HRM 146(7 until q10)89

Which of the following describes a job in terms of measurable and observable behaviors that an employee doing the job must exhibit to do the job well? A) competency-based job analysis B) Department of Labor procedure C) functional job analysis D) high-performance work matrix

Answer: A Explanation: A) A competency-based job analysis refers to describing a job in terms of measurable, observable, behavioral competencies that an employee doing the job must exhibit to do the job well. This method contrasts with traditional job analysis that describes jobs in terms of job duties and responsibilities. Competency-based analysis is worker-focused.

United Airlines utilizes a checklist of things that pilots should do prior to take-off and landing. This checklist is an example of a(n) ________. A) job aid B) skill sheet C) work function analysis D) electronic support system

Answer: A Explanation: A) A job aid is a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker. Job aids work particularly well on complex jobs that require multiple steps, or where it's dangerous to forget a step, such as airplane take-off.

The information resulting from a job analysis is used for writing ________. A) job descriptions B) corporate objectives C) personnel questionnaires D) training requirements

Answer: A Explanation: A) A job description is a list of what a job entails, and it is derived from a jobanalysis. Job analysis is the procedure through which you determine the duties of job positionsand the characteristics of the people that should be hired for the positions.

What is the LEAST likely reason for the growing number of U.S. firms that are re-shoring jobs? A) free trade areas B) high shipping fees C) inadequate quality D) intellectual property theft

Answer: A Explanation: A) A small but growing band of U.S. manufacturers - including giants such as General Electric, NCR, and Caterpillar..." are actually "reshoring" jobs-bringing them back to United States. Reasons range from rising shipping and labor costs abroad to occasional poor quality goods and intellectual property theft abroad.) Free trade areas increase global trade.

Job analysts collecting information through observations and interviews benefit from the use of a(n) ________ to guide the process and ensure consistency. A) structured list B) electronic diary C) job description D) organization chart

Answer: A Explanation: A) A structured list or checklist is useful for guiding an interview or performing a personal observation. Electronic diaries are completed by the worker and would not be used for observations or interviews.

A ________ is the time it takes to complete a job. A) work cycle B) work week C) shift D) duty

Answer: A Explanation: A) A work cycle is the time it takes to complete a job, which may be one minute for an assembly-line worker or weeks for an engineer. Managers collecting data for a job analysis may observe a worker on the job for a complete work cycle and take notes of the worker's activities.

According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. A) job skills B) psychological behaviors C) interpersonal behaviors D) ethical opinions

Answer: A Explanation: A) About 41% of companies that the American Management Association surveyed tested applicants for basic skills (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement.

During the job analysis process, the primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected about their current positions is to ________. A) confirm that the information is correct and complete B) provide a legal benchmark for employer lawsuits C) encourage employees to seek additional job training D) validate the job specification list provided by HR

Answer: A Explanation: A) Allowing employees to review and modify the information collected about their current positions provides the opportunity to confirm that the data is correct and complete, which may help gain employee acceptance of the job analysis data and conclusions. Job specifications and job descriptions are created after employees review the collected data.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees.Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. All of the following questions are relevant to Mark's decision to implement a training program for his sales team EXCEPT ________. A) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions? B) Does every salesperson understand what his or her performance standards are? C) What tools are available to sales team members to help them work efficiently? D) What were the results of attitude surveys distributed to the sales team?

Answer: A Explanation: A) Although recruiting and interviewing affect the quality of employees on a salesteam, once the workers are hired the focus should be on training. The other questions relate to the decision of implementing a training program.

Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation? A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) leniency D) biased

Answer: A Explanation: A) An appraisal that is too open to interpretation has unclear standards. Specific standards are likely to result in consistent and more easily explained performance appraisals.

Connor, a manager at boat manufacturing firm, takes a talent management approach to his duties. Which of the following would Connor most likely do? A) coordinate recruitment and compensation activities B) use different competencies for recruitment and development C) rely primarily on applicant testing results for hiring decisions D) manage employees based on their experience with the organization

Answer: A Explanation: A) An effective talent management process should integrate the underlying talent management activities such as recruiting, developing, and compensating employees. The same competencies should be used for recruiting, training, and appraising. Firms should balance talent management tasks with testing and proactively manage workers by segmenting them into groups.

Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data to write job descriptions? A) job analyst B) job training specialist C) compensation manager D) EEO coordinator

Answer: A Explanation: A) As a job analyst, a human resource manager collects and examines information about jobs to prepare job descriptions. HR managers also act as recruiters, EEO coordinators, compensation managers, training specialists, and labor relations specialists.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that BARS is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Suzanne wants to provide her subordinates with specific examples of their good and poor job performance during the appraisal interview. B) Suzanne encourages her subordinates to review and make comments about their appraisal during a formal appeals process. C) Wilson Consulting recently installed an electronic performance monitoring system to help supervisors conduct appraisals. D) Suzanne provides her subordinates with upward feedback as a way to illustrate the ratings she assigns to each employee.

Answer: A Explanation: A) BARS, the most accurate appraisal tool, uses critical incidents as support for ratings, which helps supervisors explain appraisals more clearly to subordinates during the appraisal interview. Upward feedback is feedback about supervisors provided by subordinates.

Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?" B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here$ how would you go a&out discouraging this behavior?" C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"

Answer: A Explanation: A) Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when... What did you do?" Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation... What would you do?"

Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) constant sums rating scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

Answer: A Explanation: A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

Which of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex,and race? A) bias B) halo affect C) central tendency D) unclear standards

Answer: A Explanation: A) Bias refers to the tendency to allow individual differences such as age, race, and sex to affect the appraisal ratings that employees receive. Halo effect, unclear standards, and central tendency are other problems associated with performance appraisals.

Which of the following best describes business process reengineering? A) using computerized systems to combine separate tasks B) creating a visual chart for work flow procedures C) assigning additional activities to new employees D) developing employee skills and behaviors

Answer: A Explanation: A) Business process reengineering means redesigning business processes, usually by combining steps so that small multi-function process teams using information technology do the jobs formerly done by a sequence of departments. A workflow analysis may include a visual diagram of work processes.

Which of the following most likely depends on a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and degree of responsibility? A) employee compensation B) organizational culture C) annual training requirements D) OSHA and EEO compliance

Answer: A Explanation: A) Compensation in the form of salaries and bonuses greatly depends upon a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and level of responsibility. Managers use the job analysis to determine the relative worth of a specific job and the most appropriate compensation for an employee.

Which of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process? A) basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations B) administering and scoring appraisals in a standardized fashion C) using job performance dimensions that are too clearly defined D) assigning specific trait names when using graphic rating scales

Answer: A Explanation: A) Courts have ruled in favor of employees when performance appraisals were based on subjective factors such as age, sex, or gender rather than actual job performance.Performance appraisals are more legally sound if based on clearly specified job performance dimensions.

Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________. A) there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers B) one-third of single mothers are not employed in the U.S. labor force C) there are too many nontraditional workers holding multiple jobs D) older employees are more family-centric than younger employees

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers are faced with a possible labor shortage because baby boomers account for a large percentage of the workforce. As these workers reach retirement age, younger workers will need to fill the open positions, except there are fewer younger workers available. The family-centric nature and poor work values of younger workers are problematic for employers, but neither one is the cause of a labor shortage.

An employer is required to make a "reasonable accommodation" for a disabled individual in which of the following situations? A) if a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented by the job's current structure B) when an employer fails to provide a job description for a position that a disabled person would most likely be able to perform C) if making changes would present the employer with an undue hardship D) each time that a disabled individual applies for a position

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers are required to make a "reasonable accommodation" when a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented from doing so by the job's current structure. Employers are not required to make reasonable accommodations if doing so would present an undue hardship on the employer.Employers are not required to have job descriptions, but they are advisable if a discrimination complaint ends up in court.

All of the following are literacy training methods used by employers EXCEPT ________. A) providing computerized simulations B) assigning writing exercises to employees C) holding math and reading classes at work D) sending employees to adult education classes

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers often have supervisors teach basic skills by giving employees writing and speaking exercises. Another approach is to bring in outside professionals to teach,say, remedial reading or writing. Having employees attend adult education or high school evening classes is another option.Computerized simulations are more appropriate for teaching job skills rather than reading and writing.

Which of the following refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be? A) ethics B) strategies C) preferences D) competencies

Answer: A Explanation: A) Ethics is the standards used by individuals to determine how to behave or act. In human resources, ethics relates to the decisions made by HR managers regarding workplace safety, security of employee records, employee theft, affirmative action, comparable work, and employee privacy rights.

What is the final step in the ADDIE training process? A) evaluating the program's successes or failures B) rewarding employees for program participation C) conducting a budget and needs analysis D) training the targeted group of employees

Answer: A Explanation: A) Evaluating the program is the final step in the training process. After training is complete, employees are often rewarded for using new skills, but not during the training process.

Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, which are necessary characteristics for sales reps. Studies have shown that extraversion correlates to success in sales and management jobs.

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Extraversion B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle.Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

Which of the following best depicts how information technology supports performance management? A) tracking team performance with digital dashboards B) conducting employee training through WebEx software C) filing benefits information through the company intranet D) monitoring market performance with electronic scorecards

Answer: A Explanation: A) Firms that implement performance management often use IT-supported tools like scorecard software and digital dashboards to continuously display, monitor, and assess each team's and employee's performance. IT is used by firms for other HR purposes, but monitoring employee and team performance is related to PM.

Human resource managers generally exert ________ within the human resources department and ________ outside the human resources department. A) line authority; implied authority B) staff authority; line authority C) functional authority; line authority D) staff authority; implied authority

Answer: A Explanation: A) HR managers usually have line authority in the HR department, which means they have the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. However, outside of the HR department, HR managers are likely to exert implied authority because line managers realize that the HR manager has top management's ear in areas like testing and affirmative action. Staff authority refers to a manager's authority to advise managers or employees outside of his/her department.

In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as ________, who assist and advise ________ in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. A) staff managers; line managers B) line managers; middle managers C) line managers; staff managers D) functional managers; staff managers

Answer: A Explanation: A) Human resource managers are usually staff managers. They assist and advise line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. However, line managers still have human resource duties.

Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should use intelligent tutoring systems to provide training for loan officers? A) Current Wells Fargo employees indicate that they prefer to work at their own pace and have a variety of learning styles. B) Since Wells Fargo stores are spread throughout the country, the firm needs to provide training at a central location to a large group of current employees at once. C) Wells Fargo's employee orientation program provides new employees with information about the history, culture, and vision of the firm. D) Wells Fargo's board of directors sets training policies and works closely with HR to develop the most appropriate training programs for new employees.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Intelligent tutoring systems learn what questions and approaches worked and did not work for the learner, and therefore adjust the suggested instructional sequence to the trainee's unique needs. Such systems also enable trainees to work at their own pace. Teletraining or videoconferencing would be most effective if employees were spread throughout the country.

All of the following are categorized as computer-based training techniques EXCEPT ________. A) interactive gaming platforms B) intelligent tutoring systems C) computer simulations D) learning portals

Answer: A Explanation: A) Intelligent tutoring systems, computer simulations, and learning portals are types of computer-based training techniques used by many firms. Interactive gaming systems are primarily used for entertainment purposes rather than training, although video-game technology is used to facilitate military training.

Joaquin records every activity in which he participates at work along with the time it takes him to complete each activity. Which of the following approaches to job analysis data collection is most likely being used at Joaquin's workplace? A) diaries B) interviews C) observations D) questionnaires

Answer: A Explanation: A) Joaquin has been asked to keep a diary or a log of his work activities. With diaries and logs, an employee records every activity and the time spent on each in a log, which provides a complete picture of the job. Diaries and logs are often used in conjunction with interviews, observations, and questionnaires.

Which of the following terms refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another? A) Job rotation B) Job enrichment C) Job enlargement D) Job adjustment

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another.Job enrichment is considered the best way to motivate workers by redesigning jobs to increase worker opportunities. Job enlargement is the process of assigning workers additional same-level activities.

Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training. A) job rotation B) understudy C) job expansion D) informal learning

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job rotation, in which an employee (usually a management trainee) moves from job to job at planned intervals, is another OJT technique. With the understudy method, an experienced worker or the trainee's supervisor trains the employee.

Which of the following refers to the human requirements needed for a job, such as education, skills, and personality? A) job specifications B) job analysis C) job placement D) job descriptions

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job specifications are the human requirements needed for a particular job like education, skills, and personality. A job description is a list of the job's duties and responsibilities. Both job descriptions and job specifications are products of a job analysis.

Murray, Inc. emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented, motivated employees with strong social skills as indicated in the firm's job ________. A) specifications B) analysis C) reports D) descriptions

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job specifications summarize the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting a job done. Murray, Inc. wants detail-oriented, motivate employees, which would be described in the firm's job specifications. Job descriptions address the activities and responsibilities of a job. Both job descriptions and job specifications are products of a job analysis.

According to Kurt Lewin, in order for organizational change to occur, which stage must occur first? A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) freezing

Answer: A Explanation: A) Kurt Lewin's model of change indicates that unfreezing is the first step. Moving and refreezing are the next steps in the process.

Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current performance of managers, and developing the managers? A) management development B) performance management C) strategic management D) management by objectives

Answer: A Explanation: A) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills. The management development process consists of assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising managers' current performance, and then developing the managers.

Which data collection method is most frequently used in conjunction with direct observation? A) interview B) questionnaire C) electronic log D) survey

Answer: A Explanation: A) Managers frequently combine direct observation with personal interviews to gather job analysis information. Often, managers observe the worker for a complete work cycle to gather as much information as possible, and then they follow up with an interview to gain clarification. Another option is to observe and interview at the same time by asking the worker questions as he or she works.

Which of the following best explains the shift from manufacturing to service jobs in the U.S.? A) creation of integrated supply chains B) firms producing their own raw materials C) global environmental concerns and legislation D) Web-based training programs for blue-collar workers

Answer: A Explanation: A) Manufacturers are collaborating with their suppliers to create integrated supply chains. Such actions eliminate slack and inefficiencies out of the production system and enable firms to produce more products with fewer employees.

Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers,supervisors, subordinates, and customers? A) 360-degree feedback B) team appraisals C) upward feedback D) rating committee

Answer: A Explanation: A) Many firms expand the idea of upward and peer feedback into "360-degree feedback." Here ratings are collected "all around" an employee, from supervisors, subordinates, peers, and internal or external customers.

When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most appropriate training method to use is ________. A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) programmed learning D) job rotation

Answer: A Explanation: A) Many jobs (or parts of jobs) consist of a logical sequence of steps that one best learns step-by-step. This step-by-step training is called job instruction training (JIT).

Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. A) miniature job training and evaluation B) situational judgment tests C) assessment centers D) management games

Answer: A Explanation: A) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire.Situational judgment tests, assessment centers, and management games are less likely to involve training sessions.

Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity. Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

Tyler, a new accounts representative at Martin Marketing, is learning the job by actually doing job-related tasks such as contacting customers. Tyler is most likely participating in ________. A) on-the-job training B) socialization C) social learning D) modeling

Answer: A Explanation: A) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm.

Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm? A) onboarding B) outsourcing C) organizing D) offshoring

Answer: A Explanation: A) Onboarding is synonymous with employee orientation, which involves providing new employees with the information they need to function. However, onboarding also tries to help new employees understand a firm's values and culture.

Which of the following describes the most significant demographic trend facing the U.S. work force? A) increased number of aging workers B) decreased number of contingent workers C) increased number of blue-collar workers D) decreased number of bilingual workers

Answer: A Explanation: A) One of the most significant demographic trends facing the U.S. workforce is the increasing number of aging workers, who are those over age 55. There are not enough younger workers to replace the projected number of baby boom era older-worker retirees. As a result, many retirees are returning to the workforce.

What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology

Answer: A Explanation: A) Paper-and-pencil (or online) honesty tests are psychological tests designed to predict job applicants' proneness to dishonesty and other forms of counter productivity. Most measure attitudes regarding things like tolerance of others who steal, acceptance of rationalizations for theft, and admission of theft-related activities.

Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a(n) ________. A) reduction of social loafing B) reduction of group cohesion C) decrease in task motivation D) decrease in group satisfaction

Answer: A Explanation: A) Peer appraisals have been shown to improve social loafing, group viability,cohesion, task motivation, and satisfaction. Employees are often motivated to meet the expectations of their colleagues.

Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and standards and to develop rules and procedures? A) planning B) organizing C) staffing D) leading

Answer: A Explanation: A) Planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling are the five main functions of management. The planning function involves establishing goals and standards, developing rules and procedures, and forecasting.

What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments

Answer: A Explanation: A) Preemployment medical exams are used to verify that the applicant meets the position's physical requirements, to discover any medical limitations you should consider in placing him or her, and to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.

All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________. A) programmed learning B) understudy method C) special assignments D) job rotation

Answer: A Explanation: A) Programmed learning is not a type of OJT but another method for training employees. The most familiar on-the-job training is the coaching or understudy method, which is when an experienced worker trains the employee. Job rotation involves an employee moving from job to job at planned intervals, and special assignments give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems.

The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________. A) rank employees B) use graphic rating scales C) limit the number of appraisals D) appraise personal characteristics

Answer: A Explanation: A) Ranking employees instead of using graphic rating scales can reduce the problem of central tendency. Ranking means you can't rate all employees as average.

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

Answer: A Explanation: A) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

The most important consideration when developing an online job analysis is to ________. A) make questions and the process as clear as possible B) provide monetary rewards for timely completion C) limit the number of questions to less than twenty D) ask open-ended questions to ensure honest responses

Answer: A Explanation: A) Removing the ambiguity from both questions and the job analysis process will greatly improve the validity of online results. The purpose of collecting data online is to save time and money, so minimal intervention and guidance should be necessary. The number and type of questions is less important than the clarity of the questions.

The basic aim of ________ is to increase the participant's insight into his or her own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group. A) laboratory training B) action research C) group therapy D) diversity training

Answer: A Explanation: A) Sensitivity, laboratory, or t-group (the t is for "training") training's basic aim is to increase the participant's insight into his or her own behavior by encouraging an open expression of feelings in the trainer-guided t-group. Typically, 10 to 15 people meet to focus on the feelings and emotions of the members in the group at the meeting.

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a ________ test. A) motor ability B) personality C) cognitive D) interest

Answer: A Explanation: A) Some jobs require applicants be tested for motor abilities, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring pilots) reaction time. For example, the Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements.

________ functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the central aspect of a human resource manager's job. A) Staff B) Advocacy C) Line D) Coordinative

Answer: A Explanation: A) Staff functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the heart of the human resource manager's job. He or she advises the CEO so the CEO can better understand the personnel aspects of the company's strategic options. HR also assists in hiring, training, evaluating, rewarding, counseling, promoting, and firing employees. Line and coordinative functions are the other two primary duties of an HR manager.

Strategic human resource management refers to ________. A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims B) planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage C) emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers D) extending a firm's sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets

Answer: A Explanation: A) Strategic human resource management involves formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims. Strategic human resource plans enable a company to hire the employees who will exhibit the behaviors the company needs to accomplish its goals.

Which of the following would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR department that needs to immediately provide employees with corporate information? A) streaming desktop video B) electronic outsourcing C) productivity software D) network monitoring

Answer: A Explanation: A) Streaming desktop videos are used by firms to facilitate distance learning and training or to provide corporate information to employees quickly and inexpensively. For a global firm, streaming videos is the best way to provide information to workers around the world.

Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process? A) conducting appraisals of employees B) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness C) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors D) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws

Answer: A Explanation: A) Supervisors rather than HR managers conduct the actual appraisals. However,the HR department monitors the system's effectiveness and compliance with EEO laws. HR managers also provide supervisors with tools, advice, and training in regards to performance appraisals.

James, an HR manager, is currently identifying the specific knowledge and skills required for a telemarketing position at Newman Enterprises. James is most likely involved in which of the following? A) task analysis B) program evaluation C) strategic training needs analysis D) current training needs analysis

Answer: A Explanation: A) Task analysis is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills- like Java (in the case of a Web developer) or interviewing (in the case of a supervisor)-the job requires. Strategic training needs analysis focuses on identifying the training that employees will need to fill these new future jobs, and current training needs analysis focuses on improving the performance of new or deficient employees.

SMART goals are best described as ________. A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely B) straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely D) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely

Answer: A Explanation: A) The acronym SMART stands for specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely.

Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process? A) holding on-the-job training sessions B) selecting employees for training C) preparing online training materials D) asking participants for feedback

Answer: A Explanation: A) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The fourth step involves providing the training to a targeted employee group. Training methods vary but may include on-the-job training or online training.

Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a ________ function. A) coordinative B) procedural C) staff D) line

Answer: A Explanation: A) The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports the argument that Whitman should create embedded HR units and assign relationship managers to each department within the firm? A) Employees frequently complain about the inconsistent assistance they receive from the HR department due to its large size. B) The global nature of the firm makes it difficult for the HR department to effectively communicate corporate messages to employees scattered around the world. C) Centralized call centers would enable the HR department to provide specialized support on daily transactional activities. D) Line managers want to implement additional screening and evaluations to improve the quality of their subordinates.

Answer: A Explanation: A) The embedded HR unit assigns HR generalists (also known as "relationship managers" or "HR business partners") directly to departments like sales and production, to provide the localized human resource management assistance the departments need. If employees are unable to receive the HR assistance they need on a regular basis, then it would be appropriate for the firm to assign HR generalists to each department as a direct line to the HR department.

What is the final step in conducting a job analysis? A) writing a job description and job specifications B) validating all of the collected job data C) collecting data on specific job activities D) reviewing relevant background information

Answer: A Explanation: A) The final step in the job analysis process involves developing a job description and job specifications, which are the two tangible products of a job analysis. This step occurs after job data has been collected and validated, and background information has been reviewed.

Which of the following best describes the first step in a performance analysis? A) comparing a person's actual performance to the ideal performance B) investigating employee-related customer complaints C) evaluating supervisor performance reviews D) conducting job knowledge assessments

Answer: A Explanation: A) The first step in performance analysis is usually to compare the person's actual performance to what it should be. Doing so helps to confirm that there is a performance deficiency and may also help the manager to identify its cause.

Jennifer, a manager at an engineering firm, has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis. What should be Jennifer's first step in the process? A) deciding how the gathered information will be used B) collecting data on job activities and working conditions C) selecting representative job positions to assess D) reviewing relevant background information

Answer: A Explanation: A) The first step in performing a job analysis is deciding how the job analysis will be used because this determines the data that will be collected and how it will be collected.Collecting data, selecting which job positions to analyze, reviewing background information like organization charts and process charts, and writing job descriptions are additional steps in the job analysis process.

Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve? A) forced distribution B) graphic rating scale C) constant sums rating D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

Answer: A Explanation: A) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Which of the following is an example of a coordinative function performed by HR managers? A) ensuring that line managers are adhering to a firm's sexual harassment policies B) voicing employee concerns about health benefits and wages to upper management C) providing upper management with relevant data on national employment trends D) assisting line managers with hiring, evaluating, and firing employees

Answer: A Explanation: A) The human resource manager performs coordinative functions which require coordinating personnel activities. This function is often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as adhering to sexual harassment policies.

What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description? A) job title B) job summary C) major functions or activities D) standards of performance

Answer: A Explanation: A) The job identification section of a job description includes the job title, FLSA status, and date. The job summary sections describe the major functions and activities of a job.The standards of performance is a separate section of a job description.

In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the leading function? A) maintaining employee morale B) setting performance standards C) training new employees D) developing procedures

Answer: A Explanation: A) The management process includes five functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. The leading function requires a manager to get employees to accomplish their jobs, maintaining morale, and motivating subordinates.

Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling personnel? A) manager B) entrepreneur C) generalist D) marketer

Answer: A Explanation: A) The manager is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling the efforts of the organization's people. An entrepreneur may manage people or may hire a manager to do so instead, but entrepreneurs are defined as individuals who start their own businesses.

In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance? A) employee's direct supervisor B) company appraiser C) human resources manager D) employee's subordinates

Answer: A Explanation: A) The supervisor—not HR—usually does the actual appraising, and a supervisor who rates his or her employees too high or too low (or all average) is doing a disservice to them and to the company. Subordinates rate supervisors in some organizations, but the upward feedback is not the primary appraisal of the supervisor.

Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

Answer: A Explanation: A) Using a search engine like Google is acceptable, but checking social networking sites raises legal issues, especially when done without the candidate's prior approval.Using databases and contacting references are recommended for finding useful information about an applicant.

________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job. A) Vestibule B) Virtual-reality C) Programmed D) Job instruction

Answer: A Explanation: A) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job (perhaps in a separate room or vestibule). Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job.

What is an underlying goal of Whirlpool's ECE program? A) giving job candidates a positive impression of the firm B) selecting a diverse group of job candidates for the firm C) clarifying the corporate culture for job candidates D) ensuring selection validity among job candidates

Answer: A Explanation: A) Whirlpool calls its candidate selection process, the Exceptional Candidate Experience (ECE). The ECE doesn't just aim to select the &est candidates. It also aims to make every candidate a loyal customer by carefully managing the selection process to make sure the candidate gets a consistent and positive impression of the company.

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

Answer: A Explanation: A) With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training.

The Department of Labor procedure uses a set of standard basic activities known as ________ to describe what a worker must do with respect to data, people, and things. A) worker functions B) employee duties C) job procedures D) job requirements

Answer: A Explanation: A) With the DOL procedure, standard basic activities known as worker functions are used to describe what a worker must do in a specific job with respect to three main categories--data, people, and things. Each worker function is given an importance rating for coding purposes.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it's harder to fake answers. Work sampling doesn't delve into the applicant's personality, so there's almost no chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy. Fine motor skills are not necessarily part of the work sampling unless such skills are related to the specific job.

When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should ________. A) identify the standards by which the employee is judged B) provide examples of employees who met the standards C) provide examples of times when the employee met the standards D) be written by a labor law attorney in accordance with federal guidelines

Answer: A Explanation: A) Written warnings should identify the employee's standards, make it clear that the employee was aware of the standard, specify any deficiencies relative to the standard, and show the employee had an opportunity to correct his or her performance.

Royall & Company streamlined its annual benefits package enrollments by digitizing and aggregating the former paper benefits reports, electronic spreadsheets, and benefit summaries and providing the materials at a single location on the company intranet. Royall is most likely using a(n) ________. A) spam filter B) Web portal C) query processor D) software license

Answer: B Explanation: B) A Web portal is most likely being used by Royall. Web portals are used by employers to enable employees to sign up for and manage their own benefits packages and to update their personal information.

Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) critical incident

Answer: B Explanation: B) A graphic rating scale lists traits (such as "quality and reliability" or "teamwork") and a range of performance values (from "unsatisfactory" to "outstanding," or "below expectations" to "role model") for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait.The assigned values for the traits are then totaled.

Which of the following is the primary source of information an employer uses to write a job specification? A) job summary B) job description C) performance standards D) personnel replacement charts

Answer: B Explanation: B) A job analysis is used to produce a job description, which is then used to write a job specification. A job summary is one of the elements typically found in a job description, but the entire job description serves as the source for a job specification. Personnel replacement charts indicate the performance and promotability of internal candidates for positions.

All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________. A) generic dimensions of performance B) performance of co-workers C) achievement of objectives D) job-related competencies

Answer: B Explanation: B) A paired comparison method involves making comparisons of employees with their co-workers. The graphic rating scale measures four job-relevant job dimensions including generic job dimensions, a job's actual duties, competencies, and objectives.

A(n) ________ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a job being analyzed. A) organization chart B) process chart C) job analysis D) job description

Answer: B Explanation: B) A process chart is a work-flow chart that shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a particular job. In the second step of performing a job analysis, background information such as process charts, organization charts, and job descriptions are reviewed.

