HRM Final chapters

Which of the following is a major category of workers' compensation? A. Sustainability income B. Death-of-spouse benefits C. Rehabilitative services D. Housing care E. Pension services

C. Rehabilitative services

Which of the following makes outcome-oriented contracts less likely to occur? A. Risk aversion among agents B. High outcome uncertainty C. More programmable jobs D. Less measurability of outcomes E. Low risk premium in compensations

A. Risk aversion among agents

Which type of compensation program is most likely to attract learning-oriented employees? A. Skill-based pay B. Merit pay C. Incentive pay D. Gainsharing E. Profit sharing

A. Skill-based pay

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect positive relationship? A. +1.0 B. -1.0 C. 0 D. +10 E. -6.67

A. +1.0

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome? A. Bias suppression B. Correctability C. Representativeness D. Ethicality E. Consistency

A. Bias suppression

Which of the following is true about private group insurance? A. Concern for employee security explains the prevalence of employer-sponsored insurance plans. B. Disability insurance programs are mandatory in all high-risk occupations. C. Medical insurance programs are mandatory in all organizations. D. Individuals have more bargaining power when negotiating prices. E. Group insurance rates are typically higher than individual rates because of economies of scale.

A. Concern for employee security explains the prevalence of employer-sponsored insurance plans.

Which of the following media is most widely used by organizations to communicate benefit plans? A. Enrollment materials (online or paper) B. Group employee benefits communications with the vendor C. Social media D. Newsletters (online or paper) E. Direct mail to home/residence

A. Enrollment materials (online or paper)

In which of the following ways do PPOs differ from HMOs? A. HMOs provide benefits on a prepaid basis. B. PPOs focus on preventive measures and outpatient care. C. PPOs aim at providing high-quality health services at high costs. D. HMOs contract directly with employees. E. Physicians are paid on a flat salary basis in PPOs.

A. HMOs provide benefits on a prepaid basis.

Which of the following is true of an active wellness program? A. It includes the outreach and follow-up model. B. It includes health education programs. C. It includes a fitness facility. D. It does not include counselors to guide individuals. E. It assumes that employee behavior change requires only awareness, not reinforcement.

A. It includes the outreach and follow-up model.

Which of the following is true of voluntary turnover? A. It is initiated by the employee. B. It involves employees an organization would like to discharge. C. It could give rise to more legal consequences than involuntary turnover. D. It usually is a result of a violation of a company rule or misconduct. E. It is the last stage in progressive discipline.

A. It is initiated by the employee.

Which of the following is true of the pay grade approach to developing a pay structure? A. It permits greater flexibility in moving employees from job to job. B. It increases the administrative burden of setting up rates of pay. C. It has a range spread that is smaller at higher levels. D. It ensures that all of the jobs have fair rates of pay. E. It tends to contribute to reduced labor costs.

A. It permits greater flexibility in moving employees from job to job.

Which of the following is typically used to measure pay equity? A. Job evaluation B. Job analysis C. Job description D. Job design E. Job enlargement

A. Job evaluation

Which of the following makes employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) less attractive? A. Less diversification of investment risk B. Lack of tax and financial advantages C. High levels of liquidity D. Inability to serve as a takeover defense E. Giving employees the right to vote their securities

A. Less diversification of investment risk

______ are decisions about whether to join or remain with an organization. A. Membership behaviors B. Organizational behaviors C. Group dynamics D. Organizational structures E. Organizational norms

A. Membership behaviors

Which of the following is the largest single component of the elderly's overall retirement income? A. Old-age insurance B. Private pension C. Earnings from assets D. Disability insurance E. Medical insurance

A. Old-age insurance

What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one job to another? A. Outplacement B. Transition C. Relocation D. Displacement E. Transfer

A. Outplacement

Which of the following is true of employees terminating employment based on voluntary turnover? A. They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not get enough work hours. B. They include only those working on an hourly-wage basis and not the salaried ones. C. Those who work on an hourly basis usually tend to leave due to working too many hours. D. Those employees who are salaried usually tend to leave due to lack of enough work hours. E. They exclude those who do not get enough work.

A. They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not get enough work hours.

Which of the following is an example of a Pareto group? A. Twenty percent of the employees, who account for 75 percent of the health care costs B. Ten percent of the employees, who account for 25 percent of the health care costs C. Fifty percent of the employees, who account for 50 percent of the health care costs D. Eight percent of the employees, who account for 20 percent of the health care costs E. Sixty percent of the employees, who account for 80 percent of the health care costs

A. Twenty percent of the employees, who account for 75 percent of the health care costs

Which of the following acts requires federal contractors to pay employees no less than the prevailing wages in the area? A. Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act B. McNamara-O'Hara Service Contract Act (SCA) C. Fair Labor Standards Act D. Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act E. Equal Pay Act of 1963

A. Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act

E. L. Thorndike's Law of Effect states that _____. A. a response followed by a reward is more likely to recur in the future B. behavior is a function of ability and knowledge C. valence of pay outcomes should vary under different pay systems D. monetary incentives increase intrinsic motivation E. principals have perfect information on the degree to which an agent is pursuing goals

A. a response followed by a reward is more likely to recur in the future

Which of the following personality dimensions is typically associated with a person being nondepressed, secure, and content? A. Adjustment B. Extroversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

A. adjustment

The Walsh-Healy Act covers A. all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds. B. executive, professional, and administrative occupations that are exempt from FLSA coverage. C. all private retail firms in the United States that receive no federal funds. D. construction contractors receiving federal money of more than $2,000. E. manufacturing units that employ less than 2,000 employees.

A. all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds.

Which of the following is true of different career patterns? A. An expert career pattern involves a lifelong commitment to a field or specialization. B. A traditional career pattern involves movement across many disciplines. C. Career patterns involving movement across disciplines are on the decline. D. A traditional career pattern does not follow a hierarchy. E. A spiral career pattern involves limited movement across fields or occupations.

A. an expert career pattern involves a lifelong commitment to a field or specialization

_____ involves collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills. A. Assessment B. Bench analysis C. Job description D. Negotiation E. Reimbursement

A. assessment

_____ assess main facets such as verbal comprehension, quantitative ability, and reasoning ability. A. Cognitive ability tests B. Thematic apperception tests C. Personality inventories D. Raven's Progressive Matrices E. Rorschach inkblot tests

A. cognitive ability tests

A mentor provides psychosocial support when he or she A. creates an outlet for the protégé to talk about anxieties. B. protects and sponsors the protégé. C. provides higher rates of promotion to the protégé. D. provides coaching and exposure to the protégé. E. creates challenges to help the protégé learn new things.

A. creates an outlet for the protege to talk about anxieties

If there is a substantial correlation between test scores and job-performance scores, _____ validity has been established. A. criterion-related B. content C. construct D. procedural E. subject

A. criterion-related

The acquisition of knowledge, skills, and behaviors that improve an employee's ability to meet changes in job requirements and in client and customer demands is called _____. A. development B. formal training C. job evaluation D. knowledge management E. job specification

A. development

Latoya is very good at reading the emotions of others and can easily gauge whether people are happy or sad. Latoya has a high degree of _____. A. empathy B. social skills C. self-motivation D. self-regulation E. self-awareness

A. empathy

Organizational programs that attempt to ameliorate problems encountered by workers who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled are referred to as _____ programs. A. employee assistance B. alternative dispute resolution C. health benefits D. health insurance E. aided workers'

A. employee assistance

According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, A. employees should be paid at the rate of one and a half times their hourly rate for overtime worked beyond 40 hours in a week. B. federal contractors should pay employees no less than the prevailing wages in the area. C. outside sales employees are included in the coverage. D. employers who are not aware of the overtime work done by the employees are violating the law. E. occupations that have hourly wages are exempt from the law.

A. employees should be paid at the rate of one and a half times their hourly rate for overtime worked beyond 40 hours in a week.

Organizations use benchmarking primarily to compete A. for talent. B. for market share. C. on costs. D. on product differentiation. E. for consumer loyalty.

A. for talent.

Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains. A. forced distributions rating B. voluntary distribution rating C. self-rating D. peer-rating E. micromanagement

A. forced distributions rating

_____ is the degree to which a measure is free from random error. A. Reliability B. Validity C. Generalizability D. Utility E. Correlation

A: reliability

Which of the following statements is true of situational interviews? A. Future-oriented interviews are less valid than experience-based interviews. B. Future-oriented items reduce some forms of impression management, such as ingratiation, better than experience-based items. C. Situational interviews require the candidate to perform a piece of work or accomplish a task. D. Digitally taped interviews enable employers to better understand how candidates interact under specific conditions. E. Using multiple interviewers in such interviews leads to more subjective errors than using one interviewer.

A. future-oriented interviews are less valid than experience-based interviews

When an organization is using growth strategy, it will _____. A. have pay levels that are below market levels in the short run B. have a time orientation that is short-term C. make centralized pay decisions D. not share risks with employees E. have benefit levels that are above market levels

A. have pay levels that are below market levels in the short run

The utility of any test generally _____ as the selection ratio gets lower. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. becomes zero E. becomes negative

A. increases

Gainsharing can motivate employees as much as individual plans do because A. it allows more control over the performance measure and the frequency of payouts. B. it uses organization-level performance measures. C. it involves payouts that are deferred. D. it encourages individual-oriented plans rather than broader goals. E. it focuses more on the monetary component than on employee skills.

A. it allows more control over the performance measure and the frequency of payouts.

Mathew, a production manager, conducts an employee satisfaction survey. The survey reveals high levels of dissatisfaction among the employees in the packing unit who complain about repetitive tasks. In response to this, he adopts an intervention that explicitly focuses on reducing job dissatisfaction due to impoverished or boring tasks. This intervention is an example of _____. A. job enrichment B. team building C. prosocial motivation D. job rotation E. work complication

A. job enrichment

Which of the following practices best helps employees gain an overall appreciation of the company's goals? A. Job rotation B. Job analysis C. Job designing D. Job evaluation E. Job specification

A. job rotation

The items in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator that focus on individuals' preferences for lifestyle will score the individuals based on _____. A. judging versus perception B. thinking versus feeling C. introversion versus extroversion D. sensing versus intuition E. internal versus external locus of control

A. judging versus perception

The _____ tax rate is the percentage of additional earnings that goes to taxes. A. marginal B. net C. gross D. incremental E. maximum

A. marginal

Overtime pays better performers more in _____ programs. A. merit pay B. profit-sharing C. gainsharing D. skill-based E. ownership

A. merit pay

During the _____ stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of representatives from the organization that are at the same level as those people in the dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement. A. peer review B. arbitration C. open-door policy D. mediation E. legal support

A. peer review

The process through which an organization gets information on how closely an employee's actual performance meets his or her performance plan is known as _____. A. performance appraisal B. job analysis C. performance feedback D. ability analysis E. achievement discrepancy

A. performance appraisal

_____ categorize individuals by what they are like. A. Personality tests B. Minnesota manual dexterity tests C. Physical ability tests D. Likert scales E. Cognitive ability tests

A. personality tests

Agency costs are likely to arise when _____. A. principals and agents have different goals B. owners and managers are the same C. stockholders are involved in day-to-day operations of the company D. the stockholders are aware of the degree to which the agents are pursuing the principal's goals E. there is information symmetry between the agent and the principal

A. principals and agents have different goals

Black Inc. has introduced a formal mentoring program for its employees. Which of the following is necessary to make the program a success? A. Protégés are encouraged to contact one another to discuss problems and share achievements. B. The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and programs to complete are developed as the relationships grow. C. Formal mentoring and protégé participation are made mandatory. D. The mentor-protégé matching process limits the ability of informal relationships to develop. E. The length of the program is not specified.

A. proteges are encouraged to contact one another to discuss problems and share achievements

Javier, a Hispanic employee, is a constant low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated and is unable to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Javier low-level work assignments and subjects him to other forms of undesirable treatment. If Javier leaves the organization, these actions can expose Mark to a possible ____. A. retaliation lawsuit B. forgery lawsuit C. reverse discrimination suit D. public policy violation lawsuit E. civil infringement lawsuit

A. retaliation lawsuit

A _____ is defined dialogue initiated by one or more persons to gather information and evaluate the qualifications of an applicant for employment. A. selection interview B. focused group interview C. physical ability test D. cognitive ability test E. brainstorming session

A. selection interview

As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, if any neutral-appearing practice happens to have an adverse impact on those over age 40, the employer must _____. A. show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict B. make accommodations despite facing hardships C. facilitate premature retirement for the employees D. compensate the employee prior to court trials E. provide special incentives to the suffering employees

A. show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict

A _____ is a statement of an employee's work activity in a specific job. A. task B. position C. role D. job specification E. job evaluation

A: task

Workers' compensation laws cover job-related _____. A. pay raises B. policy changes C. quality-linked incentives D. injuries and death E. tax benefits

D. injuries and death

As the CEO of Blue Corp., Terrell makes it a point to meet new hires at all levels of his organization. He explains the goals of the company and emphasizes the importance of an individual employee's role in the larger picture. This initiative of Terrell focuses on the _____ of performance management. A. strategic purpose B. administrative purpose C. developmental purpose D. statistical purpose E. validity purpose

A. strategic purpose

Which of the following is a person's capacity to understand and use written and spoken language? A. Verbal comprehension B. Associative ability C. Reasoning ability D. Quantitative ability E. Interpersonal knowledge

A. verbal comprehension

According to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), the rights of employees to a pension upon retirement are known as _____. A. vesting rights B. portability rights C. transfer rights D. fiduciary rights E. funding rights

A. vesting rights

A(n) _____ test attempts to simulate the job in a prehiring context to observe how the applicant performs in the simulated job. A. work-sample B. honesty C. personality D. projective E. cognitive ability

A. work-sample

Which of the following is true about the use of massive open online courses? A. Anyone with an Internet connection can participate in them. B. They are rejected by major universities and therefore lack credibility. C. A majority of learners complete the course certification component. D. Course topics are primarily focused on science and technology. E. They offer participants many opportunities for synchronous interaction.

