HESI Review Test-Maternity
A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the nurse take?
Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort. The client is experiencing engorgement even though she is bottle-feeding her infant, and cold compresses (A) may help reduce discomfort. Lactation begins about the third day after delivery, so the mother should avoid any breast stimulation,
A 40-week gestation primigravida client is being induced with an oxytocin (Pitocin) secondary infusion and complains of pain in her lower back. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Apply firm pressure to sacral area. The discomfort of back labor can be minimized by the application of firm pressure to the sacral area
A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?
Epigastric pain (C) is indicative of an edematous liver or pancreas which is an early warning sign of an impending convulsion (eclampsia) and requires immediate attention.
A 28-year-old client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot. Dorsiflexing the foot by pushing the sole of the foot forward or by standing (if the client is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on the floor is the best means of relieving leg cramps.
Which nursing intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or "afterpains?"
Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen. Lying prone (A) keeps the fundus contracted and is especially useful with multiparas, who commonly experience afterpains due to lack of uterine tone.
A primigravida at 40-weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment labor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during the infusion of Pitocin?
Pitocin causes the uterine myofibril to contract, so unless the infusion is closely monitored, the client is at risk for hyperstimulation (B) which can lead to tetanic contractions, uterine rupture, and fetal distress or demise.
During labor, the nurse determines that a full-term client is demonstrating late decelerations. In which sequence should the nurse implement these nursing actions? (Arrange in order.)
Reposition the client. Provide oxygen via face mask. Increase IV fluid. Call the healthcare provider.
The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a full-term newborn during the first hour of transition using the Ballard (Dubowitz) scale. Based on this assessment, the nurse determines that the neonate has a maturity rating of 40-weeks. What findings should the nurse identify to determine if the neonate is small for gestational age (SGA)? (Select all that apply.)
Admission weight of 4 pounds, 15 ounces (2244 grams). Head to heel length of 17 inches (42.5 cm). Frontal occipital circumference of 12.5 inches (31.25 cm).
The nurse is assessing a client who is having a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse determines that the client is not having contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are occurring. What action should the nurse take?
Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the nurse recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
At 30-weeks gestation is closest to the time parents would be ready for such classes. Learning is facilitated by an interested pupil! The couple is most interested in childbirth toward the end of the pregnancy when they are psychologically ready for the termination of the pregnancy, and the birth of their child is an immediate concern.
A multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
Biophysical profile (BPP). BPP (A) provides data regarding fetal risk surveillance by examining 5 areas: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal tone and heart rate.
A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the drug is effective?
Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s. Epogen, given to prevent or treat anemia, stimulates erythropoietin production, resulting in an increase in RBCs. Since the body has not had to compensate for anemia with an increased heart rate, changes in heart rate from high to normal (C) is one indicator that Epogen is effective.
A multigravida client arrives at the labor and delivery unit and tells the nurse that her bag of water has broken. The nurse identifies the presence of meconium fluid on the perineum and determines the fetal heart rate is between 140 to 150 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement next?
Complete a sterile vaginal exam. A vaginal exam (A) should be performed after the rupture of membranes to determine the presence of a prolapsed cord.
A healthcare provider informs the charge nurse of a labor and delivery unit that a client is coming to the unit with suspected abruptio placentae. What findings should the charge nurse expect the client to demonstrate? (Select all that apply.)
Dark, red vaginal bleeding. Increased uterine irritability. A rigid abdomen.
A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, "The baby is coming!" The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Date of last normal menstrual period. Evaluating the gestation of the pregnancy (C) takes priority. If the fetus is preterm and the fetal heart pattern is reassuring, the healthcare provider may attempt to prolong the pregnancy and administer corticosteroids to mature the lungs of the fetus.
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
Do you have a history of rheumatic fever? Clients with a history of rheumatic fever (D) may develop mitral valve prolapse, which increases the risk for cardiac decompensation due to the increased blood volume that occurs during pregnancy, so obtaining information about this client's health history is a priority.
The nurse is teaching care of the newborn to a group of prospective parents and describes the need for administering antibiotic ointment into the eyes of the newborn. Which infectious organism will this treatment prevent from harming the infant?
Gonorrhea. Erythromycin ointment is instilled into the lower conjunctiva of each eye within 2 hours after birth to prevent ophthalmica neonatorum, an infection caused by gonorrhea, and inclusion conjunctivitis, an infection caused by chlamydia (C).
The nurse attempts to help an unmarried teenager deal with her feelings following a spontaneous abortion at 8-weeks gestation. What type of emotional response should the nurse anticipate?
Grief related to her perceptions about the loss of this child.
The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is
January 30-31
The nurse observes a new mother avoiding eye contact with her newborn. Which action should the nurse take?
Observe the mother for other attachment behaviors.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Onset of uterine contractions.