Which of the following terms refers to a teaching method that uses special collaboration software to enable multiple remote learners to participate in live audio and visual discussions via a PC or laptop? A) computer simulation B) virtual classroom C) intelligent tutoring system D) learning portal

Answer: B Explanation: B) A virtual classroom is a teaching method that uses special collaboration software to enable multiple remote learners, using their PCs or laptops, to participate in live audio and visual discussions, communicate via written text, and learn via content such as PowerPoint slides.

While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs,which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets:achievement and dependability.

According to research, each of the following work behaviors is considered important in all jobs EXCEPT ________. A) attendance B) experience C) schedule flexibility D) industriousness

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, industriousness, thoroughness, schedule flexibility, and attendance are job-related behaviors that are important to all jobs. Experience is not a behavior,and in many entry-level jobs, experience is not necessary.

According to the ADA, job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called ________. A) job requirements B) essential job functions C) work activities D) job specifications

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), essential job functions are the job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation. Most ADA legal actions center on the concept of whether a job function is essential or not.

Which of the following enables management trainees to work full-time analyzing and solving problems in other departments? A) management games B) action learning C) role playing D) job rotation

Answer: B Explanation: B) Action learning programs give managers and others released time to work analyzing and solving problems in departments other than their own. The basics include carefully selected teams of 5 to 25 members, assigning the teams real-world business problems that extend beyond their usual areas of expertise, and structured learning through coaching and feedback.

Which of the following has historically been an integral part of every line manager's duties? A) responding to customer complaints B) handling personnel issues C) creating personnel policies D) establishing dress codes

Answer: B Explanation: B) All line managers directly handle issues related to their subordinates, such as training new employees, creating department morale, and protecting employees' health and safety. Although line managers are involved in interpreting a firm's policies, they are not always involved in creating policies.

Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ________. A) screen applicants based on ability B) transfer skills more easily to the job C) provide employers with feedback D) determine appropriate pay scales

Answer: B Explanation: B) Allowing trainees to work at their own pace, providing adequate practice, and maximizing the similarity between the training situation and the work situation are all techniques that enable trainees to transfer new skills from the training site to the work site.

All of the following are ways in which employers use technology to support their human resource management activities EXCEPT ________. A) paying employees and suppliers electronically B) offshoring and outsourcing benefits administration services C) offering online employee training through streaming desktop videos D) developing data warehouses to compare employees' skills with the firm's needs

Answer: B Explanation: B) Although outsourcing services such as benefits administration is becoming common among employers, the activity is not related to technology changes in HR management activities. Technological applications that are used to support HR include using electronic payment systems, providing training through streaming videos, using data warehouses to monitor HR systems, and monitoring the e-mail and Internet usage of employees.

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) criterion validity measurement

Answer: B Explanation: B) An equivalent form estimate involves administering a test and then administering what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. The internal reliability or consistency of the test is measured by an internal comparison estimate. A retest estimate involves administering the same test.

Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries? A) work sample simulation B) interview C) reference check D) arbitration

Answer: B Explanation: B) An interview is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) The newest members of the Samson sales force are unfamiliar with the procedures used by the firm to measure the effectiveness of new drugs. B) Samson recently eliminated its long-standing policy of paying salespeople commissions on top of base salaries, which angered employees. C) Samson's most experienced salesperson retired after working at the firm for more than twenty years. D) Samson sales team members recently received their annual performance appraisals.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Angry employees may lack the motivation to perform, and training would not likely change their attitudes. Training can help eliminate problems associated with a lack of job knowledge.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased? A) purpose of the appraisal B) location and time of the appraisal C) personal characteristics of the subordinate D) relationship between supervisor and subordinate

Answer: B Explanation: B) Appraisal bias has been shown to be caused by the appraisal's purpose but not the location or time of the appraisal. The personality of the supervisor, personal characteristics of the subordinate, and relationship between the two parties all tend to lead to bias.

Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale? A) chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance B) combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales C) diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work performance D) list of subordinates from highest to lowest based on specific performance traits

Answer: B Explanation: B) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples

Answer: B Explanation: B) Cognitive ability tests are highly valid and the costs related to developing and administering the tests are low. Structured interviews, work samples, and assessment centers have high validity, but they are also costly to develop and administer.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the critical incident method for performance appraisal? A) providing examples of excellent work performance B) comparing and ranking employees within a group C) reflecting performance throughout the appraisal period D) compiling examples of ineffective work performance

Answer: B Explanation: B) Compiling incidents provides examples of good and poor performance, makes the supervisor think about the subordinate's appraisal all during the year, and provides examples of what specifically the subordinate can do to eliminate deficiencies. The downside is that without some numerical rating, this method is not too useful for comparing employees or for salary decisions.

Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey most likely do next? A) create a final appraisal instrument B) develop performance dimensions C) reallocate the incidents D) rate the incidents

Answer: B Explanation: B) Developing performance dimensions is the second step of the BARS process. Stacey should have these people group the incidents into 5 or 10 dimensions and then define each dimension, such as "salesmanship skills." The next steps involve reallocating incidents,rating the incidents, and developing a final instrument.

The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________. A) orientation B) training C) development D) management

Answer: B Explanation: B) Directly after orientation, training should begin. Training means giving new or current employees the skills they need to perform their jobs. Training is essential to good management.

Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data? A) digital dashboard device B) electronic performance monitoring system C) Web-based management oversight device D) electronic performance support system

Answer: B Explanation: B) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online.

Travel agents at Apollo Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the consumer's travel plans. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) audiovisual-based training method B) electronic performance support system C) intelligent tutoring system D) computer-based training module

Answer: B Explanation: B) Electronic performance support systems (EPSS) are computerized tools and displays that automate training, documentation, and phone support. In this example, a client calling the travel service is asked questions that are prompted by an EPSS to take both the client and travel agent step-by-step, through an analytical sequence.

According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm's productivity is its inability to ________. A) establish effective manufacturing facilities B) acquire and maintain human capital C) use advanced accounting controls D) attain adequate cash and credit

Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts assert that it's the work force and the company's inability to recruit and maintain a good work force that constitutes a bottleneck for production. Projects backed by good ideas, vigor, and enthusiasm are less likely to be stopped by a shortage of cash than a shortage of human capital, which is the knowledge, education, training, skills and expertise of a firm's workers.

Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits? A) recency effect B) halo effect C) central tendency D) stereotyping

Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." For example, supervisors often rate unfriendly employees lower on all traits, rather than just on "gets along well with others."

Which of the following best explains why top HR executives are being paid increasingly high salaries? A) A firm's vision is only effective when HR managers play a strategic role in its development. B) Effective HR managers increase corporate profitability and organizational performance. C) Transactional activities are more cost-effective when outsourced by HR. D) Business strategies developed by HR managers are quantifiable.

Answer: B Explanation: B) From top management's point of view, it's not sufficient that HR management just oversee activities such as recruiting and benefits. It must add value, particularly by boosting profitability and performance in measurable ways. So, many top-ranked human resource managers earn multi-million dollar total take home pay.

________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad. A) Expansion B) Globalization C) Export growth D) Diversification

Answer: B Explanation: B) Globalization is the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad. Firms usually expand globally to expand sales, cut labor costs, or form partnerships with foreign firms.

All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining a diary of employees' performance during the year B) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings C) knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools D) developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Graphic rating scales do not necessarily lead to effective performance appraisals, and they are susceptible to problems like bias and central tendency. Keeping a diary,knowing which tool to use, and forming a performance improvement plan are all methods for improving the effectiveness of a performance appraisal.

All of the following are examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT ________. A) job analyst B) financial advisor C) compensation manager D) labor relations specialist

Answer: B Explanation: B) HR management specialties include recruiter, EEO coordinator, job analyst, compensation manager, training specialist, and labor relations specialist. HR managers are less likely to serve as financial advisors.

What term refers to the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers? A) human resources B) human capital C) intangible assets D) contingent personnel

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human capital is the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers. In the modern workforce, employment is shifting from manual workers to knowledge workers.

According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? A) uncrossed legs B) irregular breathing C) unchanging pupils D) slow verbal responses

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human lie detectors are experts who may (or may not) be able to identify lying just by watching candidates. Signs include pupils changing size (which often corresponds to emotions, such as fear); irregular breathing (may flag nervousness); micro-expressions (quick transitory facial expressions that may portray emotions such as fear); crossing legs ("liars typically try to distance themselves from an untruth"); and quick verbal responses (possibly reflecting scripted statements).

________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. A) Labor relations B) Human resource management C) Behavioral management D) Organizational health and safety management

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human resource management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. HRM falls under the staffing function of the management process.

Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500 company. In which of the following tasks does Tara's advanced degree benefit her the most? A) using application service providers to expedite employee services B) assisting upper management in formulating business strategies C) distributing pension payments to retiring employees D) recruiting college graduates for entry-level positions

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human resource managers in today's workforce still need skills in areas such as employee selection, training, and compensation, as HR managers in the past did. However, modern HR managers also require broader business knowledge and proficiencies, which can be gained through an MBA program. For example, to assist top management in formulating strategies, the human resource manager needs to be familiar with strategic planning, marketing, production, and finance. He or she must also be able to "speak the CFO's language," by explaining human resource activities in financially measurable terms, such as return on investment and cost per unit of service.

An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide HR management assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the structure of the HR services provided at Wilson Manufacturing? A) transactional HR groups B) embedded HR units C) HR centers of expertise D) corporate HR groups

Answer: B Explanation: B) In the embedded HR unit structure, an HR generalist is assigned directly to a department within an organization to provide localized human resource management assistance as needed. Transactional, corporate, and centers of expertise are three other typical organizational approaches to HR.

Unlike HR managers of the past, modern HR managers must be able to ________. A) assist with employee training in various departments within a firm B) explain HR activities in terms of a firm's finances and productivity C) determine the most appropriate compensation for employees D) hire workers who are well-matched to a firm's HR needs

Answer: B Explanation: B) In the past, HR managers mainly focused on employee training, compensation, and hiring. Now, HR managers need to be familiar with strategic planning, marketing, production, and finance. He or she must also be able to "speak the CFO's language," by explaining human resource activities in financially measurable terms, such as return on investment and cost per unit of service.

Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) administrative

Answer: B Explanation: B) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format. A few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. structured interviews are known as directive interviews.

MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result, the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for ________. A) discrimination B) negligent training C) occupational fraud D) hazardous training

Answer: B Explanation: B) Inadequate training can also expose employers to negligent training liability. If an employer fails to train adequately and an employee harms a third party, it is likely that the court will find the employer liable.

The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extraversion D) conscientiousness

Answer: B Explanation: B) Industrial psychologists often focus on the "big five" personality dimensions: extraversion, emotional stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five.

Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests. A) standardized B) intelligence C) achievement D) personality

Answer: B Explanation: B) Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned.

Which of the following data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a software engineer? A) distributing position analysis questionnaires B) interviewing employees C) analyzing organization charts D) developing a job process chart

Answer: B Explanation: B) Interviewing employees to determine what the job entails is an effective method of collecting data for writing a job description. Position analysis questionnaires are useful for compensation purposes rather than for writing job descriptions.

In most firms, line managers work in conjunction with HR managers when ________. A) visiting college campuses to recruit B) interviewing job applicants C) administering preemployment tests D) testing employees for drugs

Answer: B Explanation: B) Interviewing job applicants is a duty shared by line managers and HR managers in over 60% of firms. Recruiting at college campuses, administering preemployment tests, and testing employees for drugs are primarily the responsibilities of HR managers.

The most popular method for ranking employees is the ________ method. A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

Answer: B Explanation: B) It is usually easier to distinguish between the worst and best employees, and the alternation ranking method is the most popular choice for supervisors. Paired comparison and forced distribution are less popular methods for ranking employees from best to worst on a traitor traits. A graphic rating not ranking scale is a popular appraisal tool.

Which of the following terms refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition? A) Job rotation B) Job enrichment C) Job reengineering D) Job enlargement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Job enrichment refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition. Job enrichment is considered by some experts as the best way to motivate workers through worker empowerment. Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another. Job enlargement is the process of assigning workers additional same-level activities.

Jack is an employee at a Best Western Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering group,and other weeks he assists the reservations clerk or the parking attendant. This is an example of ________. A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) job enrichment D) job specialization

Answer: B Explanation: B) Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another, so when Jack moves from department to department he is participating in job rotation. Job enlargement would occur if Jack was given additional same-level activities, such as washing both sheets and towels as part of his housekeeping duties. Job enrichment occurs when a worker's opportunities are increased to enhance feelings of responsibility and recognition.

Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) management by objective C) mixed standard scales D) forced distribution

Answer: B Explanation: B) MBO refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made. MBO is used as a primary appraisal method and as a supplement to other methods.

A manager uses the information in a job analysis for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) assessing training requirements B) complying with FCC regulations C) determining appropriate compensation D) providing accurate performance appraisals

Answer: B Explanation: B) Managers use information gathered from a job analysis for many activities including providing performance appraisals, recruiting, determining compensation, and assessing training requirements. Job analysis plays a major role in EEO (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) compliance but not with FCC (Federal Communications Commission) regulations.

Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's performance anonymously? A) supplemental evaluation B) upward feedback C) paired evaluation D) peer evaluation

Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance, a process some call upward feedback. The process helps top managers diagnose management styles, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual managers as required.

In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________ members. A) 1-2 B) 3-4 C) 5-6 D) 7-8

Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers use rating committees. These committees usually contain the employee's immediate supervisor and two or three other supervisors.

Which term refers to a set of quantitative performance measures that human resource managers use to assess their operations? A) case studies B) metrics C) practices D) ratios

Answer: B Explanation: B) Metrics are quantitative performance measures used by HR managers to assess operations. Metrics are used in evidence-based human resource management to make decisions about HR management practices and policies.

What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales? A) improving validity B) reducing rating errors C) clarifying performance standards D) illustrating feedback for subordinates

Answer: B Explanation: B) Mixed standard scales generally list just a few behavioral examples for each performance dimensions. The employer then "mixes" the resulting behavioral examples statements when listing them. The aim is to reduce rating errors such as leniency, by making it less obvious to the supervisor (1) what performance dimensions he or she is rating, and (2)whether the behavioral example statements represent high, medium, or low performance.