A: anyone with an Internet connection can participate in them

A work-study training method that uses both on-the-job training and classroom training is called _____. A. apprenticeship B. MOOC training C. virtual-reality training D. internship E. hands-on training

A: apprenticeship

Which performance management technique initially involves the identification of a large number of critical incidents, followed by the classification of these incidents into performance dimensions, and finally ranking these incidents into levels of performance? A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale B. Graphic rating scale C. Comparative rating scale D. Organizational behavior modification E. A competency model

A: behaviorally anchored rating scale

_____, attended by managers, provide a way to help ensure that performance is evaluated consistently across managers and to reduce the influence of rating errors and politics on appraisals. A. Calibration meetings B. Frame-of-reference trainings C. Multidimensional trainings D. Rater accuracy trainings E. Succession planning meetings

A: calibration meetings

_____ outcomes are used to measure the acquisition of knowledge. A. Cognitive B. Skill-based C. Affective D. Results E. Return on investment

A: cognitive

Which of the following factors that influence motivation deals with an employee's tendency to be reliable, hardworking, self-disciplined, and persistent? A. Conscientiousness B. Basic skills C. Benefits of training D. Awareness of training needs E. Goal orientation

A: conscientiousness

A competent employee receives lower-than-deserved ratings because of a few outstanding colleagues who set very high performance standards. This is an example of a _____ rater error. A. contrast B. distributional C. halo D. similar to me E. horns

A: contrast

The ranking technique that requires certain percentages of employees to be categorized into predetermined categories or groups based on their performance is known as _____. A. forced distribution B. the high/low ranking system C. paired comparison D. alternation ranking E. simple ranking

A: forced distribution

Benito, a psychology student, has had an overall negative impression of his psychology professor. As a consequence, during the end-of-term appraisal, he rates his professor low on all performance criteria. Which of the following rater errors has Benito committed? A. Horns B. Leniency C. Central tendency D. Contrast E. Strictness

A: horns

If a training program focuses primarily on ensuring that employees have product or service knowledge, it is taking the strategic initiative to _____. A. improve customer service B. improve employee engagement C. enhance innovation D. grow in the global market E. develop creativity

A: improve customer service

A firm focuses on organizational and person analysis during the _____ stage in the training design process. A. needs assessment B. employees' readiness assessment C. learning environment development D. transfer of training E. training methods selection

A: needs assessment

Which of the following is true of peers as the source of performance information? A. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and often have the most opportunity to observe an employee in day-to-day activities. B. Peer evaluations give employees power over their managers, thus putting managers in a difficult situation. C. Peers are comfortable providing evaluations for both administrative and developmental purposes. D. Peers have the ability to discard the fact that they may be friends with the ratee in order to provide an unbiased rating. E. Peers give feedback that is strongly related to performance and to employee perceptions of the accuracy of the appraisal.

A: peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and often have the most opportunity to observe an employee in day-to-day activities

Which of the following types of analysis involves determining whether performance deficiencies result from a lack of knowledge, skill, or ability? A. Person B. Cost C. Task D. Information E. Strategic

A: person

_____ analysis involves identifying who needs training and determining employees' readiness for training. A. Person B. Cost C. Task D. Information E. Strategic

A: person

Elle Inc. is a firm that holds frequent reviews and feedback sessions for its employees. It demands that the same person review the employees of a team to ensure that the performance evaluation is consistent; tests-retests are conducted periodically to make sure the evaluation is consistent. These two steps taken by Elle Inc. focus on the _____ of performance management. A. reliability B. strategic congruence C. specificity D. acceptability E. validity

A: reliability

Which of the following is true regarding behavioral approaches to performance measurement? A. They link the company's strategy to the specific behavior necessary to implement that strategy. B. They adopt a very subjective approach to evaluating human behavior at the workplace. C. They result in techniques that have a low degree of validity and acceptability. D. They assume that there are multiple best ways to do the job. E. Despite substantial investments in training, the techniques are not strong enough to be reliable.

A: they link the company's strategy to the specific behavior necessary to implement the strategy

As a component of effective managing diversity programs, _____ includes diversity as part of the business strategy and corporate goals. A. top management support B. recruitment C. talent development D. employee support E. ensuring fair treatment

A: top management support

While evaluating training programs, acquisition of knowledge is measured using _____. A. work samples B. observation C. interviews D. attitude surveys E. focus groups

A: work samples

Which of the following statements offers the strongest predictor of employee turnover? A. "The company's sales goals for next year seem totally out of reach." B. "Most of my best friends are co-workers from the office." C. "This company should offer more skills development opportunities." D. "The department head is good at her job but not very personable." E. "I think some of my team members just skate by on my efforts."

B. "Most of my best friends are co-workers from the office."

By law, what percentage of assets must an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) invest in its company's stock? A. 26 percent B. 51 percent C. 80 percent D. 75 percent E. 76 percent

B. 51 percent

Which of the following statements about outcome-oriented or behavior-oriented contracts is true? A. Merit pay is an example of an outcome-based contract. B. Behavior-oriented contracts do not transfer risk to the agent. C. Outcome-oriented contracts do not require a compensating wage differential. D. Outcome-oriented contracts decrease the agent's risks. E. In behavior-based contracts, information asymmetry is not an important issue.

B. Behavior-oriented contracts do not transfer risk to the agent.

_____ can be described as a function of ability and motivation. A. Attitudes B. Behaviors C. Values D. Rewards E. Goals

B. Behaviors

Which of the following administrative tools is used by organizations to design job structures? A. Job rotation B. Job evaluation C. Market pay survey D. Job description E. Job specification

B. Job evaluation

Alternative dispute resolution is a method of resolving disputes that A. involves extensive legislation. B. does not rely on the legal system. C. excludes outside parties. D. does not involve binding arbitration. E. involves only the appealing party.

B. does not rely on the legal system.

Which of the following is an example of the sorting effect? A. A mid-year merit bonus encourages Lavar to keep improving his productivity at Star Industries. B. Bevlink's full match for employee retirement plan contributions encourages Tina to apply for a job there. C. Two years without a wage increase for employees at Fractal Castings has led to a decrease in product quality. D. Implementation of profit sharing at RedCube Robotics inspires Zack's team to identify potential supply chain savings. E. Freezing of year-end bonuses at Harvest Organics leads employees to question the organization's values.

B. Bevlink's full match for employee retirement plan contributions encourages Tina to apply for a job there.

The _____ protects individuals from discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working conditions. A. False Claims Act B. Civil Rights Act of 1991 C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act D. Americans with Disabilities Act E. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

B. Civil Rights Act of 1991

In which of the following ways may staffing practices change in response to benefit cost controls? A. Increasing benefit costs per hour by having employees work more hours with fixed benefit costs B. Classifying employees as contractors rather than employees C. Increasing the number of full-time workers D. Rehiring previously laid off employees E. Paying temporary workers for time not spent working

B. Classifying employees as contractors rather than employees

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions? A. Bias suppression B. Correctability C. Representativeness D. Ethicality E. Consistency

B. Correctability

_____ increases are provided as part of Social Security benefits for each year that the consumer price index increases. A. Unemployment benefit B. Cost-of-living C. Disability benefit D. Tuition E. Retirement plan

B. Cost-of-living

Which of the following is part of an active wellness program? A. Awareness of health-related issues B. Counselors providing tailored programs C. Centers for physical fitness D. Athletic trainers present in a company gym E. Information on health-related topics

B. Counselors providing tailored programs

Executive Order 11246 is enforced by the _____. A. Department of Justice B. Department of Labor C. Department of Law D. Bureau of Labor Statistics E. Department of Commerce

B. Department of Labor

Which of the following is true about vesting rights? A. They include the right to a pension prior to retirement age. B. Employers may choose to vest employees after five years. C. The right to a pension remains only if the vested employee is with the employer until retirement. D. Transferring employees as a means of avoiding pension obligations is allowed. E. Multiemployer pension plans do not take vesting into consideration.

B. Employers may choose to vest employees after five years.

Which of the following occupations is exempt from the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? A. First responder B. Executive C. Firefighter D. Paramedic E. Police

B. Executive

Which of the following determinants of interactional justice requires emphasis on the different aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision? A. Social sensitivity B. Explanation C. Consideration D. Empathy E. Consistency

B. Explanation

Which of the following scenarios is an apt example of a future-oriented situational interview? A. Ahmad was asked about the most painful decision he had made as a manager. B. Fernandez was asked about the steps he would take to change the work environment in his office. C. Emma was asked about the most annoying customer she had ever dealt with. D. Jacob was asked about the most hated aspect of his previous job. E. Maria was asked whether her religious beliefs had ever influenced her decision-making as a manager.

B. Fernandez was asked about the steps he would take to change the work environment in his office

Which of the following media is least used by organizations to communicate benefit plans? A. Enrollment materials (online or paper) B. Group employee benefits communications with the benefits vendor C. Group employee benefits communications with an organizational representative D. One-to-one employee benefits counseling with an organizational representative E. Direct mail to home/residence

B. Group employee benefits communications with the benefits vendor

Selena uses the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator to assess her personality type. If she scores highest in introversion, intuition, thinking, and perceiving, her personality type is _____. A. IIPT B. INTP C. NIFP D. NTJP E. FNJP

B. INTP

Which of the following compensation programs uses a management style that gives importance to control? A. Gainsharing plan B. Incentive pay C. Ownership D. Merit pay E. Profit sharing

B. Incentive pay

Which of the following components is a perceived link between behavior and pay? A. Expectancy B. Instrumentality C. Reinforcement D. Valence E. Equity

B. Instrumentality

_____ justice is the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented. A. Outcome B. Interactional C. Procedural D. Result E. Functional

B. Interactional

Which of the following is true of skill-based pay? A. It rarely provides the opportunity for leaner staffing levels. B. It helps in making alternative arrangements for employee turnover. C. It reduces worker flexibility. D. It leads to a shortage of multi-skilled employees. E. It gives rise to centralization of decision-making.

B. It helps in making alternative arrangements for employee turnover.

Which of the following best describes job withdrawal? A. It refers to employers discharging employees from jobs that are to be outsourced. B. It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation. C. It refers to retracting a job offer after initial confirmation. D. It refers to voluntary turnover initiated by employees an organization would like to retain. E. It involves a set of actions showcased by the company to discourage its employees from working.

B. It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.

A firm that has a manufacturing unit in China considers shifting production to Cambodia. Which of the following would be a possible reason for it to not shift the production base? A. Lower wages for labor in Cambodia B. Less skilled labor in Cambodia C. Higher productivity in Cambodia D. Rising labor costs in China E. Higher transportation costs in China

B. Less skilled labor in Cambodia

Which of the following types of benefits involves the highest of costs? A. Legally required benefits B. Medical and other insurance C. Retirement and savings plan D. Payment for time not worked E. Supplemental pay

B. Medical and other insurance

The _____ is based on a theory that emphasizes that each individual has a fundamental personality type that shapes and influences how the individual understands the world, processes information, and socializes. A. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. Big Five Personality Test D. Rorschach inkblot test E. Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

Which of the following is the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution? A. Arbitration B. Open-door policy C. Peer review D. Mediation E. Legal support

B. Open-door policy

Which of the following is a unique aspect of benefits? A. There is no question of legal compliance. B. Organizations so typically offer them that they have become institutionalized. C. It is less complex to understand the value of a dollar in a benefits package than in a salary. D. Medical and retirement plans are not part of benefits. E. Benefits, unlike direct compensation, are never mandated by law.

B. Organizations so typically offer them that they have become institutionalized.

_____ is the judgment that people make with respect to the results received relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent others). A. Structural fairness B. Outcome fairness C. Procedural fairness D. Process fairness E. Task fairness

B. Outcome fairness

_____ is the relative pay of different jobs and how much one is paid. A. Pay grade B. Pay structure C. Efficiency wage D. Benchmark E. Job evaluation

B. Pay structure

Which type of retiree benefits plan is excluded from the Financial Accounting Statement 106 rule that states benefits should not be provided on a pay-as-you-go basis? A. Health care B. Pension C. Life insurance D. Stock ownership E. Disability insurance

B. Pension

The _____ guarantees payment to employees of a basic retirement benefit in the event that financial difficulties force a company to terminate or reduce employee pension benefits. A. Employee Benefits Security Administration B. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation C. Employees' Compensation Appeals Board D. Bureau of Labor Statistics E. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

B. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation

Which of the following is the most widely used method in job evaluation that yields scores for each compensable factor? A. Range spread approach B. Point-factor system C. Market survey system D. Pay policy line E. Pay grade approach

B. Point-factor system

Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at her workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of the following behaviors does Laura express? A. Physical withdrawal B. Psychological withdrawal C. Internal change D. Whistle-blowing E. Behavioral change

B. Psychological withdrawal

Which of the following concepts addresses the fact that different employees in the same job may have different pay rates? A. Range spread B. Rate ranges C. Key jobs D. Compensable factors E. Pay grades

B. Rate ranges

Which of the following theories suggests that high employee performance not followed by a monetary reward will make future high performance less likely? A. Herzberg's two-factor theory B. Reinforcement theory C. Freud's psychoanalytical theory D. McGregor's theory X E. Theory Z

B. Reinforcement theory

_____ plans permit employees to defer compensation on a pretax basis. A. Supplemental benefit B. Section 401(k) C. Money purchase D. Specified retirement benefit E. Profit-sharing

B. Section 401(k)

Which of the following pay structures would a company adopt if it wanted a pay structure that rewards employees based on their knowledge and competency? A. Delayering approach B. Skill-based pay approach C. Pay grade approach D. Market survey data approach E. Pay policy line approach

B. Skill-based pay approach

Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction? A. An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she does B. The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker C. The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization D. A positive work environment and social support E. The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self-esteem and goal satisfaction

B. The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker

Which of the following is true about employee benefits? A. Government involvement in benefits decisions is minimal. B. The impact of legal regulations on benefits is greater than that on direct compensation. C. Understanding the value of a dollar in a benefits package is more complicated than understanding it in a salary. D. The tax treatment of benefits programs is often less favorable for employees than is the tax treatment of wages and salaries. E. Employees are always aware of the benefits available, as well as how to use them.

B. The impact of legal regulations on benefits is greater than that on direct compensation.

Which of the following best describes a broad band in job-based pay structures? A. The distance between the minimum and maximum pay in a grade B. The wider grouping of jobs accomplished through delayering C. An index of the correspondence between actual and intended pay D. A mathematical expression that describes the relationship between a job's pay and its job evaluation points E. The characteristics of jobs that an organization values and chooses to pay for

B. The wider grouping of jobs accomplished through delayering

Separating the functions of principals and agents is likely to result in A. immobility of financial capital. B. diversification of investment risk. C. reduction in agency costs. D. better goal congruence. E. information symmetry.