A client who delivered an infant an hour ago tells the nurse that she feels wet underneath her buttock. The nurse notes that both perineal pads are completely saturated and the client is lying in a 6-inch diameter pool of blood. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Palpate the firmness of the fundus.
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the nurse take?
Place the woman in a lateral position. The nurse should immediately turn the woman to a lateral position (C), place a pillow or wedge under the right hip to deflect the uterus, increase the rate of the main line IV infusion, and administer oxygen by face mask at 10-12 L/min.
In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The nurse bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the
anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months and the posterior by the end of the second month. In the normal infant the anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months of age and the posterior fontanel by the end of the second month (D).
The nurse is planning preconception care for a new female client. Which information should the nurse provide the client?
Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy. Planning for pregnancy begins with healthy lifestyles in the family (D) which is an intervention in preconception care that targets an overall goal for a client preparing for pregnancy.
The nurse is assessing a 3-day old infant with a cephalohematoma in the newborn nursery. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Yellowish tinge to the skin.
One hour after giving birth to an 8-pound infant, a client's lochia rubra has increased from small to large and her fundus is boggy despite massage. The client's pulse is 84 beats/minute and blood pressure is 156/96. The healthcare provider prescribes Methergine 0.2 mg IM × 1. What action should the nurse take immediately?
Methergine is contraindicated for clients with elevated blood pressure, so the nurse should contact the healthcare provider and question the prescription (D).
The nurse identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?
Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex. The most common neonatal birth trauma due to a vaginal delivery is fracture of the clavicle. Although an infant may be asymptomatic, a fractured clavicle should be suspected if an infant has limited use of the affected arm, malposition of the arm, an asymmetric Moro reflex (B), crepitus over the clavicle, focal swelling or tenderness, or cries when the arm is moved.
The nurse should explain to a 30-year-old gravid client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?
Screen for neural tube defects.
A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which pattern of contractions?
Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each.
The nurse is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilatation and the presenting part is not engaged. When the presenting part is ballottable (D), it is floating out of the pelvis. In such a situation, the cord can descend before the fetus causing a prolapsed cord, which is an emergency situation.
In evaluating the respiratory effort of a one-hour-old infant using the Silverman-Anderson Index, the nurse determines the infant has synchronized chest and abdominal movement, just visible lower chest retractions, just visible xiphoid retractions, minimal and transient nasal flaring, and an expiratory grunt heard only on auscultation. What Silverman-Anderson score should the nurse assign to this infant? (Enter numeral value only.)
A Silverman-Anderson Index has five categories with scores of 0, 1, or 2. The total score ranges from 0 to 10. Four of the these assessment findings should receive a score of 1, and the 5th finding (synchronized chest and abdominal movement) receives a score of 0. Therefore, the total score is 4. A total score of 0 means the infant has no dyspnea, a total score of 10 indicates maximum respiratory distress.
A client at 32-weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16. Magnesium sulfate, a CNS depressant, helps prevent seizures. A decreased respiratory rate (C) indicates that the drug is effective. (Respiratory rate below 12 indicates toxic effects.)
The nurse is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (Select all that apply.)
A sterile glove. An amnihook. Lubricant.
A client at 28-weeks gestation calls the antepartal clinic and states that she is experiencing a small amount of vaginal bleeding which she describes as bright red. She further states that she is not experiencing any uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the nurse provide?
Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound. Third trimester painless bleeding is characteristic of a placenta previa. Bright red bleeding may be intermittent, occur in gushes, or be continuous. Rarely is the first incidence life-threatening, nor cause for hypovolemic shock. Diagnosis is confirmed by transabdominal ultrasound (A).
A woman with Type 2 diabetes mellitus becomes pregnant, and her oral hypoglycemic agents are discontinued. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Describe diet changes that can improve the management of her diabetes. Diet modifications (A) are effective in managing Type 2 diabetes during pregnancy, and describing the necessary diet changes is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement with this client.
The total bilirubin level of a 36-hour, breastfeeding newborn is 14 mg/dl. Based on this finding, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Encourage the mother to breastfeed frequently. The normal total bilirubin level is 6 to 12 mg/dl after Day 1 of life. This infant's bilirubin is beginning to climb and the infant should be monitored to prevent further complications. Breast milk provides calories and enhances GI motility, which will assist the bowel in eliminating bilirubin (C)
The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?
Have the client breathe into her cupped hands. Tingling fingers and dizziness are signs of hyperventilation (blowing off too much carbon dioxide). Hyperventilation is treated by retaining carbon dioxide. This can be facilitated by breathing into a paper bag or cupped hands (C)
Which maternal behavior is the nurse most likely to see when a new mother receives her infant for the first time?
Her arms and hands receive the infant and she then traces the infant's profile with her fingertips.
A couple, concerned because the woman has not been able to conceive, is referred to a healthcare provider for a fertility workup and a hysterosalpingography is scheduled. Which postprocedure complaint indicates that the fallopian tubes are patent?
