Gunnery Skills Test Study guide
Airspeed above ________ eliminates rotor downwash error
33 knots (3-04.3 page C-21)
The software range limit for the 30mm is?
4200 meters (AWS SH D-22)
How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?
888 (AWS SH D-41)
With the _________ as the selected sight, lead-angle compensation is not computed or added to the gun turret or rocket pylon position command, nor is the target state estimator employed.
IHADSS (TC3-04.3 C-21)
May crewmembers use friendly affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations?
NO (ATM page 4-193, 4-198)
Is Projectile Jump compensated by WP/MP?
No (AWS SH D-73)
What exterior ballistic causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right?
Projectile drift (3-04.3 para C-30)
What causes a rocket to seek into a crosswind or impact past the target when fired during an accelerating climb?
Relative wind Effect (3-04.3 page PG C11 PARA C45)
What is the "Gunner's Triangle"?
Target ID, Heading, Range, Store (APG)
On preflight, the jettison plunger should be checked for proper gap to ensure __________________.
jettison will occur properly (ARS SH D-11)
Two electrical connectors on the top of the launcher provide fuzing and firing interface. The forward connector provides _________. The aft connector provides __________.
the fuzing, the firing circuit (ARS SH pg D-11)
Max ammunition with 100 gallon fuel cell integrated storage magazine for approximately_______ rounds.
(300 SH D-5)
The TOTAL ROCKETS status window will be displayed when _____________________________________. There is a difference between the number of rockets available for firing and the number of rockets actually of the selected type.
(ARS SH pg D-18)
Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the ARS page when in the cooperative mode?
(Yes ARS SH D-33)
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ____________ in elevation to prevent _______ into the ground during landing.
+11 digging (AWS SH D-14)
The pylons articulate independently through a range of _________________.
+4 to -15 (ARS SH D-09)
Wing Stores Pylons are commanded to the single fixed position of _____ degrees when the squat switch indicates airborne for more than ____ seconds.
+4, 5 (ARS SH D-09)
What is the elevation of the gun in the FIXED mode?
.87 (-10 p 4-141)
Arming of the Hellfire missile is based on a _____ acceleration and occurs between ____________ meters after launch.
10g legacy 150 to 300 enhance 375 to 500 (supplement to GM pg 5)
The bursting radius of the M151 HE "10 Pounder" is __________ and can produce a lethality radius in excess of __________.
10m 50 m (SH D-25)
What is the capacity of the 30mm ammo handling system?
1200 rounds max (AWS SH D-4)
Engagement at greater than _______________can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.
2,000 meters (TC3-04.3 p12-28)
The M789 HEDP can penetrate in excess of _________ of RHA at ____________.
2in 2.5 k (SH D-11)
The PEN button on the rocket control page may be used to defeat bunkers up to ________ thick when the BNK is selected.
3 meters (9.84ft) (ARS SH D-21)
When rockets are selected in the FXD mode the pylons are commanded to the fixed position of ______ degrees.
3.48 (ATM 4-157)
Low-altitude bump maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a ____ to _____ foot bump about _____ to _____ meters prior to the target.
300 to 1000, 1.5 to 2K (ATM 4-148)
The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If _____ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding _____ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ____________. Crewmembers should ____________________________________.
300, ten minutes, 30 minutes, remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control (-10 p4-144)
During live fire testing shows that rockets achieve their best effectiveness between ___________________________.
3000 to 5000 meters (ARS SH pg D-8)
At approximately ____ knots indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to_____.
33, zero (3-04.3 C-21 3-04.3)
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a ________ radius.
4 meter (SH D-11)
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the target should be located _____ to _____ meters in front of the aircraft.
500 to 1500 meters (AWS SH D-51)
The 30mm AWS is limited to _______ degrees with rockets actioned and ____ degrees on the side of the next missile to be fired with missiles actioned when on the inboard pylon
60, 52 (AWS SH D-18-19)
What is the rate of fire for the 30 mm cannon?
625 +/- 25 (AWS SH D-22)
What is the Maximum range for MK66 rockets?
7500 meters (ARS SH D-48)
With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A B E (ARS SH D-23)
Running fire performed at airspeeds _________ will offer a mix of _____________________ and _________________.
Above ETL, aircraft survival, weapons accuracy (ATM 4-148)
What are the Exterior Ballistics?
Air Resistance, Gravity, Yaw, Projectile Drift, Wind Drift (3-04.3 pg c5-8)
What determines the amount of lead required when firing off axis to the right or left?
Aircraft airspeed, angle of deflection, projectile velocity, and target range. (3-04.3 C-49, P C12)
What interior ballistic characteristics can the aircrew compensate for?
Aircrews cannot compensate for these characteristics when firing free-flight projectiles. (3-04.3 para C-13)
What is angular rate error and how do you prevent or minimize it?
Angular rate error is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. Steady platform. (3-04.3 p C-9)
What are the 30mm Gun turret azimuth and elevation limits (opposite crew member not action weapon) on the ground?
