HESI Pharmacology Study Questions
A client is receiving antiinfective drug therapy for a postoperative infection. Which complaint should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client has contracted a superinfection? A. "My mouth feels sore." B. "I have a headache." C. "My ears feel plugged up." D. "I feel constipated."
ANS: A Stomatitis caused by a thrush infection, which can cause mouth pain, is a sign of superinfection. Options B, C, and D are more typical side effects, rather than symptoms, of a superinfection.
During therapy with isoniazid, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory value closely? A. Liver enzyme levels B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level C. Serum electrolyte levels D. Complete blood count (CBC)
ANS: A The client receiving isoniazid is at risk for the development of hepatitis; therefore, liver function test results should be monitored carefully during drug therapy. Options B, C, and D are not specific indicators of liver function, so they are not monitored closely during isoniazid therapy.
The nurse performs a client assessment prior to the administration of a prescribed dose of dipyridamole and aspirin PO. The nurse notes that the client's carotid bruit is louder than previously assessed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Administer the prescribed dose as scheduled. B. Hold the dose until the health care provider is contacted. C. Advise the client to take nothing by mouth until further assessment is completed. D. Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen by nasal cannula.
ANS: A A carotid bruit reflects the degree of blood vessel turbulence, which is typically the result of atherosclerosis. Aspirin is prescribed to reduce platelet aggregation and should be administered to this client, who is at high risk for thrombus occlusion. Options B, C, and D are not necessary interventions at this time.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has received a prescription for an antibiotic that is hepatotoxic. Which information should the nurse include in the instructions? A. Avoid ingesting any alcohol or acetaminophen. B. Schedule a follow-up visit for a liver biopsy in 1 month. C. Activities that are strenuous should be avoided. D. Notify the health care provider of any increase in appetite.
ANS: A Combining hepatotoxic drugs, such as acetaminophen and alcohol, increases the risk of liver damage, so option A is an important discharge instruction. Although clients who receive hepatotoxic drugs should be screened for any changes in serum liver function test (LFT) results, option B is not indicated. Rest is advantageous during an infectious process, but activity restriction is unnecessary. A client who is receiving a hepatotoxic drug should report any hepatotoxic symptoms, such as jaundice, dark urine, or light-colored stools, but an increased appetite does not need medical attention.
Which question should the nurse ask a client prior to the initiation of treatment with IV infusions of gentamicin sulfate? A. "Are you having difficulty hearing?" B. "Have you ever been diagnosed with cancer?" C. "Do you have any type of diabetes mellitus?" D. "Have you ever had anemia?"
ANS: A Complications of gentamicin sulfate therapy include ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neurotoxicity. Determining if the client is hard of hearing prior to initiation of this aminoglycoside will be helpful as the treatment progresses and ototoxicity is identified as a possible complication. Options B, C, and D are important elements of any medical history, but they do not have the priority of option A when assessing for complications of aminoglycoside therapy.
A 4-year-old child is receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which laboratory result should the nurse examine to assess the child's risk for infection? A. Neutrophil count B. Platelet count C. Reticulocyte count D. Lymphocyte count
ANS: A During chemotherapy, granulocytes are significantly suppressed. Because neutrophils comprise 60% to 70% of the granulocyte count, these levels are the most useful laboratory results of the options presented to determine the child's risk for infection. Options B, C, and D are not as useful as option A in determining risk of infection.
The nurse is administering the early morning dose of insulin aspart, 5 units subcutaneously, to a client with diabetes mellitus type 1. The client's fingerstick serum glucose level is 140 mg/dL. Considering the onset of insulin aspart, when should the nurse ensure that the client's breakfast be given? A. 5 minutes after subcutaneous administration B. 30 minutes after subcutaneous administration C. 1 to 2 hours after administration D. At any time because of a flat peak of action
ANS: A Insulin aspart is a very rapidly acting insulin, with an onset of 5 to 15 minutes. Insulin aspart should be administered when the client's tray is available. Insulin aspart peaks in 45 minutes to 1½ hours and has a duration of 3 to 4 hours. The client should have eaten to ensure absorption of the meal so that serum glucose levels will coincide with the peak. Insulin glargine has a flat peak of action and is usually given at bedtime.
