Final Study-Set
OPQRST
-mnemonic that can be very helpful in assessment of pain -Onset -Provocation or palliation -Quality -Region/radiation -Severity -Timing
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Secondary sexual development begins.
Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as
Seizures that result from severe hypertension
TACOS
Tobacco Alcohol Caffeine Over the counter meds/herbs Sexual and street drugs
Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time , such as a nitroglycerin it nicotine patch
Transcutaneous
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and had multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene is approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?
Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital
When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath
While watching for adequate chest rise
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest
With one or two hands
Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.
On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device?
a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?
a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
Spina bifida is MOST accurately defined as:
a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.
Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
a blowout fracture.
Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with:
a brain injury.
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient?
a conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.
a decreased level of consciousness.
A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced
a detached retina
A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced:
a detached retina.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
A subluxation occurs when: a) a joint is incompletely dislocated. b) a fracture and a dislocation exist. c) a bone develops a hairline fracture. d) ligaments are partially severed.
a joint is incompletely dislocated.
mid-axillary
a line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.
The mesentery is
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body
When the cervix begins to dilate
a mucus plug is expelled from the vagina
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is most correct?
a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated
In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:
a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team?
a patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle
spontaneous respirations (spontaneous breathing)
a patient who is breathing without assisstance
These situations you should use the rapid extrication technique
a patient whose condition requires immediate transport a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient
cyanosis
a patient with insufficient air exchange and low levels of oxygen in the blood, the blood and vessels become bluish, and the lips, mucous membranes, nail beds, and skin over the blood vessels appear blue or gray
Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of:
a poorly placed lap belt.
Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which:
a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae
Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:
a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.
a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
The EMT-B should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and
a rash
In which of the following situations does the EMT not have a legal duty to act?
a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty
Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include:
a round head with a flat occiput.
A folding or portable stretcher is MOST beneficial when:
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance
A folding or portable stretcher is MOST beneficial when:
a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
A significant number of patients with cerebral palsy also have:
a seizure disorder.
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because:
a specialist may need to be called.
cardiac conduction system
a system of specialized muscle tissues that conducts electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat
Emergency medical services are..
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply:
a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of:
a triplication of chromosome 21.
Signs of late heatstroke include:
a weak, rapid pulse.
When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence? a) Why did your child ingest the poison? b) What time did the ingestion occur? c) Do you know what substance was ingested? d) Have you noticed any signs or symptoms?
a) Why did your child ingest the poison?
You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should
move him into the cooled ambulance.
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? a) smooth b) cardiac c) skeletal d) autonomic
skeletal
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours?
skeletal muscle
5 months
sleeps thought night; can tell family from strangers
The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person:
sleeps.
Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:
slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
substandard or inappropriate patient care.
An infant reflex in which the infant starts sucking when his or her lips are stroked
sucking reflex
automaticity
the ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
the tongue
cranium
the top, back, and sides of the skull
Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that:
the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.
torso
the trunk of the body (the body without the head, arms, or legs)
nature of illness (NOI)
the type of illness the patient is experiencing
The Adam's apple is
the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is:
the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
thyroid cartilage
the wing-shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms the adams apple
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because
their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that:
their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.
Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because:
their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if:
there is meconium in the amniotic fluid
When assessing or treating an adolescent patient, it is important to remember that
they usually do not wish to be observed during a procedure
Your best protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to:
thoroughly document the entire event
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should
time the contractions from the start of one to the start of the next
muscle
tissue that can contract to allow for movement of a body part
ligament
tissue that connects bone to bone
tendon
tissue that connects muscle to bone
what is the purpose of veins?
to bring blood to the heart
what is the function of the skull?
to enclose and protect the brain
auscultate
to listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope
what is the primary function of the thorax?
to protect the vital organs in the thoracic cavity
what is the function of the renal system?
to regulate fluid balance and filter blood
what is the function of the reproductive system?
to reproduce
Lateral
to the side, away from the midline of the body
what is the main function of blood?
to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to where it needs to go
what is the purpose of the nervous system?
to trigger sensation, movement, and thought. controls voluntary and involuntary activity
Persons who are 1 to 3 years of age
toddlers
phalanges
toe and finger bones
superior
towards the head
Medial
towards the midline of the body
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: a) immobilization. b) reduction. c) traction. d) stabilization.
traction.
The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the:
tragus.
If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to:
transfer care of your patient to another EMS provider.
what is the function of the digestive system?
transfers food through the body and digests it into absorbable forms
A 22-year-old male was punched in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, you should:
transport him in the position in which you found him.
You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed 4 times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the infant reveals that he is conscious and active. His skin is pink and dry, and he is breathing at an adequate rate and with adequate tidal depth. His oxygen saturation reads 98% on room air. You should:
transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.
When caring for an infant who was found apneic and cyanotic and was resuscitated by the parent or caregiver, you should
transport the infant to the hospital.
General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding includes
transporting to an appropriate facility
aorta
transports blood from the left ventricle to begin systematic circulation
A phrase that refers to a stage of development from birth to approximately 18 months of age, during which infants gain trust of their parents or caregivers if their world is planned organized, and routine.
trust and mistrust
You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should:
try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed
When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT must:
wear gloves and facial protection.
An infant is considered to be premature if it
weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
hypertension
when blood pressure is higher than normal range
hypotension
when blood pressure is lower than normal range
paradoxical motion
when only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another areas of the chest falls
Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
when patients are actively being assessed or treated..
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:
when performing endotracheal intubation..
The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting:
when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask
As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher:
whether you are back in service
If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed:
will decrease the drivers reaction time
trachea
windpipe. connects the pharynx to the lungs
The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:
with a deformed humerus
A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare
carpals
wrist bones
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to the disease..
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on..
your local EMS protocols
While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as:
your partner's attempt to diminish their grief..
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.
Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct?
mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.
You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should
move him as a unit to a supine position.
You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should:
move him as a unit to a supine position.
Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as
the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact
inhalation
the active process in which the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air flow into the lungs
perfusion
the adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients to the body as well as the removal of waste products
tarsals
the ankle bones
oropharynx
the area directly posterior to the mouth
The third stage of labor begins when the
the baby is expelled from the vagina
posterior/dorsal
the back of the body or the body part
pelvis
the basin-shaped bony structure that supports the spine and is the point of proximal attachment for the lower extremities
a unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that:
the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
Heatstroke occurs when
the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.
humerus
the bone of the upper arm
skeleton
the bones of the body
central nervous system
the brain and spinal chord
The pediatric patient should be removed from his or her car seat and secured to an appropriate spinal immobilization device if:
the car seat is visibly damaged.
perfusion
the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:
the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
the filtering of blood cells in the spleen
When a child experiences a blunt chest injury
the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking
plasma
the fluid portion of the blood
metatarals
the foot bones
blood pressure
the force blood exerts against the walls of blood vessels
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. to use a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.
the four-person log roll.
anterior/ventral
the front of the body or body part
When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: a) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. b) heart rate and blood pressure increase. c) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate d) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.
the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate
acromion process
the highest portion of the shoulder
Midline
the imaginary line drawn down the center of the body, dividing it into left and right halves
acromioclavicular joint
the joint where the acromium and the clavicle meet
patella
the kneecap
femur
the large bone of the thigh
carotid arteries
the large neck arteries that carry blood from the heart to the head
fibula
the lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg
A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should:
try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.
The term "bloody show" is defined as:
the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug
venule
the smallest kind of vein
Physiology
the study of body function
Anatomy
the study of body structure
ilium
the superior and widest portion of the pelvis
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes?
"Have you had a sonogram?"
Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process?
"I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate.".
Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient?
"Things will get better in time."
Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
"What hospital am I going to?"
Signs of a sudden sever upper airway obstruction include all of the following except
Forceful coughing
normal systolic blood pressure
(12-18yrs) 90-110, in (19-60yrs) 90-140
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
(CORRECT ) A) Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. B) Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. C) Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D) Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
(CORRECT) A) Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. B) Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her life. C) Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children. D) Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide.
Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
(CORRECT) A) Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. B) The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. C) Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age. D) Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age.
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
(CORRECT) A)places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B) knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C) responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D) walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
general impression
-is formed to determine the priority of care and is based on your immediate assessment of the patient -things like age, sex, race, level of distress, and overall appearance
end-tidal CO2
-is the patial pressure or maximal concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath, which is expressed as a % of CO2, or millimeters of mercury - normal range is 35-45 mm Hg or 5-6% CO2
AVPU
-Alert - responsiveness to Verbal stimuli -responsiveness to Pain -Unresponsive
DCAP-BTLS
-Deformities -Contusions -Abrasions -Punctures/penetrations -Burns -Tenderness -Lacerations -Swelling
responsiveness
-assesses weather the patient is alert and how well a patient responds to external stimuli -AVPU
labored breathing
-characterized by the patient's position concentration on breathing, and increased effort and depth of each breath -as it becomes more labored, accessory muscles in the chest and neck are used
rhonchi
-congested breath sounds may suggest the presence of mucus in the lungs -low-pitched, noisy sounds that are most prominent on expiration -patient often reports a productive cough associated with these sounds
level of consciousness (LOC)
-considered a vital sign because it can tell a great deal about the patient's neurological and physiological status -need to determine: conscious with an unaltered LOC, conscious with an altered LOC, unconscious
scene size-up
-ensure scene safety -determine mechanism of injury (MOI)/nature of illness (NOI) -take standard precautions (PPE) -determine number of patients -consider additional/specialized resources
blunt trauma
-force of injury occurs over a broad area, and the skin is usually not broken -the tissues and organs below area may be damaged
primary assessment
-goal: to identify and initiate treatment of immediate or potential life threats -patient's vital signs (level of consciousness, airway, breathing, and circulation [ABCs]) will determine extent of treatment 1. form a general impression 2. assess level of consciousness 3. assess the airway: identify and treat life threats 4. assess breathing: identify and treat life threats 5. assess circulation: identify and treat life threats 6. preform rapid scan 7. determine priority of patient care and transport
mechanism of injury (MOI)
-how traumatic injury occurred? -evaluate 3 factors: amount of force applied to body, length of time applied to body, and areas of body involved
SAMPLE history
-mnemonic used to gather a general past medical or trauma history -Signs and symptoms -Allergies -Medications -Pertinent past medical history -Last oral intake -Events leading up to the injury or illness
pulse oximetry
-newer assessment tool that is used to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygenation -monitors O2 saturation of hemoglobin
capnography
-noninvasive method that can quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism -could be used for conformation of endotracheal intubation or the effectiveness of ongoing CPR
reassessment
-preformed at regular intervals during the assessment process, and its purpose is to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition -reapeart the primarry assessment -reassess vitals -recheck interventions -identify and treat changes in the patient's condition - reassess patient (unstable every 5 mins/stable every 15 mins)
secondary assessment
-purpose is to perform a systematic physical examination of the patient -assess vital signs using the appropriate monitoring device -systematically assess the patient (full-body scan and/or focused assessment)
wheezing breath sounds
-suggest an obstruction of the lower airways -high pitched whistling sound that is most prominent on expiration
full-body scan
-systematic head-to-toe examination -goal of this process is to identify hidden injuries or identify causes that may not have been found during primary assessment
orientation
-tests metal status by checking a patients's memory and thinking ability - evaluates patient's ability to remember: person, place, time, and event
capillary refill
-used to asses the ability of the circulatory system to restore blood to the capillary system -may provide info of the patient's level of perfusion -slow refill could be due to age, cold, and vasoconstriction
PEARRL
-useful guide in assessing the pupils -Pupils -Equal -And -Round -Regular in size -react to Light
rales
-wet breath sounds may indicate cardiac failure -moist crackling, usually on both inspirations and expiration, also called crackles
If a mask cannot be placed on a coughing patient, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend that you maintain a distance of at least ________ feet if possible.
. 3
Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR
...
You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39 year old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction.as you are assessing her, she pulls out epinephrine auto injector out of her purse and hand it to you. After administering 100% Oxygen you should:
...
Statistically, what percentage of the elderly live at home?
0.95
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than:
1 hour
Laypeople can perform what skills?
1) control of life threatening bleeding 2) one or two rescuer CPR 3) splinting of a possible fracture
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. a) 2,000 b) 1,500 c) 4,000 d) 1,000
1,000
Preserve evidence
1. Condition of the scene 2. The patient 3. Fingerprints and foot prints 4. Microscopic evidence 5. Remeber what you touch 6. Minimize impact at the scene 7. Work wit police
Two most common cause of lawsuit
1. Patient refusal 2. Ambulance collisions
what are the 3 main functions of the musculoskeletal system?
1. to give the body shape 2. to protect vital internal organs 3. to provide for body movement
What are the ribs attached to?
10 are attached to the sternum, 2 are floating
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? A. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. B. Defibrillation is the first link in the American Heart Association chain of survival. C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. D. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.
A
To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patients chest at a rate of least______ per minute
100
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weight approximately _____ per cubic foot
100 lb
An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost.
100 mL
When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:
100′ past the scene on the same side of the road
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg.
104, 40
An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:
12 and 20 breaths/min.
Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest? 12 breaths per minute 10 breaths per minute 24 breaths per minute 22 breaths per minute
12 breaths per minute
A child may begin to show signs of stranger anxiety as early as
12 months
normal respiration
12-20
The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of: 110 to 130. 100 to 120. 90 to 100. 120 to 140.
120 to 140.
Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume B. decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate C. decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume D. decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
A
47. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: A. look for posturing. B. assess for a distal pulse. C. assess neurologic status. D. assign an immediate category.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
Typically medivac helicopters fly between:
130 to 150 mph
Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient. 15 10 5 20
15
Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every: 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 15 minutes. 20 minutes
15 minutes.
When pulling a patient you should extend your arms no more than.
15'" to 20 " in front of your torso
A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _____ seconds following birth.
15-30
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilation a when performing two rescuer child CPR
15:2
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately
16 hours
What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered during mouth to mask breathing without supplemental oxygen
16%
An infant's fontanels should close completely by the time he or she is
18 months old
The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by__ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by__ months of age
18, 6
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
19 and 25 years.
THe human body should be functioning at its optimal level in what age group?
19-40 years
bronchi
2 large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs
After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within:
2 seconds
If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed? 2 seconds t4 seconds 3 seconds 5 seconds
2 seconds
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
2,000
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED without delay. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
A
The _____ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered
Form
An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of ______ times per minute
20
When taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point? 20 to 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears Until the patient says it hurts Until the Velcro starts to crackle tUntil the gauge reads 200 mmHg
20 to 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears
An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before
20 weeks
A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her
20% to 30%
With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ lb.
220
While patient is in your care
Frequently and thoroughly monitor the patients mental status and vital signs
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a 20-kg child?
25g
18. Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others. B. daily activity assistance. C. outdated medications. D. delays in obtaining meals
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222
A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
3
Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than___years.
3
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
30
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
300
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
300 mm Hg
In two rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:
30:2
Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ___ week of gestation.
30th
What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult?
5.25 L
A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg aspirin, and assess her further. B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. C. give her 100% oxygen, attach the AED, and transport immediately. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
A
An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B. the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions. C. coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. D. the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.
A
Basic language is usually mastered by what age?
36 months
Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.
A
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.
A
In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation: A. requires a lower energy setting. B. delivers all shocks at 360 joules. C. begins with 300 joules and escalates. D. is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.
A
If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than __lb.
40
Increasing cholesterol levels and decreased efficiency of the heart begins to become a concern for which age group?
41-60 years
Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol.
A
Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. B. increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium. C. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.
A
Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours.
A
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: A. have chronic hypertension. B. regularly take illegal drugs. C. have had a stroke in the past. D. are older than 40 years of age.
A
With the flowmeter set at 6L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to________oxygen
44%
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%.
The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. B. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. C. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes. D. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation.
A
The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A. femoral arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.
A
The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. abdomen. D. legs.
A
The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. B. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. C. improve the chance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) being successful in resuscitation. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.
A
The EMT should reassess the vital signs of an unstable patient every ________ minutes. 15 10 5 2
5
What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?
5,600 mL
You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular and he has a strong cry. What should you do next?
Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse.
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ______ of oxygen.
500 L
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi.
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
55%
After_______ Minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely
6
A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as:
6 months
Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between
6 months and 6 years of age.
Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than:
6 years
The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ____ breaths per minute.
60
Normal pulse
60-100
What is the minimum size of a helicopter land zone?
60x60
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?
61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground transport time is 50 minutes
The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
7
Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. determine if you need additional help. C. request a paramedic unit for assistance. D. gain immediate access to the patient.
A
When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.
A
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? A. a rapid heart rate B. syncope or dizziness C. heart rate less than 60 beats/min D. generalized weakness
A
21. The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A. triage B. medical C. treatment D. transportation
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393
The average pulse rate of individuals between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:
70 beats/min.
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
70 to 120 beats/min.
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
72
At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years.
78, 120
If a baby is born at 7:52 p.m., the second APGAR score should be calculated at
7:57 p.m.
You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His APGAR score is
8
An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following formulas? 80 plus 2 times the age in years 120 plus 2 times the age in years 120 minus 2 times the age in years 80 times 2 plus the age in years
80 plus 2 times the age in years
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
9 and 18 months.
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
90
What is the normal pulse rate of a neonate?
90-180 beats/minute
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below:
90°F (32°C).
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:
90°F (32°C).
Your patient is warm, dry, and pink and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation? 91 percent 98 percent 102 percent 95 percent
98 percent
normal temp
98.6
You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.
A
Which of the following statement regarding a 3 month old infant is correct?
A 3 month old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger
Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct?
A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of
A cardiac arrhythmia
Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct? A. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities. D. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.
A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.
Tort
A civil offense, an action or injury caused by negligence from which a lawsuit may rise
Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct?
A decresed level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process
Plane
A flat surface formed when slicing through a solid object
Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct?
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time
Which of the following cause the pulse oximetry to give a false or incorrect reading? A patient in shock or hyperthermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, excessive movements A patient in shock or hypothermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, fingernail polish, excessive movements, poor batteries A patient with rapid respirations, shock or hypothermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, fingernail polish, excessive movements, poor batteries A patient in shock or hypothermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, excessive movements, good batteries
A patient in shock or hypothermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, fingernail polish, excessive movements, poor batteries
Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct?
A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting.
Proxy
A person whom the signer of the document names to make health care decisions in case he is unable to make such decisions for himself
Which of the following statements regarding a patient with a behavioral crisis is correct?
A quiet patient is not as likely to attack you as one who is screaming..
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct?
A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column
Good samaritan laws
A series of laws, varying in each state, designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel when they are administering emergency care
Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following? A diagnosis A sign A complaint A symptom
A sign
CPR should be initiated when
A valid living will is unavailable
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
A) An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. (CORRECT) B) An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's. C) By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. D) An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
A) The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. B) Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. C) Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity. (CORRECT) D) Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
Which age group is most fixated on public image and terrified of being embarrassed
A) 1-3 B) 3-6 C) 6-12 (CORRECT) D)12-18
A flail chest occurs when: A) a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B) more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. C) multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D) a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
A) a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
Pneumothorax is defined as: A) accumulation of air between the lungs. B) blood collection within the lung tissue. C) accumulation of air in the pleural space. D) blood collection within the pleural space.
A) accumulation of air between the lungs.
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A) administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B) immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C) recognize that he needs a needle decompression. D) circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.
A) administer oxygen and transport to the hospita
Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A) breathe rapidly and shallowly. B) take a series of deep breaths. C) prefer to lie in a supine position. D) develop a sucking chest wound.
A) breathe rapidly and shallowly.
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A) diaphragm. B) anterior rib cage. C) intercostal margin. D) costovertebral angle.
A) diaphragm.
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A) engorged jugular veins B) widening pulse pressure C) diminished breath sounds D) a rapid, irregular pulse
A) engorged jugular veins
A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: A) exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect. B) excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis. C) abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy. D) blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall.
A) exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect.
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she:
A) is unable to track your movements with her eyes. (CORRECT) B) responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. C) will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D) has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A) lungs B) trachea C) vena cavae D) esophagus
A) lungs
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A) lungs B) trachea C) vena cavae D) esophagus
A) lungs
Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A) pleurisy. B) dyspnea. C) pneumonitis. D) pneumothorax.
A) pleurisy.
A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? A) ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle B) asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C) fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia D) collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest
A) ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle
Pleural fluid is contained between the: A) visceral and parietal pleurae. B) parietal pleura and the heart. C) visceral pleura and the lung. D) parietal pleura and the chest wall.
A) visceral and parietal pleurae.
Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?
A)Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. CORRECT B)MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. C)The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. D)Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.
Which of the following is true regarding the respiratory system of older adults?
A)The size of the airway increases. B) The elasticity of the lungs decreases. C) The strength of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm decreases. (CORRECT) D) all of the above
Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A)loss of appetite and a cough. B)vomiting, fever, and fatigue. C)pain in the muscles and joints. CORRECT D)jaundice and abdominal pain.
Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.
A. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a narcotic overdose. B. a respiratory infection. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. high blood glucose levels.
A. a narcotic overdose.
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A. alveoli B. trachea C. bronchi D. capillaries
A. alveoli
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion. C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production. D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.
A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles.
Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.
A. immune system.
You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D.labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.
A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.wheezing B.stridorous breathing C.a cough that resembles the bark of a seal D.a weak cough
A.wheezing
What skill or intervention is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
AED
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is correct
AED use in children up to 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer
______ is defined as the ability to reach the patient
Access
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored?
According to the urgency and frequency of their use
A(n) _______________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT. Unbiased Accurate Complete Repeated
Accurate
If gastric distention is so severe that it makes positive-pressure ventilation extremely difficult or impossible, you may have to:
Apply manual pressure to the abdomen
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55 year old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to
Administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect
You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high glow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:
Administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital
The most appropriate treatment for a patient with mild upper airway obstruction includes:
Administering oxygen and transporting immediately
You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes:
Administrating blow by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother
The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called
Adsorption
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
Medical identification device
Alerts EMT of particular medical conditions Includes: heart conditions, allergies, diabetes, epilepsy
An inaccurate oxygen saturation reading can result in all of the following EXCEPT: Carbon monoxide inhalation. A patient that smokes cigarettes. A patient wearing fingernail polish. All of the above
All of the above
A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
The EMS medical director can what to an EMT's scope of practice?
An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval
Which of the following statements regarding the meter-does inhaler is correct
An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
13. You are dispatched to a skilled nursing care facility for an 80-year-old female with abnormal behavior. The patient is clearly confused and asks you if you are her husband. As your partner administers oxygen to the patient, you should: A. determine the patient's baseline mental status. B. inquire about a history of Alzheimer disease. C. obtain a complete list of the patient's medications. D. ask an attendant for the patient's medical records.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1219
40. A 73-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. a strangulated bowel. D. myocardial infarction.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1232
54. You are dispatched to a residence for an 80-year-old female who fell. When you arrive, you find the patient conscious, lying in a recumbent position on the floor in her living room. In addition to providing the appropriate treatment, you should ask the patient if: A. she became dizzy or fainted before falling. B. she attempted to catch herself before falling. C. a family member regularly checks up on her. D. she takes medications for Alzheimer disease.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240
63. During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: A. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you. B. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them. C. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. D. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1410
69. Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B. ask a fire fighter what the patient was exposed to. C. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries.
Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1412
3. When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain language and simple terms. B. use the appropriate medical terminology. C. be complex so the patient fully understands. D. realize that he or she will not understand you.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216
6. Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: A. pneumonia. B. osteoporosis. C. heart failure. D. ischemic stroke.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217
12. Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? A. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. B. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia. D. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219
15. The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to: A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. B. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderly patients. C. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly. D. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221
19. Which of the following statements regarding the aging process is correct? A. Aging is a linear process; the rate at which a person loses functions does not increase with age. B. Because he or she is younger and healthier, a 35-year-old person ages slower than a 75-year-old person. C. Human growth and development peaks in the late 40s or early 50s, at which point the aging process sets in. D. The older a person gets, the slower the decline in the function of vital organs, such as the kidneys and liver.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223
20. During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223
28. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: A. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms. B. ascertain about a history of atrial fibrillation. C. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible. D. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227
33. In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229
36. Syncope in the older patient is: A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. D. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230
42. The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234
46. When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. B. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for. C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235
61. In contrast to a living will, a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order becomes valid when: A. the patient has a terminal illness. B. the patient develops cardiac arrest. C. the patient is in a health care setting. D. it is signed by three or more physicians.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243
49. Which of the following statements regarding suicide in the older patient is correct? A. Older patients tend to use more lethal means than younger patients. B. Older females have a higher rate of suicide than any other group. C. Depression and hopeless feelings are often not predisposing factors. D. Most suicidal patients readily seek care and do not deny the problem.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236
50. Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients? A. falls B. burns C. abuse D. suicide
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1237
55. An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): A. pathologic fracture. B. idiopathic fracture. C. compression fracture. D. comminuted fracture.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240
56. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240
64. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. A. physical B. financial C. emotional D. psychological
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244
1. The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1387
23. When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, it should: A. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself. B. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session. C. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. D. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1394
50. Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the ICS process.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1400
4. The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called: A. freelancing. B. undermining. C. logistical chaos. D. single command
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1388
11. The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: A. planning section. B. logistics section. C. operations section. D. finance section.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1390
9. Command functions under the ICS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. triage officer. B. safety officer. C. liaison officer. D. public information officer
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1390
15. As the first-arriving senior EMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then: A. establish command. B. begin the triage process. C. call for additional resources. D. quickly identify the walking wounded.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1392
19. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the treatment supervisor? A. primary assessment B. secondary triage C. patient packaging D. communication with the medical branch director
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393
25. Which of the following is probably NOT a mass-casualty incident? A. a motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. a loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients C. an apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. a rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of various severity
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1394-1395
32. Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding D. 36-year-old female with an open brain injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
40. According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing? A. Open the airway and reassess breathing status. B. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category. C. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess. D. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
46. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. immediately check for a pulse. B. triage him or her as expectant. C. give five rescue breaths and reassess. D. open the airway and reassess breathing.
