hesi 3

Which is the most appropriate response if a patient asks about the risks of radiation exposure from a computed tomography (CT) exam? A. "A CT results in a much higher dose than an x-ray, but your physician believes the benefits outweigh the risks." B. "Medical radiation is considered low dose, so CT exams are completely safe." C. "A typical CT requires about 20 millisieverts of radiation, which is equal to about 20 years of natural background radiation." D. "The radiation dose from a CT is about twice as much as the dose from an x-ray."

A. "A CT results in a much higher dose than an x-ray, but your physician believes the benefits outweigh the risks."

What is the minimum recommended filtration for general diagnostic x-ray units? A. 2.5 mm Al. B. 1.5 mm Al. C. 5 mm Al. D. 3 mm Al.

A. 2.5 mm Al.

Which central ray (CR) orientation is recommended for a standard anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the skull to demonstrate the dorsum sellaewithin the foramen magnum? A. 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line (OML). B. Parallel to the mentomeatal line (MML). C. Perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML). D. 15 degrees to the orbitomeatal line (OML).

A. 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line (OML).

With all other factors remaining the same, which source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) results in the greatest exposure to the image receptor (IR)? A. 40 inches. B. 72 inches. C. 44 inches. D. 60 inches.

A. 40 inches.

Which milliampere seconds (mAs) value should be selected for a patient measuring 30 centimeters if 22 mAs is optimal for a patient measuring 25 centimeters? A. 44 mAs. B. 40 mAs. C. 33 mAs. D. 28 mAs.

A. 44 mAs. When using fixed kilovolts peak techniques, an increase in patient thickness of 4 to 5 cm requires that the mAs be increased by a factor of 2. In this example, an increase of 5 cm would require in increase from 22 mAs to 44 mAs

In which position is the knee placed in order to demonstrate the head of the fibula without superimposition? A. 45 degrees medial rotation. B. 45 degrees lateral rotation. C. 3-5 degrees lateral rotation. D. 3-5 degrees medial rotation.

A. 45 degrees medial rotation

Which type of interaction results in the production of bremsstrahlung x-rays? A. A projectile electron slows down near the nucleus of the target atom. B. A projectile electron ejects an inner-shell electron of the target atom. C. A projectile electron is absorbed by the nucleus. D. A projectile electron ejects an outer-shell electron of the target atom.

A. A projectile electron slows down near the nucleus of the target atom.

Which post-processing action is always acceptable? A. Annotating with an upright marker to show the patient was in an erect position. B. Placing an anatomically appropriate annotated marker showing which side is the left side. C. Using electronic masking to eliminate unnecessary anatomy. D. Changing the processing algorithm to a different procedure.

A. Annotating with an upright marker to show the patient was in an erect position.

Which positioning procedure is performed to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina (IVF) of the cervical spine? A. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree left posterior oblique position (LPO). B. Lateral position, with right side against the image receptor (IR). C. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 15 to 20 degree cephalic central ray (CR) angle. D. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree right posterior oblique (RPO) position.

A. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree left posterior oblique position (LPO).

Which is the best way to control severe bleeding from a deep laceration of the upper arm? A. Apply direct pressure to the wound and raise the patient's arm above the level of the heart. B. Apply a warm compress on the wound and place the patient's arm below the level of the heart. C. Apply an ice pack on the wound and place the patient's arm below the level of the heart. D. Place a tourniquet above the wound and raise the patient's arm above the level of the heart.

A. Apply direct pressure to the wound and raise the patient's arm above the level of the heart.

At which location is the ionization chamber located in an automatic exposure control (AEC) device? A. Between the grid and the image receptor (IR). B. Between the patient and the image receptor (IR). C. Between and the x-ray tube and the patient. D. Between the image receptor (IR) and the wall.

A. Between the grid and the image receptor (IR).

A patient is slumped over in his wheelchair and is non-responsive. After easing the patient to the floor, the radiographer finds no carotid pulse. This patient is experiencing which condition? A. Cardiac arrest. B. Epileptic seizure. C. Diabetic coma. D. Myocardial infarction.

A. Cardiac arrest.

Which method should be the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam? A. Collimate to include only the anatomy of interest. B. Reduce exposure time. C. Use gonadal shielding. D. Employ high kilovolts peak (kVp) techniques.

A. Collimate to include only the anatomy of interest.

When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which practices will minimize radiation exposure? (Select the three that apply.) A. Collimate to include only the area of interest. B. Shield the abdomen and pelvis whenever this does not interfere with the image. C. Use high milliampere seconds (mAs) and low kilovolts peak (kVp) exposure factors. D. Select appropriate exposure factors for the part being imaged. E. Increase collimation to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor (IR).

A. Collimate to include only the area of interest. B. Shield the abdomen and pelvis whenever this does not interfere with the image. D. Select appropriate exposure factors for the part being imaged.

Which anatomical structure is the most medial? A. Coronoid tubercle. B. Coronoid fossa. C. Radial notch. D. Radial head.

A. Coronoid tubercle.

All other factors remaining the same, how will increasing the source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 60 inches affect the appearance of a radiographic image? A. Decreased magnification. B. Decreased sharpness. C. Increased shape distortion. D. Increased density.

A. Decreased magnification.

Which post-processing techniques may be used with digital imaging? (Select the three that apply.) A. Electronic masking. B. Filtering. C. Smoothing. D. Automatic brightness control (ABC). E. Quantum noise.

A. Electronic masking. B. Filtering. C. Smoothing.

A 14-year-old female patient arrives in the radiology department for a scoliosis series. Which option provides both the best image quality and lowest radiation dose for this patient? A. Employ shadow shields. B. High milliampere-seconds (mAs), low kilovolt-peak (kVp) technique. C. Use of a posteroanterior (PA) projection only. D. Use of an anteroposterior (AP) projection only.

A. Employ shadow shields.

After contrast has been administered into the hip joint during hip arthrography, what should the patient do? A. Exercise the joint to allow the contrast to completely fill the joint space. B. Wait 2-4 hours before having coordinating examinations of the hip such as computed tomography (CT). C. Remain as still as possible to prevent the contrast from dissipating. D. Return the following day for coordinating examinations of the hip such as computed tomography (CT).

A. Exercise the joint to allow the contrast to completely fill the joint space.

What route of transmission is responsible for transmitting a disease to a patient through an improperly cleaned x-ray table? A. Fomite. B. Direct contact. C. Vector. D. Vehicle.