Which nursing intervention has the highest priority during IV administration of mechlorethamine HCl and actinomycin? A. Assess for extravasation at the IV site during infusion. B. Premedicate with antiemetics 30 to 60 minutes before infusion. C. Monitor cardiac rate and rhythm during the IV infusion. D. Check the granulocyte count daily for the presence of neutropenia.
ANS: A Mechlorethamine HCl and actinomycin are vesicants; therefore, assessment for blister formation and/or tissue sloughing that can occur with leakage of these agents into surrounding subcutaneous tissues is essential to ensure client safety during the IV infusion. Options B, C, and D do not have the priority of option A during the administration of vesicants.
In addition to nitrate therapy, a client is receiving nifedipine, 10 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should plan to observe for which common side effect of this treatment regimen? A. Hypotension B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Seizures
ANS: A Nifedipine reduces peripheral vascular resistance and nitrates produce vasodilation, so concurrent use of nitrates with nifedipine can cause hypotension with the initial administration of these agents. Options B, C, and D are not side effects of this treatment regimen.
A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine, 300 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated with the use of this medication? A. Diarrhea B. Hypothermia C. Seizures D. Dysphagia
ANS: A The most common side effects associated with quinidine therapy are gastrointestinal complaints, such as diarrhea. Options B, C, and D are not usually associated with quinidine therapy.
The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B IV to a client. What laboratory data is most important for the nurse to assess before initiating an IV infusion of this medication? A. Serum potassium level B. Platelet count C. Serum creatinine level D. Hemoglobin level
ANS: A The nurse should obtain baseline potassium levels prior to beginning drug therapy because amphotericin B changes cellular permeability, allowing potassium to escape from the cell, which could lead to a decrease in the serum potassium level and severe hypokalemia. Options B, C, and D are helpful laboratory values, but they do not have the importance of option A in determining if amphotericin B can be administered safely via IV infusion.
Which instructions should the nurse provide to an adolescent female client who is initiating treatment with isotretinoin for acne vulgaris? (Select all that apply.) A. "Notify the health care provider immediately if you think you are pregnant." B. "If your acne gets worse, stop the medication and call the health care provider." C. "Take a daily multiple vitamin to prevent deficiencies and promote dermal healing." D. "Dermabrasion for deep acne scars should be postponed for 1 month after therapy is stopped." E. "If you begin crying more than usual and feel sad, stop the drug and call the health care provider." F. "Before, during, and after therapy, two effective forms of birth control must be used at the same time."
ANS: A, E, F Isotretinoin has been found to cause pregnancy category D drug-related birth defects, premature births, and fetal death (A), which necessitates the use of effective birth control methods before, during, and after therapy (F). Isotretinoin is associated with sadness (E), depression, suicidal ideations, and other serious mental health problems. An initial exacerbation of acne (B) is common when starting drug therapy. Isotretinoin is a retinoid related to vitamin A, and taking additional multivitamin supplements (C) can predispose the client to vitamin A toxicity. The client should stop taking isotretinoin at least 6 months before cosmetic procedures, such as dermabrasion (D), because the drug can increase the chances of scarring.
A child is being treated with mebendazole for pinworms. Which type of diet should the mother be instructed to feed the child while the child is receiving this medication? A. Lactose-free foods B. High-fat diet C. Vitamin C-enriched foods D. High-fiber diet
ANS: B A high-fat diet increases the absorption of mebendazole, which boosts the effectiveness of the medication in eliminating the pinworms. Options A, C, and D are not related to the administration of this medication.
A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I need to take all of these medications for TB?" What information should the nurse provide? A. Antiretroviral medications decrease the efficacy of the TB drugs. B. Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant organisms. C. Duration of the medication regimen is shortened. D. Potential adverse drug reactions are minimized.
