually unilateralmost often begins near 1 side of the mouth and rises toward the ear, eye, nostril on same side
Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
CD4+ counts
A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) informs the nurse of difficulty eating and swallowing, and shows the nurse white patches in the mouth. What problem related to AIDS does the nurse understand the client has developed?
Candidiasis
The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who has central venous pressure monitoring in place. What intervention should be included in the care plan of a patient with CVP in place?
Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled.
Contact diseases
Clostridium difficile, draining wounds, uncontrolled secretions, pressure ulcers, presence of generalized rash, or presence of ostomy tubes and/or bags
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client's blood pressure is 140/88 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take first?
Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings
The patient with multiple sclerosis tells the nursing assistant that after physical therapy she is too tired to take a bath. What is your priority nursing diagnosis at this time? A Fatigue related to disease state B Activity Intolerance due to generalized weakness C Impaired Physical Mobility related to neuromuscular impairment D Self-care Deficit related to fatigue and neuromuscular weakness
D Self-care Deficit related to fatigue and neuromuscular weakness
A patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is being admitted to the unit. The nurse would expect what diagnostic test to be ordered for this patient? A) Cerebral angiography B) ABG analysis C) CT D) EEG
D) EEG
A patient diagnosed with Bell's palsy is having decreased sensitivity to touch of the involved nerve. What should the nurse recommend to prevent atrophy of the muscles? A) Blowing up balloons B) Deliberately frowning C) Smiling repeatedly D) Whistling
D) Whistling
the "dub" sound when ventricular pressure falls (after emptying) below the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery allowing the aortic and pulmonic valves to close - the second heart sound that occurs with closure of the semilunar valves and signals the end of systole. loudest at the base
Diastole
Rheumatic dz characteristics
Inflammation: meant to protect the body from insult by removing the triggering antigen or event. Autoimmunity: hallmark of rheumatologic disease, the body recognizes own tissue as foreign and attacks it Degeneration: Secondary process to inflammation, breakdown of tissue over time
manifestations of constipation
Fewer than three stools a week. Hard, dry or lumpy stools. Straining or pain when passing stools. A feeling that not all stool has passed. A feeling that the rectum is blocked. The need to use a finger to pass stool.
make sure you know how all the parts of the brain part of gray matter?
Gray Matter 1) Unmyelinated axons. Areas containing neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons have a dusky gray color (Gray Matter of the CNS).2) Grey matter contains most of the brain's neuronal cell bodies. The grey matter includes regions of the brain involved in muscle control, and sensory perception such as seeing and hearing, memory, emotions, speech, decision making, and self-control.
causes an immediate responseTrusted Source and occurs after a person has exposure to an antigen. With this type of reaction, the body responds to an antigen by producing a specific type of antibody called IgE. food products, such as nuts, shellfish, and soy animal sources, such as cats, rats, or bee stings environmental sources, such as mold, latex, and dust allergic conditions, such as allergic rhinitis, allergic asthma, and conjunctivitis
Hypersensitivity 1
List the six digestive processes discussed in notes and their function, starting with ingestion.
Ingestion - Food enters digestive system. Mechanical Digestion - The physical action that breaks food down into smaller pieces. Also mixing, churning, and segmentation of food. Propulsion - Movement of food through the G.I. track. Includes swallowing and peristalsis. Chemical Digestion - Using enzymes to break down food into basic units. Absorption - Products of digestion enter bloodstream and lymphatic vessels. Defecation - Elimination of indigestible substances from the G.I. track.
Nephrotoxic injury (aminoglycosides; vancomycin; amphotericin B; contrast media; haemolytic blood transfusion reactions; severe crushing injury; and chemical exposure to ethylene glycol, lead, arsenic, or carbon tetrachloride) Interstitial nephritis (antibiotics such as sulfonamides or rifampin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, ACE inhibitors, viral, fungal or bacterial infections such acute pyelonephritis, CMV, or candidiasis) Other causes (prolonged prerenal ischemia, acute glomerulonephri
Intrarenal
The neurologic ICU nurse is admitting a client with increased intracranial pressure. How should the nurse best position the client?
Maintain head of bed (HOB) elevated at 30 to 45 degrees.
airbornes disease
Measles, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), Varicella (chickenpox), and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Abnormal heart sound during the first heart sound or "lub". Can be caused by narrowed semi-lunar valve, regurgitation of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves or a VSD or ASD leading to excessive blood being ejected from the right ventricle.
Systolic murmur
What is the conduction system of the heart in order?
The sino-atrial (SA) node. The atrio-ventricular (AV) node. The bundle of His. The left and right bundle branches. The Purkinje fibres.
what enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of peptide bonds, breaking down proteins into smaller peptides?
Trypsin
s3 this heart sound is normal in children but abnormal in adults, an abnormal heart sound detected early in diastole as resistance is met to blood entering either ventricle; most often due to volume overload associated with heart failure
Ventricular gallop
A patient about to receive a morning dose of digoxin has an apical pulse of 53 beats/minute. What will the nurse do next?
Withhold the dose, and notify the prescriber.
The most important nursing interventions to prevent acute renal failure in the critically ill client include: a. Avoiding all potentially nephrotoxic drugs. b. Maintaining fluid volume and cardiac output. c. Administering antihypertensive drugs .d. Assessing for a history of diabetes or systemic lupus erythematosus.
b. Maintaining fluid volume and cardiac output.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/Ld. Expanding groin hematomae. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor
A nurse cares for a client with hepatitis C. The clients brother states, I do not want to contract this infection, so I will not go into his hospital room. How should the nurse respond? a. If you wear a gown and gloves, you will not get this virus. b. Viral hepatitis is not spread through casual contact. c. This virus is only transmitted through a fecal specimen .d. I can give you an update on your brothers status from here.
b. Viral hepatitis is not spread through casual contact.