A. Fomite.

Biologic damage resulting from the ionization of key atoms causing these molecules to become inactive or functionally altered is much more likely to occur after exposure to which type of radiation? A. High-LET radiation such as alpha particles. B. High-LET radiation such as gamma rays. C. Nonionizing radiation such as microwaves. D. Low-LET radiation such as x-rays.

A. HIgh-LET radiation such as alpha particles.

During the medical history assessment prior to an upper gastrointestinal study, the patient reports he is taking the ACE inhibitor, Vasotec. This suggests the patient is being treated for which condition? A. Hypertension. B. Chest pain. C. Cardiac arrhythmia. D. Anxiety.

A. Hypertension.

Which portion of the small intestine is most commonly affected by Crohn's disease? A. Ileum. B. Cecum. C. Jejunum. D. Duodenum.

A. Ileum.

Opening the collimators wider than necessary using digital radiography has which effect on image quality? A. Image noise is increased. B. There is no effect on image quality. C. The contrast resolution of the image is decreased. D. The spatial resolution of the image is increased.

A. Image noise is increased.

Which effect does switching to the small focal spot size have on the manifest image? A. Image unsharpness decreases. B. Image density increases. C. Size distortion decreases. D. Scale of contrast increases.

A. Image unsharpness decreases.

Which is the primary controlling factor for x-ray beam quality? A. Kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Focal spot size. C. Source to image receptor distance (SID). D. Milliampere seconds (mAs).

A. Kilovolts peak (kVp).

For which purpose is orthoroentgenography performed? A. Long bone measurement. B. Soft tissue and foreign body localization. C. Joint space evaluation. D. Spinal canal visualization.

A. Long bone measurement.

How should the radiology manager schedule a pregnant radiographer? A. Maintain the employee's same schedule before declaration of pregnancy. B. Assign her to another area where there is less radiation. C. Ask the employee which area she prefers in order to lower possible risk to the fetus. D. Switch the employee between several lower risk radiation areas.

A. Maintain the employee's same schedule before declaration of pregnancy.

Which factor will have the greatest impact on decreasing recorded detail or spatial resolution? A. Motion. B. Source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID). C. Object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID). D. Focal spot size.

A. Motion.

Which describes a linear, nonthreshold dose-response relationship? A. No dose may be considered completely safe. B. There is a range of doses that are completely safe. C. A response occurs above a minimum dose. D. The response increases as the dose increases.

A. No dose may be considered completely safe.

Which acronym describes a network of computers that manages digital images? A. PACS. B. RIS. C. HIS. D. DICOM.

A. PACS.

What is the advantage of using a high kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage seconds (mAs) technique with digital radiography (DR) systems? A. Patient exposure decreases. B. Scale of contrast increases. C. Spatial resolution increases. D. Quantum noise decreases.

A. Patient exposure decreases.

According to the ARRT Standards of Ethics, a radiographer may be subject to sanctions including revocation of certification for which actions? (Select the three that apply.) A. Performing a medical procedure without appropriate training or supervision. B. Failing to repeat an unsatisfactory radiographic image. C. Performing duties while under the influence of illegal drugs or alcohol. D. Inadvertently imaging the wrong patient or performing an incorrect exam. Incorrect E. Failing to report a medical error because the patient was unharmed.

A. Performing a medical procedure without appropriate training or supervision. C. Performing duties while under the influence of illegal drugs or alcohol. E. Failing to report a medical error because the patient was unharmed.

Which term is used to describe the intensity of the x-ray beam? A. Quantity. B. Half-value layer (HVL). C. Milliampere seconds (mAs). D. Density.

A. Quantity.

Patient dose during fluoroscopy can be minimized by which methods? (Select the three that apply.) A. Restrict beam size. B. Increase fluoroscopic milliamperage (mA). C. Use larger diameter modes. D. Use the last image hold feature. E. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp).

A. Restrict beam size. C. Use larger diameter modes. D. Use the last image hold feature.

What are the six rights of drug administration that radiographers should follow? A. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right time. B. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right vial, right route, and right time. C. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right supplies. D. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right side, right documentation, and right time.

A. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right time.

Beginning with the patient's head in true lateral position, which positioning method is recommended for demonstrating the mandibular body without foreshortening on an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees toward the image receptor. B. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees away from the image receptor. C. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees toward the image receptor. D. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees away from the image receptor.

A. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees toward the image receptor.

Which guideline is recommended for safely lifting a patient from a seated position? A. Stand with feet apart to establish a wide base of support. B. Bend forward at the waist to establish a low center of gravity. C. Place a transfer belt under the patient's arms to improve leverage. D. Do not allow the patient to assist during the movement.

A. Stand with feet apart to establish a wide base of support.

Which statement most accurately describes the position of the kidneys within the abdominal cavity of an average patient? A. The left kidney is positioned slightly higher than the right kidney. B. The lower poles lie closer to the vertebral column than the upper poles. C. Both kidneys are located within the peritoneal cavity. D. The upper poles are located at or near the level of T8.

A. The left kidney is positioned slightly higher than the right kidney.

The right posterior oblique (RPO) chest position may be used instead of the left anterior oblique (LAO) position to demonstrate the heart and great vessels. How will using the RPO position affect the appearance of these structures? A. The left lung appears shorter than the right. B. The left lung field is better visualized than the right. C. The left lung field appears longer than the right. D. The heart and great vessels appear less magnified.

A. The left lung appears shorter than the right.

Which lumbar spine structures are best demonstrated with the patient in a 45-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position? A. The left zygapophyseal joints. B. The left intervertebral foramina. C. The right intervertebral foramina. D. The right zygapophyseal joints.

A. The left zygapophyseal joints.

Which statement correctly describes the amount of kinetic energy required for a photon to remove an inner shell electron from its orbit? A. The same as or greater than the electron binding energy. B. Less than the electron binding energy. C. Ten times greater than the electron binding energy. D. Equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the electron binding.

A. The same as or greater than the electron binding energy.

Which bones make up the ankle mortise? A. Tibia, fibula, and talus. B. Talus, calcaneus, and medial cuneiform. C. Tibia, fibula, and calcaneus. D. Talus, calcaneus, and navicular.

A. Tibia, fibula, and talus.

Which device/ term is located in the primary section of a general x-ray circuit? A. Timer circuit. B. Rheostat. C. Step-down transformer. D. Milliampere (mA) meter.