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
53. Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? A. sight and sound B. sound and smell C. smell and sight D. sight and touch
Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1402
34. A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. C. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1229
58. You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before, but refused to allow her to call 9-1-1. His past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, deep vein thrombosis, heavy alcohol use, and liver cirrhosis. His medications include blood thinners and vitamins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. acute hyperglycemia. B. a subdural hematoma. C. acute ischemic stroke. D. diabetic ketoacidosis.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240-1241
26. You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should: A. establish an incident command post until you are relieved of your duties. B. declare a mass-casualty incident and request additional resources. C. begin rapidly triaging all patients before requesting additional help. D. immediately move all ambulatory patients to a designated area.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1394-1395
33. You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? A. a 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. a 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. a 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. a 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1397
1. To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: A. dismiss the family members from the room or area. B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216
4. Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216
10. When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: A. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. B. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219
16. Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: A. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver. B. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. C. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. D. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221
17. Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222
22. An older patient with significant dehydration would MOST likely present with: A. an increase in blood pressure upon standing. B. dizziness or fainting upon standing. C. weakness to one side of the body. D. a drop in heart rate upon standing.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224
25. A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. D. the patient minimizes the chest pain.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226
26. The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227
30. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228
35. Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229-1230
38. Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. blood volume loss.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1231
45. Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235
47. The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: A. potentiation. B. polypharmacy. C. drug tolerance. D. drug dependency.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235
53. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240
59. Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A. have minor abrasions to the head area. B. are taking blood-thinning medications. C. do not have deformities to the skull. D. have a history of Alzheimer disease.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1241
62. When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: A. try to locate the documentation. B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. C. allow the patient to die in peace. D. contact medical control for advice.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243
66. When assessing an older patient who has multiple bruises in various stages of healing, the EMT should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A. factually document all findings. B. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse. C. ask the patient how the bruises occurred. D. review the patient's activities of daily living.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245
3. The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: A. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure. B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources. C. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident. D. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1388
20. When victims involved in a mass-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393
31. Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. severe medical problems. B. fractures of multiple long bones. C. any airway or breathing difficulty. D. uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
35. Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage at a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. yellow C. green D. black
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
59. Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? A. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred. B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. C. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. D. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1408
65. The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called: A. neutralization. B. decontamination. C. antidotal treatment. D. chemical containment.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1410
67. Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1411
48. While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has points to his severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: A. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging.
Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1398
6. During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would MOST likely: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions. C. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel. D. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1389
10. At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls. A. logistics B. operations C. planning D. finance
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1390
12. A critical function of the safety officer is to: A. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim. B. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. C. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. D. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1390
18. As a triage supervisor, you: A. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. C. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393
29. In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: A. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. B. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic. C. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. D. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1396
30. After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: A. the total number of patients that have been triaged. B. the recommended transport destination for each patient. C. recommendations for movement to the treatment area. D. the number of patients that are in each triage category.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1396
41. According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? A. conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min B. unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min C. apneic, despite manually opening the airway D. conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
49. Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a mass-casualty incident or disaster site is correct? A. Delayed-priority patients should be transported five at a time. B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time. C. Walking wounded patients should be taken to the closest hospitals. D. Patients who are in cardiac arrest should clearly be transported first.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1400
54. Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct? A. Red phosphorus from a drug laboratory is found in a blue container that is clearly labeled. B. In most cases, there is no correlation between the color of the container and the possible contents. C. Steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and substances. D. The Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of container used to store hazardous materials.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1402
55. A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport: A. explosives. B. corrosives. C. flammable liquids. D. combustible materials.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1404
66. Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT at the scene of a HazMat incident? A. rehabilitation B. decontamination C. transportation D. triage and treatment
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1411
70. A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should: A. decontaminate the patient as they would any other patient and then move him to the area where EMTs are waiting. B. cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can. C. defer the decontamination procedure and bring the patient directly to awaiting EMS personnel for immediate treatment. D. request that EMS personnel don standard precautions, enter the warm zone, and begin immediate treatment of the patient.
Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1412
14. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? A. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system B. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication D. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1220
41. You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC). D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1233
52. Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted, you find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way, but did not move her. When you gently tap the patient, she does not respond. You should: A. suction her airway, apply a cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and perform a rapid assessment. B. open her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, insert an oral or nasal airway, and assess her blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. C. direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you quickly visualize her chest for signs of breathing. D. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device while your partner auscultates her lung sounds to ensure adequate positive-pressure ventilation.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1238
28. You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should: A. transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center. B. direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport. C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives. D. assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1396
62. You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unconscious. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? A. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. B. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. C. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. D. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.
Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1409
2. General communication techniques with the elderly include: A. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding. B. explaining procedures while you are performing them. C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands. D. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216
8. When caring for a geriatric patient with a traumatic injury, it is important to consider that: A. geriatric patients usually present with little to no pain. B. decreased bone density often results in incomplete fractures. C. the injury may have been preceded by a medical condition. D. geriatric patients typically present with classic signs of shock.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218
9. Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218
23. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism? A. 59-year-old male who is recovering from pneumonia B. 66-year-old active female with a history of hypertension C. 71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity D. 78-year-old female who takes blood thinning medications
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224
24. In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226
27. When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: A. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. C. ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227
37. Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch. C. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. D. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230
39. An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1232
43. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. increased flexibility of bone mass. B. decreased bone marrow production. C. a decrease in bone mass and density. D. an abnormality near the growth plate.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234
48. Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236
51. When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to: A. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene. B. perform an in-depth physical exam prior to initiating any treatment. C. recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries. D. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1238
63. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the exact extent and prevalence of elder abuse is unknown? A. It has been largely hidden from society. B. The definitions of abuse and neglect vary. C. Human resource agencies fail to investigate. D. Victims of elder abuse are hesitant to report it.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243
22. The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. A. triage B. support C. staging D. transportation
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393-1394
27. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a mass-casualty incident and activate the ICS? A. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested? C. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? D. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance?
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1395
51. Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: A. retrieve all critical patients. B. rope off the entire perimeter. C. carefully assess the situation. D. divert traffic away from the scene.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1400
61. After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: A. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients. B. not allow anyone within 25′ to 50′ of the incident scene. C. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others. D. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1409
5. A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: A. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. C. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. D. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1388
8. If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the IC should consider: A. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established. B. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions. C. relinquishing command to someone with more experience. D. requesting a second IC to assist him or her.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1389
14. In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. A. 24-hour B. 48-hour C. 72-hour D. 96-hour
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1391
67. When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. theorize as to why the patient was abused. B. document his or her perceptions of the event. C. list the names of all of the suspected abusers. D. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245
17. Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the ICS? A. triage B. transport C. treatment D. extrication
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1393
38. A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? A. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black) B. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red) C. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
39. The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: A. focus on the patients who are unconscious. B. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C. move all walking patients to a designated area. D. get a quick head count of all the patients involved.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
42. According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? A. Administer high-flow oxygen. B. Triage the patient as delayed. C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. D. Assess his or her neurologic status.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
45. According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs: A. are treated immediately in the primary triage area and then transported. B. are initially triaged on the basis of whether or not they have distal pulses. C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage. D. are the first to be transported, regardless of the severity of their injuries.
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
57. Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? A. air-reactive solids B. flammable liquids C. water-reactive solids D. nonflammable gases
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1405
64. Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? A. command B. personnel staging C. decontamination D. medical monitoring
Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1410
37. You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should: A. assess the severity of her open head injury. B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. C. begin ventilating her with a bag-mask device. D. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.
Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1397
5. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is correct? A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired. B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name. C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed. D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216
7. The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: A. hypertension. B. altered mental status. C. arthritis. D. heart disease.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217
11. An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. the nervous system has deteriorated. B. of decreased perception of pain. C. of conditions such as dementia. D. he or she fears hospitalization.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219
21. A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for: A. heart failure. B. bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223-1224
29. A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228
31. When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228
32. The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229
44. The chief component of connective tissues and bones that deteriorates as people age is called: A. fibrin. B. elastin. C. sebum. D. collagen.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234
57. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. severe kyphosis. B. distracting injuries. C. spinal cord tearing. D. compression fractures.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240
60. A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): A. statute of care. B. power of attorney. C. physician directive. D. advance directive.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1242
65. Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. they are protective of the abuser. B. they do not want to be bothersome. C. most elderly patients have dementia. D. they fear retribution from the abuser.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244
24. Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? A. an incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B. an incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C. an incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured D. an incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1394
34. A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. green C. black D. yellow
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
36. A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a mass-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless: A. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. B. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. C. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest. D. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1397
60. The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is: A. downwind at least 200′ from the scene. B. downhill at least 100′ from the incident. C. uphill at least 25′ from the incident site. D. upwind at least 100′ from the incident.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1409
68. A Level 4 hazardous material: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed. C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1411
71. Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level C protection D. Level D protection
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1414
43. You are triaging patients at the scene of a multiple vehicle crash when you encounter a young male who is unresponsive and is not breathing. After you open his airway, he begins to breathe at a rapid rate. According to the START triage system, you should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and perform a rapid scan of his entire body. B. move him to the treatment area so he can receive a more comprehensive assessment of his status. C. move to the other patients, but reassess him in 5 minutes to determine if he is still breathing. D. tag him as immediate (red), place him in the recovery position, and move to the next patient.
Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1398
2. Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1387
7. Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? A. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident. D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1389
13. Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A. accountability. B. lack of personnel. C. incident briefing. D. communication.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1390
16. Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or mass-casualty incident is correct? A. Each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency. B. Ten-codes or signals should be used when communicating via radio. C. When possible, all communication should occur via two-way radio. D. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1392
44. The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. A. 5, 50 lb B. 6, 70 lb C. 7, 90 lb D. 8, 100 lb
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1398
52. General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include: A. parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill. B. taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene. C. asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind. D. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1401
56. Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: A. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or non-explosive. C. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1405
58. The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: A. the bill of lading. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.
Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1406
A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods? Blood pressure monitor Palpation Auscultation Any of the above
Any of the above
A 62 year old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contacting medical control, you should
Assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100
A 37 year old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patients car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of
Asthma
You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52. You should reassess blood pressure: At least every 5 minutes. At least every 15 minutes. Only if the pulse rate changes. Only if the patient gets worse.
At least every 5 minutes.
Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment? Ongoing assessment At primary assessment At secondary assessment At the patient's side
At secondary assessment
You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should: Listen for heart sounds Begin chest compressions. Attempt to find the carotid pulse Apply the pulse oximeter.
Attempt to find the carotid pulse
Which of the following methods should the EMT attempt first when transporting a patient to the hospital? Palpation Auscultation Blood pressure monitor Any of the above
Auscultation
The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is called: Auscultation. Articulation. Palpation. Pulsation.
Auscultation.
An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if
Authorization from medical control has been obtained
A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What are her signs and symptoms MOST indicative of? A. unstable angina B. dissecting aortic aneurysm C. AMI D. hypertensive emergency
B
A 67-year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should: A. defibrillate with the AED while continuing transport to the hospital. B. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. perform CPR for 1 to 2 minutes and then analyze her rhythm with an AED. D. alert the receiving hospital and perform CPR for the duration of the transport.
B
A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. B. lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. D. ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.
B
After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case he or she faints. B. reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.
B
After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. immediately resume CPR. C. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. D. transport the patient at once.
B
Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
B
Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.
B
Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. severe headache.
B
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
B
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A) contracts and flattens inferiorly. B) may rise as high as the nipple line. C) is less prone to penetrating trauma. D) descends below the level of the navel.
B) may rise as high as the nipple line.
Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. C. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.
B
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. A. two B. three C. four D. five
B
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
B
Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must: A. ensure the medication is in tablet form. B. obtain authorization from medical control. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure.
B
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A. contact medical control. B. dry the chest off if it is wet. C. perform CPR for 30 seconds. D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
B
Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. congestive heart failure. C. significant hypotension. D. right ventricular failure.
B
The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C. its use does not require the presence of ALS personnel. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.
B
The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: A. are elderly. B. are in denial. C. cannot afford it. D. do not trust EMTs.
B
The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. nipple line. B. umbilicus. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.
B
The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.
B
What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.
B
When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: A. use medical terminology. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.
B
When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart rate decreases significantly. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.
B
Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. dilation of blood vessels in the muscles B. constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. increases in the heart and respiratory rates D. constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system
B
Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.
B
Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? A. furosemide (Lasix) B. aspirin C. oxygen D. digoxin (Lanoxin)
B
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A. labored breathing B. dependent edema C. pulmonary edema D. flat jugular veins
B
Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. hypertension and tachycardia B. hypotension and flat jugular veins C. the presence of rales in the lungs D. trouble breathing while lying down
B
You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.
B
Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "no shock advised" message. You should: A. reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. perform CPR for 2 minutes and reassess. C. determine if a palpable pulse is present. D. immediately assess the patient's airway.
B
An open pneumothorax occurs when: A) a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. B) air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C) extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D) air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.
B) air enters the pleural space from outside the body.
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) profound cyanosis. B) collapsed jugular veins. C) bulging intercostal muscles. D) unilaterally absent breath sounds.
B) collapsed jugular veins.
Hemoptysis is defined as: A) vomiting blood. B) coughing up blood. C) abnormal blood clotting. D) blood in the pleural space.
B) coughing up blood.
Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) tachypnea. B) hematemesis. C) localized pain. D) chest wall ecchymosis.
B) hematemesis.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal pupils? Fright An artificial eye Stroke Eye injury
Fright
If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A) minute volume will increase. B) minute volume will decrease. C) minute volume will remain unchanged. D) excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
B) minute volume will decrease.
A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a: A) ruptured aorta. B) myocardial contusion. C) pericardial tamponade. D) tension pneumothorax.
B) myocardial contusion.
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: A) begin ventilatory assistance. B) partially remove the dressing. C) begin rapid transport at once. D) call for a paramedic ambulance.
B) partially remove the dressing.
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A) flail chest. B) pneumothorax. C) cardiac tamponade. D) myocardial contusion.