B. diversification of investment risk.

Which of the following is the definition of compensable factors? A. They are jobs that are unique to organizations and that cannot be directly valued or compared through the use of market surveys. B. They are the characteristics of jobs that an organization values and chooses to pay for. C. They are the jobs that have relatively stable content and are common to many organizations. D. They are the factors that describe the relationship between a job's pay and its job evaluation points. E. They are the jobs that are of similar worth or content grouped together for pay administration purposes.

B. They are the characteristics of jobs that an organization values and chooses to pay for.

Which of the following is true of key jobs? A. They are unique to organizations. B. They can be used in pay surveys. C. They have unstable content. D. They cannot be compared through market surveys. E. They are not benchmark jobs.

B. They can be used in pay surveys.

Which of the following is an example of an equal employment opportunity regulation that prohibits sex- and race-based differences in employment outcomes such as pay, unless justified by business necessity? A. 2009 Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act C. Equal Pay Act of 1963 D. Taft-Hartley Act E. Mann Act

B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

Why did some low-paying companies raise hourly wages in the mid-2010s? A. To address the problem of growing income inequality in the country B. To avoid having to hire new employees in a tight labor market C. To compensate for decreased health care benefit packages D. To circumvent legislative efforts to increase the minimum wage E. To draw educated candidates with potential to become managers

B. To avoid having to hire new employees in a tight labor market

During the recent financial crisis, the U.S. government, as part of the _____, decided it was appropriate to further regulate executive pay in firms receiving government "bailout" money. A. NCUA Corporate Stabilization Program B. Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) C. Public-Private Investment Program D. Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act E. Emergency Economic Stabilization Act

B. Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP)

Which of the following is part of the benefits offered to employees? A. Stock options B. Unemployment compensation C. Salary D. Merit increases E. Bonuses

B. Unemployment compensation

Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline measure? A. Temporary suspension B. Unofficial verbal warning C. Last chance notification D. Threat of suspension E. Termination

B. Unofficial verbal warning

Which of the following is true of the point-factor system? A. In this system, job evaluators apply a weighting method before generating scores for the compensable factors. B. When a priori weights method is used, factors are weighted using expert judgments. C. In a priori weights method, weights are assigned to noncompensable factors. D. Multiple regression is an example of a priori weights method. E. When the weights are derived empirically, factors determining pay in the labor market are excluded.

B. When a priori weights method is used, factors are weighted using expert judgments.

Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce dissatisfaction through _____. A. behavior modification B. a supportive environment C. progressive discipline measures D. third-party negotiations E. alternative dispute resolution

B. a supportive environment

Financial Accounting Statement 106 requires that any benefits provided after retirement be paid on a(n) _____ basis. A. pay-as-you-go B. accrual C. annual D. subtraction E. monthly

B. accrual

_____ is a wide variety of specific selection programs that employ multiple selection methods to rate either applicants or job incumbents on their managerial potential. A. Optimal discriminant analysis B. Assessment center C. Test anchoring D. Work simulation E. Factor analysis

B. assessment center

With its strong emphasis on mentoring and cross-functional training, employees at SocialByte can readily take on more responsibility and move up in the organization. SocialByte's _____ is considered a model for other companies in the sector. A. advancement corps B. bench strength C. employee mobility D. talent reserve E. skills pool

B. bench strength

At the highest level of child care provision, firms provide employees with A. vouchers or discounts to buy products for their children. B. child care at or near their worksites. C. information about the costs of available child care. D. phone numbers of child care facilities in the area. E. comprehensive information about the quality of available child care.

B. child care at or near their worksites.

Which of the following validation strategies is most likely to be adversely affected by the restriction of range problem that results due to current employees being homogeneous? A. Predictive validation B. Concurrent validation C. Content validation D. Secondary validation E. External validation

B. concurrent validation

The process of performance management begins with A. developing employee goals, behavior, and actions to achieve outcomes. B. defining performance outcomes for company divisions and departments. C. providing consequences for performance results. D. identifying the improvements needed. E. providing support and ongoing performance discussions.

B. defining performance outcomes for company divisions and departments

A person who is conscientious will be A. talkative, emotionally stable, and unorganized. B. dependable, organized, persevering, thorough, and achievement-oriented. C. sociable, content, and intolerant. D. gregarious, secure, and uncooperative. E. assertive, nondepressed, and unforgiving.

B. dependable, organized, persevering, thorough, and achievement-oriented

The _____ is used to retain and motivate employees by identifying and meeting their developmental needs. A. talent management system B. development planning system C. knowledge management system D. information management system E. client management system

B. development planning system

Negative affectivity is primarily influenced by A. availability of social support. B. disposition of individuals. C. organizational roles. D. work environment. E. pay and benefits.

B. disposition of individuals.

The Americans with Disabilities Act _____. A. protects individuals with physical disabilities, but not mental disabilities B. does not require an organization to make accommodations that cause undue hardship C. demands affirmative action to increase representation of minorities D. does not require that employers make reasonable accommodation for individuals with disabilities E. requires an organization to make all accommodations necessary to ensure that individuals with disabilities are represented in the organization

B. does not require an organization to make accommodations that cause undue hardship

The unemployment insurance program is financed largely through federal and state taxes on _____. A. employees B. employers C. retired personnel D. the general public E. employment agencies

B. employers

Which of the following personality dimensions is associated with sociable, gregarious, assertive, and talkative individuals? A. Adjustment B. Extroversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience

B. extroversion

Benefit plans that permit employees to choose the types and amounts of benefits they want are called _____. A. defined benefit plans B. flex-plans C. standard benefits packages D. flexible spending accounts E. traditional benefit plans

B. flex-plans

Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are A. what drive employees who create organizational changes. B. forms of psychological disengagement. C. examples of physical job withdrawal. D. examples of physiological job withdrawal. E. forms of behavioral changes aimed at changing policies.

B. forms of psychological disengagement.

Gainsharing plans differ from profit-sharing plans in that A. gainsharing plans use organization-wide performance parameters. B. gainsharing plans distribute payouts more frequently. C. gainsharing plans make lump sum payments. D. gainsharing plans can be attached to all types of jobs in the organization. E. gainsharing plans discourage pursuit of broader goals of the group.

B. gainsharing plans distribute payouts more frequently.

_____ is the degree to which the validity of a selection method established in one context extends to other contexts. A. Utility B. Generalizability C. Reliability D. Validity E. Exclusivity

B. generalizability

As part of the application process for an entry-level job after college, Isaac was given a personality test. He takes the same test as an applicant for another position 10 years later. Which of the following will likely be indicated by the results of Isaac's second test? A. He has become more extroverted. B. He has become more conscientious. C. He has become less content. D. He has become more authoritative. E. He has become less independent.

B. he has become more conscientious

During the self-assessment step in the career management process, an employee A. forms a timetable to reach his goals. B. identifies the opportunities and needs to improve. C. identifies what needs are realistic to develop. D. identifies a goal and a method to determine goal progress. E. ensures that his goal is specific, measureable, and attainable.

B. identifies the opportunities and needs to improve

A(n) _____ is a simulation of the administrative tasks of a manager's job. A. leaderless group discussion B. in-basket C. role-play D. interview E. focus-group discussion

B. in-basket

In incentive pay, performance measures are primarily based on _____. A. a supervisor's appraisal B. individual productivity C. company profits D. company stock returns E. production costs

B. individual productivity

According to expectancy theory, compensation systems differ according to their impact on the components of motivation; the main influence of compensation is on _____. A. expectancy B. instrumentality C. reinforcement D. valence E. equity

B. instrumentality

Explanation, consideration, social sensitivity, and empathy are key determinants of _____. A. perceptual justice B. interactional justice C. procedural justice D. outcome justice E. task justice

B. interactional justice

According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals who are _____ tend to be serious, quiet, practical, orderly, and logical. A. introverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (INFP) B. introverted, sensing, thinking, and judging (ISTJ) C. extroverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (ENFP) D. extroverted, sensing, thinking, and perceiving (ESTP) E. extroverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving (ESFP)

B. introverted, sensing, thinking, and judging (ISTJ)

The major advantage of a flexible spending account is that A. dependent care expenses are covered through the same account. B. it increases employees' take-home pay. C. unused funds revert to the employee. D. it covers unpredictable expenses. E. it permits post-tax contribution to an employee's account.

B. it increases employees' take-home pay.

Culture based on _____ is most likely to prevail in companies that use a profit-sharing compensation program. A. individual competition B. knowledge of business C. sense of ownership D. problem-solving orientation E. learning and flexibility

B. knowledge of business

The process through which an organization gets information on how well an employee is doing his or her job is known as _____. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. job evaluation D. job performance E. talent management

B. performance appraisal

_____ validation is a validity study that seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job. A. Content B. Predictive C. Concurrent D. Subjective E. Logical

B. predictive

In the _____ dimension, employees base their fairness assessments on the processes that were used to decide the amount of compensation. A. distributive B. procedural C. quantitative D. ownership E. outcome

B. procedural

Which of the following is true of job rotations? A. A long-term perspective may be created of problems and solutions. B. Productivity losses may be experienced by the department that is gaining an employee. C. Frequent rotation may result in employee satisfaction and motivation. D. Employees develop functional specialties when they are rotated frequently. E. Employees who are rotated frequently receive more challenging assignments.

B. productivity losses may be experienced by the department that is gaining an employee

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act does NOT A. permit business necessity as a ground to avoid a guilty verdict. B. protect younger workers. C. allow for jury trials. D. allow punitive damages. E. permit promotions based on performance.

B. protect younger workers

_____ is the information employees receive about how the company evaluates their skills and knowledge and where they fit into the company's plans. A. Job specification B. Reality check C. Bench strength D. Action plan E. Self-report

B. reality check

_____ ability is a person's capacity to invent solutions to many diverse problems. A. Quantitative B. Reasoning C. Technical D. Comprehension E. Verbal

B. reasoning

Which of the following statements is true of the reliability of a measurement? A. A measurement is said to be reliable when only two iterations are involved in measurement. B. Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself. C. Reliability is not dependent on the attributes of the measuring instruments used. D. Reliability indicates the degree to which two objects are related to each other. E. Reliability indicates the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance on the job.

B. reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself

Agency theory is of particular value in compensation management because of its emphasis on the _____ trade-off. A. performance-reward B. risk-reward C. motivation-reward D. ability-reward E. behavior-reward

B. risk-reward

In _____, participants take the part of a manager or other employee. A. a focus group discussion B. role-play C. an interview D. job enlargement E. a leaderless group discussion

B. role-play

Which of the following is the first step in the development planning system? A. Reality check B. Self-assessment C. Goal setting D. Action planning E. Employee appraisal

B. self-assesment

Nelson is a very gregarious person who, through his interactions, can effectively manage the people working under him in the organization. Nelson has a high degree of _____. A. self-awareness B. social skills C. empathy D. self-motivation E. self-regulation

B. social skills

Career patterns involving movement across specializations or disciplines are called _____ career patterns. A. linear B. spiral C. expert D. traditional E. specialized

B. spiral

When assessing the reliability of a measure, one might be interested in knowing how scores on the measure at one time relate to scores on the same measure at another time. This is called A. test-interdependency. B. test-retest reliability. C. mutual exclusivity. D. test utility. E. test generalizability.

B. test-retest reliability

Which of the following assessments is based on Carl Jung's personality type theory? A. The Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory B. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. The Big Five Personality Test D. The Rorschach inkblot test E. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

B. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

Which of the following tests can be used to determine the personality type that best suits an employee out of the 16 personality types available? A. The Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory B. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. The Big Five Personality Test D. The Rorschach inkblot test E. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

B. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), A. the terms and conditions of health insurance should not be based on risk factors. B. the terms of health insurance should not be a subterfuge to deny benefits to those with disabilities. C. employers with no risk-based programs are in stronger positions. D. employers who make changes after hiring employees with disabilities are in a stronger position. E. employees with disabilities have greater access to health coverage than other employees with the same health coverage plan.

B. the terms of health insurance should not be a subterfuge to deny benefits to those with disabilities.

The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers to A. offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. B. treat pregnancy as they would any other disability if they do offer disability plans. C. provide up to eight weeks of paid leave to the mother upon the birth of a child. D. provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to the father upon the birth of a child. E. bear all the medical expenses related to the birth of their employee's child.

B. treat pregnancy as they would any other disability if they do offer disability plans.

The extent to which performance on a measure is related to performance on the job is called A. reliability. B. validity. C. generalizability. D. utility. E. authenticity.

B. validity

Employee survey research allows a company to monitor trends over time and thus prevent problems, before they happen, in the area of _____. A. dissatisfaction among low performers B. voluntary turnover C. involuntary turnover D. low productivity E. low quality

B. voluntary turnover

Which quality control technique is useful for understanding the amount of variance between an outcome and the expected value or average outcome? A. A control chart B. A histogram C. A cause-and-effect diagram D. A process-flow analysis E. A Pareto chart

B: a histogram

Which of the following is a comparative approach to ranking that consists of a manager looking at a list of employees, deciding who the best employee is, and crossing that person's name off the list? A. Simple ranking B. Alternation ranking C. Reverse ranking D. Elimination by aspect E. Forced distribution

B: alternation ranking

The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with which an employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the _____. A. simple ranking method B. behavioral observation scale C. graphic rating scale D. organizational behavior modification method E. forced distribution scale

B: behavioral observation scale

Which of the following is true of distance learning? A. Expenses in the form of travel costs are high. B. Clarification of questions is dependent on on-site instructors. C. The level of interaction between trainees and trainers is high. D. Geographically dispersed audiences cannot be reached. E. It is more useful when instructors can visit the trainees.

B: clarification of questions is dependent on on-site instructors

Which of the following is the first stage in the training design process? A. Ensuring employees' readiness for training B. Conducting a needs assessment C. Selecting training methods D. Creating a learning environment E. Evaluating training programs

B: conducting a needs assessment

A software company assesses its developers more on their client support skills than their development skills. Which of the following would best describe the software company's performance management process? A. Deficient B. Contaminated C. Unreliable D. Inconsistent E. Unspecified

B: contaminated

Presentation training techniques are most effective for A. developing specific skills or dealing with interpersonal issues on the job. B. conveying new facts and different philosophies. C. applying learned capabilities on the job. D. sharing ideas and experiences and getting to know one's strengths and weaknesses. E. enhancing communication and developing a peer network.