A. Timer circuit.

For which purpose is gonadal shielding recommended? A. To reduce the probability of genetic mutations. B. To reduce the probability of transient infertility. C. To reduce the probability of sterility. D. To reduce the population genetically significant dose.

A. To reduce the probability of genetic mutations.

Which device provides the required amount of voltage for x-ray production? A. Transformer. B. Battery. C. Rheostat. D. Capacitor.

A. Transformer.

Which condition requires a patient to be placed in a negative pressure room, and healthcare workers to wear respiratory protection when entering? A. Tuberculosis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Influenza. D. Hepatitis C.

A. Tuberculosis.

How does aliasing appear radiographically when using computed radiography (CR)? A. Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment. B. A white line along the length of the image. C. Black lines, branching across the image. D. Excessive noise on the image.

A. Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment.

Which factors will impact the radiation barrier calculations for an x-ray room? (Select the three that apply.) A. Types of exams performed in the room. B. How often the room is used. C. Number of repeat exposures. D. People in adjoining rooms. E. Number of occupational workers in the room.

A. Types of exams performed in the room. B. How often the room is used. D. People in adjoining rooms.

With all other factors remaining the same, a decrease in kilovolts peak (kVp) will cause an increase in which x-ray beam characteristic? A. Wavelength. B. Half-value layer. C. Frequency. D. Quantity.

A. Wavelength.

What precautions should a radiographer take when entering the room of a patient with varicella virus? A. Wear a particulate respirator mask, gloves and gown. B. Wear a surgical mask. C. Don gloves. D. Wear a surgical mask, gloves and gown.

A. Wear a particulate respirator mask, gloves and gown.

Which general guideline is the most appropriate for determining when to use standard precautions? A. When performing exams on all patients. B. When handling contaminated needles. C. When handling soiled linens. D. When performing exams on isolation patients.

A. When performing exams on all patients.

The collimator light must be aligned to the radiation field to within what percent of the source to image distance (SID)? A. 4%. B. 3%. C. 2%. D. 5%.

C. 2%

Which milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting is most likely to produce quantum mottle? A. 100 mAs. B. 25 mAs. C. 2.5 mAs. D. 50 mAs.

C. 2.5 mAs.

Which is the required amount of inherent filtration for general purpose x-ray tubes? A. 1.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. B. 0.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. C. 1 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. D. 2 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent.

B. 0.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent.

Over the entire gestational period, what is the fetal exposure limit? A. 0.25 rem (2.5 millisievert). B. 0.5 rem (5 millisievert). C. 0.1 rem (1 millisievert). D. 5 rem (50 millisievert).

B. 0.5 rem (5 millisievert).

The center of the x-ray beam must be aligned to the center of the bucky tray to within what percent of the source to image receptor distance (SID)? A. 3%. B. 1%. C. 2%. D. 4%.

B. 1%.

According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), what is the maximum air kerma rate for fixed fluoroscopic units? A. 4 cGy/min. B. 10 cGy/min. C. 2 cGy/min. D. 5 cGy/min.

B. 10 cGy/min.

A posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the coccyx is performed because the patient is unable to tolerate the supine position due to injuries sustained after falling backward. How should the central ray (CR) be adjusted for this projection? A. 10 degrees caudad. B. 10 degrees cephalad. C. 15 degrees cephalad. D. 15 degrees caudad.

B. 10 degrees cephalad.

Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the urinary bladder during a cystogram? A. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). C. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

A radiograph of optimal density is produced at 15 milliampere seconds (mAs) and a source to image receptor distance (SID) of 40 inches. Which mAs value is required to produce the same radiographic density if this exam is repeated at an SID of 48 inches? A. 16 B. 22 C. 10 D. 18

B. 22 Direct Square Law The density maintenance formula, mAs1/mAs2 = D1 squared/D2 squared, provides a method of compensating for changes in SID. In this instance, 15/x = (40)2/(48)2; 1600x = 34,560; x = 34,560/1600 = 22 mAs.

Which value represents a normal respiratory rate for a pediatric patient? A. 35 breaths per minute. B. 25 breaths per minute. C. 10 breaths per minute. D. 15 breaths per minute.

B. 25 breaths per minute.

Where should the central ray (CR) enter the patient for a lateral sacrum projection? A. 2 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 3-4 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). C. 2 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. 3-4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

B. 3-4 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

If a radiographic image is requested to show the nephrogram phase of an intravenous urogram (IVU), how long after IV contrast administration should this image be obtained? A. 20 minutes. B. 30 seconds to 1 minute. C. 5 minutes. D. 10 to 15 minutes.

B. 30 seconds to 1 minute.

Which whole-body dose most closely approximates the LD 50/30 for humans? A. 100 rad. B. 300 rad. C. 500 rad. D. 200 rad.

B. 300 rad.

Which central ray (CR) angle is recommended to demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow using the Coyle method? A. 45 degrees toward the shoulder. B. 45 degrees away from the shoulder. C. 35 degrees away from the shoulder. D. 35 degrees toward the shoulder.

B. 45 degrees away from the shoulder.

Identify the proper medical record documentation of medication administration. A. 0.5% Lidocaine, 2.5 mg/kg, IV, 03/13/2010, 8:45 a.m. B. 5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940. C. 20 mg, Prednisone, PO, 09/16/2011. D. 07/13/2005, 1:35 p.m., two 25 mg Benadryl tablets.

B. 5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940.

Which set of exposure factors is most likely to provide clear visualization of the upper cervical spine through the mandible when performing an anteroposterior (AP) "wagging jaw" projection (Ottonello Method)? A. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 200 milliamperes (mA), 0.2 seconds. B. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 25 milliamperes (mA), 2.0 seconds. C. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 400 milliamperes (mA), 0.1 seconds. D. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 100 milliamperes (mA), 0.5 seconds.

B. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 25 milliamperes (mA), 2.0 seconds.

The Alexander method is performed to demonstrate a dislocation of which joint? A. Radioulnar. B. Acromioclavicular. C. Glenohumeral. D. Patellofemoral.

B. Acromioclavicular.

Which statement describes the presence of patient rotation on a lateral cervical spine image? A. Superior to inferior displacement of zygapophyseal joints. B. Anterior to posterior displacement of zygapophyseal joints. C. Superior to inferior narrowing of intervertebral foramina. D. Anterior to posterior narrowing of intervertebral foramina.