If the tubes are patent (open), pain is referred to the shoulder (C) from a subdiaphragmatic collection of peritoneal dye/gas.
At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The nurse obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and a shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Increase IV rate. The client is demonstrating symptoms of blood loss, probably the result of an ectopic pregnancy, which occurs at approximately 14-weeks gestation when embryonic growth expands the fallopian tube causing its rupture, and can result in hemorrage and hypovolemic shock. Increasing the IV infusion rate (C) provides intravascular fluid to maintain blood pressure.
Immediately after birth a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse perform next?
Initiate positive pressure ventilation. The nurse should immediately begin positive pressure ventilation (A) because this infant's vital signs are not within the normal range, and oxygen deprivation leads to cardiac depression in infants. (The normal newborn pulse is 100 to 160 beats/minute and respirations are 40 to 60 breaths/minute.) Waiting until the infant is 1 minute old to intervene may worsen the infant's condition. According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, CPR is not begun until the heart rate is 60 or below or between 60 and 80 and not increasing after 20 to 30 seconds of PPV.
A client who is attending antepartum classes asks the nurse why her healthcare provider has prescribed iron tablets. The nurse's response is based on what knowledge?
It is difficult to consume 18 mg of additional iron by diet alone. Consuming enough iron-containing foods to facilitate adequate fetal storage of iron and to meet the demands of pregnancy is difficult (B) so iron supplements are often recommended.
A client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she wants to use herbal therapy. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
It is important that you want to take part in your care.
The nurse assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?
Monitor bleeding from IV sites. Monitoring bleeding from peripheral sites (C) is the priority intervention. This client is presenting with signs of placental abruption. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complication of placental abruptio, characterized by abnormal bleeding.
A client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted for observation. She is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine irritability. Vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. Based on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Obtain a specimen for urine analysis. Obtaining a urine analysis (C) should be done first because preterm clients with uterine irritability and contractions are often suffering from a urinary tract infection, and this should be ruled out first.
A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?
Patellar reflex 4+ A 4+ reflex in a client with pregnancy-induced hypertension (A) indicates hyperreflexia, which is an indication of an impending seizure.
Just after delivery, a new mother tells the nurse, "I was unsuccessful breastfeeding my first child, but I would like to try with this baby." Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement first?
Provide assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery.
An off-duty nurse finds a woman in a supermarket parking lot delivering an infant while her husband is screaming for someone to help his wife. Which intervention has the highest priority?
Put the newborn to breast. Putting the newborn to breast (D) will help contract the uterus and prevent a postpartum hemorrhage--this intervention has the highest priority.
A client receiving epidural anesthesia begins to experience nausea and becomes pale and clammy. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Raise the foot of the bed. These symptoms are suggestive of hypotension which is a side effect of epidural anesthesia. Raising the foot of the bed (A) will increase venous return and provide blood to the vital areas. Increasing the IV fluid rate using a balanced non-dextrose solution and ensuring that the client is in a lateral position are also appropriate interventions.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, "What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?" What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider. Lochia should progress in stages from rubra (red) to serosa (pinkish) to alba (whitish), and not return to red. The return to rubra usually indicates subinvolution or infection. If such a sign occurs, the mother should notify the clinic/healthcare provider and reduce her activity to conserve energy (A).
The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the nurse to assess the client for which condition?
The nurse should evaluate the client for gestational diabetes (A) because terbutaline (Brethine) increases blood glucose levels.
A new mother is afraid to touch her baby's head for fear of hurting the "large soft spot." Which explanation should the nurse give to this anxious client?
There's a strong, tough membrane there to protect the baby so you need not be afraid to wash or comb his/her hair.
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Urine output 90 ml/4 hours. Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours (D), absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
The nurse is teaching a woman how to use her basal body temperature (BBT) pattern as a tool to assist her in conceiving a child. Which temperature pattern indicates the occurrence of ovulation, and therefore, the best time for intercourse to ensure conception?
Between the time the temperature falls and rises. In most women, the BBT drops slightly 24 to 36 hours before ovulation and rises 24 to 72 hours after ovulation, when the corpus luteum of the ruptured ovary produces progesterone. Therefore, intercourse between the time of the temperature fall and rise (A) is the best time for conception.
A new mother asks the nurse, "How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?" Which explanation should the nurse provide?
Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day. The urine will be dilute (straw-colored) and frequent (>6 to 10 times/day) (B), if the infant is adequately hydrated.
What action should the nurse implement to decrease the client's risk for hemorrhage after a cesarean section?
Check the firmness of the uterus every 15 minutes.
A client who gave birth to a healthy 8 pound infant 3 hours ago is admitted to the postpartum unit. Which nursing plan is best in assisting this mother to bond with her newborn infant?
Meet the mother's physical needs and demonstrate warmth toward the infant. It is most important to meet the mother's requirement for attention to her needs so that she can begin infant care-taking (D).