Azimuth 1) 86° left and right of aircraft centerline Elevation 1) +9° within 10° left and right of aircraft centerline 2) +11° from 10° left and right of aircraft centerline to 86° left and right Depression 1) -6.45° within 86° left and right of aircraft centerline (AWS SH D-16)
What are the Interior Ballistics?
Barrel Wear, Propellant Charges, Projectile Weight, Launcher Tube and Rocket Pod Alignment, Thrust Misalignment (3-04.3 pg C-5&6)
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
Black with yellow band (SH D-11)
What are the Terminal Ballistics?
Blast, Heat, and Fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition. (3-04.3 pg C-13)
What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round?
Blue with white strip (SH D-11)
Which firing technique is used in a medium to high threat environment?
Bump Technique (12-2 TC 3-04.3 pg 12-2)
If the aircrew enters the cooperative mode, the rocket page displayed is the CPG's for both crew members. Either crew member can make changes to the ________________ when in the cooperative mode.
CPG's rocket page (ARS SH D-15)
_________ training focuses on collective situational awareness, particularly at______. It includes training and assessment of the crew's ability to maintain awareness of the aircraft's heading and location in relation to both friendly and enemy forces.
Crew, night (3-04.3 pg 10-4)
During running rocket fire, align the helicopter into firing constraints with the _______ while maintaining ______________.
Cyclic, trim (ATM p 4-159)
What are the three inherent advantages of diving fire?
Decreased vulnerability to small-arms fire. Increased accuracy. Smaller beaten zone. (3-04.3 para 12-11)
Fragmentation pattern length ____________ with high-angle impacts.
Decreases (3-04.1 para C-54)
What are the three types of pull-off per dATM?
Descending, Level, Climbing (ATM task 4-149)
What are the most frequent situational awareness breakdown categories?
Direct fire control, Navigation, Reporting, Crosstalk, Battle tracking, Weapon errors (3-04.3 p10-2,3,4,5,6,7)
What types of control measures may be employed to prevent fratricide?
Direct fire weapon control measure, Indirect fire control measures, Rehearsals, Graphics, ROC-V (3-04.3 page 10-3 10-4)
If several projectiles are fired from the same weapon with the same elevation and deflection settings, the individual points of impact will be scattered about the aim point. The degree of scatter of these rounds is called _____________.
Dispersion
Define maximum effective range.
Distance at which there is a 50-percent probability of both hitting and defeating a target. (3-04.3 para C-10)
What is the "WARNING" associated with failure of adherence to the 30mm Gun Duty Cycle?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in a catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death. (-10, V4.1 pg 4-142)
T/F The aircrew cannot edit utilizing the weapons load page.
False (ARS SH pg D-15)
Describe the mil-relationship method of burst on target.
Fire a burst at the target. • Sense the impacts of the rounds and measure distance between mean point of impact (MPI) and the target using the sight symbology. • Using the known milliradian values (see appendix E) determine weapon impact distance from the target in range and deflection. • Make an appropriate change the range and azimuth settings and adjust the desired mean point of impact (DMPI). • Continue engagement (3-04.3 page 12-8)
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
Free-flight rockets have an inherent thrust misalignment, which is the greatest cause of error in free flight (3-04.3 page C6, para C-21)
What are the different "modes" the pylons can operate in?
Ground Stow, Flight Stow, Articulation, and Fixed. (ARS SH pg D-9)
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember when the active sight is _________ and __________; (CPG Only) _______.
HMD, FCR, MTADS (ARS SH D-32)
What are the negative effects of fratricide?
Hesitation to conduct limited-visibility operations. Loss of confidence in the unit's leadership. Increase of leader self-doubt. Hesitation to use supporting combat systems. Over supervision of units. Loss of initiative. Loss of aggressiveness during fire and maneuver. Disrupted operations. Needless loss of combat power. General degradation of cohesion and morale. (3-04.3 p 10-3 para 10-14)
The M789 HEDP 30mm round is an _______________ , _______________ round, and will penetrate of more than ________ (______________) of RHA at ___________.
High Explosive, Dual Purpose, 2 inches, Rolled Homogenous Armor, 2500m (AWS SH D-11)
What are the five modes of fire per the TC 3-04.3?
Hover, Moving, Running, Diving, Running/Diving IP (TC3-04.3 12-1,2)
What are the five Techniques Of Fire IAW D-ATM?
Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump, Diving/Running IP ATM 4-148
Why is the Aerial Rocket System more accurate when fired from an OGE hover rather than an IGE hover?
IGE launch yields greater dispersion, because the aircraft cannot apply appropriate downwash compensation due to random Induced Flow pattern (ARS SH D-41)
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from the_______________. Fire no more than ________ with ________________every___________________, or fire with only ___________________installed without restrictions (ripples permitted). These are the only conditions permitted.