B. Anterior to posterior displacement of zygapophyseal joints

For which lumbar spine projections should a shaped contact shield be applied to provide protection for the gonads of a male patient? (Select the three that apply.) A. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique, left anterior oblique position. B. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique, right posterior oblique position. C. Posteroanterior (PA). D. Anteroposterior (AP). E. L5-S1 lateral spot.

B. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique, right posterior oblique position. D. Anteroposterior (AP). E. L5-S1 lateral spot.

When obtaining a blood pressure reading, systolic and diastolic values are determined by monitoring which pulse point? A. Apical. B. Brachial. C. Radial. D. Carotid.

B. Brachial.

Which is the best strategy for communicating health care information to a patient who is completely deaf? A. Discuss care with the patient's family members. B. Call for an interpreter certified in sign language. C. Speak loudly and slowly to the patient. D. Relay the pertinent information to the patient's nurse.

B. Call for an interpreter certified in sign language.

The appendix is connected anatomically to which structure? A. Jejunum. B. Cecum. C. Ileum. D. Sigmoid.

B. Cecum.

Which type of radiation is produced when an outer shell electron fills an inner shell vacancy? A. Bremsstrahlung. B. Characteristic. C. Scatter. D. Remnant.

B. Characteristic.

How will the dose area product (DAP) be affected during a 4 Roentgen exposure if the collimated field is reduced from 8 X 8 cm to 4 X 4 cm? A. DAP will double. B. DAP will be 1/4 of the original. C. DAP will remain the same. D. DAP will be 1/2 of the original.

B. DAP will be 1/4 of the original.

Which effect will a low signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) have on the appearance of a digital radiographic image? A. Decreased spatial resolution. B. Decreased contrast resolution. C. Decreased brightness. D. Decreased dynamic range.

B. Decreased contrast resolution.

Which type of pathology is defined as inflammation of an outpouching of the colon? A. Ulcerative colitis. B. Diverticulitis. C. Colitis. D. Diverticulosis.

B. Diverticulitis

Which factors affect spatial resolution in digital imaging? (Select the two that apply.) A. Increased pixel pitch. B. Greater number of pixels. C. Smaller pixels. D. Smaller matrix size. E. Increased bit depth.

B. Greater number of pixels. C. Smaller pixels.

Which combination of technical factors is recommended to reduce patient dose? A. High kilovolt peak (kVp), high milliamperage in seconds (mAs). B. High kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage in seconds (mAs). C. Low kilovolt peak (kVp), low milliamperage in seconds (mAs). D. Low kilovolts peak (kVp), high milliamperage in seconds (mAs).

B. High kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage in seconds (mAs).

A trauma patient arrives to the emergency department unconscious with tachycardia and hypotension. The patient has lost a significant volume of blood. The patient is experiencing which condition? A. Septic shock. B. Hypovolemic shock. C. Neurogenic shock. D. Cardiogenic shock.

B. Hypovolemic shock.

Consider these different abdomen images of the same patient. What most likely caused the difference in these images? A. Image B was produced with a large effective focal spot (EFS). B. Image A was produced at a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Image A was produced with less object to image receptor distance (OID). D. Image B was produced with a larger image receptor (IR).

B. Image A was produced at a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID).

Which advantage is gained by increasing the standard source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 48 inches? A. Increased radiographic contrast. B. Increased image resolution. C. Increased x-ray tube life. D. Increased signal to noise ratio (SNR).

B. Increased image resolution.

Which is the most likely result if an exposure is made without the use of a focusing cup? A. Decreased electron production. B. Increased off focus radiation. C. Decreased leakage. D. Increased resolution

B. Increased off focus radiation.

Which describes the proper technique for needle insertion during venipuncture? A. Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree with bevel facing downward. B. Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree angle with bevel facing upward. C. Insert needle into vein at a 45-degree angle with bevel facing upward. D. Insert needle into vein at a 45-degree angle with bevel facing downward.

B. Insert needle into vein at a 15-degree angle with bevel facing upward.

Which image, when performed according to normal standards, will demonstrate the greatest magnification of the anatomy of interest? A. Lateral forearm. B. Lateral cervical spine. C. Anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine. D. Posteroanterior (PA) hand.

B. Lateral cervical spine.

Which wrist projection best demonstrates a Colles' fracture? A. Anteroposterior (AP). B. Lateral wrist. C. Posteroanterior (PA) with ulnar deviation. D. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique.

B. Lateral wrist.

Which term means the loss or change of a nitrogenous base in the DNA chain? A. Aneuploidy. B. Mutation. C. Free radical. D. Bleb.

B. Mutation.

The radiographer is using automatic exposure control (AEC) on a sinus examination. The quality control technologist directs the radiographer to repeat the parietoacanthial (Water's) projection with increased contrast. Thus the radiographer changes kilovolts peak (kVp) from 85 to 72. What change to AEC settings or positioning is needed? A. Align the head about 1" higher relative to the central detector cell. B. No change. C. + 1 on the density control. D. - 1 on the density control.

B. No change.

The Holmblad method is performed to demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. Open tibiofemoral joint space. B. Open intercondylar fossa. C. Patella in profile. D. Superimposed medial and lateral condyles.

B. Open intercondylar fossa.

Which radiographic finding is characteristic of cervical spine trauma resulting in a Jefferson fracture? A. Lateral projection demonstrates a spondylolisthesis of C2. B. Open mouth view demonstrates bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1. C. Open mouth view demonstrates a transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process. D. Lateral projection demonstrates an avulsion of the C7 spinous process.

B. Open mouth view demonstrates bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1.

What should be demonstrated on a properly exposed supine image of the abdomen? A. Kidneys. B. Perirenal fat. C. Shadow of the spleen. D. Bladder.

B. Perirenal fat.

Which describes the appearance of a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the skull using the Caldwell method? A. Zygomatic arches are seen with minimal superimposition. B. Petrous pyramids are demonstrated in the lower third of the orbit. C. Dorsum sellae is seen within the foramen magnum. D. Sphenoid sinuses are demonstrated through the open mouth.

B. Petrous pyramids are demonstrated in the lower third of the orbit.

Which guideline is most effective for reducing the number of nosocomial infections? A. Wear protective apparel whenever there is a risk of exposure to body substances. B. Position urinary catheter bags below the level of the patient's bladder. C. Keep current with all required vaccinations. D. Place contaminated needles in sharps containers.

B. Position urinary catheter bags below the level of the patient's bladder.

In which position should the patient be placed for insertion of the enema tip during a barium enema procedure? A. Valsalva. B. Sims.' C. Trendelenburg. D. Fowler's.