ANS: B A multidrug regimen is prescribed for a client with HIV and TB to prevent the development of resistance of the tubercle bacilli. Although antitubercular medications can inhibit some antiretrovirals, a multidrug regimen is needed to inhibit the proliferation of the virulent tubercle bacilli. The duration of antitubercular therapy is typically 6 to 9 months and is not shortened by the use of multiple medications. A client who is receiving HIV and TB therapy is at an increased risk of adverse reactions because of the complex medication regimens and complications secondary to immunosuppression.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure? A. Inhaled nitrous oxide B. Midazolam IV C. Ketamine IM D. Fentanyl and droperidol IM
ANS: B Conscious sedation uses sedative-hypnotics that do not compromise the airway, so IV midazolam, a short-duration benzodiazepine sedative, provides conscious sedation with local and regional anesthesia and has an amnestic effect. Option A is a weak anesthetic and is rarely used alone. Option C causes profound analgesia that causes a client to appear catatonic and amnestic. Fentanyl is an opioid more commonly used as an analgesic during anesthesia, whereas droperidol is a skeletal muscle anesthetic agent used to reduce spasticity to ensure a smooth induction under general anesthesia and requires intubation and ventilation during its onset and duration.
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible for a potential complication with this drug? A. Dantrolene sodium B. Neostigmine bromide C. Succinylcholine bromide D. Epinephrine
ANS: B Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
A client with angina pectoris is instructed to take sublingual nitroglycerin tablets PRN for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? A. Take one tablet every 3 minutes, up to five tablets. B. Take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity. C. Replace nitroglycerin tablets yearly to maintain freshness. D. Allow 30 minutes for a tablet to provide relief from angina.
ANS: B Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should stop activity and rest. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes, up to three doses. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months, not every 12 months. Nitroglycerin should provide relief in 5 minutes, not 30 minutes.
A client with acute lymphocytic leukemia is to begin chemotherapy today. The health care provider's prescription specifies that ondansetron is to be administered IV 30 minutes prior to the infusion of cisplatin. What is the rationale for administering Zofran prior to the chemotherapy induction? A. Promotion of diuresis to prevent nephrotoxicity B. Reduction or elimination of nausea and vomiting C. Prevention of a secondary hyperuricemia D. Reduction in the risk of an allergic reaction
ANS: B Ondansetron is a type 3 receptor (5-HT3) antagonist that is recognized for improved control of acute nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. 5-HT3 antagonists are most effective when administered IV prior to the induction of the chemotherapeutic agent(s). Options A, C, and D are not therapeutic actions of ondansetron.
A client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin IV starts to hemorrhage from an arterial access site. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent further heparin-induced hemorrhaging? A. Vitamin K1 B. Protamine sulfate C. Warfarin sodium D. Prothrombin
ANS: B Protamine sulfate is the antagonist for heparin and is given for episodes of acute hemorrhage. Options A, C, and D are not heparin antagonists.
A client with chronic gouty arthritis is talking allopurinol, 100 mg PO daily. Which laboratory serum level should the nurse report to the health care provider to determine the therapeutic outcome? A. Prothrombin time B. Uric acid level C. White blood cell count D. Creatinine level
ANS: B The primary therapeutic outcome associated with allopurinol therapy is reduced serum uric acid levels with a lower frequency of acute gouty attacks, so option B should be reported to the health care provider. Options A, C, and D are not related to the effectiveness of allopurinol.
A client receives an antihypertensive agent daily. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the medication? A. Verify the expiration date. B. Obtain the client's blood pressure. C. Determine the client's history of adverse reactions. D. Review the client's medical record for a change in drug route.
ANS: B To determine the most accurate response to antihypertensive therapy, baseline blood pressures should be obtained before an antihypertensive drug is administered and should be compared with orthostatic vital signs to determine whether any side effects are occurring. Although options A, C, and D are required nursing actions prior to giving any drug, the therapeutic response should be determined before another dose is administered.