The nurse prepares to place the patient in skin traction. Which is the nurse's main concern before applying the skin traction? a.Obtain informed consent from patient. b.Verify that the patient assessment is complete. c.Prepare a sterile field for pin insertion. d.Assemble the overhead frame and pulleys.
b.Verify that the patient assessment is complete.
Where are lymphocytes produced?
bone marrow and thymus b cells mature in bone marrow T cells mature thymus
The nurse is caring for a client with a brain tumor. What drug would the nurse expect to be prescribed to reduce the edema surrounding the tumor? a. Solumedrol b. Dextromethorphan c. Dexamethasone d. Furosemide
c. Dexamethasone
A client who has experienced a burn injury over 40 percent of the body is at risk for acute tubular necrosis. In order to prevent renal failure in this client, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.) a. Increase fluids to prevent crystal formation. b. Reduce sodium intake. c. Maintain blood pressure. d. Prevent infection. e. Maintain adequate fluid balance.
c. Maintain blood pressure. d. Prevent infection. e. Maintain adequate fluid balance.
relaxation of heart, lowest pressure, The stage of the heart cycle in which the heart muscle is relaxed, allowing the chambers to fill with blood
diastole
Abnormal heart sound during the second heart sound or "dub". Can be caused by narrowed bicuspid or tricuspid valve or regurgitation of the semi-lunar valves.
diastolic murmur
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea USUALLY FIRST SIGN Loss of appetite/abdominal pain Hyperkalemia Confusion Fatigue/Malaise/dizziness Vision changes including yellow/green halo and blurred/double vision Dysrhythmias - can be lethal
digoxin toxicity
what is the inner layer of the heart that consists of endothelial tissue and lines the inside of the heart?
endocardium
what is the exterior layer of the heart?
epicardium
stool of descending colostomy
firmer or more like paste
Stool: sigmoid colostomy
formed stool
A client exhibiting an altered level of consciousness (LOC) due to blunt force trauma to the head is admitted to the ED. The nurse should gauge the client's LOC on the results of what diagnostic tool?
glascow coma scale
reactions are cell-mediated. Instead of antibodies, white blood cells called T cells control type 4 hypersensitivity reactions. Experts can further subdivide these reactions into type 4a, type 4b, type 4c, and type 4d based on the type of T cell involved and the reaction it produces. This type also differs from the other three in that it causes a delayed reaction.
hypersensisivity type 4
eactions also involve antibodies. In fact, type 2 and type 3 hypersensitivity both result from the same class of antibody, called IgG. The difference between them lies in the form of antigens that generate a response. Additionally, type 2 can also involve IgM antibodies.cytotoxic reactions, meaning that healthy cells die as they respond to the antigens. This can cause long-term damage to cells and tissues,
hypersensitivity type 2
antigens and antibodies form complexes in the skin, blood vessels, joints, and kidney tissues. These complexes cause a series of reactions that lead to tissue damage rugs that contain proteins from different organisms, such as antivenins the drug infliximab, which people use to manage autoimmune conditions animal sources, such as insect stings or tick bites
hypersensitivty type 3
what enzyme digests fats?
lipase from pancreas
stool of ascending colostomy
liquid paste, loose or watery
what is the middle layer of the heart made up of muscle fibers and is responsbile for the pumping action?
myocardium
where would you hear aortic regurgatation?
on the left lower sternal border, around the 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces
what enzyme digests any remaining starch into maltose?
pancreatic amylase
Droplet diseases
pneumonia, influenza, whooping cough, bacterial meningitis)
benign prostatic hyperplasia, bladder cancer, prostate cancer, calculi formation, neuromuscular disorders, spinal cord disease, strictures, and trauma to the back, pelvis, or perineum.
post renal failure
Hypovolemia (dehydration, hemorrhage, diarrhea, vomiting, excessive diuresis, hypoalbuminemia, and burns) Decreased cardiac output (cardiac dysrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, heart failure, and myocardial infarction) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance (anaphylaxis, neurologic injury, and septic shock) Decreased renal vascular blood flow (bilateral renal vein thrombosis and hepatorenal syndrome) Renal artery thrombosis
prerenal failure
baseline dexa testing for osteoporosis is recommended for all women and others that fit certain categories. what are these categories?
recommended for all women older than 65 years, for women who are postmenopausal older than 50 years with osteoporosis risk factors, and for all people who have had a fracture thought to occur as a consequence of osteoporosis
what enzyme catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars?
salivary amylase
phase in the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles contract
systole
the "lub" sound when ventricular pressure rises and closes the mitral and tricuspid valves This is the first sound heard as the AV valves close & is heard loudest at apex of heart. Heard at the left 5th intercostal space,
systole
stool of transverse colostomy
thick, semiformed, usually soft
what is passive artifical immunity?
when a person receives antibodies in the form of an injection (gamma globulin injection).
Make sure you know how to assess cranial nerve 9.
with the gag reflex by touching the pharynx with a tongue depressor or by touching the arches of the pharynx. Ask the patient to open their mouth and say "Ah" and note symmetry of the upper palate
Match organs of digestive tract to function in digestive process
· Stomach - functions include mixing food and serving as a reservoir prior to the food being passed on the duodenum · Liver - produces bile and detoxifies a variety of substances · Colon - another name for the large intestine; absorbs excess water from undigested food prior to its release from the body as solid waste · Gallbladder - stores a substance called bile, which physically breaks down fat droplets · Esophagus - part of the alimentary canal that connects the throat to the stomach. · Duodenum - short section of the small intestine that leaves the stomach · Pancreas - produces digestive juices that are released into the duodenum