B: conveying new facts and different philosophies

Prometheus Corp. is a large-scale manufacturer of consumer electronic gadgets. As part of its performance management system, Prometheus measures the amount each employee contributes to the profits of the company, and the employees are either held accountable or rewarded based on their contributions. With regard to performance measurement, under which of the following would contribution to profits be categorized? A. Key risk indicators (KRIs) B. Critical success factors (CSFs) C. Non-performing assets (NPAs) D. Key performance indicators (KPIs) E. Behavioral Observation Scales (BOSs)

B: critical success factors (CSFs)

_____ involves development programs, courses, and events that are developed and organized by the company. A. Tacit knowledge B. Formal training C. Transfer of training D. Implicit learning E. On-the-job knowledge

B: formal training

_____ rating error occurs when a rater gives an employee high ratings on all aspects of performance because of the rater's overall positive impression of the employee. A. Contrast B. Halo C. Leniency D. Similar to me E. Central tendency

B: halo

Which of the following types of skills is best improved by behavior-modeling training? A. Technical B. Interpersonal C. Conceptual D. Quality assessment E. Performance

B: interpersonal

Consistency in ratings given by two individuals who evaluate an employee's performance is known as _____ reliability. A. internal consistency B. interrater C. inter-method D. test-retest E. parallel-forms

B: interrater

A performance measure is said to be contaminated when A. it does not measure all aspects of performance. B. it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance. C. it is a subjective supervisory measure of job performance. D. it is not reliable over time. E. the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance is maximized.

B: it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance

_____ are the most frequently used source of performance information. A. Peers B. Managers C. Subordinates D. Employees themselves E. Customers

B: managers

_____ analysis involves determining the business appropriateness of training, given the company's business strategy. A. Person B. Organizational C. Task D. Information E. Market

B: organizational

Which type of analysis is usually conducted first when performing a needs assessment in a training process? A. Task analysis B. Organizational analysis C. Person analysis D. High-leverage analysis E. Market analysis

B: organizational analysis

In which phase do employees receive language training and an orientation to the new country's culture and customs? A. On-site phase B. Predeparture phase C. Postdeparture phase D. Repatriation phase E. Offshore phase

B: predepature phase

Which of the following is a means of measuring and feeding back productivity information to personnel with the main goal of motivating employees to higher levels of productivity? A. Projective tests B. Productivity Measurement and Evaluation System C. Assessment centers D. Critical incidents E. Multi-criteria decision analysis

B: productivity measurement and evaluation system

The _____ approach assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the measurement process and that outcomes are the closest indicators of one's contribution to organizational effectiveness. A. behavior B. results C. attribute D. quality E. comparative

B: results

At BayPoint Strategies, employees can work on several projects over the course of a year, reporting to different managers and interacting with a variety of team members. Which of the following approaches would be most effective and efficient in assessing employee performance at this consulting firm? A. Upward feedback B. Social performance management C. Productivity Measurement and Evaluation System D. 360-degree appraisal E. Paired comparison method

B: social performance management

Globo Analytics Inc., a data analysis company, has modified its performance management system. Apart from training employees on their specific tasks, the trainers and managers help the employees become more aware of the overall goals of the company and how their individual performances influence the broader goals of the company. As a result of this, employees' performances have become more consistent with the organization's strategies, goals, and culture. This initiative of Globo focuses on the _____ criterion of performance management. A. consistency B. strategic congruence C. social D. acceptability E. risk avoidance

B: strategic congruence

_____ is on-the-job use of knowledge, skills, and behaviors learned in training. A. Information absorption B. Transfer of training C. Cognitive adoption D. Hands-on learning E. Learning management

B: transfer of training

Both the comparative and the attribute approaches to performance measurement are _____. A. high on strategic congruence B. very low on specificity C. low on acceptability D. high on reliability E. very high on validity

B: very low on specificity

As per the Fair Labor Standards Act, the current minimum wage stands at _____. A. $8.85 per hour B. $9.40 per hour C. $7.25 per hour D. $10.50 per hour E. $8.30 per hour

C. $7.25 per hour

In _____, employees' behaviors or skills are evaluated not only by subordinates but also by themselves and their peers, customers, and bosses. A. paired comparisons systems B. reverse mentoring systems C. 360-degree feedback systems D. upward feedback systems E. mentor feedback systems

C. 360-degree feedback

Which of the following happens in the mediation stage of an alternative dispute resolution? A. The two people in conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement together. B. A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case. C. A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process. D. A professional arbitrator hears the case and resolves it unilaterally. E. The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.

C. A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process.

Which of the following is true of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)? A. ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled internally. B. Resolution through an ADR system is expensive, as it involves high costs in terms of legal fees. C. ADR follows a distinct set of actions with a goal of resolving disputes in as few steps as possible. D. ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues related to drug or alcohol abuse. E. ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to enter the discussion.

C. ADR follows a distinct set of actions with a goal of resolving disputes in as few steps as possible.

Which of the following is a tool that allows companies to track financial results while monitoring progress in building the capabilities and acquiring the intangible assets they would need for future growth? A. HR scorecard B. External employee grid C. Balanced scorecard D. ESOP plan E. Merit increase grid

C. Balanced scorecard

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are applied by someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in the discussion? A. Representativeness B. Correctability C. Bias suppression D. Accuracy E. Consistency

C. Bias suppression

Which of the following is true of broad bands? A. More use of broad brands, the less use of delayering in a firm. B. More use of broad brands, the less opportunity for promotions. C. Broad bands with greater range spread lead to weaker budgetary control. D. Broad bands with greater range spread give rise to lower labor costs. E. Broad bands with smaller range spread permit managers to recognize high performance with high pay.

C. Broad bands with greater range spread lead to weaker budgetary control.

Which type of pay is similar to pay structures based on individual characteristics such as skill or knowledge but usually refers to a plan that covers exempt employees? A. Internal equity pay B. Market survey pay C. Competency-based pay D. Job-based pay E. External equity pay

C. Competency-based pay

Which of the following is an advantage for employers who implement flexible benefits plans? A. Low initial design costs B. Low administrative costs C. Control over the size of the contribution D. Low adverse selection E. Easy estimation of the costs of benefits

C. Control over the size of the contribution

Which of the following hypotheses argues that women were historically restricted to entering a small number of occupations and, as a result, the supply of workers far exceeded demand, resulting in lower pay for such occupations? A. Macho hypothesis B. Strain hypothesis C. Crowding hypothesis D. Contact hypothesis E. Calibration hypothesis

C. Crowding hypothesis

_____ plans do not promise a specific benefit level for employees upon retirement. A. Defined benefit B. Term benefit C. Defined contribution D. Flexi benefit E. Cash balance

C. Defined contribution

Which of the following theories states that pay influences worker productivity? A. Structuration theory B. Social exchange theory C. Efficiency wage theory D. Perceptual-motor theory E. Expectancy theory

C. Efficiency wage theory

Which of the following increased the fiduciary responsibilities of pension plan trustees and established vesting rights and portability provisions? A. Affordable Care Act B. Social Security Act C. Employee Retirement Income Security Act D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act E. National Labor Relations Act

C. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

Which legislation prohibits discrimination and mandates that employers take affirmative actions to hire qualified minority applicants? A. The Federal Tort Claims Act B. The Revenue Act of 1913 C. Executive Order 11246 D. The Federal Reserve Act E. The Thirteenth Amendment of the United States Constitution

C. Executive Order 11246

_____ interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering systematic concerns that are driving retention problems. A. Technical B. Retaining C. Exit D. Mock E. Screening

C. Exit

_____ perception is the perceived link between effort and performance. A. Reinforcement B. Actual C. Expectancy D. Agency E. Equity

C. Expectancy

_____ focuses on the link between rewards and behaviors and emphasizes anticipated rewards. A. Equity theory B. Agency theory C. Expectancy theory D. Theory Z E. McGregor's theory X

C. Expectancy theory

Which of the following is a design feature according to which employee contribution programs differ? A. Employees' skills B. Type of work C. Frequency of payout D. Number of employee groups E. Company's annual output

C. Frequency of payout

Which of the following is a compensation program that would best support an organizational culture of cooperation and problem solving? A. Fixed pay B. Merit pay C. Gainsharing D. Incentive pay E. Skill-based pay

C. Gainsharing

_____ allows women and minorities to come within sight of the top echelons of management, but not advance to them. A. Departmentalization B. Decentralization C. Glass ceiling D. Benchmarking E. Centralization

C. Glass ceiling

Which of the following is true of passive employee wellness programs (EWPs)? A. They have large outreach programs aimed at individuals. B. They provide ongoing employee support to motivate them to use the available resources. C. Health education programs are an example of passive EWPs. D. They do not include structural changes such as having a fitness facility for employees. E. They include tailored programs with counselors guiding individuals.

C. Health education programs are an example of passive EWPs.

Which of the following is an example of an experience-based situational interview? A. Roberto was asked how he would resolve a certain technical fault in his workplace. B. Priya was asked about her reaction if her co-workers indulged in racist behavior. C. Hiroshi was asked to describe an event where his creativity led to effective problem solving. D. Jane was asked what steps she would take in case of a power failure in the plant. E. DeShaun was asked to describe how he would convince his boss about his new marketing strategy.

C. Hiroshi was asked to describe an event where his creativity led to effective problem solving

Which of the following statements is true about the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC)? A. It was created by the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) of 1985. B. It guarantees a complete pension benefit replacement. C. It does not guarantee health care benefits. D. It is not funded by an annual contribution per plan participant. E. It allows payouts to be adjusted for cost-of-living changes.

C. It does not guarantee health care benefits.

Which of the following is true of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? A. It requires exempt employees to be paid time and a half for hours in excess of 40 per week. B. It has led to Americans working fewer hours now as compared to earlier times due to a rise in benefits. C. It is more likely to cause employers to classify workers as independent contractors than employees. D. It has led to part-time employees being more likely to receive benefits than full-time employees. E. It increases the employer's obligation to provide legally required employee benefits.

C. It is more likely to cause employers to classify workers as independent contractors than employees.

Which of the following is true of involuntary turnover? A. It is initiated by the employee. B. It involves people an organization would like to retain. C. It may involve legal aspects that can have repercussions for the organization. D. It usually involves high performers. E. It includes employees who quit a job at will to pursue a change in career.

C. It may involve legal aspects that can have repercussions for the organization.

_____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs. A. Job enlargement B. Job enrichment C. Job involvement D. Job recognition E. Job satisfaction

C. Job involvement

In a typical progressive discipline program, which of the following should be the step taken before terminating an employee? A. Unofficial verbal warning B. Official written warning C. Last chance notification D. Threat of suspension E. Right to go to arbitration

C. Last chance notification

According to the study by Peter Cappelli and Peter Sherer, which of the following is true of two-tier wage plans? A. The plans are characterized by instances in which two employees doing different levels of jobs get the same pay. B. Lower-paid employees always move to the higher-paying tier. C. Lower-tier employees are more satisfied despite being paid less money for the same work. D. The employees in the lower tier have lower comparison standards than those in the higher tier. E. The lower-tier employees remain dissatisfied until they move into the higher-paying tier.

C. Lower-tier employees are more satisfied despite being paid less money for the same work.

Which of the following is true of how managers may differ from shareholders? A. Managers can diversify the risks more easily. B. Managers are more likely to pursue projects with high potential payoffs. C. Managers diversify investments more easily. D. Managers are less averse to risk. E. Managers are likely to prefer more emphasis on uncertain incentives than base pay.

C. Managers diversify investments more easily.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a health maintenance organization (HMO)? A. Exclusion of outpatient care B. Provision of benefits on a reimbursement basis C. Payment of physicians on a flat salary basis D. Payment of physicians on a fee-for-service basis E. Payment of physicians depending on the number of patients seen

C. Payment of physicians on a flat salary basis

_____ deals with how a decision was made. A. Outcome justice B. Interactional justice C. Procedural justice D. Result justice E. Input justice

C. Procedural justice

_____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received. A. Outcome justice B. Interactional justice C. Procedural justice D. Result justice E. Input justice

C. Procedural justice

Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors in succession to avoid their work situation? A. Efficiency wage theory B. Equity theory C. Progression of withdrawal theory D. Two-factor theory E. Motivation theory

C. Progression of withdrawal theory

Which of the following is true of the methods used for communication about benefits information? A. Online tools are not effective for personalized communications to individual employees. B. Online tools have increased the need for benefits-related jobs in an organization. C. Providing clear benefits communication does not always increase employee satisfaction. D. Written benefits will reach all working citizens as they are all literate. E. Cafeteria plans limit employees' awareness and appreciation of what an employer provides.

C. Providing clear benefits communication does not always increase employee satisfaction.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers, owners) affected by the decision? A. Bias suppression B. Correctability C. Representativeness D. Ethicality E. Consistency

C. Representativeness

Which of the following is a likely consequence of external equity perception? A. Job rotation B. Transfer C. Retention D. Promotion E. Cooperation among employees

C. Retention

Which of the following is true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)? A. It requires employers to extend health insurance coverage for 36 months after termination due to gross misconduct. B. It requires employees to reduce the hours that lead to a gain of health insurance. C. The beneficiaries of employees who still have their health insurance have access to the same services. D. The beneficiaries of employees get free coverage even if the employees have lost access to their health insurance. E. The beneficiaries receive the advantage of purchasing coverage at the individual rate.

C. The beneficiaries of employees who still have their health insurance have access to the same services.

Which of the following is true of the cost to the employer for workers' compensation? A. The premium for high-risk occupations is lower than the premium for low-risk occupations. B. The premium is the same, no matter which state the firm is located in, if the injury is the same. C. The compensation mostly covers minor injuries such as sprains and strains, rather than dramatic injuries. D. The compensation does not cover the cost of rehabilitation services. E. The experience rating system primarily induces employees to take precautions at work.

C. The compensation mostly covers minor injuries such as sprains and strains, rather than dramatic injuries.

Which of the following explains the high rate of voluntary turnover among the millennial generation of employees? A. They put a premium on earning high salaries. B. They are overburdened by new technology. C. They need connection to the company mission. D. They dislike working in team environments. E. They resist pressure to enhance their skills.

C. They need connection to the company mission.

Which of the following is a major objective of the unemployment insurance program? A. To offset lost income during voluntary unemployment B. To help those currently working to find new jobs in other fields C. To provide an incentive for employees to stabilize employment D. To make up for lost income during a labor dispute E. To help employers find the right talent for reaching their business goals

C. To provide an incentive for employees to stabilize employment

Which of the following is an example of using performance management to fulfill an administrative purpose? A. Define the results, behaviors, and, to some extent, employee characteristics that are necessary. B. Develop employees who are effective at their jobs. C. Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay raises, promotions, retention-termination, layoffs, and recognition of individual performance. D. Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses and link employees to appropriate training and development activities. E. Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.

C. Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay raises, promotions, retention-termination, layoffs, and recognition of individual performance

Labor market comparisons are more important than product market comparisons when A. product demand is elastic. B. the costs of recruiting replacements are low. C. attracting and retaining qualified employees is difficult. D. the supply of labor is inelastic. E. employee skills are specific to the product market.

C. attracting and retaining qualified employees is difficult.

As jobs become less programmable, A. outcome-oriented contracts become less likely. B. monitoring becomes less difficult. C. behavior-oriented contracts become less likely. D. the agent's risk decreases. E. the requirement for compensating wage deferential increases.

C. behavior-oriented contracts become less likely.

The _____ is an index of the correspondence between actual and intended pay. A. pay grade B. pay midpoint C. compa-ratio D. range spread E. pay range

C. compa-ratio

Which of the following occurs during the reality check in the career management process? A. Employees identify the steps and a timetable required to reach their goals. B. Companies ensure that employees' goals are attainable and relevant. C. Companies communicate where employees fit into the companies' long-range plans. D. Companies provide employees information on their strengths and weaknesses. E. Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.

C. companies communicate where employees fit into the companies' long-range plans

Star Inc., an engineering firm, has come up with a new technical test to assess the knowledge of interviewees. To assess the validity of the test, it requests that its present employees take the test and match it with their performance in the organization. Which of the following types of validation has Star Inc. used to test the validity of its new technical test? A. Predictive validation B. Content validation C. Concurrent validation D. Face validation E. Logical validation

C. concurrent validation

In the case of _____ validation, it is critical to minimize the amount of inference involved on the part of the judges because their subjective judgment could bias the findings. A. predictive B. concurrent C. content D. criterion E. standard

C. content

Rollerbeam Inc., a provider of engineering services, is looking to hire several maintenance engineers. Rollerbeam's HR department checks with the company's engineering department to confirm that the scenarios mentioned in the test are plausible real-world scenarios that maintenance engineers might face. Which of the following types of validation is Rollerbeam's HR team performing? A. Concurrent validation B. Predictive validation C. Content validation D. Criterion-related validation E. Subjective validation

C. content validation

Which of the following forms of validation becomes relatively more attractive as the sample available for validation becomes smaller? A. Predictive validation B. Concurrent validation C. Content validation D. External validation E. Criterion-related validation

C. content validation

The _____ is a measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers are related. A. utility score B. standard deviation C. correlation coefficient D. validity score E. generalizability coefficient

C. correlation coefficient

John is open to experiences if he is A. content and happy. B. talkative and expressive. C. curious and imaginative. D. dependable and organized. E. sociable and assertive.

C. curious and imaginative

Training is different from development in that A. development focuses on the present, while training focuses on the future. B. training considers an employee's work experience more than development does. C. development aims to prepare employees for changes, while training prepares them for current jobs. D. participation in training is voluntary, while that in development is required. E. unlike development, training considers the requirements of jobs that do not exist as yet.

C. development aims to prepare employees for changes, while training prepares them for current jobs

Which of the following concepts is used to describe people who are especially effective in fluid and socially intensive contexts? A. Crystallized intelligence B. Fluid intelligence C. Emotional intelligence D. Dispositional affect E. Intelligence quotient

C. emotional intelligence

External equity pay comparisons focus on what A. other employees in the same organization in the same job are paid. B. other employees in the same organization but in a different job are paid. C. employees in other organizations are paid for doing the same general job. D. employees in other organizations are paid for doing other jobs with higher responsibility. E. employees in other organizations are paid for doing other jobs with lower responsibility.

C. employees in other organizations are paid for doing the same general job.

A two-tier wage plan supports the _____ through its focus on the way employees compare their pay with other jobs and the need for managers to take this into consideration. A. reinforcement theory B. social exchange theory C. equity theory D. expectancy theory E. efficiency wage theory

C. equity theory

Internal equity pay comparison is A. influenced primarily by an organization's choice of pay level. B. the primary administrative tool organizations use in choosing a pay level. C. focused on what employees within the same organization but in different jobs are paid. D. determined using market pay surveys. E. more likely to influence the decisions of applicants to accept job offers than external equity pay comparison.

C. focused on what employees within the same organization but in different jobs are paid.

Personality inventories tend to have A. moderate reliability, moderate criterion validity, and moderate utility. B. high validity, high generalizability, and high utility. C. high reliability, low to moderate criterion validity, and low generalizability. D. moderate utility, low generalizability, and moderate criterion validity. E. low reliability, low validity, and low generalizability.

C. high reliability, low to moderate criterion validity, and low generalizability

To be a qualified benefits plan, a pension plan should not discriminate in favor of _____. A. part-time employees B. older employees C. highly compensated employees D. employees with disabilities E. ex-employees (retired)

C. highly compensated employees

Allan works as a typesetter in a publishing company. If the organization uses merit pay programs, Allan's salary is based primarily on information collected from _____. A. his colleagues B. the human resource manager C. his immediate supervisor D. Allan himself E. performance indicators

C. his immediate supervisor

Employees assess fairness along the distributive dimension when their assessment is based on _____. A. organizational procedures B. the systems used to assess performance C. how much they receive D. supervisors' feedback E. their judgment of the management

C. how much they receive

In a career management process, when employees identify the steps and a timetable to reach their goals, the company must A. provide assessment information to identify the employees' interests and values. B. communicate performance evaluation. C. identify resources the employees need to reach their goals. D. commit to helping the employees reach their goals. E. ensure that the employees' goals are specific, relevant, and timely.

C. identify resources the employees need to reach their goals

In a(n) _____ plan, performance is usually measured as physical output and the payment is not rolled into the base pay. A. skill-based B. profit-sharing C. individual incentive D. merit pay E. gainsharing

C. individual incentive

The items in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator that focus on individuals' preferences for energy will score the individuals based on _____. A. judging versus perception B. thinking versus feeling C. introversion versus extroversion D. sensing versus intuition E. internal versus external locus of control

C. introversion versus extroversion

Content validation A. seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job. B. is the degree to which a measure is free from internal defects of standardization. C. is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems posed by a test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job. D. is an estimate of whether a test appears to measure a certain criterion. E. assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance.

C. is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems posed by a test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of concurrent validity? A. It is an estimate of whether a validity test appears to measure a certain criterion. B. It is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems in a validity test are representative of situations at work. C. It assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance. D. It seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job. E. It is the degree to which a measure is correlated with other measures that it is theoretically predicted to correlate.

C. it assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance

According to expectancy theory, motivation is hypothesized to be a function of _____. A. cognitive capacity B. social structure C. genes D. instrumentality E. self-esteem

D. instrumentality

Predictive validation is superior to concurrent validation because A. predictive validation involves contribution from many individuals. B. job applicants often have no information about organizational culture. C. job applicants are more motivated than an organization's employees. D. the effort needed for predictive validation is less than for concurrent validation. E. the time taken for predictive validation is less than for concurrent validation.

C. job applicants are more motivated than an organization's employees

When an organization is using concentration strategy, it will _____. A. have short-run pay levels below the market B. have a long-term orientation C. make centralized pay decisions D. maintain high variable pay levels E. have benefit levels below the market

C. make centralized pay decisions

Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful formal mentoring program? A. Formal mentoring and protégé participation are mandatory. B. The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and programs to complete are developed as the relationship grows. C. Mentor and protégés are encouraged to pursue the relationship beyond the formal period. D. The mentor-protégé matching process limits the ability of informal relationships to develop. E. The length of the program is not specified and is usually indefinite.

C. mentor and proteges are encouraged to pursue the relationship beyond the formal period

In _____ programs, annual compensation increases are usually linked to performance appraisal ratings. A. skill-based pay B. gainsharing C. merit pay D. incentive pay E. cost-based pay

C. merit pay

A(n) _____ is suitable for an organization with a culture that promotes individual competition. A. gainsharing plan B. profit-sharing plan C. merit pay plan D. ownership plan E. skill-based plan

C. merit pay plan

Expectancy theory implies that linking an increased amount of rewards to performance will increase motivation and performance. Followers of cognitive evaluation theory are likely to question this assumption, arguing that A. monetary rewards may decrease extrinsic motivation. B. intrinsic rewards do not affect job satisfaction. C. monetary rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation. D. extrinsic rewards are not effective for managers. E. behaviors are determined by genes rather than reinforcement.

C. monetary rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation.

Group insurance rates are typically lower than individual rates because A. risks cannot be pooled together in group insurance. B. group insurance does not cover permanent disabilities. C. of economies of scale. D. it is exempt from taxes. E. group insurance lacks guaranteed coverage.

C. of economies of scale.

In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people involved in the conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties involved is known as _____. A. peer review B. arbitration C. open-door policy D. mediation E. legal support

C. open-door policy

The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf is called _____. A. job satisfaction B. organizational enlargement C. organizational commitment D. job engagement E. job involvement

C. organizational commitment

According to the agency theory, the principals are the _____. A. managers B. customers C. owners D. vendors E. employees

C. owners

The average compensation—including wages, salaries, and bonuses—of jobs in an organization is called the _____. A. range spread B. compa-ratio C. pay level D. job structure E. pay grade

C. pay level

_____ is the means through which managers ensure that employees' activities and outputs are congruent with the organization's goals. A. performance standardization B. performance budgeting C. performance management D. performance indicator E. performance dampener

C. performance management

Which of the following tests is used to determine if employees can get along with others and their tolerance for ambiguity? A. Cognitive ability test B. Technical skills test C. Personality test D. Interest test E. Aptitude test

C. personality test

An employee who engages in absenteeism is displaying job dissatisfaction through _____. A. behavioral change B. psychological withdrawal C. physical withdrawal D. whistle-blowing E. arbitration

C. physical withdrawal

In merit pay programs, an individual's compa-ratio represents his or her _____. A. ability to multitask B. performance rating C. position in the pay range D. knowledge of business E. ratio of pay to benefits

C. position in the pay range

Consistency, bias suppression, information accuracy, correctability, representativeness, and ethicality are the six determinants of _____. A. perceptual justice B. interactional justice C. procedural justice D. outcome justice E. income justice

C. procedural justice

The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other people is called _____. A. job enrichment B. team building C. prosocial motivation D. job rotation E. work involvement

C. prosocial motivation

When an employee is in the self-assessment step, the company's responsibility is to A. communicate where the employee fits into the plans of the company. B. ensure that the goal is specific and measurable. C. provide appraisal information to identify the employee's strengths and weaknesses. D. identify resources to help the employee reach her goals. E. conduct a performance evaluation.

C. provide appraisal information to identify the employee's strengths and weaknesses

_____ ability is the speed and accuracy with which one can solve arithmetic problems of all kinds. A. Reasoning B. Technical C. Quantitative D. Comprehension E. Conception

C. quantitative

A company communicates performance evaluation to its employees during the _____ step in the career management process. A. succession planning B. self-assessment C. reality check D. goal setting E. action planning

C. reality check

Which of the following personnel selection methods has low reliability as compared to others? A. Personality inventory B. Cognitive ability test C. Reference check D. Drug test E. Work-sample test

C. reference check

Which of the following statements is true regarding reliability and validity? A. Reliability and validity are directly proportional to each other. B. Reliability and validity are inversely proportional to each other. C. Reliability of a measure is essential for it to have any validity. D. Reliability and validity are independent of each other. E. Reliability is a necessary and sufficient condition for validity.

C. reliability of a measure is essential for it to have any validity

Survey information on competitors' benefit packages and information on benefit costs are available from _____. A. public consultants B. the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) C. the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) D. the Legal Information Institute (LII) E. unemployment offices

C. the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS)

The movement of an employee to a different job assignment in a different area of the company is known as a(n) _____. A. internship B. promotion C. transfer D. externship E. sabbatical

C. transfer

Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on _____. A. observations of employees B. reports by co-workers C. workers' self-reports D. behavioral measures E. workers' performance reports

C. workers' self-reports

The _____ technique consists of having multiple raters above, equal to, and below the manager providing input into a manager's evaluation. A. gamification B. background check C. 360-degree appraisal D. upward feedback E. performance appraisal

C: 360-degree appraisal

The _____ defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the business necessity of any neutral-appearing selection method that has had an adverse impact on groups specified by the law. A. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 B. Patriot Act C. Civil Rights Act of 1991 D. Volstead Act E. No-FEAR Act of 2002

C: Civil Rights Act of 1991

Which of the following is an example of frame-of-reference training? A. Evan focuses primarily on making managers aware of rating errors and how to reduce them effectively. B. Christine makes managers aware of how errors influence ratings. C. Demita emphasizes using the same idea of high, medium, and low performances when making evaluations. D. Hassan stresses having consistent standards of evaluation. E. Lorena focuses on eliminating politics through discussion among managers.

C: Demita emphasizes using the same idea of high, medium, and low performances when making evaluations

_____ consists of practices participated in by employees from all levels of the company that focus on continuous improvement of business processes. A. Quality circle B. Muda C. Kaizen D. Root cause analysis E. Business process reengineering

C: Kaizen

A _____ is a quality control technique that lists the causes of a problem in decreasing order of importance. A. cause-and-effect diagram B. control chart C. Pareto chart D. process-flow analysis E. histogram

C: Pareto chart

Which of the following is an example of effective onboarding? A. Encouraging employees to avoid asking questions B. Refraining from providing relocation assistance C. Avoiding debasing new employees D. Avoiding learning from informal sources such as company culture E. Avoiding informal interactions between new and current employees

C: avoiding debasing new employees

A _____ rater error is one in which a rater gives middle or average ratings to all employees despite their performance. A. horns B. leniency C. central tendency D. strictness E. contrast

C: central tendency

In the graphic rating scale, the rater A. defines performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors associated with different levels of performance. B. defines the relevant performance dimensions and then develops statements representing good, average, and poor performances along each dimension. C. considers one employee at a time, circling the number that signifies how much of that trait the individual has. D. identifies and describes competencies that are common for an entire occupation, organization, or job family or for a specific job. E. compares every employee with every other employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of 1 every time he or she is considered the higher performer.