B. Sims.

Which method of respiration will demonstrate the maximum number of ribs above the diaphragm when performing an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the upper ribs? A. Shallow breathing. B. Suspended deep inspiration. C. Suspended expiration. D. Deep breathing.

B. Suspended deep inspiration.

Which method of respiration is recommended for a soft tissue neck exam to evaluate the trachea? A. Shallow breathing. B. Suspended inspiration. C. Deep breathing. D. Suspended expiration.

B. Suspended inspiration.

An exam of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint was performed by placing the patient in a 30-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position with the central ray (CR) directed 1 inch medial to the left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). The resulting image demonstrates a closed right SI joint space. Which is the most likely explanation for this appearance? A. The patient was placed in the wrong posterior oblique position. B. The CR was directed to the wrong ASIS. C. The patient was not rotated enough. D. The CR was not angled 30 degrees cephalad.

B. The CR was directed to the wrong ASIS.

An anteroposterior (AP) shoulder image acquired with the epicondyles perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) will demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. The humeral head is seen in profile, free of superimposition. B. The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially. C. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile, free of superimposition. D. The greater tubercle is seen in profile laterally.

B. The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially.

Where should the central ray (CR) enter the patient on an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the chest with the patient in the lateral decubitus position? A. T10. B. Three inches below the jugular notch. C. Six inches below the jugular notch. D. Xiphoid process.

B. Three inches below the jugular notch.

Which procedures should imaging personnel perform in order to reduce exposure time during fluoroscopic procedures? (Select the three that apply.) A. Increase the distance from image intensifier to table top. B. Use the last image hold feature. C. Increase the fluoroscopic field size. D. Reset the cumulative timer before procedure. E. Use the pulsed progressive mode.

B. Use the last image hold feature. D. Reset the cumulative timer before procedure. E. Use the pulsed progressive mode.

Which effect does a step-up transformer have on voltage and current? A. Voltage and current are increased. B. Voltage is increased and current is decreased. C. Voltage and current are decreased. D. Voltage is decreased and current is increased.

B. Voltage is increased and current is decreased.

How many millimeters of lead equivalency is recommended for lead aprons worn by pregnant radiographers? A. 1 B. 0.25. C. 0.5. D. 0.75.

C. 0.5.

Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for an anteroposterior (AP) knee projection? A. 1/2 inch below the base of the patella. B. 1/2 inch above the apex of the patella. C. 1/2 inch below the apex of the patella. D. 1/2 inch above the base of the patella.

C. 1/2 inch below the apex of the patella

Which x-ray tube orientation is used to create a 90-degree angle between the central ray (CR) and the metatarsals for an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the foot? A. 15 degrees posteriorly. B. Perpendicular to the image receptor (IR). C. 10 degrees posteriorly. D. Parallel to the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint spaces.

C. 10 degrees posteriorly.

Assuming that automatic exposure control is to be used, what backup milliampere-seconds (mAs) are sufficient for a large (100 kg) adult anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine done at 80 kilovolts peak (kVp)? A. 40 mAs. B. 80 mAs. C. 100 mAs. D. 60 mAs.

C. 100 mAs.

How should the central ray (CR) be angled to compensate for a patient who is unable to assume the erect lordotic position for an anteroposterior (AP) axial lordotic projection of the chest? A. 15 - 20 degrees caudad. B. 5 - 10 degrees cephalad. C. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad. D. 5 - 10 degrees caudad.

C. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad.

Which combination results in an image with the greatest recorded detail? A. 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). B. 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS). C. 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). D. 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS).

C. 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS)

A portable chest x-ray is taken at 56 inches using 12 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 72 kilovolts peak (kVp). Which technique should the radiographer use if the chest x-ray is repeated in the radiology department at 72 inches to maintain density? A. 6 mAs at 84 kVp. B. 6 mAs at 72 kVp. C. 24 mAs at 72 kVp. D. 24 mAs at 60 kVp.

C. 24 mAs at 72 kVp.

How should the radiographer rotate the patient's lower leg and foot for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the second toe? A. 10 - 25 degrees medially. B. 10 - 25 degrees laterally. C. 30 - 45 degrees medially. D. 30 - 45 degrees laterally.

C. 30 - 45 degrees medially.

An image of the abdomen demonstrates appropriate density and scale of contrast, but motion blur is present due to peristalsis. If the original image was obtained with a 200 milliampere (mA) station and an exposure time of 0.35 seconds, which set of technical factors will produce a comparable exposure while minimizing motion artifact? A. 300 mA and 0.23 seconds. B. 400 mA and 0.35 seconds. C. 500 mA and 0.14 seconds. D. 100 mA and 0.7 seconds.

C. 500 mA and 0.14 seconds.

A radiographer stands six feet from the x-ray source when performing a portable chest exam and receives an exposure of 2 mGy. If the radiographer performs a repeat exam using the same technical factors standing at a distance of three feet from the source, how much total exposure will be received? A. 1 mGy. B. 16 mGy. C. 8 mGy. D. 4 mGy.

C. 8 mGy.

A six-year-old pediatric patient arrives in the radiology suite for a radiograph of the abdomen. Which set of technical factors provides the best radiation protection? A. 55 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 30 milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. 72 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 15 milliampere-seconds (mAs). C. 82 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 7.5 milliampere-seconds (mAs). D. 63 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 30 milliampere-seconds (mAs).

C. 82 kilovolt-peak (kVp), 7.5 milliampere-seconds (mAs).

At which energy range does photodisintegration occur? A. 200 kilovolts peak (kVp) to 2 megaelectron volts (MeV). B. 1-50 kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Above 10 megaelectron volts (MeV). D. 60-90 kilovolts peak (kVp).

C. Above 10 megaelectron volts (MeV).

Which practices are considered violations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Select the two that apply.) A. Posting a sign-in sheet in the reception area. B. Displaying images on a PACS monitor where others may see. C. Accessing medical images of a coworker. D. Looking up test results of a family member. E. Calling out a patient's name in the waiting room.

C. Accessing medical images of a coworker. D. Looking up test results of a family member.

Which alternative procedure is recommended when positioning a patient for a Swimmer's lateral (Twining method) of the cervicothoracic region (C7-T1) if the shoulder away from the image receptor (IR) cannot be fully depressed? A. Perform a horizontal beam lateral projection of C7-T1. B. Place a weight in the patient's hand prior to the exposure. C. Angle the central ray 3 - 5 degrees caudad. D. Gently pull down on the patient's arm to lower the shoulder.