B) pneumothorax.
A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to applying 100% oxygen, you should: A) apply an automated external defibrillator (AED) and take his blood pressure. B) prepare for immediate transport. C) determine if he has cardiac problems. D) apply bulky dressings to the sternum.
B) prepare for immediate transport.
Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: A) a tension pneumothorax. B) traumatic aortic rupture. C) penetrating lung injuries. D) a massive cardiac contusion.
B) traumatic aortic rupture.
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following except:
Gastric distention
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.
B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension.
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. normal breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.
B. abnormal breath sounds.
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: A. an obstructed airway. B. adequate air exchange. C. respiratory difficulty. D. respiratory insufficiency.
B. adequate air exchange.
When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.
B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.
A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke. B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls. C. massive constriction of the bronchioles. D. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.
B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls.
A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: A. slow and deep. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. rapid and shallow.
B. deep and rapid.
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: A. albuterol. B. epinephrine. C. an antihistamine. D. a beta-antagonist.
B. epinephrine.
The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. ventilation and diffusion. B. inspiration and expiration. C. diffusion and oxygenation. D. oxygenation and ventilation.
B. inspiration and expiration.
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C
A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient? A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and a head-to-toe exam B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment C. positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital D. oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital
B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment
A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug. D. position her on her left side and transport at once.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: A. the brain stem inhibits respirations. B. respirations increase in rate and depth. C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. severe anxiety C. pulmonary edema D. prolonged seizures
B. severe anxiety
Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: A. rales. B. stridor. C. rhonchi. D. wheezing.
B. stridor.
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves
Back slaps
The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? Baseline vital signs Normal vital signs Standard vital signs None of the above
Baseline vital signs
When a patient refuses care
Be sure that the patient is fully informed about his situation and the implications of refusing care
A 60 year old male is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apnea. You should:
Begin CPR until an AED is available
Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication
Between the skin and the muscle
A medication with antagonistic properties is one that
Blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them
The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics? Yellow Blue-gray Very pale Flushed
Blue-gray
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
When assessing the pulse of and unresponsive infant you should palpate the _____ artery
Brachial
A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.
C
During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: A. the AED has detected asystole. B. the AED detected patient motion. C. she is not in ventricular fibrillation. D. she has a pulse and does not need CPR.
C
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: A. prepares the body to handle stress. B. causes an increase in the heart rate. C. slows the heart and respiratory rates. D. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.
C
Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A. excess stress. B. hyperglycemia. C. family history. D. lack of exercise.
C
Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: A. cardiogenic shock. B. severe bradycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. congestive heart failure.
C
The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
C
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A. bundle of His. B. coronary sinus. C. sinoatrial (SA) node. D. atrioventricular (AV) node.
C
The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. iliac arteries. B. brachial arteries. C. carotid arteries. D. subclavian arteries.
C
The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.
C
The main legal risk in using the AED is: A. negligence on the part of the manufacturer. B. failure of the AED's internal computer chip. C. failing to deliver a shock when one is needed. D. not assessing for a pulse after a shock is delivered.
C
When afterload increases: A. the volume of venous blood that returns to the right atrium increases. B. the amount of resistance that the ventricle must beat against decreases. C. it becomes harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels. D. the blood pressure falls because of significant dilation of the blood vessels.
C
When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: A. angina usually occurs after an AMI. B. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina and AMI present identically.
C
When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest D. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep
C
Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. C. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.
C
Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray? A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. B. Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it. C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the blood pressure prior to administering another dose.
C
Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A. cephalic B. axillary C. saphenous D. subclavian
C
You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: A. assess the effectiveness of the bystanders' CPR. B. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. C. have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.
C
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A) at least half of one lung has completely collapsed. B) your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. C) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. D) blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.
C) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for: A) external genitalia injury. B) a lacerated liver or spleen. C) blunt injury to the kidney. D) a ruptured urinary bladder.
C) blunt injury to the kidney.
You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving 100% oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is MOST likely causing this patient's deterioration? A) a total collapse of the affected lung B) hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity C) compression of the aorta and vena cava D) blood accumulation in the pleural space
C) compression of the aorta and vena cava
If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A) often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B) will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. C) must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. D) will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.
C) must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A) vagus B) costal C) phrenic D) intercostal
C) phrenic
What medication form does oral glucose come in
Gel
During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A) request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B) make note of it and continue your assessment. C) stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. D) reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.
C) stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing.
Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: A) their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. B) they require less tidal volume per breath. C) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. D) there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.
C) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Albuterol is a generic name for: A. Alupent. B. Atrovent. C. Proventil. D. Singulair.
C. Proventil.
Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct?
Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.
Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common. C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. D. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%.
C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. This patient's presentation is MOST consistent with: A. acute pulmonary edema. B. right-sided heart failure. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. spontaneous pneumothorax.
C. acute pulmonary embolism.
While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. With which of the following conditions is this finding MOST consistent? A. acute asthma attack B.widespread atelectasis C. aspiration pneumonia D. early pulmonary edema
C. aspiration pneumonia
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a unilaterally collapsed lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. fluid accumulation outside the lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A.right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection.
C. toxic chemical inhalation.
Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A.infection B.electrolyte imbalances C.hyperglycemia D.poisonings or ingestion
C.hyperglycemia
which of the following groups is considered a "toddler"
CORRECT A) 1-3 years B) 2-4 years C) 3-6 years D) 12-18 years
Which of the following medications would the EMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
CORRECT A)naloxone (Narcan) B)aspirin C)albuterol D)oral glucose
Medications encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are called
Capsules
Which of the following is not a BLS intervention
Cardiac monitoring
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes simvastatin (vytorin) and clopidoherl(plavix). This medication regimen suggests a history of
Cardiovascular disease
Which of the following is not an indication to stop CPR once you have started
Care is transferred to a bystander
Several attempts to adequately open a trams patients airway with the jaw thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should
Carefully perform the head tilt chin lift maneuver
Battery
Causing bodily harm to or restraining a person
According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube?:
Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese
Chest thrusts
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
What is most important to assess during patient assessment during secondary assessment? Airway Pulse Respiration Chief complaint
Chief complaint
Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct? (Needs options)
Children have a larger, rounder occiput compared to adults
Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? a) Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. b) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. c) In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. d) Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by
Compressing the sternum between the nipples
Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct?
Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.
You are treating a middle aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for for Chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should
Confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and the dose
Expressed consent
Consent given by adults who are of legal age and mentally competent to make a rational decision in regard to their medical well being
Implied consent
Consent it is presumed a patient or patients parent or guardian would give if they could, such as for an unconscious patient or a parent who cannot be contatced when care is needed
What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light? Fluttering Dilation Constriction No effect
Constriction
The purpose of a Jump Kit is to:
Contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care
To determine blood pressure, the EMT should position the cuff over the upper arm and place the stethoscope over the brachial artery. Next, she should inflate the cuff, then slowly deflate the cuff, listening for clicks or tapping sounds whi le remembering the number at the first sound. What is the next step in taking a blood pressure? Dump all the pressure and record the number as the diastolic pressure. Re-inflate the cuff on the patient's arm and repeat the process to verify the reading. Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure. Remove the cuff from the patient's arm, place it on the opposite arm, and repeat the process to verify the reading.
Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.
Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff? Covering two-thirds of the upper arm Midway between the elbow and shoulder One inch below the armpit Covering the patient's elbow
Covering two-thirds of the upper arm
Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?
Crowning of the baby's head
A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
D
A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. B. ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. D. placing her in an upright position.
D
A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.
D
Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heart beat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.
D
Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. irregular heartbeat. B. sudden unexplained sweating. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. pain exacerbated by breathing.
D
Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. B. syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. C. tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness. D. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.
D
Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest with one pad to the: A. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple. B. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple. C. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right and below the left nipple. D. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the left and below the left nipple.
D
Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angina pectoris. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.
D
Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: A. properly position the defibrillation pads. B. perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. C. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest. D. ensure that no one is touching the patient.
D
The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: A. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen. C. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route. D. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly.
D
The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. excitability. B. contractility. C. impulsivity. D. automaticity.
D
The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: A. parietal lobe. B. pons and medulla. C. somatic nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.
D
The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. A. coronary sinus, vena cava B. aorta, inferior vena cava C. vena cava, coronary veins D. coronary arteries, aorta
D
The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot. B. above the lateral malleolus. C. in the fossa behind the knee. D. behind the medial malleolus.
D
Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.
D
Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? A. superior vena cava B. pulmonary arteries C. inferior vena cava D. pulmonary veins
D
Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. extra ventricular beats D. ventricular tachycardia
D
Which of the following is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining medical history information from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? A. history of cigarette smoking B. history of previous heart attack C. presence of personal risk factors D. family history of hypertension
D
Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. B. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.
D
Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? A. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling. B. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes. C. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes. D. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.
D
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A) C1 and C2. B) C3 and C4. C) C1, C2, and C3. D) C3, C4, and C5.
D) C3, C4, and C5.
When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should: A) theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred. B) include the results of his or her internal vaginal exam. C) include a description of the suspected perpetrator. D) avoid speculation and document only factual data.
D) avoid speculation and document only factual data.
You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A) insert an oropharyngeal airway. B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C) perform a focused secondary exam. D) immediately request ALS support.
D) immediately request ALS support.
The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves: A) placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. B) assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. C) surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged. D) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
D) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unconscious, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: A) massive hemothorax. B) tension pneumothorax. C) pericardial tamponade. D) laceration of the aorta.
D) laceration of the aorta.
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A) should be placed in Trendelenburg's position. B) is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C) has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find: A) jugular venous engorgement. B) ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C) distant or muffled heart tones. D) signs and symptoms of shock.
D) signs and symptoms of shock.
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A) the diaphragm descends. B) abdominal contents descend. C) intrathoracic pressure decreases. D) the intercostal muscles contract.
D) the intercostal muscles contract.
You are administering oxygen to a 25-year-old male with a heart rate of 120. To verify the effectiveness of your therapy, you would expect to see the patient's heart rate: Decrease. Increase. Remain the same. Become irregular.
Decrease.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epinephrine
Decreases heart rate and blood pressure
After the patients airway is intubated during two rescuer CPR you should
Deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds
Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct? A.Multiple bacteria have been identified as being the cause of SARS. B. SARS is most commonly transmitted by direct contact with blood. C. The onset of SARS is typically marked by acute, severe pneumonia. D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flulike symptoms.
D. SARS is a viral infection that often begins with flulike symptoms.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), rales, and dependent edema are clinical indicators of: A. emphysema. B. severe pneumonia. C. bronchitis or asthma. D. congestive heart failure.
D. congestive heart failure.
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and: A. audible stridor. B. rales and rhonchi. C. profound cyanosis. D. expiratory wheezing.
D. expiratory wheezing.
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. rupture of the diaphragm B. exacerbation of his COPD C. acute pulmonary embolism D. spontaneous pneumothorax
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: A. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase since this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. C. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A.quiet breathing B.belly breathing C.fear or anxiety D.head bobbing
D.head bobbing
Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A.mother younger than 20 years B.mother smoked during pregnancy C.low birth weight D.putting a baby to sleep on his or her back
D.putting a baby to sleep on his or her back
Advance directive
DNR order; instructions written in advance of an event
What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? Venous pressure Systolic blood pressure Diastolic blood pressure Resting blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following? Make an accurate diagnosis of the patient's illness. Compare your patient's condition with other patients' conditions. Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form.
Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition.
Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do?
Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.
Negligence must be proved (3 ways)
Duty to the patient Did not provide the standard of care Proximate causation Damages
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based Mostly on...?
EMS research
Standard of care
EMT providing care for a specific patient in a specfic situation, the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for patient in a similiar situation
With regard to the legal implications of child abuse
EMT-Bs must report all suspected cases of child abuse
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mother experience:
Easier breathing
Which of the following statements regarding the cranium is correct? A. The skull is a subdivision of the cranium. B. Thirty percent of the cranium is occupied by blood. C. The cranium protects the structures of the face. D. Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue.
Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue.
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
Ensure the vehicle is stable.
How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an AED? Every 10 minutes Every 15 minutes Every 2 minutes Every 5 minutes
Every 5 minutes
Three types pf consent
Expressed, implied, consent
Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that:
Facilitates moment through the digestive system
Libel
False injurious information in written form
Slander
False injurious information stated verbally
Which of the following factors is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis?
Female gender
You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You should: Move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate Continue to take her blood pressure in the arm. Find another site to measure her blood pressure. Use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead.
Find another site to measure her blood pressure.
You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds? Cardiac arrest A complete airway obstruction Fluids in the airway The tongue blocking the airway
Fluids in the airway
Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?
Focus on delivering high-quality patient care..
You are treating a 45 year old woman who was stung by a hornet and ha a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is un labored, and her blood pressure is 154/94mm. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control ?
Give her oxygen,transport her to the hospital, and monitor her condition en route.
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct
Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic
Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct?
Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
A 66-year-old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his heart rate is elevated. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him?
Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:
Headache and edema
HIPAA
Health insurance portability and accountability act, which includes the privacy rule protecting the privacy of patient specific health care information and providing the patient with control over how this information is used and distributed
Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct?
Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels.
Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct?
Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.
You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92. His repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. His condition is called: Stroke. Prehypertension. Hypertension. Hypotension.
Hypertension.
The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is:
Hypoglycemia
Pulse oximeter.You have a 38-year-old who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the EMT, you attach the device on the patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading indicate? Significant hypoxia Severe hypoxia Normal results Hypoxia
Hypoxia
Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.
Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
I
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct?
If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand
Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct?
If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head
Gastric sistention will most likely occur
If you ventilate a patient too fast
You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the MOST appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance?
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench
Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
In loco parentis
In place of parent, indicating a person who may give consent for care of a child when the parents are not present or able to give consent
Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct:
In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.
You are administering oxygen to a 25-year-old male with an oxygen saturation of 90 percent. To verify the effectiveness of your therapy, you would expect to see the patient's oxygen saturation: Decrease. Increase. Remain the same. Become irregular.
Increase
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include?
Increased stability due to a wider wheelbase
A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medication via the
Intranasal route
Which of the following medications routes would be the most appropriate to use in an unconscious patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained
Intraosseous (IO)
Which of the following is the most rapidly acting medication administration route?
Intravenous(IV)
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she
Is unconscious, uninsured, and breathing adequately
Why is the skin temperature such an important vital sign? It can provide information about the patient's ability to maintain normal body temperature. It can provide reportable information about the patient's level of consciousness, a drop in oxygen, and if the blood vessels in the brain constrict, which could indicate a life-threatening problem. It can provide reportable information about the patient's breathing, a drop in oxygen, and if the blood vessels in the skin constrict, which could indicate a life-threatening problem. It can provide valuable information about the patient's circulation, a drop in perfusion, and if the blood vessels in the skin constrict, which could indicate a life-threatening problem.
It can provide valuable information about the patient's circulation, a drop in perfusion, and if the blood vessels in the skin constrict, which could indicate a life-threatening problem.
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?
It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? a) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint. b) Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. c) Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. d) Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage.
It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? a) Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. b) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint. c) Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. d) Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it.
It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?
It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.
Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct?
It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans.
Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct?
It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.
Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct?
It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to the hospital should state your patient is: Flushed. Mottled. Jaundiced. Cyanotic.
Jaundiced.
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patients airway when a spinal injury is suspected
Jaw thrust
Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30-year-old male complains of referred pain to the left shoulder. This finding is called the:
Kehr sign.
The increase in the work of breathing is reported as: Labored breathing. Troubled breathing. Nosey breathing. Obstructed breathing.
Labored breathing.
When pupils are dilated they are: Elliptical or elongated in shape. Smaller than normal. Larger than normal. Irregularly shaped.
Larger than normal.
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.
Res ipsa loquitur
Latin for the thing speaks for itself
Safe haven law
Law that permits a person to drop off an infant or child at a police, fire or ems station or to deliver the infant or child to any available public safety personnel. The intent of the law is to protect childern who may otherwise be abandon or harmed
An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?
Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
Abandonment
Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training
Do not resuscitate order
Legal document, usuallu signed by the patient and his physician, which states that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts
Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct?
Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously.
Assault
Placing a person in fear of bodily harm
The impedance threshold device may improve circulation during CPR by:
Limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions which result in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling
Crime scene
Location where a crime has been committed or any place that evidence relating to a crime may ve found
of this patient's presentation, you should suspect:You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis
Lyme disease.
Primary ethical consideration
Make patient care and well being a priority even if this requires some personal sacrifice
A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it
May cause harm or have no positive effect
The abbreviation mmHg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? Minimum heart rate Millimeters of mercury Millimeters of water Atmospheric pressure
Millimeters of mercury
Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct?
Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.
Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? a) Posterior dislocations are most common. b) They are caused by forced arm adduction. c) They involve the acromion process and humerus. d) Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly.
Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly.
Which of the following statements regarding twins is MOST correct?
Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.
When gathering a patients medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix,Mortion,and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over the counter(OCT)
Motrin
You are called to care for a chi ld who has fal len out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the chi ld in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as: Mottled. Flushed. Jaundiced. Cyanotic.
Mottled.
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Move to the opposite side of the patients chest
Children begin to develop their self-concept and self-esteem during what period of growth?
School age
You respond to a 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and why? Yes, blood pressure must be taken on everyone because without it we cannot impact the patient's field management. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 can cause damage to the tender tissues of the arm that could lead to hypertension in later life. Yes, blood pressure can be taken on children because it is the only way we can understand the patient's condition. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management.
No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management.
Basic life support is defined as:
Noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest
An oxygen saturation of 97 percent is considered which of the following? Severe hypoxia Normal Hypoxia Significant hypoxia
Normal
SAMPLE history
OPQRST Onset Provocation or pallination Quality Region/radiation Severity Timing
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct?
OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge.
Confidentiality
Obligation not to reveal information obtained about a patient except to other health care professionals involved in the patient's care or under subpoena or in a court of law or when the patient has signed a release of confidentiality
Duty to act
Obligation to provide care to a patient
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:
Observe the scene for safety hazards
You are attempting to assess the blood pressure of a 35-year-old male at the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. The scene is very noisy and you are unable to clearly hear the patient's heartbeat. You should: Use an automatic blood pressure machine. Obtain the blood pressure by palpation. Try using the patient's other arm. Have your partner try auscultating the blood pressure.
Obtain the blood pressure by palpation.
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9 month out infant is:
One third the diameter of the chest or about 1.5
Persons who are 61 years old or older
late adults
Ayer establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive you should:
Open the airway
Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption
Oral
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance?
PASG pneumatic anti shock garment
What are the three ways to take blood pressure? Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure monitor, and heart monitor Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor Auscultation, palpation, and osculation
Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause a patient to slur words, speak very slowly, or speak in a monotone?
Parkinson disease
Patient that refuses care, several conditiona must be fullfilled
Patient must be legall able to consent Patient must be awake and ortiented Patient must be fully informed Patient will be asked to sign a release form
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct?
Patients with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration.
Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct?
Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct?
Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
In _____ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner
Peer-assisted
Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive patient apneic 30 year old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should:
Perform 30 chest compressions
Consent
Permission from the patient for care or other action by the EMT
Organ donor
Person who has completed a legal document that allows for donation of organs and tissues in the event of death
Physician order for life sustaining treatment (POLST)
Physician orders that state not only the patients wishes regarding resuscitation attempts but also the patients wishes of artificial feeding, antibiotics, and other life sustaining care if the person is unable to state his desired later
Shortly after assisting a 65 yet old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should:
Place her supine and elevate her legs
Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature? Place your cheek against the patient's forehead. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen.
Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.
When arriving at the scene of an over turned tractor-trailer rig, you notice that a green cloud is being emitted from the crash vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should?
Position the ambulance upwind
What category would include a patient with a blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg? Hypotension Normotension Hypertension Prehypertension
Prehypertension
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heat attack because it
Prevents the aggregation of platelets
CPR will not be effective if the patient is
Prone
You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pulse? Pulse 20, weak, and regular Pulse 20 and weak Pulse 40 and weak Pulse 40, weak, and irregular
Pulse 40 and weak
The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called Capnography. Sphygmomanometer. End tidal CO meter. Pulse oximeter.
Pulse oximeter.
Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure
Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure
radius
lateral bone of the forearm
In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially? Brachial Radial Carotid Pedal
Radial
You respond to a high school football field on a hot, humid day to find a 16-year-old male complaining of dizziness and weakness after playing football for an hour. Which of the following would you expect his vital signs to be? Normal pulse, blood pressure, and skin Rapid pulse, high blood pressure, and hot, dry skin Slow pulse, low blood pressure, and cool, dry skin Rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and sweaty skin
Rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and sweaty skin
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action?
Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag
You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110. The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80. You should: Ignore the blood pressure reading. Have the driver increase truck speed. Apply the automatic cuff to the other arm. Re-measure the blood pressure manually.
Re-measure the blood pressure manually.
A 31 year old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should
Reassess the patients and document her response to the medication
Ethical
Regarding a social system or social or professional expectations for applying principles of right and wrong
Moral
Regarding personal standards or principles of right an wrong
General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Regularly using the siren as much as possible.
When given to patients with cardiac related chest pain nitroglycerin
Relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries
You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should
Remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medic ovation patch over the same area where one of the AED Pads will be placed. You should:
Remove the medication patch, wipe away and medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by
Respiratory arrest
Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct?
SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure.
Scope of practice
Set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the scope, or extent and limits, of the emt's job
Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the following? Labored breathing Normal breathing Noisy breathing Shallow breathing
Shallow breathing
Bruising to the _______ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse.
Shins
Your patient has a rapid, regular, and thready pulse. Which of the following is a possible cause of this finding? Exertion Shock Fright All of the above
Shock
Hypoperfusion is another name for:
Shock.
After taking Benadryl for an allergic reaction a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of an
Side effect
When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things? Movement, gaze, and equality Color, equality, and reactivity Reactivity, gaze, and equality Size, equality, and reactivity
Size, equality, and reactivity
Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT
Slowed level of activity
Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are: Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing, and crowning. Retractions, diaphragmatic breathing. Tachycardia, retractions, diaphragmatic breathing. Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing.
Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing.
Negligence
Something that should have been done was not done or was done incorrectly
Actions to persuade a patient to the hospital
Spend time speakig with the patient Listen carefully to try to determine why yhe patient is refusing care Inform the patient of the consequences of not going to the hospital Consult medical direction Ask the patient if it is all right of you call a family memeber-or adivse the patient that you would lole to call a family member Call law enforcement personnel if necessary
How is nitroglycerin usually given by the emt
Sublingually
You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next action? Suction the airway. Insert an airway adjunct. Open the airway with a head tilt. Quickly check the pulse.
Suction the airway.
It is 10:30pm and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should?
Survey the area for power lines or other hazards
Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation is most correct
Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-vin persists
Activated charcoal is an example of
Suspension
When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the: Pulse pressure. Systolic blood pressure. Diastolic blood pressure. Central venous pressure.
Systolic blood pressure.
In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins
Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries
A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? Dyscardic Normocardic Tachycardic Bradycardic
Tachycardic
You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? Bradycardic Normal for the chi ld's age Tachycardic Unable to determine without knowing the family history
Tachycardic
In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
What does the NREMT provide?
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct?
The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.
The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out.
The main benefit of using. Mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest compressions is
The elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto injector is correct?
The epinephrine auto injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation?
The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.
Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is MOST correct?
The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
Which of following statement regard the rapid extrication technique is correct?
The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle
Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct?
The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle
Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?
The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.
Anatomical Position
The standard reference position for the body in the study of anatomy
The term pharmacology is most accurately defined as
The study of drugs and their actions on the body
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
There is no vaccine against HIV infection.
Which of the following statements regarding use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) in children is MOST correct?
They are rarely used in treating children with traumatic shock.
Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? a) They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. b) They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. c) They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. d) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.
They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.
Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct?
They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.
You respond to a nursing home to find an elderly patient with a pulse of 100, blood pressure of 100/60, respiratory rate of 12, and cool, pale skin. Which of the following describes this set of vital signs? They are normal. They indicate the patient is criticallyill. They will serve as a basis of comparison for later vital signs. The patient is stable and will not require additional vital signs during transport.
They will serve as a basis of comparison for later vital signs.
Which of the following is an example of a brand(trade). Name of a drug
Tylenol
Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed
Until he or she loses consciousness
Which of the following occurs during true labor?
Uterine contractions become more regular
You are assessing an 82-year-old female that has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your pulse oximeter shows her oxygen saturation to be 82 percent even though she appears to be breathing adequately. In order to ensure an accurate reading you should: Try a different pulse oximeter. Place the probe on the patient's toe. Place the probe on the patient's earlobe. Warm the patient's hands and try again.
Warm the patient's hands and try again.
A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having:
West Nile virus.
In preconventional reasoning, children:
act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should:
apply direct pressure above and below the wound.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.
constricted pupils.
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:
acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you are going to take good care of her.
To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the:
abdomen.
Question 11 The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
abdominal or joint pain.
The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
abdominal or joint pain.
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
abnormal spinal curvature
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:
absent urine output
The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as:
acceptance..
When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should:
acknowledge the death of their child in private.
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.
acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.
The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to:
activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible..
The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process.
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
adequate amounts of surfactant.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
When caring for a child with suspected meningitis, it is MOST important for the EMT-B to
adhere to BSI precautions
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
You are assessing a 30-year-old woman who is 35 weeks' pregnant. She tells you that her amniotic sac has not ruptured, but she is experiencing irregular contractions that "come and go." Upon visual inspection, you note a small amount of brown mucus draining from her vagina. You should
administer oxygen and transport.
Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18 month old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes:
administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother.
Persons who are 12 to 19 years of age
adolescents
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should:
advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit
A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should:
advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.
In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called:
aerobic metabolism.
7 months
afraid of strangers; mood swings
When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after the torso has been adequately secured. B. after moving the patient to a long backboard. C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.
after assessing distal neurovascular functions.
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient
after receiving approval from the extrication officer
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
after the primary assessment has been completed.
When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
When assessing an 80-year old patient in shock, it is important to remember that:
age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.
A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should:
aggressively manage his airway
subcutaneous emphysema
air bubbles under the skin, producing crackling sound
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
air splint
The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:
airway compromise.
The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are MOST commonly associated with
alcohol
According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA):
all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay.
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS
allow the family to observe if they wish
What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
allows movement of the head
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:
alveolar sacs.
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts informed consent?
an EMT advises a patient of the risk of receiving treatment
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have: a) an accompanying spinal injury. b) a history of diabetes mellitus. c) a severe intracranial hemorrhage. d) internal bleeding in the abdomen.
an accompanying spinal injury.