C: considers one employee at a time, circling the number that signifies how much of that trait the individual has

If an organization decides to take a strategic initiative of enhancing innovation and creativity, which of the following is likely to be an implication for the organization's training practices? A. Ensuring that employees have product knowledge B. Ensuring that employees understand their roles C. Dedicating physical space to encourage teamwork D. Ensuring that employees have opportunities to develop E. Training the local workforce in company culture

C: dedicating physical space to encourage teamwork

While evaluating training programs, return on investment can be used to measure _____. A. acquisition of knowledge B. company payoffs C. economic value of training D. reaction to the programs s E. employees' skills

C: economic value of training

Phil, a management trainer at Flint Inc., designs a training program that focuses on capturing insights and information from knowledgeable employees. Through this program, Phil is taking the strategic initiative to _____. A. improve customer service B. improve employee engagement C. enhance innovation and creativity D. grow in the global market E. increase job retention

C: enhance innovation and creativity

An individual who works in a country other than his or her country of origin is called a(n) _____. A. host country national B. repatriate C. expatriate D. inpatriate E. third country national

C: expatriate

The first step in task analysis is to A. develop a list of tasks performed on the job. B. validate or confirm the tasks. C. identify the jobs to be examined. D. identify the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for the tasks. E. identify the equipment and working conditions required for the tasks.

C: identify the jobs to be examined

Establishing a mentoring process is part of the _____ component of an effective managing diversity program. A. top management support B. recruitment and hiring C. identifying and developing talent D. holding managers accountable E. ensuring fair treatment

C: identifying and developing talent

Which of the following is the first step in a return on investment (ROI) analysis? A. Determining the training costs B. Calculating the total savings C. Identifying the outcomes D. Dividing benefits by costs E. Placing a value on the outcomes

C: identifying the outcomes

Which of the following is true of knowledge management? A. It primarily focuses on enhancing a company's reputation. B. It relies on informal settings for knowledge transfer. C. It contributes to informal learning. D. It tends to avoid using culture as a tool for sharing knowledge. E. It never consists of or utilizes communities of practice.

C: it contributes to informal learning

Which of the following statements is true of continuous learning? A. It is an informal learning approach initiated by employees. B. It is an organizational effort that relies solely on formal training. C. It is a system that expects employees to understand the entire work process. D. It is a system that requires employees to have only task-specific knowledge. E. It expects employees to acquire knowledge on their own and not share with others.

C: it is a system that expects employees to understand the entire work process

Which of the following is true of an action plan for training? A. It is a graphic representation of the stages in training. B. It is a verbal agreement that emphasizes the goals of training. C. It is a written document that ensures training transfers to the job. D. It is a verbal agreement among trainers on the training methods to be used. E. It is a personal statement made by an employee on his or her goals for training.

C: it is a written document that ensures training transfers to a job

Which of the following is true regarding the attribute approach to performance management? A. There is usually a high congruence between the techniques used in this approach and the company's strategy. B. The methods usually have clearer performance standards due to which different raters provide similar ratings and rankings. C. It is easy to develop and is generalizable across organizations and strategies. D. It provides specific guidance and feedback to employees. E. The ratings from this approach are easily accepted by employees during feedback.

C: it is easy to develop and is generalizable across organizations and strategies

Which of the following is true of apprenticeship? A. It focuses exclusively on on-the-job training. B. Apprenticeship programs cannot be sponsored by companies cooperating with a union. C. It requires a certain number of hours of classroom instruction to qualify as a registered program. D. The majority of apprenticeship programs are for managerial positions. E. Unlike interns, apprentices cannot earn until the period of apprenticeship is complete.

C: it requires a certain number of hours of classroom instruction to qualify as a registered program

Pairing up expatriates and their families with an employee from the host country is likely to occur in the _____. A. predeparture phase B. onshore phase C. on-site phase D. repatriation phase E. returning-home phase

C: on-site phase

Which of the following is the first step in the Productivity Measurement and Evaluation System (ProMES)? A. The staff defines indicators of the products to measure how well the products are being generated. B. The management develops a feedback system that provides employees and work groups with information about their specific level of performance. C. People in the organization identify the set of activities or objectives the organization expects to accomplish. D. The employee and manager identify what the employee can do to capitalize on performance strengths. E. The staff establishes the contingencies between the amount of the indicators and the level of evaluation associated with that amount.

C: people in the organization identify the set of activities or objectives the organization expects to accomplish

Which of the following is a computer application that can be used to provide skills training and expert advice? A. Learning management system B. Application management system C. Performance support system D. Knowledge transfer management system E. Network analysis management system

C: performance support system

As a manager, Jorge wants to find out the impact of his company's behavior-modeling training program on his employees' communications skills. The _____ evaluation design is necessary for this purpose. A. pretest/posttest B. time series C. pretest/posttest comparison group D. pretest only with comparison group E. posttest only

C: pretest/posttest comparison group

The _____ evaluation design is necessary if a manager wants to equate the effect of two training programs. A. pretest only B. pretest/posttest C. pretest/posttest with comparison group D. pretest only with comparison group E. posttest only

C: pretest/posttest with comparison group

The extent to which a performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them is called _____. A. reliability B. validity C. specificity D. acceptability E. strategic congruence

C: specificity

In the training process, _____ analysis involves identifying the conditions such as equipment, environment, and time constraints. A. person B. team C. task D. output E. market

C: task

_____ is the process of identifying the knowledge, skills, jobs, and behaviors that need to be emphasized in training. A. Person analysis B. Cost analysis C. Task analysis D. Information analysis E. Strategic analysis

C: task analysis

Which of the following approaches to performance measurement minimizes contamination and deficiency? A. The comparative approach B. The attribute approach C. The behavioral approach D. The results approach E. The quality approach

C: the behavioral approach

Roundel Inc. is a company that sells automobile tires. The company is projecting an increase in sales in the next 12 months and is looking to fill the senior positions through internal recruiting to meet this demand. The company is evaluating the individual performances and seeking to develop some ranking of the individuals within a work group to identify the best performer. Which of the following approaches is the company using? A. The results approach B. The attribute approach C. The comparative approach D. The behavioral approach E. The quality approach

C: the comparative approach

Which of the following approaches to measuring performance uses some overall assessment of an individual's performance or worth and seeks to develop a ranking of the individuals within a work group? A. The results approach B. The attribute approach C. The comparative approach D. The consequential approach E. The behavioral approach

C: the comparative approach

Which of the following observations is true about scattergrams? A. They help in identifying the most important cause of a problem. B. They are useful for understanding the amount of variance between an outcome and the expected value or average outcome. C. They help employees determine whether the relationship between two variables or events is positive, negative, or zero. D. They assume that the majority of problems are the result of a small number of causes. E. They are useful for identifying redundancy in processes that increases manufacturing or service time.

C: they help employees determine whether the relationship between two variables or events is positive, negative, or zero

Which of the following is true of instructor-led classroom instruction? A. This method of training has lost popularity due to new technologies such as interactive video instructions. B. Traditional classroom instruction is one of the most expensive methods of training. C. This is one of the least time consuming ways to present information. D. The more passive the trainees are in absorbing the instruction, the more they can use the information on the job. E. Computer-based instructions have made instructor-led classroom instruction obsolete.

C: this is one of the least time consuming ways to present information

Action plans are developed to facilitate _____. A. instructional design B. program presentation C. transfer of training D. training program evaluation E. conditions for learning

C: transfer of training

Which of the following stages in the training design process involves self-management strategies and peer and manager support? A. Employees' readiness assessment B. Learning environment development C. Transfer of training D. Evaluation of training programs E. Needs assessment

C: transfer of training

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect negative relationship? A. -10 B. -6.67 C. +1.0 D. -1.0 E. 0.0

D. -1.0

Which of the following pay strategy dimensions best fits with a business strategy of concentration? A. Long-term time orientation B. Below-market short-run pay level C. High levels of variable pay D. Above-market benefits levels E. Decentralization of pay decisions

D. Above-market benefits levels

Which of the following is true of how agents may differ from principals? A. Agents can diversify the risks more easily. B. Agents are more likely to pursue projects with high potential payoffs. C. Agents can diversify investments better. D. Agents are more averse to risk. E. Agents are likely to prefer more emphasis on uncertain incentives than base pay.

D. Agents are more averse to risk.

Which of the following s a procedure in which an organization compares its own practices against those of the competition? A. Delayering B. Forecasting C. Offshoring D. Benchmarking E. Job evaluation

D. Benchmarking

The _____ allows an individual filing a complaint to have a jury decide whether he or she may recover punitive damages (in addition to lost wages and benefits) for emotional injuries caused by discrimination. A. Civil Rights Act of 1871 B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act C. Americans with Disabilities Act D. Civil Rights Act of 1991 E. Civil Rights Act of 1964

D. Civil Rights Act of 1991

_____ is a public policy that focuses primarily on advocating remedies for any undervaluation of women's jobs. A. Equal opportunity B. Glass ceiling C. Efficiency wage D. Comparable worth E. Minimum wage

D. Comparable worth

The _____ requires employers to permit employees to extend their health insurance coverage at group rates for up to 36 months following a qualifying event, such as a layoff. A. Affordable Care Act (ACA) B. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) C. Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

_____ is the process of reducing the number of job levels to achieve more flexibility in job and merit increase assignments. A. Decentralizing B. Departmentalizing C. Forecasting D. Delayering E. Benchmarking

D. Delayering

Which of the following theories describes the conditions when the benefits of higher pay outweigh higher costs? A. Equity theory B. Expectancy theory C. Reinforcement theory D. Efficiency wage theory E. Social exchange theory

D. Efficiency wage theory

Which of the following is true of how the agency theory views monitoring? A. Monitoring is more expensive when done by employees. B. Employees' knowledge of the workplace is not reliable. C. Monitoring is less effective when performed by employees. D. Employees understand fellow employees better than managers do. E. A compensation system does not influence peer monitoring.

D. Employees understand fellow employees better than managers do.

Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure is consistent with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or deception? A. Bias suppression B. Correctability C. Representativeness D. Ethicality E. Consistency

D. Ethicality

Which of the following provides 12 weeks of unpaid absence from work to care for a seriously ill child, spouse, or parent if the organization has at least 50 employees living within a 75-mile radius? A. Child and Family Services Improvement and Innovation Act B. Child and Family Services Act C. Child Support Recovery Act D. Family and Medical Leave Act E. Affordable Care Act

D. Family and Medical Leave Act

Which of the following statements is true about flexible spending accounts? A. They can only be used for dependent-care expenses. B. They restrict pretax employee contributions. C. They work best to the extent that employees have unpredictable expenses. D. Funds must be used by the plan's year end or they revert to the employer. E. They cause a reduction in take-home pay.

D. Funds must be used by the plan's year end or they revert to the employer.

Which of the following people would be most likely to work longer due to prosocial motivation? A. Viola, a reporter B. Devon, an accountant C. Connie, a salesperson D. Hector, a nurse E. Roy, a miner

D. Hector, a nurse

Which of the following was an amendment to the Social Security Act of 1935? A. Descendant's insurance B. Inability insurance C. Estate insurance D. Hospital insurance E. Posterity insurance

D. Hospital insurance

Which of the following pay programs has the highest frequency of payout? A. Merit pay B. Profit sharing C. Skill-based program D. Incentive pay E. Gainsharing

D. Incentive pay

An organization introduces active employee wellness programs. Which of the following is likely to happen in the organization as a result? A. More focus on physical exercise than on awareness issues B. More health education programs designed to inform employees on health-related topics C. Fewer counselors who handle one-on-one outreach programs D. Increased focus on awareness and opportunity as well as support and reinforcement E. Introduction of a center for physical fitness for employees to use anytime

D. Increased focus on awareness and opportunity as well as support and reinforcement

Which of the following statements is true about the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? A. The current minimum wage set by the FLSA is $5.25 per hour. B. It states that employees cannot be made to work overtime. C. Exempt employees are eligible for overtime pay. D. It exempts executive, professional, and administrative occupations from FLSA coverage. E. Under FLSA, exempt status is independent of job responsibilities and salary.

D. It exempts executive, professional, and administrative occupations from FLSA coverage.

Which of the following best describes gross domestic product? A. It is a measure of personal income. B. It is the cost of producing a certain number of outputs produced in an economy. C. It is the output produced by an employee in contrast to the input used by the employee. D. It is the total output of an economy. E. It is the total input used by an economy to produce a definite output.

D. It is the total output of an economy.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the pay grade approach? A. The administrative burden of setting separate rates of pay for numerous employees is increased. B. It is inflexible when it comes to moving employees from job to job. C. Demotions are not well received in a pay grade system when compared to a job-based system. D. It might give rise to some jobs being underpaid and some being overpaid. E. It does not recognize that performance difference in the higher levels has much impact on the organization.

D. It might give rise to some jobs being underpaid and some being overpaid.

Which of the following is true of a job-based pay structure? A. It encourages employee initiatives. B. It allows the organization to take advantage of the skills of those closest to production. C. It encourages lateral movement of employees. D. It reinforces a topdown decision-making process. E. It discourages promotion-seeking behavior.

D. It reinforces a topdown decision-making process.

Which of the following is a likely consequence of an internal equity perception? A. Attraction of efficient employees B. Retention of quality employees C. Labor costs D. Job rotation E. Pay scales of competitors

D. Job rotation

Which of the following is an example of a behavior-oriented contract? A. Stock option B. Profit sharing C. Commission D. Merit pay E. Revenue sharing

D. Merit pay

Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit involving a violation of public policy? A. Allen is terminated because he does something illegal. B. Rashad is terminated because he does something unethical. C. Thuy is refused employment because she has a criminal record. D. Rosa is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe. E. Leon is refused employment on account of lack of credentials.

D. Rosa is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe.

The _____ requires companies to report compensation levels for the five highest paid executives and the company's performance relative to that of competitors over a five-year period. A. Bureau of Economic Analysis B. Federal Bureau of Investigation C. Federal Trade Commission D. Securities and Exchange Commission E. Bureau of Industry and Security

D. Securities and Exchange Commission

_____ is the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and caring. A. Organization culture B. Homogeneous environment C. Organizational support D. Social support E. Organizational network

D. Social support

Which of the following is an example of an ownership plan used in compensation systems? A. Gainsharing plan B. Profit-sharing program C. Group incentive D. Stock option E. Individual incentive plan

D. Stock option

Which of the following is part of the cash compensation offered to employees? A. Paid vacation B. Unemployment compensation C. Health insurance D. Stock options E. Retirement plans

D. Stock options

Which of the following psychological tests helps employees identify their occupational and job preferences? A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator B. Big Five Locater C. Dissociative Experiences Scale D. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory E. Rorschach test

D. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

Which of the following is a difference between profit-sharing plans and employee ownership plans? A. Unlike ownership plans, base pay is not reduced when profit-sharing plans are introduced. B. Ownership plans focus on the success of the organization as a whole, unlike profit-sharing plans. C. Profit-sharing plans promote individual competition, whereas ownership plans promote group competition. D. The link between pay and performance is less obvious under ownership than under profit sharing. E. Ownership plans promote individual competition, whereas profit-sharing plans promote group competition.