Inboard stations, pairs, two outboard launchers, three seconds, one outboard launcher (ARS SH pg D-20)
What is the definition of ballistics and what are the four types of ballistics? Ballistics is the science of projectile motion and conditions affecting that motion.
Interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal (3-04.3 pg C-5, par C12)
In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain ______________________________, gun firing _____________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________.
LAST COMMAND position, INHIBITED, RETURN TO STOW (-10 P 4-29 WARNING)
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page?
LMP, YES (ARS SH pg D-12)
When rockets are in the cooperative mode the LOS will be ________________________.
M-TADS/FCR (ARS SH Pg D-32)
What 3 type of rounds can the 30mm accommodate?
M848, M788, M789 (AWS SH D-11)
What are the benefits of the bump technique?
Maximize advantage of run, dive (ATM 4-148)
____________ problems can cause units to stray out of sector, report wrong locations, become disoriented, or employ fire support weapons from the wrong locations. Therefore, friendly units may collide unexpectedly or engage each other mistakenly.
Navigation (3-04.3 pg10-1)
What is the Caution associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch on the Load Maintenance Panel?
No indication in cockpit if in AIR position (AWS SH d-30)
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ______ with two _________ launchers every _____ seconds or fire with only _____ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.
Pair, outboard, 3, one (ARS SH D-20)
What is it called when projectile drift and trajectory shift combine with each other?
Port/ starboard effect (3-04.3 page C-12)
There is an increased risk of____________________________ and care should be taken near other aircraft and firing over the heads of friendly troops.
Premature fuze function (inadvertent air burst) (ARS SH Pg D-27)
What is projectile jump and when does it occur when firing from a hover?
Projectile jump occurs when a crew fires a weapon from an aircraft in flight and the weapon's muzzle is pointed in any direction other than into the relative wind (figure C-14). Projectile jump begins when the projectile experiences an initial yaw as it leaves the muzzle. The jump occurs due to the precession (change in axis of rotation) induced by crosswind. The amount of jumps is proportional to the projectile's initial yaw. Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. Compensation is not required when the gunner fires from a hover. (3-04.3 pg c13 para c51)
What are the aerial ballistic characteristics affecting fin-stabilized projectiles?
Propellant force, CG, relative wind (3-04.3 page C-10)
Techniques for applying burst on target include ____________, ____________________, and ______ methods.
Recognition (KY windage), MIL rad, Laser (3-04.3 para 12-54)
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters, you then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again hitting the target. What technique did you use?
Recognition method (GM page 12-8)
What are the Aerial Ballistics?
Rotor Down-Wash, Angular Rate, Turning Bank, Propellant Force, Center of Gravity, Relative Wind Effect, Trajectory Shift, Port-Starboard Effect, Projectile Jump (3-04.3 pgC 8-13)
__________ is additional type of fragmentation is produced by target structure itself.
Spall (3-04.3 pg C-18
Why is target fixation a problem?
Target fixation may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground. Therefore, the crew must use a careful crosscheck and adhere to an appropriate minimum altitude to avoid a hazardous flight condition. High rates of descent, coupled with high flight-path speeds, require pilot to closely monitor the rate of closure with the terrain. (3-04.3 page 12-11)
Describe the four T's.
Target, Torque, Trim Target (3-04.3 page 12-9)
Neutralization knocks a target out of action ____________.
Temporarily (ATM pg 4-147)
Where will the AWS be positioned while in the fixed mode?
The Fixed (FXD) mode fixes the gun to 0°azimuth and +0.87° elevation. (AWS SH D-37)
What is the gun duty cycle?
The duty cycle is six 50-round bursts with 5 seconds between bursts, followed by a 10-minute cooling period. Burst settings other than 50, the duty cycle can be generalized to mean that no more than 300 rounds are fired within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes after which the cycle may be repeated. If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ten minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (AWS SH D-23)
What is the purpose of a Pull-Off?
The pull-off is employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area. (ATM pg 4-149)
What are the two types of fire?
The two types of fire are direct and indirect (3-04.3 para 12-6)
T/F At aircraft power-up the MP will read the rocket zone inventory from the LMP.
True (ARS SH D-12)
T/F The rocket page is crew station independent page for independent engagements.
True (ARS pg D-15)
What are three factors that affect dispersion discussed in conjunction with terminal ballistics?
Vibration, sights, boresights (3-04.3 c-56-58)
Which Exterior Ballistic is not compensated for by the WP/MP?
Yaw (3-04.3 PG C7 PARA C28)
Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?
Yes (-10 p 4-141)
The altitude from which the projectile is fired and range to target determines ___________ and ________________.
impact pattern, fragmentation pattern (3-04.3 para C-54)
The PIUs perform ______________________.
rocket fuzing and squib ignition (ARS SH pg D-10)
__________________ is the real-time accurate knowledge of one's own location and orientation, as well as the locations of friendly forces, enemy forces, and noncombatants. _________________includes awareness of the METT-T conditions that affect the operation.
situational awareness, situational awareness (3-04.3 para 10-2)