A 26-year-old woman complains of a stabbing pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. She states that her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and that she had pelvic inflammatory disease approximately 3 months ago. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing
an ectopic pregnancy
A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for
an ectopic pregnancy
The primary mechanism that a child's body uses to compensate for decreased perfusion is
an increase in heart rate
appendix
an organ that is not well understood, but, when inflamed, can cause apendicitis
Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a nonrebreathing mask?
an unresponsive 5 year old male with shallow respirations
You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with?
anger
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects.
As an EMT, the performance or your duties will be compared to that of:
another EMT
A bond between an infant and his or her parent or caregiver in which the infant is repeatedly rejected and develops an isolated lifestyle that does not depend on the support and care of others.
anxious-avoidant attachment
what is the largest artery in the body?
aorta
The components of the PAT are
appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation
An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:
apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device
When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from their vehicle, you should..
apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard
You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should:
apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself..
A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to
maintain stabilization of the spine at all times
A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should:
apply direct pressure to her arm wound.
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: a) splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. b) carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. c) apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. d) make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old patient in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do?
apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
applying local direct pressure.
Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT:
apprising the medical director of the nature of the call
When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should
approach the aircraft from the downhill side
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
During your monthly internal quality(QI) improvement meeting, you review several patient care reports(PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you:
are in violation of HIPPA because you did not remove from the PCR beforhand
pharynx
area directly posterior to the mouth and nose. made uo of the oropharynx and the nasopharynx
nasopharynx
area directly posterior to the nose
where is blood pressure measured?
arteries
pulmonary arteries
arteries that carry deoxygenate blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs, where the blood receives its oxygen
coronary arteries
arteries that supply the heart with its own blood
The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the:
arterioles.
posterior tibial artery
artery of the foot, behind the medial ankle
dorsalis pedis artery
artery of the foot, lateral to the large tendon of the big toe
radial artery
artery of the lower arm. felt when checking pulse
brachial artery
artery of the upper arm, used to check an infant's pulse
femoral artery
artery that supplies the leg with blood
In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: a) gliding cartilage. b) synovial tendons. c) articular cartilage. d) muscular fascia.
articular cartilage.
Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used?
as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should:
ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should
ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should
ask the patient if he can unlock the door
When interacting with a developmentally disabled patient, the best approach is to:
ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.
Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness?
asking questions related to the chief complaint
Which of the following is an example of a drugs generic name
asprin
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:
assault
A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for:
blunt injury to the kidney.
After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.
assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.
A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unconscious, pale, and apneic. You should:
assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds.
You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks' pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the appropriate BSI precautions, you should
assess her for crowning.
A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should:
assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse.
You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should:
assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.
A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:
assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impared
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to ...?
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should:
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
You respond to a skate park where a 10-year-old male fell from his skateboard and struck his head on the ground; he was not wearing a helmet. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has a large hematoma to the back of his head. After your partner stabilizes his head and opens his airway, you assess his breathing and determine that it is slow and irregular. His pulse is slow and bounding. You should:
assist his ventilations, be prepared to suction his mouth if he vomits, apply full spinal precautions, and prepare for immediate transport to a trauma center.
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:
assist the patient's ventilations.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume. The MOST appropriate airway management for her includes: A. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min. B. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. D. assisting ventilations at an age-appropriate rate.
assisting ventilations at an age-appropriate rate.
A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should:
assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:
at least one EMT
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler
at the hands or feet
a disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow.
atherosclerosis
A 2 year old female has experienced a seizure. when you arrive at the scene, that child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should:
attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport
Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:
attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.
Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should
attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head
If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should:
attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
attempted suicide
The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. autonomic D. voluntary
autonomic
A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:
avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement.
body
When controlling bleeding from a scalp laceration with a suspected underlying skull fracture, you should: a) elevate the patient's head and apply an ice pack. b) avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage. c) apply firm compression for no longer than 5 minutes. d) apply manual pressure and avoid applying a bandage.
avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage.
You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.
To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should
avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.
When caring for an ill 5-year-old male, you should
avoid separating him from his parents or caregivers when possible.
When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should
avoid speculation and document only factual data.
index of suspicion
awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist
inferior
away from the head
Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is MOST correct? a) Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car b) Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries c) The child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's d) Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma
b) Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries.
Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is MOST correct? a) SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection b) Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months of age c) The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy d) Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable
b) Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months of age.
Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: a) scalding water in a bathtub b) entrapment in a structural fire c) exposure to caustic chemicals d) hot items on a stovetop
b) entrapment in a structural fire
Common complications associated with central intravenous (IV) lines include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) clotting of the line b) rupture of a central vein c) bleeding around the line d) a local infection
b) rupture of a central vein
Which of the following is NOT a component of the APGAR score?
body size
Continuing education in EMS serves to..?
maintain, update and expand your knowledge and skills
An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).
formation of a close, personal relationship
bonding
The MOST appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:
basket strecher
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
be capable of delivering oxygen 1-15 liters per min
When assessing or providing care to a patient with a developmental disability, you should:
be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with
blowout fracture.
an emt may injure his or her back even if it is straight, if the?
back is bent forward at the hips
An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the
back is bent forward at the hips.
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in:
barometric pressure.
Injury resulting from pressure disequilibrium across body surfaces; for example, from too much pressure in the lungs.
barotrauma
An 8-year-old female with a history of asthma continues to experience severe respiratory distress despite being given multiple doses of her prescribed albuterol by her mother. She is conscious, but clearly restless. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. She is receiving high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. You should:
be prepared to assist her ventilations, transport at once, and request an ALS intercept en route to the hospital.
You have been tasked by your director to assist in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to:
be reasonable and realistic to avoid overburdening your personnel
When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:
be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time
You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60 year old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should
begin CPR and apply an AED as soon as it is available
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located you should:
begin resuscitation at once
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious, has slow, shallow breathing, and has week pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient; however, they are unable to locate it. You should:
begin treatment and contact medical control as needed
When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:
begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the automated external defibrillator(AED) as soon as possible
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:
begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique
When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as:
behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage.
By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's
belly button
When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie:
below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen and protecting his spine, you should: a) splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport immediately. b) apply the PASG to stabilize his femurs and transport at once. c) apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. d) bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.
Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it:
binds with the hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the
birth canal
An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?
bleeding control supplies
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of
bleeding in the brain
When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag mask device, the EMT should:
block the pop off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise
Bone marrow produces: a) electrolytes. b) lymphocytes. c) blood cells. d) platelets.
blood cells.
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to:
blood clotting abnormalities.
Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.
The term "hyphema" is defined as
blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
Signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia) include all of the following, EXCEPT
blood in the urine
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad? A. blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min B. blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min respirations, 10 breaths/min C.blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min D.blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min
blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min
Pale skin in a child indicates that the
blood vessels near the skin are constricted.
capillary
blood vessels where the o2/c02 exchange in the bodies cells takes place
Syphilis is a:
bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin.
The musculoskeletal system refers to the: a) nervous system's control over the muscles. b) bones and voluntary muscles of the body. c) connective tissue that supports the skeleton. d) involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
nasal bones
bones of the nose
skull
bony structure of the head
The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is:
bradycardia
The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to:
bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.
brain and spinal cord.
Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with
brain injury.
The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex
brain stem
Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the:
brain.
stridor
brassy crowing sound prominent on inspiration, suggest a mildly occluded airway cause by swelling
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): a) abnormality in the structure of a bone. b) disruption in the midshaft of a bone. c) break in the continuity of the bone. d) total loss of function in a bone.
break in the continuity of the bone.
sternum
breastbone
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:
breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord
arteries
bring blood away from the heart
3 months
bring objects to teh mouth; can smile adn frown
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
bronchus
how is a pulse taken?
by pressing an artery over a bone
Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? a) Loss of consciousness b) Seizures and hypoxia c) Nausea and vomiting d) Spinal cord injury
c) Nausea and vomiting
Which of the following statements regarding preschool-age children is MOST correct? a) The preschool age begins after the child turns 2 years old b) They realize that injuries are not a form of punishment c) They can usually identify painful areas when questioned d) Preschoolers are usually not fearful of pain or separation
c) They can usually identify painful areas when questioned.
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. C. hangings. D. compression.
hangings.
The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: a) a hypoxic seizure. b) cerebral edema. c) a skull fracture. d) acute hypotension.
cerebral edema.
A service dog is easily identified by its:
harness.
The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges
cerebrum
which spinal section is most likely to be injured?
cervical
order of the vertebrae sections
cervical (7) thoracic (12) lumbar (5) sacrum coccyx
The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected:
cervical spine injuries.
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
carbon dioxide
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT:
carbon dioxide deficiency.
While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:
carefully exceed the posted speed limit
A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:
carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:
careless handling of sharps..
central pulses
carotid pulses femoral pulses can be felt at central parts of the body
The umbilical cord
carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
motor nerves
carry messages from brain to the body
An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum based product because it may
cause the child to vomit
Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature
caused by inability of the body to cool itself
jaundice
caused by liver disease or dysfunction, resulting in the patient's skin and sclera turning yellow
The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it:
causes severe local tissue damage.
Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. brain stem.
cerebellum.
A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.
cerebral concussion.
In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve:
checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin.
zygomatic arches
cheek bones
Children with Neisseria meningitidis (N. meningitidis) would MOST likely present with
cherry-red spots or a purplish rash
thorax
chest
Which of the following statement regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct?
children have larger, rounder occiput compared to adults
Tuberculosis
chronic bacterial disease, caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis that usually affects the lungs but can also affect other organs such as the brain and kidneys
Vagal nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with:
chronic seizure disorders.
Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because
circulation to the skin is reduced.
what is the other name for the cardiovascular system?
circulatory system
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: a) radius and ulna. b) scapula. c) clavicle. d) midshaft femur.
clavicle.
If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:
clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
cleaning
normal breath sounds
clear and quite during inspiration and expiration
In order for a do not resuscitate(DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient's medical prblem
A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:
close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.
proximal
closer to the torso
personal protective equipment (PPE)
clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer
clavicle
collarbone
A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n):
colostomy.
An example of a prevention strategy is..
community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: a) assess proximal circulation. b) ask the patient to move the injured leg. c) carefully move it to elicit crepitus. d) compare it to the uninjured leg.
compare it to the uninjured leg.
red blood cells
components of the blood that carry oxygen to the cells and carbon dioxide away
platelets
components of the blood that help form blood clots when needed
white blood cells
components of the blood that help the body fight infection
Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: a) primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. b) stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. c) compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. d) compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain.
compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called:
conduction.
Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have:
congenital heart disease.
The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:
conjunctiva.
Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. somatic B. connecting C. peripheral D. autonomic
connecting
ureters
connects kidneys to bladder
peripheral nervous system
consists of sensory and motor nerves
integumentary system
consists of skin
General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include:
constant communication with your partners
While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should:
contact medical control and notify him or her of the error
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should..?
contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation
While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your most appropriate action should be to:
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash
small intestine
continues digestion and absorbs nutrients
The onset of labor begins with
contractions of the uterus
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should:
control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once
A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should:
control the bleeding with direct pressure.
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called
convection
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called:
convection.
a type of reasoning in which a child looks for approval from peers and society
conventional reasoning
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to:
converse with the patient and provide reassurance
To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
cough
A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should:
cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.
The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx.
cricoid
You are assessing a woman who was thrown from her horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should:
crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground.
What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
cumulative stress reaction.
Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
cyanosis.
Which of the following should make you MOST suspicious for child abuse? a) Willingness of the child to speak b) Worried or crying parents c) A laceration to the child's chin d) Bruises in various stages of healing
d) Bruises in various stages of healing
Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) headache and fever b) an altered mental status c) a stiff or painful neck d) sunken fontanels
d) sunken fontanels
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
stomach
digestion of food begins here
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
death from suffocation after submersion in water.
Putrefaction is defined as:
decomposition of the body's tissue
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
decontaminate
Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume?
deep respirations
Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it:
defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure..
A common cause of shock in an infant is:
dehydration from vomiting diarrhea
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: a) delaying transport of a critically injured patient. b) reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. c) aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. d) compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to:
demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice.
It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their coworkers because they
depend on each other for their safety.
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a defective sign of death?
dependent lividity
When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should:
depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.
When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should: A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal. B. rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain. C. defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory. D. ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.
determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
A placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as
development of the placenta over the cervical opening
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
deviation from the standard care that may result in further injury
Inhalation occurs when the:
diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured:
diaphragm.
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
has a greater ability to produce disease.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damage car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should
direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance
A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should:
disconnect the ventilator and use a bag-mask device.
A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the ventilator is malfunctioning. You should
discontinue the ventilator and ventilate with a BVM device
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? a) moderate sprain b) severe strain c) displaced fracture d) hairline fracture
displaced fracture
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause:
distention.
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
distrust of the EMT.
Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency?
diuretics
automatic nervous system
division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions
In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:
dizziness upon standing.
spleen
does some blood filtration and acts as a reservoir for blood
What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher?
draw sheet method
Where would you must likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor?
driver's license
Infection should be a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with:
drooling or congestion
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.
dura mater.
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
Persons who are 19-40 years of age
early adults
Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:
elasticity of the lungs decreases.
When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
electrolytes.
If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then:
elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets.
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT
emergency care provided at the scene
A 6 year old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. the child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should:
encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport
A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
encouraging him to cough and transporting.