D. The link between pay and performance is less obvious under ownership than under profit sharing.

Which of the following is true about defined contribution plans? A. They shift the investment risk to the employer. B. They present greater administrative challenges to employers. C. They promise a specific benefit level for employees upon retirement. D. They are preferred more in smaller companies than larger ones. E. They have become less common.

D. They are preferred more in smaller companies than larger ones.

Which of the following is the best example of reverse mentoring? A. New associates in a law firm are paired up for six weeks to share individual experiences and perspectives. B. The woman hired for the new position of Community Citizenship Manager offers in-house workshops on sustainability. C. A senior brand manager is partnered with a junior associate to gain insights into college students' responses to mobile marketing. D. A mid-level manager cycles through project roles in several departments to develop cross-functional expertise. E. Company directors hold monthly brown bag lunch sessions to gather input and feedback on key issues from line employees.

D. a mid-level manager cycles through project roles in several departments to develop cross-functional expertise

Which of the following is an exercise, used in assessment centers, where employees answer questions about their work, personal experiences, and skill strengths and weaknesses? A. A leaderless group discussion B. A bench strength test C. A role-play D. An interview E. A focus-group discussion

D. an interview

A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a member of a protected group. A. violation of an implied contract B. covenant C. violation of a public policy D. civil rights infringement E. violation of employment-at-will

D. civil rights infringement

Which of the following is NOT tested in a physical ability test? A. Balance B. Flexibility C. Muscular tension D. Cognitive skill E. Muscular power

D. cognitive skill

In a merit increase grid, the _____ determines the size and frequency of pay increases. A. time spent in the current pay grade B. overall profitability of the company C. employees' seniority D. compa-ratio of employees E. the skill developed by the employee

D. compa-ratio of employees

Dev, a team leader, manages a team of project leads. He conducts an exercise for his subordinates; they are asked to pick documents that resemble those found on his desk and decide how they would respond to them. This exercise is an example of a(n) _____. A. focus group discussion B. role-play C. stretch assignment D. in-basket E. leaderless group discussion

D. in-basket

Which of the following happens during goal setting in the career management process? A. Employees identify the steps and timetable to reach their goals. B. Companies identify the resources that employees need to reach their goals. C. Companies provide assessment information to identify the interests and values of the employees. D. Companies ensure that the employees' goals are specific and measurable. E. Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.

D. companies ensure that the employees' goals are specific and measurable

The Davis-Bacon Act covers A. all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds. B. executive, professional, and administrative occupations that are exempt from FLSA coverage. C. all private retail firms in the United States that receive no federal funds. D. construction contractors receiving federal money of more than $2,000. E. manufacturing units that employ more than 2,000 employees.

D. construction contractors receiving federal money of more than $2,000.

A test that has _____ validity exposes the job applicant to situations that are likely to occur on the job, then tests whether the applicant currently has sufficient knowledge, skill, or ability to handle such situations. A. criterion-related B. probabilistic C. predictive D. content E. concurrent

D. content

Federal Auto Corp. (FAC) is looking for experienced ergonomic design engineers and wants to keep training costs to a minimum. The upper management instructs its HR team to develop a test that would test the design and ergonomic knowledge of the potential engineering candidates. This test is a _____ valid test. A. predictive B. subjective C. criterion-related D. content E. concurrent

D. content

A person who is agreeable in nature will be _____. A. assertive and gregarious B. depressed and secure C. dependable and unorganized D. courteous and trusting E. narrow-minded and imaginative

D. courteous and trusting

Athen Tech., a software company, changed its pay structure from 3,000 job titles and 12 pay grades to a simpler structure with 1,000 jobs and 5 pay grades. The managers were then asked to choose pay levels that were based on the market. This is an example of _____. A. decentralizing B. departmentalizing C. forecasting D. delayering E. benchmarking

D. delayering

Which of the following is true of training and development? A. Training primarily prepares employees for future positions and jobs that do not exist as yet. B. As training becomes more strategic, the distinction between training and development will become clearer. C. Development focuses primarily on helping employees' performance in their current jobs. D. Development is critical for talent management, particularly for those with leadership potential. E. Employees rely on training to improve the skills required for jobs in other places.

D. development is critical for talent management, particularly for those with leadership potential

Defined contribution plans make it the responsibility of the _____ to make wise investment decisions for retirement plans. A. insurance company B. employer C. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) D. employee E. U.S. Department of Labor

D. employee

The workers' compensation cost to an employer is based on the A. type of competition faced. B. employer's profitability. C. employee's profitability. D. employer's experience rating. E. employee's experience rating.

D. employer's experience rating.

Job-based pay structure A. discourages topdown decision-making. B. encourages lateral employee movement. C. discourages promotion-seeking behavior. D. encourages a lack of initiative on the part of employees. E. discourages performance evaluation by the manager.

D. encourages a lack of initiative on the part of employees.

According to the _____, a person (p) compares her own ratio of perceived outcomes to perceived inputs to the ratio of a comparison other (o). A. reinforcement theory B. predicted outcome value theory C. social exchange theory D. equity theory E. expectancy theory

D. equity theory

The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) A. established an eight-hour workday. B. established the requirement for paying prevailing wages on public works projects. C. laid the responsibility of economic stability onto the federal government. D. established a minimum wage for jobs. E. failed to set pay regulations for overtime work.

D. established a minimum wage for jobs.

_____ involve lectures by business experts, adventure learning, and meetings with customers. A. Personality tests B. Action plans C. Focus interviews D. Formal education programs E. Reality checks

D. formal education programs

A(n) _____ program is based on group or plant performance that does not become part of the employee's base salary. A. merit pay B. profit-sharing C. stock option D. gainsharing E. individual incentive

D. gainsharing

When a company provides evidence from previous criterion-related validity studies conducted in other situations to show that a specific test is a valid predictor for a specific job performance, it is trying to prove the test's A. reliability. B. utility. C. variance. D. generalizability. E. legality.

D. generalizability

_____ is the process in which employees develop short- and long-term development objectives. A. Succession planning B. Self-assessment C. Stretch assignment D. Goal setting E. Action planning

D. goal setting

Workers are eligible for unemployment benefits if they A. voluntarily quit their job. B. are out of work due to a labor dispute. C. were discharged for willful misconduct. D. have worked for at least one year. E. are not actively seeking work.

D. have worked for at least one year.

Rick is the vice president of the human resources team. He designs a new performance management process. He completes the first step and moves on to the next step of developing employee goals and actions to achieve the outcomes. Which of the following is he likely to do next to create an effective performance management process? A. He will define performance outcomes for divisions and departments. B. He will evaluate performance. C. He will identify improvements needed. D. He will provide support and ongoing performance discussions. E. He will provide consequences for performance results.

D. he will provide support and ongoing performance discussions

Which of the following is true of a protean career? A. It focuses primarily on external rewards offered by an organization. B. Managers play the central role in guiding employees with protean careers. C. Psychological success plays a small role in protean careers. D. It is based on employees' self-direction. E. It has very little implication for employee development.

D. it is based on employees' self-direction

Which of the following is true of a boundaryless career pattern? A. This pattern is on the decline and is likely to disappear soon. B. It largely consists of expert career patterns that involve years of specialization. C. It does not encourage movement across fields or different occupations. D. It is influenced by personal or family demands. E. It involves identifying more with the employer than with the job.

D. it is influenced by personal or family demands

Which of the following statements about training is correct? A. It prepares employees primarily for changes in job requirements. B. Participation in training programs is voluntary. C. It increases an employee's ability to move into jobs that do not yet exist. D. It makes very little use of employees' work experiences. E. It focuses on employees' future jobs.

D. it makes very little use of employees' work experiences

_____ gives employees a series of job assignments in various functional areas of the company or movement among jobs in a single functional area or department. A. Job enlargement B. Job design C. Job evaluation D. Job rotation E. Job specification

D. job rotation

A(n) _____ is an experienced, productive senior employee who helps develop a less experienced employee. A. apprentice B. intern C. trainee D. mentor E. protégé

D. mentor

Which of the following is true of mentoring? A. Participants in a mentoring relationship are unaware of what is expected of them. B. Employees who have low needs for power are most likely to seek a mentor. C. Socializing new hires is not a function of in mentoring programs. D. Mentoring relationships can develop as part of a planned company effort. E. Employees who have high needs for achievement are less likely to seek a mentor.

D. mentoring relationships can develop as part of a planned company effort

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a formal mentoring program? A. It does not ensure access to mentors for all employees. B. Gender and race can act as an obstacle in making mentors accessible to employees. C. Participants in the mentoring relationship do not know what is expected of them. D. Mentors may not be able to provide counseling and coaching in an artificially created relationship. E. It does not encourage mentors and protégés to spend time discussing personalities and backgrounds.

D. mentors may not be able to provide counseling and coaching in an artificially created relationship

Which of the following is true about how job experiences affect development? A. Job experiences that are seen as negative stressors challenge employees to stimulate learning. B. Job challenges viewed as positive stressors create high levels of harmful stress for employees. C. All job demands, including obstacles, are related to learning. D. Obstacles and job demands related to creating change are more likely to lead to negative stress. E. The closer the previous job experience is to a new job, the greater the learning.

D. obstacles and job demands related to creating change are more likely to lead to negative stress

Agents prefer a behavior-based contract when _____. A. they are inclined to take more risks B. job outcomes are more measurable C. they desire higher compensation D. outcome uncertainty is high E. jobs become less programmable

D. outcome uncertainty is high

A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses her job, while her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain their jobs. Jane's judgment of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a perception of _____. A. structural unfairness B. process unfairness C. procedural unfairness D. outcome unfairness E. task unfairness

D. outcome unfairness

The _____ is a mathematical expression that describes the relationship between a job's pay and its job evaluation points. A. range spread B. compa-ratio C. rate range D. pay policy line E. pay grade

D. pay policy line

Group incentives tend to measure performance in terms of _____. A. employee retention B. individual motivation C. organizational environment D. physical output E. organizational profitability

D. physical output

_____ are advancements into positions with greater challenges, more responsibility, and more authority than in the previous job. A. Sabbaticals B. Internships C. Externships D. Promotions E. Transfers

D. promotions

Which of the following statements is true of psychological success? A. Psychological success limits achievement to work-related goals. B. Psychological success is determined primarily by the signals a company gives to its employees. C. Promotion and salary increase are prime factors that determine psychological success. D. Psychological success is the greater focus of those pursuing protean careers. E. Factors such as family and good health are not a part of psychological success.

D. psychological success is the greater focus of those pursuing protean careers

From a(n) _____ standpoint, the effect on performance motivation may be limited in ownership programs because of the less obvious link between pay and performance. A. agency theory B. equity theory C. efficiency wage theory D. reinforcement theory E. contract theory

D. reinforcement theory

Which of the following requires that government contractors set a goal for the percentage of employees with disabilities who constitute their workforce? A. The Americans with Disabilities Act B. Guidelines set by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission C. The Employment Non-Discrimination Act D. Rules set by the US Department of Labor E. An executive order issued by the president's office

D. rules set by the US Department of Labor

Which of the following aspects of emotional intelligence is the knowledge of one's strengths and weaknesses? A. Self-motivation B. Empathy C. Social skill D. Self-awareness E. Self-regulation

D. self-awareness

The items in the Myer-Briggs Type Indicator that focus on individuals' preferences for information gathering will score the individuals based on _____. A. judging versus perception B. thinking versus feeling C. introversion versus extroversion D. sensing versus intuition E. internal versus external locus of control

D. sensing versus intuition

The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect an individual's job satisfaction are A. subordinates and supervisors. B. supervisors and customers. C. co-workers and subordinates. D. supervisors and co-workers. E. subordinates and customers.

D. supervisors and co-workers.

Executive Order 11246 allows the government to A. deny payments to individual contractors based on the government's availability of money. B. eliminate affirmative action to prevent reverse discrimination in governmental jobs. C. form and implement laws that are not specified in the Constitution. D. suspend all business with a contractor while an investigation is being conducted. E. undertake affirmative action to ensure representation of African Americans in various jobs.

D. suspend all business with a contractor while an investigation is being conducted

IsaK Corp. is an event management company. In order to allot tasks that are more compatible with the personalities of individual employees, it conducts a test that rates them on the scales of introversion or extroversion, sensing or intuition, judging or perceiving, and thinking or feeling. Which of the following tests is IsaK using to assess employees? A. The Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory B. The Rorschach inkblot test C. The Big Five Personality Test D. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator E. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire

D. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

_____ is a performance appraisal process for managers based on subordinates' evaluations. A. Mentor feedback B. Peer feedback C. 360-degree feedback D. Upward feedback E. Intrinsic feedback

D. upward feedback

The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization is known as the selection method's A. reliability. B. validity. C. generalizability. D. utility. E. legality.

D. utility

In the 1978 Manhart ruling, the Supreme Court declared it illegal for employers to require A. employees to have physical examinations as a precondition for employment offers. B. employees to accept health insurance coverage. C. employees to retire at age 65. D. women to contribute more than men to a defined benefit plan. E. employees to attend health benefit programs.

D. women to contribute more than men to a defined benefit plan.

An example of an expatriate is a A. U.S. citizen working for a Japanese firm in the United States. B. Japanese citizen working in Japan for a Japanese firm. C. person born in Germany but currently a U.S. citizen working in the United States. D. U.S. citizen working for a U.S. firm in Germany. E. person born in the United States and currently a Japanese citizen working in Japan.

D: US citizen working for a US firm in Germany

A situation in which evaluators purposefully distort a rating to achieve personal or company goals is referred to as _____. A. Bayesian inference B. group dynamics C. 360-degree feedback D. appraisal politics E. the similar to me error

D: appraisal politics

_____ is an example of a presentation training method. A. Internship B. Apprenticeship C. Hands-on D. Audiovisual training E. Simulation

D: audiovisual training

To enhance the employee conscientiousness factor that influences the motivation to learn, an organization should A. share employees' performance appraisal information with them. B. encourage employees to provide feedback to each other. C. provide the resources necessary for employees to use training content in their work. D. communicate the need for learning. E. provide remedial training to employees.