A client with mild parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine. Which statement accurately describes the action of this medication? A. Viral organisms that provide the underlyling pathophysiology for parkinsonism are eliminated. B. Acetylcholine in the myoneural junction is enhanced. C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased. D. Norepinephrine release is reduced within the peripheral system as the final step in dopamine uptake.
ANS: C Amantadine is a dopamine-releasing agent; therefore, this medication increases the amount of dopamine present in the central nervous system. Although this medication is also an antiviral agent, the antiviral effect is not significant in the treatment of parkinsonism. Options B and D are not affected by amantadine.
A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl to control his psychotic behavior also has a prescription for benztropine. When teaching the client and/or significant others about these medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine in the treatment plan for this client? A. This medication will reduce the side effect of urinary retention. B. This drug potentiates the effect of chlorpromazine HCl. C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms. D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.
ANS: C Benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) use. Options A, B, and D are not accurate statements regarding the use of benztropine for clients who are treated with chlorpromazine HCl for the control of psychosis.
A client with metastatic cancer reports severe continuous pain. Which route of administration should the nurse use to provide the most effective continuous analgesia? A. Oral B. Intravenous C. Transdermal D. Intramuscular
ANS: C Continuous pain is best managed by maintaining a constant serum drug level. Transdermal drug administration of an analgesic provides around-the-clock, controlled release of the medication that is absorbed through intact skin into the bloodstream to provide continuous pain relief. Option A is convenient, but gastrointestinal variables affect the absorption rate of the drug, its onset and intensity, and duration of response and requires repeated doses around the clock. Option B provides immediate action because the drug is infused directly into the bloodstream and is quickly metabolized, and repeated IV doses are required to maintain a continuous blood level. Option D requires repeated injections at regular intervals, which are uncomfortable, and absorption rates vary between muscle sites.
Which statement indicates that client teaching regarding the administration of the chemotherapeutic agent daunorubicin HCl has been effective? A. "I should use an astringent mouthwash after every meal." B. "I will eat high-fiber foods and drink lots of water." C. "I expect my urine to be red for the next few days." D. "I should use sunscreen when I spend time outdoors."
ANS: C Daunorubicin HCl causes the urine to turn red in color. Option A is not recommended. Options B and D are interventions that promote general good health but are not specific to treatment with daunorubicin HCl.
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen. B. Change the elixir to an injectable route. C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C. D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic.
ANS: C Diarrhea is an adverse effect of high doses of vitamin C, so the nurse should anticipate a reduction in the dose of vitamin C. Acetaminophen does not cause diarrhea and is not available in an injectable form. Because the client has a viral infection, option D will not be beneficial.
A 55-year-old client was diagnosed with schizophrenia 5 years earlier. Numerous hospitalizations have occurred since the diagnosis because of noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Which drug might work best for this particular client? A. Chlorpromazine HCl B. Lithium carbonate C. Fluphenazine decanoate D. Diazepam
ANS: C Fluphenazine, an antipsychotic drug that can be given IM, has a rapid onset (1 to 2 hours) and a long duration of action (up to 3 or 4 weeks), so it would be the drug of choice for a noncompliant psychotic client. Option A is an antipsychotic drug used to treat schizophrenia and is usually administered PO (IM doses are short-acting). The client must be compliant in taking this drug for it to be effective. Option B is most effective with manic and depressive bipolar affective disorders. Option D is an antianxiety drug and would not be effective for a psychotic disorder.
An older client is receiving a water-soluble drug that is more than the average dose for a young adult. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Obtain a prescription for lower medication dosages. B. Determine the drug's serum levels for toxicity. C. Start IV fluids to decrease the serum drug levels. D. Hold the next dosage and notify the health care provider.