After a baby is born, it is important to
ensure it is thoroughly dried and warm
The compliance monitoring component of an infection control plan should:
ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important..
You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert, but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should:
ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care
Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of an unconscious infant or child, you must:
ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions.
The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to:
ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is:
ensuring your personal safety..
Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient?
entering a vehicle through an open window
what are the 3 layers of the skin?
epidermis dermis subcutaneous layers
Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. cerebral contusion B. subdural hematoma C. cerebral concussion D. epidural hematoma
epidural hematoma
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
epiglottis
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:
epiglottis.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.
epinephrine.
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. a) diaphyseal b) greenstick c) epiphyseal d) metaphyseal
epiphyseal
Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?
esophagus
When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should:
establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.
Prior to applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:
evaluate the patient for potentially correctible cause of combativeness, such as head injury, hypoxia, or hypoglycemia
High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through:
evaporation.
The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called:
evaporation.
urethra
excretes urine from the penis or vagina
When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
exercise reasonable care and act prudently
You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should:
explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm.
What type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
expressed
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has broken her leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered?
expressed
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:
external respiration
A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area?
extremity lift
The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates
that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
orbits
eye sockets
It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.
fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.
The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT:
family history of hepatitis..
When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT to realize that:
family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS.
distal
farther away from the torso
palpate
feel
uterus
female organ that house the fetus
vagina
female organ that is responsible for sexual intercourse and allows the fetus to leave the body
ovaries
female organ that produces eggs
when assessing the heart rate of a 6 month old infant. you should palpate the brachial pulse or _____ pulse.
femoral
In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control?
femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:
fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing.
Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should
firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:
focus on his or her chief complaint.
A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should:
follow appropriate standard precautions.
Areas where the infant's skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age.
fontanelles
penetrating trauma
force of injury occurs at a small point of contact between the skin and the object
cardiac muscle
form of involuntary muscle that is found only in the heart
pulse
formed when the left ventricle contracts, sending a wave of blood through the arteries
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength
four
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher
If a newborn has gasping respirations after being dried and suctioned
further stimulation is not likely to improve ventilation.
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:
gastrointestinal bleeding.
nature of illness (NOI)
general type of illness a patient is experiencing
In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by:
generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase
focused assessment
generally preformed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant MOIs or on responsive medical patients
A 30-year-old pregnant female is gravida-3 and para-2. This means that she has
given birth to 2 live babies
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:
giving a verbal report to the triage clerk
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should
grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should:
gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes
An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by
grunting
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
guarding
metacarpals
hand bones
You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he:
has a history of eye surgeries.
Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she:
has a history suggestive of a serious illness
In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant:
has an even proportionately larger head.
The term primipara refers to a woman who
has had only one live birth.
EMS personnel would MOST likely be called to the residence of a patient receiving home health care when the home care provider:
has recognized a change in the patient's health status.
When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should:
have a female EMT remain with her if possible
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:
have been infected in the past.
A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who
have delivered a baby before
Patients with autism:
have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.
CPAP is indicated for patients who:
have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
hazardous materials gear
When a child experiences a blunt injury to the abdomen
he or she can compensate for blood loss better than adults.
Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
head
When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. head B. chest C. waist D. lower extremities
head
Air bags, in conjunction with properly worn seatbelts, are MOST beneficial when a person is involved in a:
head-on crash
What is included in the Cardiovascular system?
heart blood blood vessels
calcaneus
heel bone
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:
hematemesis.
A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is:
hematuria
Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if:
his or her tidal volume is adequate
When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of his or her problem?
history taking
Peritonitis, an intense inflammatory reaction of the abdominal cavity, usually occurs when:
hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
epinephrine
hormone produced by the body that is used to relieve allergic reactions by dilating respiratory passages
insulin
hormone produced by the pancreas that is critical to the body's use of glucose
The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to:
how rapidly he or she bleeds.
What deals with the well being of the EMT, career progression and EMT compensation?
human resources department
For which of the following conditions would you MOST likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt?
hydrocephalus
If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called:
hypercarbia.
Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) meningitis b) severe infection c) hyperglycemia d) child abuse
hyperglycemia
Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT
hyperglycemia
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia?
hyperglycemia
The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:
hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts
Advil,nuprin,and Motrin are brand(trade) names for the generic medication
ibuprofen
shallow respirations
identified by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to..:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the...?
individual EMT
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? a) if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain b) if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity c) when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent d) if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes
if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. immediate reassessment following the intervention. B. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after at least 10 minutes. D. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.
immediate reassessment following the intervention.
You and your partner are EMTs and have been dispatched to standby at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the fire fighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should:
immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should
immediately request addition resources
A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should
immobilize him with a vest-style device
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12′,landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. B. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. C. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine.
immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A hiker was injured when he fell approx 20' from a cliff. When you aarrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to
immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher
Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs?
immunity
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
implied
When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: a) into a fist. b) in a straight position. c) in a functional position. d) in an extended position.
in a functional position.
The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is
in the driver's compartment
hypoperfusion (shock)
inadequate perfusion of the body caused by insufficient flow of blood through the capillaries
nervous system
includes the brain, nerves, and spinal chord
Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:
incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an:
increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy?
increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
increased surface area available for air exchange.
Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs?
increased weight
systolic pressure
increases pressure that is caused along the artery with each contraction (systole) of the ventricles and the pulse wave it produces
In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT:
increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does this scenario describe?
indirect contact
rooting reflex
infant reflex that occurs when something touches their cheek, and the infant turns his or her head toward teh touch
Persons who are from 1 month to 1 year of age
infants
Compared to full-term infants, premature infants are at a higher risk for
infection
xiphoid process
inferior portion of the sternum
meningitis
inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain ad spinal cors, usually caused by a virus or bacterium
trauma emergencies
injuries that are the result of physical forces applied to the body
The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
injury to you or your patient.
A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:
inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask, and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should:
insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: A. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck. B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.
instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
The amniotic fluid serves to
insulate and protect the fetus.
Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the
intercostal muscles are not well developed.
The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is
internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy
The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
intersections
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of
intra-abdominal bleeding.
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
intra-abdominal bleeding.
Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.
intracerebral hematoma.
what kind of process is a heartbeat?
involuntary
In contrast to simple access, complex access
involves forcible entry into a vehicle
A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:
irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.
A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include:
irrigating his right eye laterally.
A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes:
irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water.
In contrast to inhalation, exhalation:
is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident
is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider:
is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:
is not a communicable disease.
The secondary assessment of a medical patient
is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself
By placing one hand on top of your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she:
is sick.
The cricoid cartilage:
is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that
is wrapped around the baby's neck.
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
isolation from the rest of the crew.
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the ABCs. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.
it causes a problem managing the ABCs.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.
it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because
it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism:
it must be able to evaporate from the body.
If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
it was not performed in the eyes of the law
Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?
jugular venous distention
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
just anterior to the tragus.
You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should
keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance.
When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs
keep the head end elevated
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to:
keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:
keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicle in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.
Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT
keeping bystanders at a safe distance
vital signs
key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's condition
Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as:
killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should
kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over
12 months
knows name, can walk
The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:
lacrimal gland.
Which of the following factors is NOT taken into consideration when assessing a person's potential for violence?
large physical size
You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if:
law enforcement is at the scene.
A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes:
leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.
what is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?
left ventricle
Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered
legal but unethical
You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should:
let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.
average amount of years a person can be expected to live
life expectancy
medical emergencies
life threats that require EMS attention because of illnesses or conditions not caused by outside force
While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you note that her air bag deployed. You should:
lift the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
The proper technique for using the power grip is to
lift with your palms up
Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move?
lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her
which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move?
lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her
Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: a) ligaments. b) tendons. c) bursa. d) cartilage.
ligaments.
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:
limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs? A. linear B. basilar C. open D. compressed
linear
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured?
liver
what is the larges organ in the body?
liver
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT for the:
liver.
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
liver.
You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should
load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation?
local swelling and ecchymosis
Which of the following is not considered to be protected health information(PHI)?
location of the call
You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to:
log roll him as a unit to a supine position.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
long backboard
The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by:
low blood oxygen levels.
mandible
lower jaw
Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to:
lower the pitch of your voice.
ischium
lower, posterior portions of the pelvis
prone
lying face down
supine
lying on the back
recovery position
lying on the side
You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should:
maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars
A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly asses her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should
maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated
You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should:
make her comfortable and provide emotional support.
penis
male organ that is responsible for sexual intercourse and the transfer of sperm
testes
male organ that produces sperm
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
The lower jawbone is called the
mandible.
At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should:
mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
The upper jawbones are called the.
maxillae.
Lacerations to the scalp: A. bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels. B. uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in children. C. may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries. D. are most commonly associated with skull fractures.
may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
If a person is partially immune to a particular disease, he or she:
may develop illness from germs that lie dormant from the initial infection.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you:
may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority
Febrile seizures in a child:
may indicate a serious underlying illness.
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: A. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury. C. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.
may lose sensation below the level of the injury.
As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress:
may not be obvious or present all the time.
tidal volume
measure of the depth of breathing and is the amount of air in milliliters that is moved into or out of the lungs during one breath
ulna
medial bone of the forearm
pubis
medial, anterior portion of the pelvis
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
medical director
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTS to perform emergency medical care in the field is the?
medical director
The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that:
meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
meningitis.
According to the terminal drop hypothesis:
mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death.
Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called:
metabolism.
aleveoli
microscopic sacs in the lungs where gas exchange with the bloodstream takes place
Persons who are 41-60 years of age
middle adults
A 6 month old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect
moderate dehydration
A 4 year old female ingested an unknown quantity of liquid drain cleaner. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and had skin burns around her mouth. You should:
monitor her airway and give oxygen
An infant reflex in which, when an infant is caught off guard, the infant opens his/her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things
moro reflex
A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of:
mottling and blisters.
vertebrae
the 33 bones of the spinal column
You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should:
move him into the cooled ambulance.
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
muscle
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: a) carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. b) muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. c) the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. d) increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.
muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.
voluntary muscle (skeletal muscle)
muscle that can be consciously controlled
involuntary muscle (smooth muscle)
muscles that respond automatically to brain signals but cannot be consciously controlled
diaphragm
muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. a major muscle of respiration
pertinent negatives
negative findings that warrant no care or intervention
When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of:
negligence
The first month of life after birth is MOST appropriately referred to as the
neonatal period
persons who are birth to 1 month of age
neonate
basic filtering units in the kidneys
nephrons
In contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by:
nerve damage.
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system.
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.
neurologic
The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: a) neurovascular compromise. b) total depletion of synovial fluid. c) ligament and cartilage damage. d) internal bleeding and shock.
neurovascular compromise.
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:
never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas
crepitus
noise of fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? a) open fractures of a long bone b) nondisplaced pelvic fracture c) an amputation of an extremity d) multiple closed long bone fractures
nondisplaced pelvic fracture
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should
not rule out compensated shock
The MOST accurate method for determining if you are delivering adequate tidal volume to a child during bag mask ventilations is to:
observe the chest for adequate rise
Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
of the risk for airway problems.
According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must:
offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure..
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
offer little or no side protection.
What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?
offline
Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is:
older than 8 to 10 years
When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her
on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2" to 4"
Bilateral
on both sides
Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date:
on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?
one at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso
scapula
the shoulder blade
You respond to a residence for a 9-year-old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should:
open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.
kidneys
organs that filter blood
lungs
organs where exchange of oxygen and waste carbon dioxide takes place
The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is:
overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.
what kind of blood do veins carry?
oxygen-poor, except for the pulmonary vein
A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes:
padding between the ear and the scalp.
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
pain and distention.
Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT:
pale skin.
an infant reflex that occurs when something is placed in the infant's palm; the infant grasps the object
palmar grasp
When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should:
palpate the abdomen for rise and fall
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
paralysis of intercostal muscles
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support is called a...
paramedic
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the...?
paramedic
Critical burns in children include
partial-thickness burns covering greater than 20% of the body surface
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. a) comminuted b) transverse c) greenstick d) pathologic
pathologic
sniffing position
patient sits upright with head and chin thrust slightly forward, and the patient appears to be sniffing
two- to three-word dyspnea
patient who can only speak 2-3 words without pausing to take a breath
tripod position
patient who is sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward
For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the:
patients medical history
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? a) an amputated extremity b) pelvic fracture with hypotension c) bilateral femur fractures d) nondisplaced long bone fractures
pelvic fracture with hypotension
The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is:
penetrating the cranium.
In order to evaluate hazards present at he scene and determine the number of patients, you should
perform a 360 walk-around of the scene
After using the PAT to form your general impression of a sick or injured child, you should:
perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should
perform a primary assessment
According to the Nation EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to ...
perform blood glucose monitoring
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:
perform oropharyngeal suctioning.
The _________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. peripheral
peripheral
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
Physiologic manifestations of stress include:
perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.
Autism is MOST accurately defined as a:
pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because
pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
sensory nerves
pick up information from around the body and transmit it to the spinal chord and brain
A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.
To ensure that the airway of an infant or small child is correctly positioned, you may have to:
place a towel or folded sheet behind the shoulders
After applying a pressure dressing to a laceration on a patient's arm, you notice that blood is slowly beginning to saturate it. You should:
place additional dressings over the wound.