C. Angle the central ray 3 - 5 degrees caudad.

Which describes the relationship between linear energy transfer (LET) and relative biologic effectiveness (RBE)? A. There is no direct relationship between LET and RBE. B. As LET decreases, RBE increases. C. As LET increases, RBE increases. D. As LET increases, RBE decreases.

C. As LET increases, RBE increases.

According to the American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines, which is the correct rate of chest compressions when administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a 6-month-old patient? A. At least 80 per minute. B. At least 60 per minute. C. At least 100 per minute. D. At least 120 per minute.

C. At least 100 per minute.

In cassette-based computed radiography (CR) systems, the photostimulable phosphor plate is made of which material? A. Calcium tungstate. B. Amorphous silicon. C. Barium fluorohalide. D. Cesium iodide.

C. Barium fluorohalide.

If all other factors remain constant, how is radiation dose related to source-to-object distance (SOD)? A. Exponentially. B. Directly. C. By the inverse square law. D. Proportionately.

C. By the inverse square law.

Which tarsal bone is best seen when the plantar surface of the foot is positioned perpendicular to the image receptor (IR), and a 40-degree cephalic central ray (CR) is directed to the base of the third metatarsal? A. Cuboid. B. Lateral cuneiform. C. Calcaneus. D. Talus.

C. Calcaneus.

How does a wide window width affect an image? A. Increases contrast. B. Increases brightness. C. Decreases contrast. D. Decreases brightness.

C. Decreases contrast.

Which fluoroscopic mode results in the lowest patient dose? A. Continuous. B. High-level control (HLC). C. Digital pulsed progressive. D. Magnification.

C. Digital pulsed progressive.

In which exam is contrast introduced in to the area of interest in a retrograde fashion? A. Intravenous urography (IVU). B. Small bowel series (SBS). C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). D. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC).

C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).

Which organ has the highest tissue weighting factor? A. Lung. B. Breast. C. Gonads. D. Thyroid.

C. Gonads.

During a routine radiographic examination, a patient complains of dizziness and appears anxious and diaphoretic. While checking the patient's vital signs, the radiographer notes a rapid heart rate, shaky hands, and clammy skin. Which is the most likely explanation for this presentation? A. Grand mal seizure. B. Vasovagal syncope. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Transient ischemic attack (TIA).

C. Hypoglycemia.

Where should the central ray (CR) be directed for a lateral lumbosacral spine projection when using a 14 x 17 in (35 x 43 cm) image receptor (IR)? A. Anterior superior iliac spine. B. Lower costal margin. C. Iliac crest. D. Xiphoid process.

C. Iliac crest.

Which is an advantage of digital imaging systems compared to traditional film-screen systems? A. Higher spatial resolution. B. Reduced image noise. C. Improved contrast resolution. D. Less sensitivity to scatter.

C. Improved contrast resolution

Which technical factor increases the number of x-ray photons reaching the image receptor (IR)? A. Small focal spot size. B. Decreased milliamperage (mA). C. Increased milliamperage (mA). D. Large focal spot size.

C. Increased milliamperage (mA).

Which anatomical landmark coincides with the level of the central ray (CR) entrance point for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Manubrium. B. Sternal angle. C. Inferior border of the scapula. D. Xiphoid process.

C. Inferior border of the scapula.

Which term is an alternate name for the prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)? A. Manifest illness period. B. Latent period. C. Initial stage. D. Recovery period.

C. Initial stage.

Which term refers to the removal of an electron from the orbital shell of an atom? A. Excitation. B. Irradiation. C. Ionization. D. Annihilation.

C. Ionization.

Consider the contrast media label shown here. What does the "Not for Parenteral Use" warning mean? A. It must be administered topically. B. It must be injected subcutaneously. C. It must be administered orally or rectally. D. It must be injected intravenously.

C. It must be administered orally or rectally.

Which position/projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch of the ulna? A. Anteroposterior (AP), internal oblique. B. Anteroposterior (AP), external oblique. C. Lateral, lateromedial projection. D. Anteroposterior (AP).

C. Lateral, lateromedial projection.

Which body plane is positioned perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) on a lateral chest projection? A. Midsagittal plane. B. Horizontal plane. C. Midcoronal plane. D. Interiliac plane.

C. Midcoronal plane.

Which human cell is the most resistant to the effects of radiation? A. Spermatogonia. B. Intestinal crypt. C. Neurons. D. Lymphocytes.

C. Neurons.

What is the primary purpose of beam filtration? A. Improve radiographic contrast. B. Produce uniform density. C. Protect patient from low energy xrays. D. Increases the intensity of radiation.

C. Protect patient from low energy xrays.

In which position should the patient be placed in order to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine while minimizing radiation dose to the thyroid gland? A. Left anterior oblique (LAO). B. Right posterior oblique (RPO). C. Right anterior oblique (RAO). D. Left posterior oblique (LPO).

C. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

How many posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Eight. B. Nine. C. Ten. D. Seven.

C. Ten.

Which radiographic appearance results when the anterior surface of the patient's elbow is rotated 45 degrees medially for an anteroposterior (AP) elbow projection? A. The radial head and neck are free of superimposition. B. The olecranon process is seen in profile. C. The coronoid process is seen in profile. D. The medial and lateral epicondyles are superimposed.

C. The coronoid process is seen in profile.

Consider this oblique hand image. Which statement correctly describes this image? A. The hand was rotated the wrong way. B. The hand is over-rotated. C. The hand is under-rotated. D. The hand is correctly rotated.

C. The hand is under-rotated.

Which appearance is demonstrated by a lateral projection of the shoulder obtained using the Lawrence method? A. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile. B. The greater tubercle is projected onto the head of the humerus. C. The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field. D. The intertubercular groove is seen in profile.

C. The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field.

Which is the most appropriate response to a patient who asks what the term "peritonitis" means? A. "There are plenty of medical websites that can answer your questions." B. "That's a good question to ask your doctor." C. "Peritonitis is an infection of the peritoneum that can result in death." D. "Peritonitis is an inflammation of the abdomen."

D. "Peritonitis is an inflammation of the abdomen."

Which minimum thickness of lead shielding is required to cover the bucky slot during fluoroscopic exams? A. 2 mm. B. 0.5 mm. C. 1 mm. D. 0.25 mm.