All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________. A) correcting any work-related deficiencies B) creating an organizational strategy map C) determining appropriate salary and bonuses D) making decisions about promotions

Answer: B Explanation: B) Most employers still base pay and promotional decisions on the employee's appraisal. Appraisals also lets the boss and subordinate develop a plan for correcting any deficiencies, and serve a useful career planning purpose. Creating a strategy map is not a likely purpose for conducting a performance appraisal.

According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) driving records

Answer: B Explanation: B) Nearly 90% of HR managers reported conducting reference checks. Credit checks were performed by 35% of HR managers, while 56% investigated an applicant's driving history.

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) improper hiring D) invalid screening

Answer: B Explanation: B) Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes.Employers can be sued for negligent hiring.

Which term refers to using external vendors to perform HR jobs that were once handled by a firm internally? A) freelancing B) outsourcing C) rightsizing D) warehousing

Answer: B Explanation: B) Outsourcing refers to using outside vendors to provide a service that was once handled internally by a firm's employees. Many transactional HR services are being outsourced, such as issuing checks and handling benefits administration.

What is the first step of any performance appraisal? A) giving feedback B) setting work standards C) making plans to provide training D) assessing the employee's performance

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal always involves the 3-step performance appraisal process: (1) setting work standards, (2) assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards; and (3) providing feedback to the employee with the aim of helping him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.

Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards? A) employee selection B) performance appraisal C) employee orientation D) organizational development

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards. Performance appraisal always involves setting work standards, assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards,and providing feedback to the employee.

Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) peers B) competitors C) subordinates D) rating committees

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisals are primarily performed by supervisors. However, firms are increasingly using peers, rating committees, and subordinates to conduct appraisals.Competitors are not used for performance appraisals.

Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale.However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument to replace Oshman's traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach? A) Oshman's competitors in the small appliance industry monitor the performance of their employees through electronic performance monitoring systems. B) Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs. C) Oshman has experienced problems associated with central tendency and bias, and the firm wants to ensure that appraisals are legally sound. D) Oshman uses management by objectives as a primary appraisal method and requires supervisors to develop SMART goals.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance management refers to the continuous process of aligning the performance of individuals and teams with an organization's goals. Performance management does not necessarily eliminate problems like central tendency and bias. Instead, the approach focuses on monitoring an employee's performance and making sure it matches the needs of the firm.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin'score values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. B) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers. C) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations. D) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Personality traits, as uncovered by personality tests, often correlate to job performance. Red Robin seeks employees that match the firm's core values of honor, integrity,having fun, and continually seeking knowledge, and personality tests would indicate an applicant's level of extraversion and openness to experiences.

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Predictive C) Concurrent D) Statistical

Answer: B Explanation: B) Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is administered to applicants before hiring. Applicants are hired using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time,measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance.

Which of the following is a systematic method for teaching job skills that involves presenting questions or facts, allowing the person to respond, and giving the learner immediate feedback on the accuracy of his or her answers? A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) simulated learning

Answer: B Explanation: B) Programmed learning (or programmed instruction) is a step-by-step, self-learning method that consists of three parts: presenting questions, facts, or problems to the learner; allowing the person to respond; and providing feedback on the accuracy of answers.

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) introversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) emotional stability

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reasoning skills are tested with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and emotional stability among other qualities.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin'score values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry. B) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry. C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements. D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Red Robin will train new hires and does not need to assess their job knowledge,so achievement tests are unnecessary. If Red Robin expected applicants to have a certain level of skill or knowledge then achievement tests would be appropriate.

The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance is called ________. A) job redesign B) reengineering C) process engineering D) job enlargement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reengineering, or business process reengineering, refers to redesigning a business process so that small multidisciplinary self-managing teams complete a task together.This differs from the typical business process which is similar to a relay race where one person completes a step and then passes the task to another person.

Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? A) equivalency B) reliability C) expectancy D) validity

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant/s oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) group B) selection C) benchmark D) background

Answer: B Explanation: B) Selection interviews are designed to predict future job performance based on the applicant/s oral responses to oral inquiries, interviews may be one-on-one or may be conducted in group settings.

How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews? A) situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations B) situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation C) situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills D) behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations

Answer: B Explanation: B) Situational interviews ask applicants to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation today or tomorrow, and behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past. Job-related interviews ask job-related questions to assess the applicant's ability to perform the job.

Pocket dictating machines and pagers have replaced traditional diary/log methods in many firms. Which of the following problems have the modern methods most likely eliminated? A) work time required to fill out forms and surveys B) employee forgetfulness regarding daily activities C) costs associated with copying and filing paperwork D) employee frustration towards bureaucratic requirements

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some firms provide employees with pocket dictating machines and pagers to keep diaries and logs. At random times during the day, the employee is paged. The employee then dictates what he or she is doing. With this method, employers do not have to rely on workers to remember what they did hours earlier when they complete their logs at the end of the day, which was the main problem with paper/pencil diaries.

Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements? A) training assessment form B) task analysis record form C) organizational skills sheet D) work function analysis

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some managers supplement the job description and specification with a task analysis record form. This consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a form that's especially helpful for determining training requirements.

Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings? A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low.Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores.

Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs. B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances. C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process. D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some urine sample tests cannot tell the difference between legal and illegal substances, such as Advil and marijuana. Drug testing is not mandatory for all employers. Drug test are typically given just before a candidate is formally hired. Breathalyzers can measure impairment but not drug tests.

________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. A) Needs analysis B) Task analysis C) Training strategy D) Development planning

Answer: B Explanation: B) Task analysis is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. Job descriptions and job specifications are important here because they list the job's specific duties and skills, which are the basic reference points in determining the training required.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?

Answer: B Explanation: B) Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, so it is important that Golden Creamery develops a plan for maintaining privacy prior to administering tests.Determining whether to hire internally or externally is a recruiting issue rather than a testing concern. Although a firm's mission and vision statements guide its general direction, such statements are not directly relevant to testing.

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?A) reliability B) validity C) expectancy D) consistency

Answer: B Explanation: B) Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill.

According to the ________, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions. A) DOL B) ADA C) FCC D) SIC

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was enacted by Congress to reduce or eliminate discrimination against disabled individuals. According to the ADA, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions.

Experts at the ________ performed the earliest form of job analysis and published the Dictionary of Occupational Titles .A) EEOC B) DOL C) BLS D) DHS

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Department of Labor performed the earliest work in job analysis which resulted in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles. The book contained detailed information on nearly every job in America based on ratings of data, people, and things. The DOL work eventually led to the development of position analysis questionnaires (PAQ).

Which of the following is identified by the FLSA status section of a job description? A) whether the employer is a non-profit organization B) whether a job is exempt or nonexempt C) whether the employer is a private or public firm D) whether a job requires a college degree

Answer: B Explanation: B) The FLSA status section identifies a job as exempt or nonexempt. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, certain positions, mostly administrative and professional, are exempt from the act's overtime and minimum wage provisions.

Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers? A) Association of Certified HR Managers B) Society for Human Resource Management C) Academy of Human Resource Executives D) Association of Business Administration

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) provides professional certification to HR managers. SHRM exams test the professional's knowledge of all aspects of human resource management, including ethics, management practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, and health and safety.

Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process? A) training a targeted group B) creating training materials C) evaluating the success of the program D) estimating a budget for the training program

Answer: B Explanation: B) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The third step, developing the course,involves assembling and creating the training materials.

Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals? A) difficult to implement B) harm to employee morale C) high costs of administration D) time consuming to administer

Answer: B Explanation: B) The biggest complaints regarding the forced distribution method are that it damages morale, and it creates interdepartmental inequities. The tool is not difficult to implement, time consuming, or costly.

A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors someone would need to perform a job well is known as a ________. A) scatter plot B) competency model C) classification table D) organizational chart

Answer: B Explanation: B) The competency model consolidates, usually in one diagram, a precise overview of the competencies (for example, in terms of knowledge, skills, and behaviors)someone would need to do a job well.

John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) forced distribution C) alternation ranking D) paired comparison

Answer: B Explanation: B) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance? A) alternation ranking B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) constant sum rating scale

Answer: B Explanation: B) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. A graphic rating scale lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait.The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait.

What has been the most significant impact of modern technology on job analysis methods? A) Extensive use of the Internet by HR managers enables more people to telecommute from locations far from corporate headquarters. B) Corporate use of the Internet and intranet has enabled HR managers to distribute and collect job analysis surveys to employees in multiple geographic locations. C) Worker functions have changed as a result of modern technology, so the DOL procedure for data collection has been modified and categories have been altered. D) The ability to falsify information on Internet surveys has led to an increase in interviews and observations by HR managers to collect accurate job analysis information.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The greatest impact of modern technology on job analysis methods has been the ability of HR mangers to use the Internet and intranet to distribute and collect job analysis data to geographically dispersed employees. Face-to-face interviews and observations are difficult and time consuming, especially for a global firm, so questionnaires distributed online are more frequently used. Although falsifying information is always a problem with job analysis, it is too costly for HR managers to perform more interviews or observations.

According to Kurt Lewin, all of the following should occur in the moving stage of organizational change EXCEPT ________. A) developing a vision B) mobilizing commitment C) consolidating gains D) creating a leading coalition

Answer: B Explanation: B) The moving stage is characterized by helping employees make the change,developing a vision, consolidating gains, and creating a leading coalition. Mobilizing commitment occurs in the unfreezing stage.

Jolene, a manager, delegates the responsibility for a project to Lee, her subordinate. Jolene is most likely involved in which function of the management process? A) staffing B) organizing C) motivating D) leading

Answer: B Explanation: B) The organizing function of the management process includes delegating authority to subordinates and establishing channels of communication. The organizing function also includes establishing departments and coordinating the work of subordinates.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data? A) Interviews are a complicated method for collecting information. B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information. C) Interviews provide only general information about a worker's duties. D) Interviews may require managers to reveal the job analysis function.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary disadvantage of conducting employee interviews for the purpose of gathering job analysis data is the distortion of information. Employees may misunderstand the purpose of the interview and either purposely or mistakenly provide incorrect information.Interviews are considered a simple method for collecting detailed job information especially regarding uncommon but important employee activities.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should use a position analysis questionnaire to collect job analysis information? A) Compliance with EEO laws requires businesses to compile quantitative data. B) Management wants to develop a pay scale for all employees at Purrfect Pets. C) Purrfect Pets managers are unfamiliar with the typical routines of most employees. D) Managers believe that some Purrfect Pets employees are overlooking important daily tasks.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary reason to use a position analysis questionnaire is to gather quantitative data that enables managers to compare jobs for pay purposes. Although a PAQ provides quantitative data, businesses are not required by EEO laws to use them. Interviews or observations would be more appropriate for uncovering overlooked tasks or becoming familiar with an employee's duties.

All of the following are the most common reasons that firms decide to globalize EXCEPT ________. A) reducing labor costs B) supervising quality control methods C) seeking new foreign products to sell D) forming international partnerships

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary reasons that firms decide to expand abroad are to reduce labor costs, seek new foreign products or services to sell, and form international partnerships. For consumers, lower prices and higher quality are benefits of globalization, but firms are less likely to decide to globalize because they want to improve quality control.

The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________. A) apply for managerial positions B) remove any performance deficiencies C) revise their performance standards D) enroll in work-related training programs

Answer: B Explanation: B) The purpose of providing feedback to the employee is to motivate him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.

________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders. A) Leadership B) Authority C) Management D) Responsibility

Answer: B Explanation: B) The right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders is known as authority. Line authority gives managers the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. In contrast, staff authority gives the manager the authority to advise other managers or employees.

Which of the following should occur during the second step of the on-the-job training process? A) The supervisor puts the learner at ease and explains the purpose of the training. B) The trainee explains the steps as the supervisor performs the task at a slow pace. C) The supervisor explains the whole job and relates it to the trainee's other tasks. D) The trainee performs the job several times slowly as the supervisor observes.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The second step of the OJT process involves the supervisor presenting the operation to the trainee. At this stage, the supervisor should perform the task slowly while explaining each step. In the third step, the trainee performs the task.

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

Answer: B Explanation: B) The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant's performance.

American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about airplane equipment and safety measures. This is an example of ________. A) on-the-job training B) vestibule training C) virtual reality training D) programmed learning

Answer: B Explanation: B) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job. Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job, such as with pilots.

When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the supervisor to ________. A) limit negative feedback to once every year B) provide specific examples of critical incidents C) acknowledge the supervisor's personal biases in the situation D) hold the meeting with other people who can document the situation

Answer: B Explanation: B) When you must criticize, it should be done privately and should include examples of critical incidents and specific suggestions of what to do and why. Avoid once-a-year "critical broadsides" by giving feedback periodically, so that the formal review contains no surprises. Criticism should be objective and free of personal bias.

The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________. A) develop performance dimensions B) generate critical incidents C) compare subordinates D) scale incidents

Answer: B Explanation: B) Writing about critical incidents is the first step in BARS. A supervisor will ask persons who know the job (jobholders and/or supervisors) to describe specific illustrations(critical incidents) of effective and ineffective job performance.

Which of the following terms refers to a formal method for testing the effectiveness of a training program? A) electronic performance monitoring B) factor comparison method C) controlled experimentation D) performance management

Answer: C Explanation: C) A controlled experiment uses both a training group and a control group that receives no training to test the effectiveness of a training program. Data are obtained both before and after the group is exposed to training and before and after a corresponding work period in the control group.

________ refers to an integrated set of human resource management policies and practices that together result in superior employee performance. A) Strategic planning B) Strategic human resource management C) High-performance work system D) Human resource scorecard approach

Answer: C Explanation: C) A high-performance work system is a set of human resource management policies and practices that together produce superior employee performance. Firms that use such systems typically have higher overall performance, higher profits, lower operating costs, and lower worker turnover in comparison to low-performance work systems.