ANS: C Older clients usually have a decline in lean body mass and total body water that causes water-soluble drugs to become distributed in fluid compartments, resulting in an increased concentration, so determining the drug's serum level for toxicity should be implemented first. Although options A, C, and D may be indicated, an increased plasma drug level should be the determining factor to consider when water-soluble drugs warrant a reduced dosage in the older client.
client who has chronic back pain is on long-term pain medication management and asks the nurse why his pain relief therapy is not as effective as it was 2 months ago. How should the nurse respond? A. The phenomenon occurs when opiates are used for more than 6 months to relieve pain. B. Withdrawal occurs if the drug is not tapered slowly while being discontinued. C. Pharmacodynamic tolerance requires increased drug levels to achieve the same effect. D. A consistent dosage with around-the-clock administration is the most effective.
ANS: C Pharmacodynamic tolerance explains the client's need for an increased drug level to produce effects that formerly occurred at lower drug levels. Tolerance can occur with opioids during shorter periods of use. Although a withdrawal syndrome can occur if the client develops a dependency, this does not address the client's immediate concern of drug effectiveness. Although a stable serum drug level provides effective pain management, the client's complaint is consistent with a tolerance to his current pain management regimen.
During administration of theophylline, the nurse should monitor for signs of toxicity. Which symptom would cause the nurse to suspect theophylline toxicity? A. Dry mouth B. Urinary retention C. Restlessness D. Sedation
ANS: C Restlessness is a sign of theophylline intoxication. Other signs of toxicity are anorexia, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. Options A, B, and D are common side effects of antihistamines but do not indicate theophylline intoxication.
Which factor is most important to ensure compliance when planning to teach a client about a drug regimen? A. Genetics B. Client age C. Client education D. Absorption rate
ANS: C The client's educational level is the most important factor when planning teaching to ensure a client's compliance with taking a prescribed drug. Options A and D are physiologic responses that do not relate to a client's compliance. Although maturity level and age contribute to compliance, the client's basic understanding of instructions, which is best indicated by educational level, is more significant.
The nurse is scheduling a client's antibiotic peak and trough levels with the laboratory personnel. What is the best schedule for drawing the trough level? A. Give the dose of medication, and call the laboratory to draw the trough STAT. B. Arrange for the laboratory to draw the trough 1 hour after the dose is given. C. Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough immediately before the next scheduled dose. D. Give the first dose of medication after the laboratory reports that the trough has been drawn.
ANS: C The best time to draw a trough is the closest time to the next administration. Option A will provide a peak level. Option B will not provide the most accurate trough level. The medication is given before peak and trough levels are obtained.
A client is ordered 22 mg of gentamicin by IM injection. The drug is available in 20 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should be administered? A. 1.8 B. 2.0 C. 2.4 D. 2.2
ANS: D
A female client with myasthenia gravis is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor and asks the nurse what can be done to remedy her fatigue and difficulty swallowing. What action should the nurse implement? A. Explore a plan for development of coping strategies for the symptoms with the client. B. Explain to the client that the dosage is too high, so she should skip every other dose of medication. C. Advise the client to contact her health care provider because of the development of tolerance to the medication. D. Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response to symptoms.
ANS: D Maintaining optimal dosage for cholinesterase inhibitors can be challenging for clients with myasthenia gravis. Clients should be taught to recognize signs of overmedication and undermedication so that they can modify the dosage themselves based on a prescribed sliding scale. Options A, B, and C do not adequately address the client's concerns.
Prior to administering a scheduled dose of digoxin, the nurse reviews the client's current serum digoxin level, which is 1.3 ng/dL. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity. B. Withhold the drug and notify the health care provider immediately. C. Withhold the dose and notify the health care provider during rounds that the dose was held. D. Give the dose of digoxin if the client's heart rate is within a safe range.
ANS: D The client's digoxin level of 1.3 ng/dL is not above the upper range of its therapeutic index (toxic level is >2.0 ng/dL), so the dose should be administered after the client's heart rate is evaluated. Digibind is administered for toxic levels of digoxin, so option A is not indicated. Options B and C are not necessary.