D. 0.25 mm.

Which is the maximum allowable exposure to the embryo or fetus each month? A. 15 millisieverts (mSv). B. 0.25 millisieverts (mSv). C. 50 millisieverts (mSv). D. 0.5 millisieverts (mSv).

D. 0.5 millisieverts (mSv).

How far should the upper border of the image receptor (IR) extend above the shoulders for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. 0 inch. B. 1 inch. C. 2.5 -3 inches. D. 1.5 -2 inches.

D. 1.5 -2 inches.

Which dose may cause temporary sterility of both males and females? A. 0 Gy. B. 5 Gy. C. 1 Gy. D. 2 Gy

D. 2 Gy

What is the maximum allowable tabletop intensity in high-level control (HLC) fluoroscopic procedures? A. 10 R/min. B. 15 R/min. C. 5 R/min. D. 20 R/min.

D. 20 R/min.

Which milliamperage (mA) station will result in a milliampere seconds (mAs) value of 44 if the exposure time is 0.11 seconds? A. 44 mA. B. 444 mA. C. 40 mA. D. 400 mA.

D. 400 mA. ( 44/0.11 = 400)

Which value represents the annual maximum dose limit (in millisieverts - mSv) for exposure to the extremities in medical imaging personnel? A. 10 mSv. B. 50 mSv. C. 5 mSv. D. 500 mSv.

D. 500 mSv.

A fixed kilovolts peak (kVp)-variable milliampere (mA) chart recommends exposure factors of 70 kVp and 32 mAs for an anteroposterior (AP) abdomen projection on an average-size patient. Based on this chart, which fixed kVp technique is most appropriate for an AP projection of a double contrast upper gastrointestinal (UGI) image? A. 70 kVp, 42 mAs. B. 80 kVp, 16 mAs. C. 60 kVp, 64 mAs. D. 90 kVp, 8 mAs

D. 90 kVp, 8 mAs

Which term refers to the positive electrode of the x-ray tube? A. Diode. B. Triode. C. Cathode. D. Anode.

D. Anode.

Which guideline represents the best approach for examining patients who are mentally impaired? A. Use immobilization techniques for all mentally impaired patients. B. Reduce exposure time to prevent motion blur. C. Speak the these patients as you would speak to a small child. D. Assess each patient's ability to follow instructions prior to the exam.

D. Assess each patient's ability to follow instructions prior to the exam.

Which item must be discarded in a biohazard bag? A. Contaminated needle. B. Used patient gown. C. Facial tissue with nasal drainage. D. Bed sheet saturated with blood.

D. Bed sheet saturated with blood.

In the diagnostic energy range, which substances possesses the greatest ability to absorb radiant energy through the process of photoelectric absorption? A. Muscle. B. Fat. C. Air. D. Bone.

D. Bone.

Which interaction with matter contributes to the majority of occupational exposure? A. Photoelectric effect. B. Classical scattering. C. Pair production. D. Compton scattering.

D. Compton scattering.

Why is a cross-table lateral preferred over a recumbent left lateral when obtaining images for a myelogram? A. Less exposure technique is needed. B. Contrast cannot be visualized on a recumbent left lateral using the table bucky. C. Less chance of grid cutoff. D. Contrast may move out of the area of interest when rolling into the lateral position.

D. Contrast may move out of the area of interest when rolling into the lateral position.

Which structure is demonstrated without superimposition on a properly positioned medial oblique foot image? A. Navicular. B. First metatarsal. C. First cuneiform. D. Cuboid.

D. Cuboid.

Which procedure is most effective for reducing localized image blurring caused by involuntary patient motion? A. Take exposures during suspended respiration. B. Clearly explain each procedure. C. Use immobilization techniques. D. Decrease exposure times.

D. Decrease exposure times.

Washing the hands with soap and waterdisrupts the chain of infection by which process? A. Reducing host susceptibility to microorganisms. B. Preventing pathogens from exiting the host. C. Killing all microorganisms on the surface of the skin. D. Decreasing the number of pathogens present.

D. Decreasing the number of pathogens present.

A radiographer performs an abdomen examination with a mobile digital radiography (DR) system. In order to reduce the likelihood of a repeat exposure, he decides to increase the technical factors slightly more than necessary. Which term refers to this undesirable practice? A. Maximum permissible dose. B. Technique creep. C. Reciprocity. D. Dose creep.

D. Dose creep.

How is the process of thermionic emission described? A. A k shell electron is ejected from its orbit. B. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode. C. An orbital electron becomes excited and releases its energy. D. Electrons are released when the filament is heated.

D. Electrons are released when the filament is heated.

Which finding is demonstrated most clearly by a left lateral decubitus image of the abdomen? A. Air/fluid levels in the liver. B. Free air over the stomach. C. Ascites. D. Free air over the liver.

D. Free air over the liver.

How are automatic exposure control (AEC) devices for mammography different than those used with diagnostic radiography? A. Exposures are indirectly terminated. B. Detector location is fixed. C. Fewer detectors are available. D. Greater accuracy is required.

D. Greater accuracy is required.

How are the patient's hand and fingers positioned for a posteroanterior (PA) wrist projection? A. Hand pronated with fingers extended. B. Hand supinated with fingers flexed. C. Hand supinated with fingers extended. D. Hand pronated with fingers flexed.

D. Hand pronated with fingers flexed.

Which term refers to a graphical representation of pixel values? A. Exposure indicators. B. Algorithm. C. Modulation transfer function (MTF). D. Histogram.

D. Histogram.

Which is considered a major contraindication for intravenous urography? A. Patients who take metformin. B. Known ureteric calculi. C. History of abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. Hypersensitivity to contrast media.

D. Hypersensitivity to contrast media.

Which is the best way to avoid excessive quantum noise when using cassette-based digital systems? A. Calibrate the system to operate at a higher speed class. B. Erase the imaging plate prior to each exposure. C. Adjust the window level to decrease image brightness. D. Increase the amount of exposure to the image receptor.

D. Increase the amount of exposure to the image receptor.

How will raising the window level affect the digital image? A. Decreases brightness. B. Decreases contrast. C. Increases contrast. D. Increases brightness.

D. Increases brightness.

Which is the primary advantage of a rotating anode? A. More heat is generated at the filament. B. More heat is generated at the target. C. Less heat is generated at the filament. D. Less heat is generated at the target.

D. Less heat is generated at the target.

When using digital imaging, which has the greatest influence on contrast? A. Milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Modulation transfer function (MTF). D. Lookup table (LUT).