Which of the following is a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities,working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities of a job? A) job specification B) job analysis C) job description D) job context

Answer: C Explanation: C) A job description is a written list of a job's duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities, and it is the result of a job analysis. Job specifications focus on the human requirements for a particular job, such as personality and education. Job context refers to the physical working conditions or work schedule associated with a job.

Gerard is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks. Gerard is most likely a ________. A) training specialist B) staff manager C) line manager D) recruiter

Answer: C Explanation: C) A line manager is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks. Unlike line managers, staff managers lack the authority to issue orders down the chain of command. Recruiters and training specialists are specialties within the HR department, and HR managers are usually staff managers rather than line managers.

A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test

Answer: C Explanation: C) A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. The center itself may be a simple conference room, but more likely a special room with a one-way mirror to facilitate observation.

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) nonperformance D) psychological issues

Answer: C Explanation: C) A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Most people are hired based on qualifications, but most are fired for nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude,motivation, and especially, temperament."

A(n) ________ is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the duties and responsibilities of various jobs. A) electronic diary/log B) group interview C) position analysis questionnaire D) Internet-based survey

Answer: C Explanation: C) A position analysis questionnaire is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the duties and responsibilities of various jobs. A PAQ contains 194 items that are based on five PAQ basic activities: having decision-making/communication/social responsibilities, performing skilled activities, being physically active, operating vehicles/equipment, and processing information.

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

Answer: C Explanation: C) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency.

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) internal consistency D) criterion validity

Answer: C Explanation: C) A test's internal consistency is measured by making internal comparison estimates. Internal consistency explains why apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires.

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) projective tests

Answer: C Explanation: C) Achievement tests measure what someone has learned. They measure your "job knowledge" in areas like economics, marketing, or human resources. Projective tests measure personality, while aptitude tests measure an applicant's specific mental abilities.

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) agreeableness D) openness to experience

Answer: C Explanation: C) Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Neuroticism, extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are the other personality traits known as the big five.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of lecturing as a method of training? A) motivational for employees B) effective for informal learning C) appropriate for large groups D) requires limited preparation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Although some correctly view lectures as being boring, studies and practical experience show that they can be effective. Lecturing is a quick and simple way to present knowledge to large groups of trainees, as when the sales force needs to learn a new product's features.

All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT ________. A) explaining how subordinates can improve their performance B) basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors C) using subjective performance data for appraisals D) training supervisors how to conduct appraisals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Appraisals should be based on objective rather than subjective performance data and also on observable job behaviors. Appraisers should explain how subordinates can improve their performance, clarify in advance the performance objectives, and train supervisors in how to conduct appraisals.

A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________. A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) coaching technique

Answer: C Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training is a process by which people become skilled workers,usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training. It traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master crafts person.

Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master crafts person? A) understudy training B) mentoring C) apprenticeship training D) coaching

Answer: C Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master crafts person. It is a process by which people become skilled workers, usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training.

A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________. A) halo effect B) stereotyping C) central tendency D) leniency

Answer: C Explanation: C) Central tendency refers to the tendency of supervisors to rate all employees the same way, such as rating them all average.

Which of the following best supports the argument that jobs should be described in terms of competencies rather than duties? A) New employees in high-performance work systems receive extensive job skills training for their specific positions. B) Managers in global firms are empowered to implement job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment in order to maximize productivity. C) In high-performance work systems, employees serve as team members rotating among various jobs. D) Globalization and telecommuting require workers to be able to self-manage and perform duties without close supervision.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Competency-based job descriptions are more appropriate than traditional job descriptions when high-performance work systems are the goal. In a HPWS, workers are encouraged to serve as team members and to rotate freely among jobs, so competencies should be the focus rather than a list of specific job duties which might hinder employee flexibility.

The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________. A) unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides B) certification required to conduct a job analysis C) amount of time a job analysis takes to complete D) redundant information gathered during a job analysis E) costs associated with the technology needed for a job analyis

Answer: C Explanation: C) Conducting a job analysis can be time-consuming because it may take days to interview multiple employees and their managers, which is why an abbreviated version is often used by managers. The information gathered through a job analysis is typically verifiable and useful, and the main cost is time rather than money. Although management training may be necessary to perform an adequate job analysis, it is unlikely that certification is required.

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness

Answer: C Explanation: C) Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance.

What is the primary purpose of implementing a cross training program at a firm? A) compiling skills records B) creating a diverse environment C) facilitating flexible job assignments D) assessing employee technical skills

Answer: C Explanation: C) Cross training means training employees to do different tasks or jobs than their own; doing so facilitates flexibility and job rotation, as when you expect team members to occasionally share jobs.

An HR manager who wants to analyze the costs associated with each new hire will most likely use which of the following? A) podcasts B) Web portal C) data warehouse D) public domain software

Answer: C Explanation: C) Data warehouses and computerized analytical programs help HR managers monitor their HR systems. Both make it simpler for HR managers to assess things like cost per hire and to compare current employees' skills with the firm's projected strategic needs.

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable

Answer: C Explanation: C) Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job. Content validity can also be shown by demonstrating that the condition sunder which the person takes the test resemble the work situation, although this is not always easy.

For which of the following jobs is direct observation NOT a recommended method for collecting job analysis data? A) assembly-line worker B) accounting clerk C) attorney D) nurse

Answer: C Explanation: C) Direct observation is particularly useful when jobs consist mainly of observable physical activities, such as with nurses, accounting clerks, assembly-line workers, and salespersons. Observation is less appropriate when a job involves mostly mental activity such as with lawyers and design engineers.

Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm's higher-level goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals? A) goal alignment B) performance monitoring C) direction sharing D) developmental support

Answer: C Explanation: C) Direction sharing means communicating the company's higher-level goals(including its vision, mission, and strategy) throughout the company and then translating these into doable departmental, team, and individual goals. Coaching and developmental support, goal alignment, and performance monitoring are other elements of performance management.

Which of the following is most likely NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program? A) making new employees feel like part of a team B) helping new employees become socialized into the firm C) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union D) teaching new employees about the firm's history and strategies E) providing basic information to new employees to help them work

Answer: C Explanation: C) During employee orientation, firms try to make the new employee feel welcome and at home and part of the team, make sure the new employee has the basic information to function effectively, help the new employee understand the organization in a broad sense, and start the person on the process of becoming socialized into the firm's culture, values, and ways of doing things. It is less likely that the firm would help employees join a labor union.

E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. A) review an applicant's employment records B) file an applicant's income tax information C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government

Answer: C Explanation: C) E-Verify is the federal government's voluntary electronic employment verification program used by many employers. Federal contractors are required to use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.

Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals? A) creating specific goals B) assigning measurable goals C) administering consequences for failure to meet goals D) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Effective goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely.Goals should be challenging but doable, and employee participation should be encouraged.Giving consequences for failing to meet goals is not recommended and unlikely to motivate employees.

On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies,and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate? A) recruitment B) selection C) orientation D) development

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employee orientation is the process of providing new employees with basic background information about the firm. Orientation should help new employees start getting emotionally attached to the firm as well.

What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals? A) Ratings are reliable but invalid. B) Ratings are subject to halo effects. C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors. D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers. Self-ratings are neither reliable nor valid in most cases.

Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) disability history

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employers verify data regarding military service, employment history,education, and credit. An applicant's age, marital status, ethnicity, and medical history or disabilities are considered irrelevant to hiring, and an employer may violate EEO laws by requesting such information.

The best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________. A) keep critical incident logs B) require multiple appraisals C) impose a performance distribution D) reconsider the timing of the appraisal

Answer: C Explanation: C) Enforcing a performance distribution is one way of correcting leniency/strictness problems. Another option is to rank employees.

Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal? A) central tendency B) leniency C) halo effect D) recency effect

Answer: C Explanation: C) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." Central tendency refers to rating all employees average.Recency effect means focusing on the most recent behavior of an employee rather than his or her performance over a year.

All of the following are useful methods for ensuring success after on-the-job training has occurred EXCEPT ________. A) gradually decreasing supervision B) complimenting the learner's good work C) providing turnkey training packages for learners D) designating to whom the learner should go for help

Answer: C Explanation: C) Follow-up with learners should include designating to whom the learner should go for help, gradually decreasing supervision, checking work from time to time, correcting faulty work patterns before they become a habit., and complimenting good work. Employers often use pre-made training packages for their workers to use, but such training tools do not improve the chances of success.

Which of the following refers to the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel activities? A) staff authority B) line authority C) functional authority D) corporate authority

Answer: C Explanation: C) Functional authority refers to the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel activities. An HR manager ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's HR policies and practices. Line authority is a a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees, which creates a superior-subordinate relationship. Staff authority refers to a manager's right to advise other managers or employees, which creates an advisory relationship.

Globalization, competition, and technology have led to which of the following trends in human resource management? A) HR managers primarily focus on providing transactional services like recruiting and hiring. B) Metrics used to measure employee potential have been replaced by standardized testing. C) HR managers assist top management with developing and implementing new strategies. D) Employee contracts are frequently used by HR managers to protect the interests of the firm.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Globalization, competition, workforce trends, and economic upheaval have led HR managers to become more involved with top management in developing and implementing the firm's strategies or long-term plans. HR managers are focusing more on the big picture and less on transactional services, which are being increasingly outsourced.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools? A) eliminates central tendency errors B) offers extremely high rate of accuracy C) provides quantitative rating for each employee D) links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales are simple to use and provide quantitative ratings for each employee. However the tool has problems with central tendency and unclear standards.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) The firm wants Suzanne to evaluate her subordinates on an ongoing basis and to keep a log of critical incidents. B) Suzanne wants to ensure that the firm is protected from employee discrimination lawsuits, so she has conducted a job analysis of each position. C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills. D) Employees in Suzanne's department participated in developing their own performance standards when they were first hired by the firm.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales with competency-based appraisal forms enable an employer to focus on the extent to which an employee exhibits the competencies essential for the job. Graphic rating scales do not track critical incidents, and they are not the best tool for protecting a firm from legal charges because of problems with bias, central tendency, and halo effect.

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphology refers to the use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits. Graphology thus has some resemblance to projective personality tests,although graphology's validity is highly suspect.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site.

Answer: C Explanation: C) High turnover rates suggest that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the most appropriate employees, which supports the implementation of a testing program. If hourly workers remained at the firm for a long time, then that would suggest the firm's current hiring practices do not need to be modified.

All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such assimulations, EXCEPT ________. A) instructional consistency B) responsive feedback C) increased learning time D) increased retention rate

Answer: C Explanation: C) In general, interactive technologies reduce learning time by an average of 50%.Other advantages include instructional consistency (computers, unlike human trainers, don't have good days and bad days), mastery of learning (if the trainee doesn't learn it, he or she generally can't move on to the next step), increased retention, and increased trainee motivation (resulting from responsive feedback).

In general, how many human resource employees would be on staff for a firm with 500 total employees? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10

Answer: C Explanation: C) In most firms, there is one HR employee for every 100 company employees. Therefore, a firm with 500 company employees would require 5 HR employees to handle all of the firm's HR issues.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates? A) allows candidates to ask questions B) uses a manager/s time more effectively C) pursues points of interest as they develop D) scores and compares candidates with consistency

Answer: C Explanation: C) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. With unstructured interviews$ an interviewer can pursue points of interest as they develop and ask follow up questions because of the format's flexibility.

An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm

Answer: C Explanation: C) Interest inventories compare an applicant's interests with those of people in various occupations. Thus, a person who takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management.

Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) interview D) personality test

Answer: C Explanation: C) Interviews are the most widely used selection procedure Not all managers use tests, reference checks, or situational tests, but most interview a person before hiring.

Allison, a manager at large clothing retail store, needs to determine essential duties that have not been assigned to specific employees. Which of the following would most likely provide Allison with this information? A) work activities B) job context C) job analysis D) performance standards

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysis can help reveal duties that need to be assigned to a specific employee. Work activities, performance standards, and job context are the types of information that are provided through a job analysis, but they do not necessarily uncover unassigned tasks.

Which of the following terms refers to the procedure used to determine the duties associated with job positions and the characteristics of the people to hire for those positions?A) job description B) job specification C) job analysis D) job context

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysis is the process of determining the duties of a specific job and the characteristics of the people who would be most appropriate for the job. A job analysis produces the necessary information to develop job descriptions and job specifications.

Which HR specialty involves preparing job descriptions? A) compensation manager B) EEO coordinator C) job analyst D) recruiter

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysts collect and examine information about jobs to prepare job descriptions. Compensation managers develop compensation plans and handle the employee benefits program.

Job ________ means assigning workers additional same-level activities. A) enrichment B) assignment C) enlargement D) rotation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job enlargement refers to assigning workers additional same-level activities. For example, a worker who previously only bolted the seat to the legs of a chair might attach the back as well. Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another. Job enrichment refers to redesigning jobs to empower workers and allowing them opportunities to grow and be recognized.

All of the following are on-the-job training methods used for managerial positions EXCEPT ________. A) job rotation B) action learning C) case study method D) understudy approach

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job rotation, action learning, and the coaching/understudy approach are managerial on-the-job training methods. The case study method is considered an off-the-job management training technique.

The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a presentation by the end of the week. The vice president is most likely exercising which of the following? A) staff authority B) procedural authority C) line authority D) functional authority

Answer: C Explanation: C) Line authority traditionally gives managers the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. Line authority therefore creates a superior (order giver)—subordinate (order receiver) relationship. Staff authority gives a manager the right to adviseother managers or employees. It creates an advisory relationship.

All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory B) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey C) Make a Picture Story D) Myers Briggs Test

Answer: C Explanation: C) Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test. Guilford-Zimmerman Survey, MMPI, and Myers Briggs are self-reported personality tests which are filled out by the applicants.

All of the following are ways in which an HR manager most likely assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________. A) administering health and accident insurance programs B) representing employees' interests to upper management C) making strategic business planning decisions D) hiring, training, and evaluating employees

Answer: C Explanation: C) Making strategic business plans is typically the job of upper level managers. HR managers also represent the interests of employees to top management and assist line managers with hiring, training, and evaluating employees.