The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary infusion of a dobutamine solution to a client. The nurse notes that the solution is brown in color. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Verify the prescribed dose with the health care provider. B. Discard the solution and reorder from the pharmacy. C. Dilute the solution with more normal saline until it becomes lighter in color. D. Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is <24 hours.
ANS: D The color of the dobutamine solution is normal, and the solution should be administered within 24 hours after reconstitution, so the time of reconstitution should be verified before administering the solution of medication. Option A is not indicated. Option B is not necessary. Additional dilution of a drug in solution is stated in the manufacturer's reconstitution instructions, but option C is not needed.
The nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of the prescribed antilipemic drug lovastatin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed? A. "My bowel habits should not be affected by this drug." B. "This medication should be taken once a day only." C. "I will still need to follow a low-cholesterol diet." D. I will take the medication every day before breakfast."
ANS: D The enzyme that helps metabolize cholesterol is activated at night, so this medication should be taken with the evening meal. Options A, B, and C reflect correct information about lovastatin.
Which response best supports the observations that the nurse identifies in a client who is experiencing a placebo effect? A. Beneficial response or cure for disease B. Behavioral or psychotropic responses C. Malingering or drug-seeking behaviors D. Psychological response to inert medication
ANS: D The placebo effect is a response in the client that is caused by the psychological impact of taking an inert drug that has no biochemical properties. A placebo effect can be therapeutic, negative, or ineffective but provides no cure or benefit to the client's progress. The placebo effect may evoke behavioral changes but does not affect neurochemical psychotropic changes. Malingering and drug seeking are behaviors that a client exhibits to obtain treatment for nonexistent disorders or obtain prescription medications.
A male client asks the nurse why condoms should not be lubricated with the spermicide nonoxynol-9. Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A. The risk of female infertility and spontaneous abortion is linked with nonoxynol-9. B. Partners can develop intermittent interstitial cystitis if the spermicide is used after the expiration date. C. The spermicide decreases the amount of vaginal and penile sensitivity for up to 8 to 12 hours. D. Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from STDs and has been linked to the transmission of HIV.
ANS: D The use of condoms and a water-based spermicide is recommended because nonoxynol-9 can cause a rash that allows viruses a portal of entry if the condom breaks, which increases the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), herpes, human papillomavirus (HPV), or hepatitis B virus (HBV). Options A and B are inaccurate. Nonoxynol-9 may cause vaginal irritation, not option C.
A client who has trouble swallowing pills intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine (XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client? A. Capsule contents can be sprinkled on pudding or applesauce. B. Chew the medication thoroughly to enhance absorption. C. Take the medication with a large glass of water or juice. D. Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
ANS: D Venlafaxine is administered PO in capsule form. Capsules that are extended-release (XR) or continuous-release (CR) contain delayed-release, enteric-coated granules to prevent decomposition of the drug in the acidic pH of the stomach. The client should notify the health care provider about the inability to swallow the capsule. This medication should not be chewed or opened so that the delayed-release, enteric-coated granules can remain intact. Water or juice will not affect the medication.
Which medication is useful in treating digoxin toxicity? A. Atropine sulfate B. Isoproterenol C. Xylocaine D. Digoxin immune Fab
ANS: D Digibind is useful in treating this type of drug toxicity because it is an antibody that binds antigenically to unbound serum digoxin or digitoxin, resulting in renal excretion of the bound complex. Options A, B, and C are not used to treat digitoxin toxicity.
The nurse is assessing a stuporous client in the emergency department who is suspected of overdosing with opioids. Which agent should the nurse prepare to administer if the client becomes comatose? A. Naloxone hydrochloride B. Atropine sulfate C. Vitamin K D. Flumazenil
ANS: a Naloxone is an opioid antidote used in opioid overdose to reverse CNS and respiratory depression. Atropine is used for bradycardia, intestinal hypertonicity and hypermotility, muscarinic agonist poisoning, peptic ulcer disease, and biliary colic. Vitamin K is used to manage warfarin overdose and vitamin K deficiency in newborns. Flumazenil reduces the sedative effects of benzodiazepines following general anesthesia or overdose.