D. Lookup table (LUT).

Which example of nonverbal communication is most effective for helping a patient overcome anxiety and apprehension prior to an exam? A. Stand with arms folded while listening to the patient. B. Politely introduce yourself to the patient before the exam. C. Provide the patient with a clear explanation of the procedure. D. Maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with patient.

D. Maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with patient.

Which skull positioning line is situated perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) when performing a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the facial bones? A. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML). B. Glabellomeatal line (GML). C. Orbitomeatal line (OML). D. Mentomeatal line (MML).

D. Mentomeatal line (MML).

At which location is the central ray (CR) directed for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the thoracic spine? A. 7 to 8 inches below the vertebra prominens. B. At the level of the inferior angles of the scapulae. C. 3 to 4 inches below the sternal angle. D. Midway between the sternal notch and the xiphoid process.

D. Midway between the sternal notch and the xiphoid process.

Which substance is added to the x-ray tube housing to increase heat dissipation? A. Methane. B. Water. C. Liquid nitrogen. D. Oil.

D. Oil.

When transferring a patient with hemiparesis from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, in which position should the wheelchair be placed? A. Perpendicular to the x-ray table, and ask the patient to lead with the strong side. B. Perpendicular to the x-ray table, and ask the patient to lead with the weak side. C. Parallel to the x-ray table, with the patient's weak side closest to the table. D. Parallel to the x-ray table, with the patient's strong side closest to the table.

D. Parallel to the x-ray table, with the patient's strong side closest to the table.

Which are by-products of photoelectric absorption? A. Photoelectron and Compton scattered electrons. B. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon. C. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton scattered electron. D. Photoelectron and characteristic photon.

D. Photoelectron and characteristic photon.

Which radiopaque marker is image-appropriate after micturition has taken place? A. Post-evacuation. B. Decubitus. C. Upright. D. Post-void.

D. Post-void.

Which anatomical structure is the most distal? A. Trochlea. B. Coronoid fossa. C. Radial head. D. Radial tuberosity.

D. Radial tuberosity.

Which device in the x-ray circuit changes alternating current to direct current? A. Filament. B. Autotransformer. C. Rheostat D. Rectifier.

D. Rectifier.

Based on the appearance of the image, in which position was the patient placed for this postfluoroscopy image? A. Left posterior oblique (LPO). B. Right lateral. C. Supine. D. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

D. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

An anteroposterior (AP) pelvis image shows evidence that the patient is rotated toward the right hip. Which statement below best describes the appearance of this image? A. Symphysis pubis is projected over the mid-sacrum. B. Pelvic inlet appears elongated with the symphysis pubis projected inferiorly. C. Right obturator foramen appears larger than the left obturator foramen. D. Right iliac wing appears larger than the left iliac wing.

D. Right iliac wing appears larger than the left iliac wing.

When a radiographer asks a patient to lie down on the imaging table and the patient complies, which type of consent has the patient given? A. Informed consent. B. Implied consent. C. General consent. D. Simple consent.

D. Simple consent.

Which statement describes a properly positioned lateral foot image? A. Equidistance between all metatarsals. B. Superimposition of all metatarsals. C. The cuboid and fifth metatarsal demonstrated with minimal overlap. D. Superimposition of the first and fifth metatarsal heads.

D. Superimposition of the first and fifth metatarsal heads.

Which x-ray tube orientation represents the correct application of the anode heel effect? A. The cathode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral humerus projection. B. The anode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral forearm projection. C. The cathode end is positioned toward the knee for an anteroposterior (AP) femur projection. D. The anode end is positioned toward the head for an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine projection.

D. The anode end is positioned toward the head for an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine projection.

Which scenario causes foreshortening of the anatomy on the image? A. The entire arm in contact with the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. B. A two inch gap between the arm and the image receptor (IR), and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. C. The arm flat against the image receptor (IR), and the central ray angled along the long axis of the arm. D. The humerus in contact with the image receptor (IR), the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus.

D. The humerus in contact with the image receptor (IR), the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus.

A lateral lumbar spine image was obtained with a field size of 11x14 inches at 95 kilovolts peak (kVp) and automatic exposure control (AEC) with the center detector selected. The resulting image demonstrates excessive quantum noise. Which is the most likely cause for this appearance? A. The field size was too large. B. The kVp was too high. C. The incorrect AEC detector was selected. D. The patient was not accurately centered.

D. The patient was not accurately centered.

Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for a posteroanterior (PA) hand projection? A. Third proximal interphalangeal (IP) joint. B. Midpoint of the third carpometacarpal (CMC) joint. C. Midpoint of the third metacarpal. D. Third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.

D. Third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.

Which type of shock is caused by a reaction to contrast media? A. Cardiogenic. B. Neurogenic. C. Hypovolemic. D. Vasogenic.

D. Vasogenic.

How should a mobile C-arm fluoroscope be positioned to provide maximum radiation protection to the operator? A. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as close to the patient as possible. B. With the x-ray tube above the patient and as far from the patient as possible. B. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as close to the patient as possible. D. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as far from the patient as possible.

D. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as far from the patient as possible.

Place the cursor on the contrast media that should be administered for an intravenous urogram and left click.

Isovue

Click on the proximal phalanx of the first digit in the oblique image of the hand.

Middle Thumb

Click on the left sphenoid strut

Middle of picture looks like circle or heart like

This image is a medical record entry lacking important information. Place the cursor on the portion of this entry that is incorrect and left click.

Signature

Place the parts of the respiratory tract in order from the most proximal to the most distal. a. 1. Trachea. b. 2. Primary bronchi. c. 3. Bronchioles. d. 4. Alveolar sacs.

a. 1. Trachea. b. 2. Primary bronchi. c. 3. Bronchioles. d. 4. Alveolar sacs.

Place the following actions in the order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy. a. 1. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter (OSL). b. 2. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD). c. 3. Film badge. d. 4. Pocket ionization chamber.

c. 3. Film badge. b. 2. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD). a. 1. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter (OSL). d. 4. Pocket ionization chamber.

Place the following actions in the order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy. a. 1. Cut exposure time in half. b. 2. Wear a lead apron. c. 3. Stand behind control panel. d. 4. Double distance from x-ray source or patient.

c. 3. Stand behind control panel. d. 4. Double distance from x-ray source or patient a. 1. Cut exposure time in half. b. 2. Wear a lead apron.

The sternoclavicular joint is the articulation between the

clavicle and sternum.

The olecranon process is the projection on the

posterior, proximal ulna.