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) objective tests B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) individual presentations

Answer: C Explanation: C) Management assessment center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, management games, individual presentations, objective tests, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed.

Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________. A) human resource management B) performance enhancement C) management development D) talent management

Answer: C Explanation: C) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills. Talent management is the goal-oriented and integrated process of planning for, recruiting, selecting, developing, and compensating employees.

Which of the following best describes a nontraditional worker? A) workers near retirement age B) ethnically diverse workers C) workers with multiple jobs D) service-based workers

Answer: C Explanation: C) Nontraditional workers include those who hold multiple jobs, or who are "contingent" or part-time workers, or who are working in alternative work arrangements. Today, almost 10% of American workers fit this nontraditional workforce category. Of these, about 8 million are independent contractors who work on specific projects and move on once they complete the projects.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position.Which of the following, if true, undermines the argument that the Purrfect Pets manager should observe workers in order to gather job analysis information? A) Purrfect Pets lacks the technology to perform quantitative job assessments. B) Part-time and seasonal workers fill most of the positions at Purrfect Pets. C) The tasks of most Purrfect Pets employees vary widely from day to day. D) During the morning, business at Purrfect Pets typically slows down.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Observation is an inappropriate tool for collecting job analysis information if employees only occasionally participate in certain tasks. If the tasks vary on a daily basis, one day of observation would fail to gather the necessary information. An interview might be the best way to find out what an employee does in this situation.

Which of the following training methods is most frequently used by employers? A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) on-the-job training D) classroom training

Answer: C Explanation: C) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm, which is why it is the most popular method. In many firms, OJT is the only training available.

Which of the following indicates the distribution of work within a firm and the lines of authority and communication? A) process chart B) employee matrix C) organization chart D) corporate overview

Answer: C Explanation: C) Organization charts show the organization-wide distribution of work with titles of each position and interconnecting lines that show who reports to and communicates with whom. Organization charts are useful when performing a job analysis, which is a process of determining the duties and skills associated with a specific position.

________ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that's required and implement it. A) Action research B) Succession planning C) Organizational development D) Participative talent management

Answer: C Explanation: C) Organizational development is a change process through which employees formulate the change that's required and implement it, often with the assistance of trained consultants.

The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________. A) needs analysis B) training assessment C) performance analysis D) performance appraisal

Answer: C Explanation: C) Performance analysis is the process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining whether the employer should correct such deficiencies through training or some other means (like transferring the employee).

A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to ________. A) conduct annual performance appraisals B) compare team goals to industry standards C) re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks D) use paper forms to handle performance appraisals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Performance management means continuously re-evaluating and (if need be)modifying how the employee and team get their work done. Depending on the issue, this may mean additional training, changing work procedures, or instituting new incentive plans, for in-stance. Performance management also involves continuous rather than annual performance appraisals, which are managed through computerized systems.

As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? A) interpersonal skills B) cognitive skills C) physical abilities D) achievements

Answer: C Explanation: C) Physical abilities are measured by testing an applicant's static strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job.

Which of the following should be done first in the on-the-job training process? A) going through the job at a slow work pace B) explaining quantity and quality requirements C) familiarizing the trainee with equipment and tools D) having the trainee verbalize the steps in the procedure

Answer: C Explanation: C) Preparing the trainee is the first step in the OJT process, and it involves familiarizing a worker with equipment, materials, tools, and trade terms. Performing the job at a slow pace, explaining quantity and quality requirements, and having trainees explain the steps as the trainer performs them occur later in the process.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of programmed learning? A) Training time is significantly reduced. B) Trainees can work at their own pace. C) Trainees benefit from a skilled coach. D) Trainees receive immediate feedback.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Programmed learning's main advantage is that it reduces training time. It also facilitates learning by letting trainees learn at their own pace and receive immediate feedback.However, programmed learning occurs with a book or computer rather than a coach.

Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment? A) Adam Smith B) Frederick Taylor C) Frederick Herzberg D) Abraham Maslow

Answer: C Explanation: C) Psychologist Frederick Herzberg argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment. Herzberg said that empowered employees would do their jobs well because they wanted to, so quality and productivity would rise. Smith believed that specialized jobs improved efficiency.

One of the problems with direct observation is ________, which is when workers alter their normal activities because they are being watched. A) flexibility B) falsification C) reactivity D) diversion

Answer: C Explanation: C) Reactivity occurs when a worker changes what he or she normally does because observation is taking place for the purpose of job analysis. Knowing that they are being watched may cause some workers to alter their normal work behaviors either on purpose or accidentally.

Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories

Answer: C Explanation: C) Situational tests, such as work sampling, miniature job training, and video- based tests, require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job.

The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low. A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

Answer: C Explanation: C) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low.Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores.

Which term refers to the alignment of employee goals with departmental and company goals? A) performance management B) employee segmentation C) strategic congruence D) direction sharing

Answer: C Explanation: C) Strategic congruence is central to performance management: each employee's goals must be aligned with departmental and company goals. Direction sharing and segmentation are other aspects of performance management.

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) numerical ability C) temperament D) memory

Answer: C Explanation: C) Temperament and other interpersonal skills are measured by personality tests.Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory.

Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) use as many visual aids as possible during the session B) provide an overview of the material to be covered C) teach new terminology and technical concepts D) give information in logical, meaningful sections

Answer: C Explanation: C) Terms and concepts used during a training session should be familiar to trainees rather than unfamiliar. Using visual aids, providing an overview at the beginning of the session,and organizing information in logical, meaningful units will likely motivate employees.

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) informed consent regarding the use of test results B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job D) fairness of the test for all who take it

Answer: C Explanation: C) Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all.

HR managers who take SHRM certification exams are tested on all of the following areas EXCEPT ________. A) strategic management B) workforce planning C) information technology D) occupational health and safety

Answer: C Explanation: C) The Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) provides professional certification exams that test the professional's knowledge of all aspects of human resource management, including ethics, management practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, strategic management, workforce planning, and health and safety. Information technology is less likely to be covered on the SHRM exam.

The ________ classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs that are subdivided into minor groups of jobs and detailed occupations. A) Department of Labor Procedure B) Position Analysis Questionnaire C) Standard Occupational Classification D) Dictionary of Occupational Titles

Answer: C Explanation: C) The Standard Occupational Classification classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs that are subdivided into minor groups of jobs and detailed occupations. The SOC replaced the Dictionary of Occupational Titles, which was used for many years as a source for standard job descriptions.

Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits? A) graphic rating scale B) critical incident method C) alternation ranking method D) electronic performance monitoring

Answer: C Explanation: C) The alternation ranking method involves ranking employees from best to worst on a particular trait, choosing highest, then lowest, until all are ranked. A graphic rating scale lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each. The employee is then rated by identifying the score that best describes his or her level of performance for each trait.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview? A) training supervisors in the rating process B) identifying potential interpersonal problems C) making plans to correct employee weaknesses D) discussing and scheduling training programs

Answer: C Explanation: C) The appraisal typically culminates in an appraisal interview. Here, the supervisor and the subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to remedy deficiencies and reinforce strengths.

What is the second step in the ADDIE training process? A) developing training aids B) defining the training objectives C) designing the overall training program D) designating employees who need training

Answer: C Explanation: C) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The second step of the process is designing the overall training program.

Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem caused by unclear standards? A) focusing on performance instead of personality traits B) using graphic rating scales to rank employees C) using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits D) allowing employees to rate themselves first

Answer: C Explanation: C) The best way to fix a problem associated with unclear standards is to include descriptive phrases that define or illustrate each trait. Specificity results in more consistent and more easily explained appraisals.

Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota for his sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry's actions? A) planning B) organizing C) controlling D) staffing

Answer: C Explanation: C) The controlling function involves setting standards such as sales quotas and production levels. Comparing actual performance with the standards is also an aspect of the controlling function.

When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for corrective action, they are performing the ________ function of the management process. A) planning B) leading C) controlling D) organizing

Answer: C Explanation: C) The controlling function of the management process requires managers to set standards such as sales quotas, quality, standards, or production levels. Managers then compare actual performance with the standards, which often involves the use of metrics. Corrective action is then taken when necessary.

Which of the following would most likely provide assistance to executives about long-term strategic plans? A) centers of expertise B) embedded HR units C) corporate HR groups D) professional employee organizations

Answer: C Explanation: C) The corporate HR group focuses on assisting top management in "top level" big picture issues such as developing and explaining the personnel aspects of the company's long-term strategic plan.The centers of expertise are like specialized HR consulting firms within the company-for instance, they provide specialized assistance in areas such as organizational change.The embedded HR unit assigns HR generalists directly to departments like sales and production.

As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. A) return on investment B) adverse impact C) persistence D) usability

Answer: C Explanation: C) The employer needs to consider several things before deciding to use a particular selection tool. These include the tool's reliability and validity; its return on investment(in terms of utility analysis); applicant reactions; usability (in terms of your managers' and employees' willingness and ability to use it); adverse impact; and the tool's selection ratio.

The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery B) administering tests C) analyzing the job D) cross-validating

Answer: C Explanation: C) The first step in validating a test is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. The point is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. Choosing tests and perhaps creating a test battery are part of the second step, which is followed by test administration. Relating test scores and criteria with an expectancy chart is the next step. Cross-validating is the final step in the process.

The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) planning B) organizing C) outsourcing D) leading

Answer: C Explanation: C) The five basic functions of the management process include planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. Outsourcing jobs may be an aspect of human resources, but it is not one of the primary management functions.

The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) required employee abilities B) typical working conditions C) employee turnover rates D) specific job activities

Answer: C Explanation: C) The fourth step in analyzing a job requires collecting data about job activities,required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job. Interviews, questionnaires, and observations are the most popular methods for gathering data. It is unlikely that data regarding employee turnover rates would be gathered during a job analysis.

What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? A) assessing the program's successes B) appraising the program's budget C) analyzing the training need D) acquiring training materials

Answer: C Explanation: C) The gold standard of training programs is the basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model that training experts have used for years.The first step is to analyze the training need.

Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT ________. A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) complexity D) leniency

Answer: C Explanation: C) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. However, graphic-type rating scales in particular are susceptible to several problems including unclear standards, halo effect, central tendency, leniency or strictness, and bias.

Which of the following includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling? A) job analysis B) strategic management C) management process D) adaptability screening

Answer: C Explanation: C) The management process includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. Strategic management refers to the process of identifying and executing the organization's mission by matching its capabilities with the demands of its environment.

Mario hopes to be promoted to the head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as an assistant to the current department head. Which type of training is most likely being used in this example? A) job rotation B) job instruction C) coaching method D) informal learning

Answer: C Explanation: C) The most familiar on-the-job training is the coaching or understudy method.Here, an experienced worker or the trainee's supervisor trains the employee. This may involve simply acquiring skills by observing the supervisor, or (preferably) having the supervisor or job expert show the new employee the ropes, step-by-step.

Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used? A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

Answer: C Explanation: C) The paired comparison method helps make the ranking method more precise.For every trait (quantity of work, quality of work, and so on), you pair and compare every subordinate with every other subordinate.

What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for a job analysis? A) providing the opportunity for employees to vent job frustrations B) sorting information for government statistics and records C) classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries D) uncovering important yet infrequent job tasks

Answer: C Explanation: C) The primary benefit of using a PAQ is classifying jobs based on scores in the five different categories. With this data, a manager can quantitatively compare jobs relative to one another and then assign pay for each job. Interviewing often allows employees to vent frustrations and often leads to the discovery of important yet infrequent tasks.

Administering health benefits programs, helping line managers comply with EEO laws, and assisting with labor relations are all elements of the ________ function. A) coordinative B) procedural C) staff D) line

Answer: C Explanation: C) The staff function of HRM involves administering various benefit programs (health and accident insurance, retirement, vacation, and so on). It helps line managers comply with equal employment and occupational safety laws, and plays an important role in handling grievances and labor relations.

During the job analysis process, it is most important to ________ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions. A) test job questionnaires on a small group of workers B) confirm the job activity list with employees C) select a sample of similar jobs to analyze D) assemble the job specifications list

Answer: C Explanation: C) The third step of the job analysis process involves selecting representative positions to analyze. If there are too many similar jobs in a firm, it is best to select are presentative sample. After representative positions have been chosen, analysis of the job can occur, which may include interviewing employees or using questionnaires. Job specifications are not developed until the final step of the job analysis process.

Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports Whitman's idea to develop a transactional HR group to handle benefits administration? A) An embedded HR unit would assist top management with big picture issues as well as benefits administration. B) Extensive training has been provided to line managers so that they fully understand the different insurance options available to employees. C) Outside vendors specializing in all aspects of benefits administration would provide improved support to the firm's employees. D) Lower insurance premiums would eliminate the need for outsourcing services and improve employee health coverage.

Answer: C Explanation: C) The transactional HR group focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors (such as benefits advisors) to provide specialized support in day-to-day transactional HR activities (such as changing benefits plans and providing updated appraisal forms) to the company's employees. By outsourcing benefits administration, Jackson would allow HR managers to focus on other issues and enable benefits specialists to handle benefits enrollment and coverage issues. Corporate HR groups rather than embedded HR units work with top management. It is not the role of line managers to handle benefits administration.

When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are ________. A) when to measure and what to measure B) what to measure and who should measure C) what to measure and how to measure D) when to measure and how to measure

Answer: C Explanation: C) The two basic questions in designing the actual appraisal tool are what to measure and how to measure it. For example, in terms of what to measure, we may measure the employee's performance in terms of generic dimensions or with respect to achieving specific goals. In terms of how to measure it, there are various methodologies, including graphic rating scales, the alternation ranking method, and "MBO." Who should do the appraisal and when are less critical issues to address.

Which of the following is most likely NOT measured when evaluating a training program? A) what trainees learned from the program B) participants' reactions to the program C) overall organizational productivity D) changes in on-the-job behavior

Answer: C Explanation: C) There are several things firms can measure to evaluate a training program, such as the participants' reactions to the program, what (if anything) the trainees learned from the program, and to what extent their on-the-job behavior or results changed as a result of the program. It would be difficult to link overall organizational productivity to a training program.

Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) limit the number of applicants C) uncover false information D) report criminals to police

Answer: C Explanation: C) There are two main reasons to check backgrounds—to verify the applicant's information (name and so forth) and to uncover damaging information, such as criminal activities or falsified information about education and experience.

Surveys have found that ________ has the greatest influence on organizational performance and employee productivity. A) appraisals B) training C) goal-setting D) screening

Answer: C Explanation: C) Training has an impressive record of influencing performance, scoring higher than appraisal and feedback and just below goal setting in its effect on productivity. Screening and hiring the right people is important, but goal-setting and training are essential.

According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback? A) Firms are protected against biased appraisals. B) Organizational strategies are quickly implemented. C) Supervisors make changes to their management styles. D) Critical incidents are documented and ranked by top managers.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Upward feedback lets subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance. Research indicates that most managers make changes based on the evaluations they receive.

Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training lecture? A) opening with a familiar joke B) talking from a prepared script C) watching the audience's body language D) using hand gestures to emphasize points

Answer: C Explanation: C) Watching for negative signals in the audience's body language can help a speaker realize that he or she needs to made modifications to the lecture. Irrelevant or old jokes are not effective openers. Speakers should use notes rather than a script and control their hands.Speeches are more effective when broken into short talks.

Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information from a large number of employees who perform similar work. Which of the following would be most appropriate for Jerome? A) observing all employees B) interviewing the HR manager C) holding group interview with a supervisor D) conducting telephone surveys of all employees

Answer: C Explanation: C) When a large number of employees perform similar or identical work,conducting a group interview is a fast way to gather information. In most cases, the workers'immediate supervisor attends the group session. It would be costly and time consuming to observe each worker.

Eric is in a group with five other management trainees at Coca-Cola. Eric's group is competing against other management trainees at the firm in a simulated marketplace. Each group must decide how much to spend on advertising and how many products to manufacture over the next three years. In which of the following activities is Eric most likely participating? A) on-demand learning B) apprenticeship training C) management games D) behavior modeling

Answer: C Explanation: C) With computerized management games, trainees divide into five- or six-person groups, each of which competes with the others in a simulated marketplace. Each group typically must make managerial decisions related to advertising, production, and inventory.

With job instruction training, which of the following should most likely be included beside each step listed? A) sources for more information B) any legal requirements C) key points or guidelines D) quality requirements

Answer: C Explanation: C) With job instruction training, all the steps in a job are listed in the correct order,and any key points or guidelines are listed beside each step to provide clarification to the trainee.

Which performance appraisal tools requires a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior? A) alternation ranking B) paired comparison C) critical incident D) graphic rating

Answer: C Explanation: C) With the critical incident method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples (critical incidents) of a subordinate's work-related behavior. Every 6 months or so, supervisor and subordinate meet to discuss the latter's performance, using the incidents as examples.

Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests

Answer: C Explanation: C) Work samples have a low adverse impact on applicants. Cognitive ability tests,also known as aptitude tests, and job knowledge tests have a high adverse impact against minorities.

A workflow analyst would most likely focus on which of the following? A) methods used by the firm to accomplish tasks B) behaviors needed to complete specific work C) a single, identifiable work process D) a quantifiable worker skill

Answer: C Explanation: C) Workflow analysis is a detailed study of the flow of work from job to job in a work process. Usually, the analyst focuses on one identifiable work process, rather than on how the company gets all its work done.

Janice, a department store manager, is in the process of writing job descriptions using O*NET. Janice has already reviewed the company's business plan, so what should be her next step? A) interview employees B) compose a list of job duties C) develop an organization chart D) observe employees performing their duties

Answer: C Explanation: C) The first step in using O*NET is to review the firm's business plan, which is followed by developing an organization chart that addresses both the current and future structure of the firm. After having employees complete brief questionnaires, obtaining a list of duties from O*NET, and listing the human requirements for the job, a manager is ready to finalize the job description.

What are the three main categories used in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles to rate,classify, and compare different jobs? A) reasoning, language, mathematics B) skills, communication, education C) data, people, things D) people, skills, reasoning

Answer: CExplanation: C) Data, people, and things are the three worker function categories used in theDepartment of Labor procedure that was compiled into the Dictionary of Occupational Titles .The DOL method describes what a worker must do with respect to data, people, and things.

Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. A) discrimination B) adverse impact C) arbitration D) defamation

Answer: D Explanation: D) A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the reputation of another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her. Managers, supervisors, and employers can be sued for defamation if comments are found to be false and harmful.

Which of the following requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as the amount of time each activity takes? A) flowchart B) agenda C) outline D) log

Answer: D Explanation: D) A diary or a log requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as the amount of time each activity takes. Diaries and logs can be useful in the job analysis process because they often produce a complete picture of the job,especially when used in conjunction with an interview.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines the argument that the critical incident method is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Employee performance standards are closely aligned with Wilson Consulting's long-term strategic plans. B) Suzanne will be conducting performance appraisals in conjunction with the HR manager to ensure EEO compliance. C) Wilson Consulting will be allowing employees to rate themselves as part of its organizational development strategy. D) Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Suzanne's department.

Answer: D Explanation: D) A firm that will be laying off the two lowest performing employees needs employees to be ranked from best to worst, and the critical incident method makes ranking difficult. Strategic plans, EEO compliance, and organizational development are less relevant to the decision.

Which of the following terms refers to a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker? A) task analysis record form B) position replacement card C) skills sheet D) job aid

Answer: D Explanation: D) A job aid is a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker. Job aids work particularly well on complex jobs that require multiple steps, or where it's dangerous to forget a step.

In order for Hollis Construction to be in full compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, the manager needs a ________ for each position to validate all human resource activities.A) performance appraisal B) compensation schedule C) workflow system D) job analysis

Answer: D Explanation: D) A job analysis is needed for each job at a firm to ensure compliance with the EEOC. According to the U.S. Federal Agencies' Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, a job analysis is needed to validate all major human resource activities. A firm that is in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, for example, should know the essential job functions of each job which requires a job analysis.

Which of the following terms refers to a section of an employer's Web site that provides employees with online access to job-related training courses? A) virtual classroom B) video conferencing C) job simulation D) learning portal

Answer: D Explanation: D) A learning portal is a section of an employer's Web site that offers employees online access to many or all of the training courses they need to succeed at their jobs. When employees go to their firm's learning portal, they actually access the menu of training courses that the ASP company contracted with the employer to offer.

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate

Answer: D Explanation: D) A test's internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure,in various ways, the test taker's interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate.

All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT ________. A) employee benefits B) personnel policies C) daily routine D) wage curves

Answer: D Explanation: D) A wage curve is the graphic relationship between the value of the job and the average wage paid for the job. It is unlikely that wage curves would be addressed during orientation, which usually covers benefits, policies, routines, and safety measures.

While performing the fifth step of a job analysis, it is essential to confirm the validity of collected data with the ________. A) EEOC representative B) HR manager C) legal department D) worker

Answer: D Explanation: D) According to the fifth step of a job analysis, collected data should be confirmed with the worker performing the job and his/her immediate supervisor. Although HR managers play a role in the job analysis process by observing workers, it is the worker and his/her immediate supervisor that provide direct knowledge of the duties involved in a specific job.

Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________. A) develop work samples B) develop specific job descriptions C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

Answer: D Explanation: D) Applicant tracking systems are used for screening and tracking candidates,compiling resumes, and assisting with applicant testing. Online testing can be handled by an ATS but not situational tests like work sampling.

Which of the following occupations most likely does NOT use apprenticeship training to prepare new employees? A) professional chef B) dental assistant C) fire medic D) banker

Answer: D Explanation: D) Chef, electrician, dental assistant, and fire medic are some of the most popular occupations using the apprenticeship method of training. A banker would most likely not be trained with an apprentice, but would probably be trained through OJT instead.

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive

Answer: D Explanation: D) Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Employers may also use tests to measure an applicant's motor and physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant's personality, such as stability,motivation, and introversion.

Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should integrate computer simulations into its training program for bank tellers? A) The Wells Fargo intranet-based learning portal provides employees with access to a variety of training courses. B) Wells Fargo is one of the few financial institutions to require all employees to participate in at least 30 hours of training each year. C) Wells Fargo bank tellers use electronic performance support systems to assist them with handling complicated bank transactions. D) Employee surveys indicate that many Wells Fargo bank tellers are uncertain about the best methods for handling angry customers.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Computer simulations provide a representation of a situation and the tasks to be performed in the situation. Simulations can help employees learn conflict resolution skills to deal with angry bank customers.

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Answer: D Explanation: D) Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot.

________ attempts to foster harmonious working relationships and to develop cross-cultural sensitivity among the employees of a firm. A) Adaptability screening B) Multicultural simulation C) Mandatory arbitration D) Diversity training

Answer: D Explanation: D) Diversity training aims to create better cross-cultural sensitivity, with the goal of fostering more harmonious working relationships among a firm's employees. Such training typically includes improving interpersonal skills, understanding and valuing cultural differences,improving technical skills, socializing employees into the corporate culture, and indoctrinating new workers into the U.S. work ethic.

Which of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing each day? A) computerized performance appraisal system B) online management assessment center C) digitized high-performance work center D) electronic performance monitoring system

Answer: D Explanation: D) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online.

All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________. A) merging examples with performance ratings B) helping managers maintain computerized notes C) combining different performance appraisal tools D) enabling managers to monitor employees' computers

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers increasingly use computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems. These enable managers to keep computerized notes on subordinates during the year,merge notes with ratings, and generate written text to support each part of the appraisal. Most appraisal software combines several appraisal methods. Electronic performance monitoring(EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees'computers and telephones.

According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers must disclose to the applicant that a report will be requested and certify with the reporting agency that the employer has the consent of the applicant. If adverse action, such as withdrawing an employment offer, is being considered or occurs, then the employer must provide the applicant with a copy of the report.

Which of the following steps will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? A) confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience B) providing extensive and appropriate training C) evaluating the effectiveness of the training D) paying employees for their training time

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers should confirm the applicant/employee's claims of skill and experience, provide adequate training (particularly where employees use dangerous equipment),and evaluate the training to ensure that it's actually reducing risks. Paying employees for training will not necessarily protect an employer.

All of the following are functions of the human resource manager EXCEPT ________. A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws C) representing the interests of employees to senior management D) integrating the duties of line managers with staff managers

Answer: D Explanation: D) Ensuring that line managers implement HR policies, advising line managers about EEO laws, and representing employee interests to senior management are common HRM functions. Integrating line and staff manager functions is not an HRM activity.

You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would most likely be the LEAST effective option for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation? A) time off B) small bonus C) schedule flexibility D) professional development

Answer: D Explanation: D) For employees whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible, the objective is to maintain satisfactory performance. The best option is usually to find incentives that are important to the person and sufficient to maintain performance, such as extra time off, a small bonus, praise, and schedule flexibility. Professional development would most likely be motivating for an employee who cannot be promoted.

Stephanie manages the accounting department at an advertising agency. She needs to conduct performance appraisals for the eight employees in her department. Stephanie wants a performance appraisal tool that is highly accurate, ranks employees, and uses critical incidents to help explain ratings to appraisees. Which performance appraisal tool is best suited for Stephanie? A) graphic rating scale B) alternation ranking method C) critical incident method D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

Answer: D Explanation: D) For those for whom accuracy is a great concern, BARS are superior, but require much more time to develop and use. The integration of critical incidents help a supervisor explain ratings to appraisees. Graphic rating scales and alternation rankings do not include critical incidents, while the critical incident method includes examples without rankings.

According to employer surveys, one of the primary challenges of Generation Y employees is their ________. A) inability to use information technology B) inadequate multi-tasking skills C) inability to balance work and family D) need for constant praise and recognition

Answer: D Explanation: D) Generation Y has been described as "the most high maintenance workforce in the history of the world," which is why the primary challenge of Generation Y employees is their constant need for feedback and recognition. However, Generation Y grew up using computers, so their greatest strength relates to their ability to use information technology.

Which of the following best explains why human resource management is important to all managers? A) Technological changes and global competition require clear organization charts. B) Sophisticated accounting controls are supported by human resource managers. C) An enthusiastic labor force is likely to provide financial support to local unions. D) Investing in human capital enables managers to achieve positive results for the firm.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Getting results is the bottom line of managing, and it is primarily accomplished through human capital, which is the knowledge, education, training, skills and expertise of a firm's workers. Managers throughout a firm need good people to get results, and hiring and retaining good people is the objective of HRM.

How have globalization and increased competition most likely affected human resource management? A) Corporate intranets are used by HR managers to communicate important messages. B) HR managers need to focus on integrating ethics into a firm's policies and practices. C) Benefits administration is increasingly being handled internally as a way to lower costs. D) HR managers need to focus on big picture issues to help firms achieve their strategic goals.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Globalization and increased competition are significant trends in the business world, and as a result firms must be more competitive, responsive, and cost-effective. HR managers are now focusing on big picture issues such as helping firms achieve their strategic goals. Transactional services like benefits administration are frequently being outsourced.

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage to consumers of the globalization trend among businesses? A) increased costs of goods B) increased insurance costs C) higher labor union fees D) reduced job security

Answer: D Explanation: D) Globalization brings both benefits and threats to consumers. It means lower prices and higher quality on practically everything from computers to cars, but also the prospect of working harder, and perhaps having less secure jobs.

Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager? A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws C) representing the interests of employees to senior management D) directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department

Answer: D Explanation: D) HR managers carry out three primary functions--line, coordinative, and staff. Directing members of the HR staff is a line function. Ensuring that line managers implement HR policies is a coordinative function. Advising line managers and representing employee interests to senior management are staff functions.

Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) orienting and training new employees B) appraising employee performance C) building employee commitment D) developing customer relationships

Answer: D Explanation: D) Human resource management involves numerous personnel-related activities, and HR managers are less likely to interact with customers. Managing compensation, orienting new employees, appraising employee performance, and developing employee commitment are typical aspects of the HR manager's job.