When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to
place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders
Your assessment of a 23-year-old female reveals a core body temperature of 93.4°F (34°C). She is conscious, answers your questions appropriately, is shivering, and complains of nausea. Her skin is cold and pale, her muscles appear rigid, and her respirations are rapid. In addition to monitoring her ABCs, administering oxygen, and turning up the heat in the back of the ambulance, you should:
place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling.
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should
place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should
place him or her on a firm surface
When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to
place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs. B. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. C. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. D. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes
placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
what are the 4 main things blood is composed of?
plasma red blood cells white blood cells platelets
The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: a) obvious bruising. b) guarding. c) severe swelling. d) point tenderness.
point tenderness.
trendelenburg position
position when feet and legs are placed higher than the head
General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include:
positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.
Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include:
positioning, ice packs, and emotional support.
Crepitus and false motion are: a) most common with dislocations. b) positive indicators of a fracture. c) only seen with open fractures. d) indicators of a severe sprain.
positive indicators of a fracture.
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT:
positive-pressure ventilations
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:
possible spinal injury.
A type of reasoning in which a child bases decisions on his or her conscience
postconventional reasoning
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: a) a thoracic spine fracture. b) anterior hip dislocation. c) posterior hip dislocation. d) fracture of the tibia or fibula.
posterior hip dislocation.
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: a) a thoracic spine fracture. b) posterior hip dislocation. c) fracture of the tibia or fibula. d) anterior hip dislocation.
posterior hip dislocation.
SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)
potentially life threatening viral infection that usually starts with flulike symptoms
A type of reasoning in which a child acts almost purely to avoid punishment to get what he or she wants
preconventional reasoning
pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because:
pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: a) pelvic girdle. b) femoral shaft. c) pubic symphysis. d) proximal femur.
proximal femur.
You have just completed your primary assessment of a 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should:
prepare the patient for immediate transport.
Persons who are 3 to 6 years of age
preschoolers
blood pressure
pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries
The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to:
prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.
The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: a) facilitate ambulance transport. b) prevent further injury. c) make the patient comfortable. d) maximize distal circulation.
prevent further injury.
what is the function of the valve?
prevents blood in the ventricle from being forced up into the atrium when the ventricle contracts
You are treating a man with a closed head injury following an assault by a burglar. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should:
proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement if necessary
auscultation
process of listening to sounds the body makes by using a stethoscope
triage
process of sorting patients based on the severity of each patient's condition
liver
produces bile to assist in the breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in the body
pancreas
produces insulin
what is the function of the endocrine system?
produces many hormones that help regulate many body functions
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
profound tachycardia
Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:
prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include...?
proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
Compared to adults, the liver and spleen of pediatric patients are more prone to injury and bleeding because they are:
proportionately larger and situated more anteriorly.
You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should:
protect the affected part from further injury.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should
protect the cervical spine during the entire process
What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act(HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?
protecting patient prvacy
what is the function of the integumentary system?
protection water balance temperature regulation excretion shock absorption
standard precautions
protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for the use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease
malleolus
protrusion on the side of the ankle
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
provide competent care the meets current standards
Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant that has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should
provide emotional support to the mother
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critical injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to:
provide immediate patient care
A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should:
provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.
Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, reduced tidal volume, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should:
provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation
You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should:
provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once
If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/mins following delivery, you should:
provide ventilations for 30 seconds
history taking
provides details about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms 1. investigate the chief complaint (history of present illness) 2. obtain SAMPLE history
A unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) is..?
providing callers with life-saving instructions
Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?
providing safe entry and access to patients
9 months
pulls self up, places objects in mouth to explore them
tachycardia
pulse rate greater than 100 beats/min
bradycardia
pulse rate less than 60 beats/min
Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should
puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose.
When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear:
puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves.
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.
pupillary constriction.
respiratory system
purpose: ventilation and oxygenation the system of the nose, mouth, throat, lungs, and muscles that brings oxygen into the body and expels carbon dioxide
While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should
push the infant's head away from the cord
In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by:
pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:
put on high-visibility safety vests..
You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should:
quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient
peripheral pulses
radial pulses posterior tibial pulses dorsalis pedis pulses can all be felt at the outlying parts of the body
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:
radiation.
A patient with a core body temperature of 95°F (35°C) will MOST likely experience:
rapid breathing.
Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity?
rapid metabolism
4 months
reaches out to people; drools
what does the right ventricle do?
receives blood from the right atrium, then contracts and pumps blood to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries. at this point, blood is very low in oxygen. then, while in the lungs, oxygen is obtained and co2 is excreted. the new blood goes to the left atrium via the pulmonary veins
what does the right atrium do?
receives blood from the venue cavae veins and sends it to the right ventricle
what does the left ventricle do?
receives oxygen-rich blood from the left atrium and then contracts and pumps blood into the aorta, where it is then distributed all around the body
what does the left atrium do?
receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs, then contracts an sends blood to left ventricle
In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?
recent travel
2 months
recognize ramilair faces, track objects with eyes
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
red areas of skin.
Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: a) reduce pain and swelling. b) maintain extremity perfusion. c) prevent further injury. d) enhance tissue circulation.
reduce pain and swelling.
You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should:
reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations
palmar
referring to the palm of the hand
plantar
referring to the side of the foot
Golden Period
refers to the time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best
In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker:
regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.
A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:
shunt.
You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:
remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass
When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:
remain in the extreme left hand lane
Extrication is MOST accurately defined as
removal form a dangerous situation or position
You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:
remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
large intestine
removes water and waste products then moves waste towards excretion
Disentanglement involves
removing a patient from a dangerous position
General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected.
During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should:
repeat the primary assessment.
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
repeating the primary assessment.
When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to:
report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should:
report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation you should ensure your own safely and then
report to the incident commander for instructions
you and your partner respond to the scene of a 49 yr old male with acute abdominal pain. as you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. he is conscious and alert. the patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds your first action should be to?
request additional personnel before making any attempt to lift him
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the:
reservoir bag is fully inflated.
bladder
reservoir of urine
End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with:
respiratory distress.
Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of:
respiratory or circulatory failure.
8 months
responds to "no" can sit alone, plays peek a boo
10 months
responds to name, crawls
The optic nerve endings are located within the:
retina.
Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called:
retracting
A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should:
retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing: A. retrograde amnesia. B. anterograde amnesia. C. perigrade amnesia. D. posttraumatic amnesia.
retrograde amnesia.
The systemic veins function by:
returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
what are the 4 chambers of the heart?
right atrium right ventricle left atrium left ventricle
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
inspection
simply looking at your patient for abnormalities
fowler position
sitting position
When a child is struck by a car, the area of the greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the
size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact
When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use:
road flares
You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should:
roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway.
An infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infant's cheek, and the infant instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.
rooting reflex
Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT:
rupture of a central vein
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: a) fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. b) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. c) a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. d) significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.
rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: a) significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. b) rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. c) fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. d) a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.
rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
sacrum
A person who is 6 to 12 years of age
school age
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
seal the mouth and nose.
Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth
secretions can build up in and around the tube
Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth:
secretions can build up in and around the tube.
A bond between an infant and his/her parent or caregiver, in which the infant understands that his/her parents or caregivers will be responsive to his/her needs and take care of him/her when he or she needs help
secure attachment
When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should
secure the torso before the head
You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance..
Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory
sensory
Clingy behavior and fear of unfamiliar places and people, which usually occurs between ages 10 and 18 months, is called...
separation anxiety
Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient?
sexual activity
Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
shallow breathing
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of airway obstruction?
shallow breathing
Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel:
shamed
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is FIRST reflected onto the:
shoulder girdle
A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is called a
shunt
Moderate elevation in intracranial pressure with middle brain stem involvement is characterized by: A. increased blood pressure, bradycardia, reactive pupils, and rapid respirations. B. sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing. C. ataxic respirations, unequal pupils, no response to pain, and an irregular pulse. D. fixed and dilated pupils, decreased blood pressure, and irregular respirations.
sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing.
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
arteriole
smallest kind of artery
What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? a) smooth b) striated c) cardiac d) skeletal
smooth
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies?
snake bite kit
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. central B. sensory C. somatic D. autonomic
somatic
Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, EXCEPT:
spastic limb movement.
An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves:
speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.
spinal canal.
Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of left upper quadrant abdominal pain with referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the:
spleen.
A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: a) gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. b) splint the elbow in the position found and transport. c) apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling. d) gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation.
splint the elbow in the position found and transport.
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. a) sprain b) strain c) dislocation d) fracture
sprain
You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars, he is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should:
stabilize his head and check for a pulse
While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:
stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.
The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to
stand by at the command post until the person is located
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care
11 months
starts to walk, frustrated with restrictions
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the ..
state office of EMS
If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may:
stimulate the vagus nerve
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:
stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing
gallbladder
stores bile produced by liver
virulence
strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. a) striated b) smooth c) connective d) involuntary
striated
Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital?
stroke and heart attack
cricoid cartilage
structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx
epiglottis
structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea
Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
substance abuse
You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30′. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should:
suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.
suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because
suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid.
Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:
suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. mastoid process bruising. B. ecchymosis around the eyes. C. noted deformity to the skull. D. superficial scalp lacerations.
superficial scalp lacerations.
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
superficial.
manubrium
superior portion of the sternum
While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include:
supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.
As you and your team are removing an unconscious patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should
support the injured extremities and continue removal
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is
surveying the are for harzards
The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are:
sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels.
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?
syphilis
incident command system (ICS)
system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualties
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
systolic blood pressure.
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)?
tachycardia
When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:
take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.
When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to:
take quick short breaths
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
take standard precautions.
When assessing an 8-year old child, you should
talk to the child, not just the caregiver
Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their:
teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.
6 months
teething begins, sits upright in a chair, one-syllable words spoken
When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:
tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should:
tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: a) cartilage. b) ligaments. c) tendons. d) fascia.
tendons.
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: a) fascia. b) ligaments. c) cartilage. d) tendons.
tendons.
The theory that a person's mental function declines in the last 5 years of life.
terminal drop hypothesis
According to the CDC, recommended immunizations and tests include a:
tetanus-diphtheria booster every 10 years.
In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
that inadequate patient care was administered
mid-clavicular
the line through the center of each clavicle
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT
the make and model of the vehicle
tibia
the medial and larger bone of the lower leg
chief complaint
the most serious thing that the patient is concerned about
During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because
the mother may become nauseated and vomit.
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: a) the overlying skin is no longer intact. b) bone ends protrude through the skin. c) a bullet shatters the underlying bone. d) a large laceration overlies the fracture.
the overlying skin is no longer intact.
exhalation
the passive process in which the rib muscles and diaphragm relax, causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and air to flow out of the lungs
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: a) the patient history. b) the presence of deformity. c) distal circulation. d) bruising to the shoulder.
the patient history.
You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that:
the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: a) the patient is clinically unstable. b) deformity and swelling are present. c) the patient is in severe pain. d) transport time is less than 15 minutes.
the patient is clinically unstable.
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
the patient is competent and signs a release form
acetebulum
the pelvic socket into which the ball and the proximal end of the femur fits to the hip joint
Abruprio placenta occurs when:
the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall
In contrast to a placenta previa, a placenta abruptio occurs when
the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks' pregnant presents with a severe headache and swelling in her hands and feet. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg, a pulse of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. During transport, you should be MOST concerned with
the possibility that she may experience a seizure
Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when
the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava
EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because...?
the presence of a person training to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured
systolic blood pressure
the pressure created when the left ventricle contracts
diastolic blood pressure
the pressure created when the left ventricle is refilling with blood
pulse
the pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries
respiration
the process of moving O2 and CO2 between circulating blood and the cells
ventilation
the process of moving gases (O2 and CO2) between inhaled air and the pulmonary circulation of blood
palpation
the process of touching or feeling the patient for abnormalities
diastolic pressure
the residual pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxed phase of the heart's cycle (diastole), when the left ventricle is at rest
You are dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain; however, you are unfamiliar with the address and cannot find the location in your map book. A nearby police officer radios you and tells you that he knows how to get to the scene. You should:
turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene
You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should:
turn the backboard onto its side.
After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:
turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should
turn your headlights off
The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for
underestimating the logistics of the incident
maxillae
upper jaw
what are the 4 abdominal quadrants?
upper right quadrant (URQ) lower right quadrant (LRQ) upper left quadrant (ULQ) lower left quadrant (LLQ)
Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture?
urinary bladder
what is another name for the renal system?
urinary system
Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should:
use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle
The MOST efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to:
use a length based resuscitation tape measure
What should you do to properly position patient if you do not have a CPR board?
use a short or long board rolled up towel to raise shoulders
In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.
use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.
Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located?
using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible
From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery?
uterus
The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children:
vary widely,depending on the child's age and weight
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are:
vasoconstriction and shivering.
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
veins are under a lower pressure.
pulmonary veins
veins that bring oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart
The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the:
vena cava.
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
ventilation.
Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause:
ventricular fibrillation.
herpes simplex
virus caused by human herpesviruses 1 and 2, characterized by small blisters whose location depends on the type of virus. Type 2 results in blisters on the genital area, while type 1 results in blisters in non genital areas
larynx
voice box
The MOST common cause of dehydration in children is
vomiting and diarrhea.
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when:
warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:
warn oncoming traffic and try to prevent another crash
The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
wash your hands in between patient contacts.
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be
weakness or dizziness.
The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
wear at least three layers of clothing..