A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining department morale B) controlling labor costs C) protecting employees' health D) marketing new products and services

Answer: D Explanation: D) Human resource management most often involves creating and maintaining department morale, controlling labor costs, and protecting employees' health and physical condition. Handling personnel is an integral part of every line manager's duties, but marketing new products is not a personnel issue and would be handled by the marketing department.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following best supports the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) Attitude surveys sent to Samson personnel suggest that the firm's elimination of year-end bonuses has angered many employees. B) Recent studies suggest that sales of name-brand pharmaceuticals, such as Samson, are dropping as more people are choosing to use generic drugs instead. C) The rising costs associated with college recruiting have forced Samson to hire sales associates through online job sites. D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side effects of the latest medications released by Samson.

Answer: D Explanation: D) If the sales force does not understand the benefits and side effects of Samson's latest drugs, then it is most likely unable to sell the products effectively. Training would provide salespeople with the necessary information. Poor attitudes suggest that the sales team doesn't want to sell products, which is not an issue that can be corrected with training.

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) digital dashboard C) competency model D) expectancy chart

Answer: D Explanation: D) If there is a correlation between test and job performance, you can develop an expectancy chart during the process of validating an employment test. An expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

Which of the following responsibilities is shared by line managers and human resource managers in most firms? A) preemployment testing B) benefits administration C) initial screening interviews D) performance appraisals

Answer: D Explanation: D) In most firms, line managers and HR managers both have HR responsibilities, but they typically share activities like employment interviews, performance appraisals, and skills training. Preemployment testing, benefits administration, and initial screening interviews are usually handled by HR managers rather than line managers.

Which of the following terms refers to computer-based training systems that adjust to meet each trainee's specific learning needs? A) virtual learning systems B) video-based simulations C) multi-media training plans D) intelligent tutoring systems

Answer: D Explanation: D) Intelligent tutoring systems are computerized, supercharged, programmed instruction programs. In addition to the usual programmed learning, intelligent tutoring systems learn what questions and approaches worked and did not work for the learner, and therefore adjust the suggested instructional sequence to the trainee's unique needs.

Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale.However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. All of the following questions are relevant to Oshman's decision to replace its traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach EXCEPT ________. A) What technology is available to help managers gain immediate access to employee performance data? B) How would work procedures need to be modified to provide more frequent feedback to employees? C) How would the firm's mission and vision translate into departmental, team, and individual goals? D) What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?

Answer: D Explanation: D) Issues related to performance management include the technology used to monitor employee performance, methods for providing feedback, development of goals, and incentives. Identifying critical incidents is an issue related to traditional appraisal methods rather than performance management.

The ________ lists a job's specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to perform a particular job. A) organization chart B) job analysis C) work aid D) job description

Answer: D Explanation: D) Job descriptions list the specific duties, skills, and training related to a particular job. Organization charts show the distribution of work within a company but not specific duties. A job description is created after a job analysis has been performed.

Which of the following best defines line authority? A) management over a small staff in a public firm B) management with flexible decision-making powers C) a manager's right to advise other managers or employees D) a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees

Answer: D Explanation: D) Line authority is a a manager's right to issue order to other managers or employees, which creates a superior-subordinate relationship. Staff authority refers to a manager's right to advise other managers or employees, which creates an advisory relationship.

One of the ________ functions of a human resource manager includes directing the activities of his or her subordinates in the HR department. A) coordinative B) corporate C) staff D) line

Answer: D Explanation: D) Line functions, staff functions, and coordinative functions are the three primary functions of HR managers. Examples of line functions include a human resource manager directing the activities of the people in his or her own department or perhaps in related areas (like the plant cafeteria).

In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank D) cashier at J.C. Penney's

Answer: D Explanation: D) Local, state, and federal government employers can use polygraphs, but state laws restrict many local and state governments. Private employers can use polygraph testing, but only under strictly limited circumstances, such as for security personnel or for positions with access to drugs. Cashiers at retail stores should not be asked to take polygraph tests.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Management assessment centers are expensive to develop, take much longer than conventional tests, require managers acting as assessors, and often require psychologists.However, studies suggest they are worth it. because peers' evaluations of candidates during the center are especially useful.

The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance

Answer: D Explanation: D) Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. A lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. Validity rather than reliability refers to a test's ability to measure what is intended to be measured, such as job performance.

Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training

Answer: D Explanation: D) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. Work sampling and management assessment centers involve situational tests rather than actual job tasks.

Most job descriptions contain sections that cover all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) performance standards B) working conditions C) responsibilities D) required overtime

Answer: D Explanation: D) Most job descriptions contain sections that cover job identification, job summary, responsibilities and duties, authority of incumbent, performance standards, working conditions, and job specifications. Although information regarding salary and/or pay scale may be included, it is less likely that the amount of overtime required in the position will be included.

Which of the following Web sites was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor and serves as a source for managers who need to write job descriptions? A) bls.gov B) opm.gov C) usajobs.gov D) onetcenter.org

Answer: D Explanation: D) O*NET is a Web tool that was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor to allow managers, workers, and job seekers to see the essential characteristics of various occupations. Managers use the site to develop job descriptions.

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming,and unconventional? A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) openness to experience

Answer: D Explanation: D) Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming,unconventional, and autonomous. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability,and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as ________. A) strategic management B) performance analysis C) performance appraisal D) performance management

Answer: D Explanation: D) Performance management is the continuous process of identifying, measuring,and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals.

Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective

Answer: D Explanation: D) Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS), House-Tree-Person (H-T-P), and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it.

Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of evidence EXCEPT ________. A) scientific rigor B) existing data C) research studies D) qualitative opinions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Qualitative information or opinions are not characteristic of evidence-based HR management because neither can be measured.Evidence-based human resource management is based on the use of data, facts, analytics, scientific rigor, critical evaluation, and critically evaluated research/case studies to support human resource management proposals, decisions, practices, and conclusions.

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

Answer: D Explanation: D) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn't have much faith in the test

According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXECPT _________. A) administration B) structure C) content D) length

Answer: D Explanation: D) Selection interviews are classified according to how structured they are, their "content" - the types of questions they contain, and how the firm administers the interviews. Length is not a category.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer/s chance to ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.

Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal? A) customers B) rating committees C) top management D) immediate supervisor

Answer: D Explanation: D) Supervisors' ratings are the heart of most appraisals. The supervisor usually is in the best position to evaluate the subordinate's performance and is responsible for that person's performance.

Which term refers to the integrated process of recruiting, developing, supervising, and compensating employees? A) job analysis B) HR alignment C) strategic planning D) talent management

Answer: D Explanation: D) Talent management is the goal-oriented and integrated process of planning,recruiting, developing, managing, and compensating employees. Talent management means getting the right people (in terms of competencies) in the right jobs, at the right time, doing their jobs correctly. Job analysis and strategic planning are important elements of effective talent management.

Which of the following questions will most likely be addressed by a manager who is writing a job description based on a competency-based job analysis? A) What are the typical duties associated with this job? B) What are the working conditions and safety issues related to this job? C) What opportunities for advancement are available to an employee in this job? D) What should the employee be able to do in order to competently perform this job? E) What machines or equipment is the job holder responsible for operating on a daily basis?

Answer: D Explanation: D) The focus of a competency-based job analysis is the skills of the worker rather than the duties , equipment, or working conditions of the job. Traditional job-analysis is more job-focused while competency-based analysis is more worker-focused.

Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of ratees into various performance categories? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic ranking scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

Answer: D Explanation: D) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Celeste spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff of fifty employees and developing procedures for various tasks. In which function of the management process does Celeste spend most of her time? A) leading B) controlling C) organizing D) planning

Answer: D Explanation: D) The planning function of the management process requires managers to establish goals and standards, develop rules and procedures, and develop plans and forecast. Leading involves motivating staff, while controlling requires a manger to set standards, such as sales quotas. Assigning tasks to employees is an aspect of the organizing function.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information? A) Questionnaires are the most expensive method of collecting data. B) Supervisors are required to verify all collected questionnaire data. C) Questionnaires are too open-ended for statistical information. D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming.

Answer: D Explanation: D) The primary drawback of questionnaires is the time required to develop questionnaires and test them to ensure that workers understand the questions. Questionnaires can be structured or open-ended, and many are a combination of the two. Questionnaires are less costly than interviews.

All of the following are ethical issues that must be considered by human resource managers EXCEPT ________. A) comparable work B) workplace safety C) affirmative action D) FCC regulations

Answer: D Explanation: D) The regulations of the Federal Communications Commission are not likely to affect decisions made by HR managers. Ethical issues faced by HR managers include workplace safety, security of employee records, employee theft, affirmative action, comparable work, and employee privacy rights.

Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting performance standards, and compensating employees? A) organizing B) planning C) motivating D) staffing

Answer: D Explanation: D) The staffing function of the management process is also known as the human resource management function. The staffing function addresses the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, as well as addressing issues of labor relations, worker safety, and fairness.

Which organizational development application involves methods like performance appraisals, reward systems, and diversity programs? A) human process B) strategic applications C) technostructural D) human resource management

Answer: D Explanation: D) There are four basic categories of OD applications: human process,techno structural, human resource management, and strategic applications. HR management involves performance appraisals, reward systems, diversity programs, and goal setting.

Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

Answer: D Explanation: D) There are several ways to estimate consistency or reliability. You could administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time, comparing their test scores at time two with their scores at time one; this would be a retest estimate.

For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) prove that the accused had access to the property B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph C) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph D) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Answer: D Explanation: D) To administer a polygraph test for an ongoing investigation, an employer must meet four standards. First, the employer must show that it suffered an economic loss or injury.Second, it must show that the employee in question had access to the property. Third, it must have a reasonable suspicion before asking the employee to take the polygraph. Fourth, the employee must receive the details of the investigation before the test, as well as the questions to be asked on the polygraph test. All employees are not required to take a polygraph.

Which of the following focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors as a way to provide specialized support for certain HR activities? A) embedded HR units B) corporate HR groups C) HR centers of expertise D) transactional HR groups

Answer: D Explanation: D) Transactional HR groups focus on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors, such as benefits advisors, to provide specialized support in day-to-day transactional HR activities to a firm's employees. Activities may include changing benefits plans and providing updated appraisal forms.

Interviews for the purpose of collecting job analysis data will most likely address all of the following topics EXCEPT ________. A) hazardous conditions B) primary work duties C) required education D) personal hobbies

Answer: D Explanation: D) Typical questions for job analysis interviews address subjects such as the job's major duties, hazardous conditions, performance standards, and required experience and education. It is less likely that an interviewer would ask an employee questions not related specifically to the job, such as personal questions about the worker's hobbies and free time.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Using a psychologist to develop and validate tests will help Golden Creamery remain protected both legally and ethically. Firms are not required by law to use a psychologist for test development.

All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. A) test-retest estimate B) internal comparison estimate C) equivalent form estimate D) content validity measurement

Answer: D Explanation: D) Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring, while reliability indicates whether a test is measuring something consistently.Internal comparison estimates are used to measure the internal consistency of a test. Test-retest estimates and equivalent form estimates also measure reliability.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position.Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should conduct group interviews to gather job analysis information? A) Purrfect Pets is an excellent place to work because of the positive work environment. B) Most of the young employees of Purrfect Pets would feel awkward during a one-on-one interview. C) Employees at Purrfect Pets work well with their colleagues, and few staffing conflicts occur. D) Numerous employees at Purrfect Pets perform similar tasks during the work day.

Answer: D Explanation: D) When a large number of employees perform similar or identical tasks, then a group interview is a quick and inexpensive way to gather job analysis information. The work environment or age of the employees are not important factors in deciding whether a group interview is appropriate.

When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) ask open-ended questions B) give specific examples of poor performance C) write up an action plan with goals and dates D) compare the person's performance to that of other employees

Answer: D Explanation: D) When a supervisor conducts an appraisal interview, it is advisable to speak in terms of objective work data with specific examples of poor performance. A supervisor should also ask the employee open-ended questions to encourage conversation and write up an action plan. It is inappropriate to compare a person's performance with another person.

When a sales job is being filled by an untrained individual, the job specifications list will most likely include ________ as a way to predict which candidate will perform the job well. A) age and gender B) past job performance C) relevant certification D) personality traits

Answer: D Explanation: D) When filling jobs with untrained people that the employer intends to train, the employer will most likely specify qualities like physical traits, personality, interests, or sensory skills that imply some potential for performing or for being trained to do the job. Age and gender should not be elements of a job specification list. Certification and past job performance are less likely to predict the success of a person's job performance in an area for which they have never received training.

Which of the following involves a trainer in a central location teaching groups of employees at remote locations over cable broadband lines or the Internet? A) audiovisual-based instruction B) programmed learning C) vestibule training D) videoconferencing

Answer: D Explanation: D) With videoconferencing, a trainer in a central location teaches groups of employees at remote locations via cable broadband lines, the Internet, or satellite. Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job.

All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT ________. A) work activities B) human behaviors C) performance standards D) employee benefits options

Answer: D Explanation: D) Work activities, human behaviors, work aids, performance standards, job context, and human requirements are the types of information typically collected through a job analysis. Information gathered through a job analysis is used to develop job descriptions and job specifications. Managers use job analysis for the purpose of recruitment, compensation, training,and performance appraisal but not for assessing employee benefits options.

Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________. A) analyzing job descriptions B) reviewing performance standards C) questioning current job holders D) conducting a work sampling

Answer: D Explanation: D) Work sampling is a method used for screening job applicants and will not likely be used to identify training needs. Managers can uncover training needs by reviewing performance standards, assessing job descriptions, performing the job, and questioning current job holders and their supervisors.

All of the following requirements are typically addressed in job specifications EXCEPT ________. A) desired personality traits B) required education levels C) necessary experience D) working conditions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Working conditions, responsibilities, and job duties are addressed in a job description rather than the job specifications. Job specifications focus on the human requirements for a job, such as personality, education, skills, and experience.