D: communicate the need for learning

The last step in an effective onboarding process is _____. A. clarification B. compliance C. clearance D. connection E. culture

D: connection

In what legal suit would the plaintiff allege that the performance measurement system varied according to individuals? A. Harassment suit B. Statutory tort C. Unjust dismissal suit D. Discrimination suit E. Custody action

D: discrimination suit

Which of the following is the last step in a return on investment (ROI) analysis? A. Determining the training costs B. Calculating the total savings C. Identifying the outcomes D. Dividing benefits by costs E. Placing a value on the outcomes

D: dividing benefits by costs

If an organization wants to improve the work environment factor that influences the motivation to learn, it is likely to focus on A. communicating the purpose of the training programs to employees. B. emphasizing that learning is under employees' personal control. C. communicating why employees were asked to attend training. D. encouraging employees to give feedback to each other. E. providing remedial training.

D: encouraging employees to give feedback to each other

Providing expatriates with company newsletters and community newspapers helps them A. understand the work requirements of a foreign assignment better. B. identify their role and responsibilities as an overseas manager. C. develop the skills required to complete the task and return home. D. experience minimal difficulty trying to adapt to changes on returning to the home country. E. deal with differences in language and culture in a new country.

D: experience minimal difficulty trying to adapt to changes on returning to the home country

Processes, checklists, flowcharts, formulas, and definitions are examples of _____. A. experiential knowledge B. tacit knowledge C. informal training tools D. explicit knowledge E. on-the-job learning

D: explicit knowledge

Tacit knowledge is different from explicit knowledge in that A. explicit knowledge is based on personal experience. B. tacit knowledge is easy to codify. C. tacit knowledge can be well documented. D. explicit knowledge can be easily articulated. E. tacit knowledge can be easily transferred to others.

D: explicit knowledge can be easily transferred to others

Which of the following attribute approaches to performance management is most commonly used? A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales B. Mixed standard scales C. Behavior observation scales D. Graphic rating scales E. Simple ranking scales

D: graphic rating scales

The last step in task analysis is to A. develop a list of tasks performed on the job. B. validate the tasks that are to be performed on the job. C. identify the jobs to be analyzed. D. identify the working conditions required for the tasks. E. confirm the tasks that are to be performed on the job.

D: identify the working conditions required for the tasks

_____ is a rater error in which a rater gives high ratings to all employees regardless of their performance. A. Halo B. Contrast C. Central tendency D. Leniency E. Similar to me

D: leniency

While evaluating training programs, affective outcomes are most appropriate for measuring _____. A. the acquisition of knowledge B. behavior skills C. company payoffs D. motivation E. the economic value of training

D: motivation

Jian is a manager at Zobos Corp. He needs to perform an evaluation of his subordinates. He does this by pairing each of his subordinates with every other subordinate in the same group, then selects the higher performer between the two. At the end of the process, he calculates the number of times a subordinate has been the higher performer in a match-up. Which type of performance management system does Jian employ to perform the evaluation? A. Probability distribution B. Simple ranking C. Forced distribution D. Paired comparison E. Scanlon plans

D: paired comparison

The _____ method requires managers to compare every employee with every other employee in a work group, giving an employee a score of 1 every time he or she is considered the higher performer. A. partner measurement B. probability distribution C. forced distribution D. paired comparison E. alternation ranking

D: paired comparison

Which of the following statistical process quality control techniques help identify the redundancies in procedures that increase manufacturing or service time? A. Cause-and-effect diagrams B. Control charts C. Pareto charts D. Process-flow analyses E. Histograms

D: process-flow analyses

_____ attempts to emphasize the multidimensional nature of performance and thoroughly familiarize the raters with the actual content of various performance dimensions. A. Social performance measurement B. Sensitivity training C. Multidimensional training D. Rater accuracy training E. Process-flow analysis

D: rater accuracy training

Preparing expatriates to return to the parent company is _____. A. preparation for home assignment B. preparation for offshore roles C. expatriation D. repatriation E. cross-cultural preparation

D: repatriation

_____ is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job performance that is consistent with an organization's strategy, goals, and culture. A. Specificity B. Reliability C. Validity D. Strategic congruence E. Acceptability

D: strategic congruence

Which of the following is a disadvantage of subordinate evaluations? A. Subordinates tend to focus only on aspects of their manager's performance that are measured, neglecting those that are not. B. Subordinates do not have adequate opportunity to observe a manager's interactions and behavior. C. Friendship has the potential to bias ratings. D. Subordinates have power over their managers, thus putting the managers in a difficult situation. E. Subordinates find the situation of being both rater and ratee uncomfortable when the evaluations are made for administrative decisions.

D: subordinates have power over their managers, thus putting the managers in a difficult situation

A measure that results in drastically different ratings over time lacks _____ reliability. A. internal consistency B. interrater C. parallel-forms D. test-retest E. inter-method

D: test-retest

Which of the following approaches would be worst suited to providing managers with the specific guidance required to correct an employee's performance deficiencies? A. The quality approach B. The comparative approach C. The behavioral approach D. The attribute approach E. The results approach

D: the attribute approach

The key to a successful foreign assignment is a combination of training and career management for the employee and _____. A. the foreign employees B. the parent country supervisor C. the employee's subordinates D. the employee's family E. the host country supervisor

D: the employee's family

_____ is ideal for understanding how skills and behaviors can be transferred to the job and for dealing with interpersonal issues. A. The presentation method B. The classroom method C. The distance learning method D. The hands-on method E. Audiovisual training

D: the hands-on method

Which of the following is true about the quality approach to performance measurement? A. The quality approach techniques usually have very little strategic congruence. B. The quality approach has very low acceptability. C. The quality approach does not advocate the evaluation of personal traits. D. The quality approach adopts a systems-oriented focus. E. The quality approach relies primarily on a combination of the comparative and results approaches to performance measurement.

D: the quality approach adopts a systems-oriented focus

In the context of factors that influence the motivation to learn, when an organization seeks to convince employees that they can successfully learn the content of a training program, the organization is primarily focusing on improving A. the work environment. B. the reliability of the training. C. the employees' awareness of training needs. D. the self-efficacy of the employees. E. the goal orientation of the employees.

D: the self-efficacy of the employees

Concept maps showing the relationship among ideas and visual images are tools that can be best used A. to understand opportunities for practice. B. to gain insights by working on the job directly. C. for program coordination and administration. D. to commit training content to memory. E. to share feedback about employees' performance.

D: to commit training content to memory

Which of the following is a characteristic of preferred provider organizations (PPOs)? A. They contract with employees instead of employers. B. They do not make contracts with insurance companies. C. They provide benefits on a prepaid basis. D. Employees often are required to use the preferred providers. E. Employers may give incentives for employees to choose a participating physician.

E. Employers may give incentives for employees to choose a participating physician.

A performance management system designed with a strong quality orientation can be expected to A. emphasize an assessment of system factors, but not person factors, in the measurement system. B. emphasize managers and employees working separately to solve performance problems. C. involve only the external customers in setting standards and measuring performances. D. use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors. E. emphasize an assessment of person factors, but not system factors, in the measurement system.

D: use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors

Julie's boss, Sanjay, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions. Julie's decisions are often sidelined by those of Sanjay's. When Julie confronts Sanjay, he terminates her employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that will help Julie? A. A retaliation lawsuit B. A forgery lawsuit C. A reverse discrimination suit D. A public policy violation lawsuit E. A civil right infringement lawsuit

E. A civil right infringement lawsuit

Which of the following must a principal do to reduce agency costs? A. Encourage the agent to maximize his or her benefits B. Provide complete autonomy to the agent C. Discourage the agent from pursuing projects with high potential payoffs D. Increase information asymmetry and goal congruence E. Align the agent's interests with the principal's interests

E. Align the agent's interests with the principal's interests

The "direct threat" clause is a part of the _____. A. Civil Rights Act of 1871 B. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 C. No-FEAR Act D. Lloyd-La Follette Act E. Americans with Disabilities Act

E. Americans with Disabilities Act

Which of the following is true about Social Security retirement benefits? A. Benefits are subject to federal income tax. B. An earnings test exists for those beneficiaries aged 50 and under. C. Currently, an earnings test is required for those who have reached retirement age. D. Benefits are entirely free from state income tax throughout the United States. E. An earnings test increases a person's incentive to retire.

E. An earnings test increases a person's incentive to retire.

Which of the following is most likely to provide intrinsic motivation? A. A sponsored vacation to Europe B. A monthly salary of $10,000 C. Medical insurance D. Paid leave for three months E. An interesting work assignment

E. An interesting work assignment

Why would a company offer generous tuition reimbursement benefits to its employees? A. Because it wants to avoid offering in-house training programs B. Because educated employees predict higher long-term growth C. Because it wants to encourage prosocial behavior D. Because it values intelligent, knowledgeable employees E. Because good benefits produce lower turnover than do high salaries

E. Because good benefits produce lower turnover than do high salaries

Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse discrimination claims? A. Racial minorities B. Homosexuals C. Older workers D. Women E. Caucasians

E. Caucasians

Which of the following is likely to occur when pay for performance with stronger incentive intensity is replaced with one having a weaker incentive pay? A. Greater motivation for employees in sales, executives, and stockbrokers B. Motivation for high performers to stay with the organization and improve their efficiency C. Greater chance for unintended, undesirable behavior driven by pay-linked incentives D. Excessive risk-taking for greater premium and compensation E. Competitors possibly winning over high performers with stronger incentive intensity

E. Competitors possibly winning over high performers with stronger incentive intensity

Which of the following is true about workers' compensation? A. Workers' compensation benefits focus primarily on dealing with the increasing cost of living. B. Unlike before, injuries that are self-inflicted and stem from intoxication are now covered as well. C. Housing plans and pension services are included in workers' compensation. D. Self-funding of disability income by employers is restricted in most states. E. Disability benefits that are part of workers' compensation are tax-free.

E. Disability benefits that are part of workers' compensation are tax-free.

Which of the following is a criticism of traditional merit pay programs? A. Peer and subordinate ratings are frequent and they tend to receive more weight than supervisory ratings. B. The feedback under this system tends to occur too frequently, which may cause average employees to feel more discouraged than appreciated. C. These programs lack emphasis on individual performance and focus too much on teamwork. D. These programs often involve gathering inappropriate feedback from external sources. E. Employees are encouraged to focus on personal gains rather than what is good for the organization.

E. Employees are encouraged to focus on personal gains rather than what is good for the organization.

Which of the following is true about pay? A. Pay is not helpful when it comes to aligning employees' interests with those of the broader organization. B. Pay has a small impact on employee attitudes and behavior. C. From the employees' view, pay policies do not affect their standard of living. D. Companies often look for ways to reduce pay by jeopardizing their relationship with the workforce. E. Employees attach great importance to pay decisions when they evaluate their relationship with the organization.

E. Employees attach great importance to pay decisions when they evaluate their relationship with the organization.

The Scanlon plan is an example of a(n) _____ plan. A. profit-sharing B. skill-based C. merit pay D. individual incentive E. gainsharing

E. gainsharing

Which of the following is a reason for the growth of benefits as a method of employee compensation? A. The tax treatment of benefits programs is less favorable for employees than the tax treatment of wages and salaries. B. People prefer a dollar in cash over a dollar's worth of any specific commodity. C. The legislation passed during the Great Depression was not conducive to benefits. D. Benefits are covered by wage and price controls. E. Groups of employees can typically receive a cost advantage over individuals.

E. Groups of employees can typically receive a cost advantage over individuals.

Which of the following is true about the Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance (OASDHI) program? A. Only about 50 percent of U.S. employees are covered by the program. B. Federal, state, and local government employees account for a high percentage of employees covered under this program. C. There are no eligibility requirements to be met by an individual to receive benefits. D. Old-age insurance benefits for fully insured workers begin at the age of 50. E. High earners help subsidize benefit payments to low earners.

E. High earners help subsidize benefit payments to low earners.

Which of the following statements is accurate about voluntary turnover? A. It is initiated by the employer. B. It involves employees an organization would like to discharge. C. It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization. D. It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization. E. It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.

E. It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.

Which of the following is true of external equity pay comparison? A. It involves comparisons with employees with lower-level jobs in the organization. B. It involves comparisons with employees with higher-level jobs in the organization. C. It influences whether employees accept transfers. D. It influences employees' willingness to accept promotions. E. It influences employees' decisions regarding whether to stay or move to another organization.

E. It influences employees' decisions regarding whether to stay or move to another organization.

Which of the following is true about Social Security as a benefits program? A. It does not cover unemployment insurance. B. It is the only plan that requires no employee to meet any eligibility criteria. C. It covers mostly railroad and federal, state, and local government employees. D. It does not require minimum earnings to be fully insured. E. It is entirely free from federal tax.

E. It is entirely free from federal tax.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of skill-based pay? A. It is not suited for jobs that require skills to adapt to change in technology. B. It decreases worker flexibility. C. It does not give knowledgeable people opportunities to make decisions. D. It does not help deal with absenteeism or turnover. E. It may give rise to large new labor costs, but with little payoff.

E. It may give rise to large new labor costs, but with little payoff.

Which of the following is a drawback of using profit sharing? A. It promotes individual goals rather than organizational goals. B. It promotes competition between work groups. C. It increases the probability of individual competition. D. It fails to make labor costs more variable. E. It runs the risk of contributing to employee dissatisfaction.

E. It runs the risk of contributing to employee dissatisfaction.

Which of the following observations is true about the equity theory? A. It suggests that managers compare the performance of employees with their potential to improve. B. It suggests that employees' performance should be evaluated based on their developmental needs. C. It suggests that internal equity pay comparisons focus on what employees in other organizations are paid for doing the same general job. D. It suggests that when a person's outcome-input ratio is greater than the comparison other's ratio, underreward inequity is perceived. E. It suggests that people evaluate the fairness of their situations by comparing them with those of other people.

E. It suggests that people evaluate the fairness of their situations by comparing them with those of other people.

Which of the following is the primary focus of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act? A. It makes it mandatory for firms to give women maternity leave. B. It restricts the setting up of labor unions. C. It promotes the setting up of labor unions. D. It supports equal pay for jobs of equal content. E. It supports equal pay for jobs of equal value.

E. It supports equal pay for jobs of equal value.

Which of the following is an administrative procedure used to measure internal job worth using measurable factors? A. Job enlargement B. Job description C. Job design D. Job specification E. Job evaluation

E. Job evaluation

_____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another over time. A. Job involvement B. Job enrichment C. Job engagement D. Job enlargement E. Job rotation

E. Job rotation

_____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that one's job fulfills or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values. A. Job enrichment B. Job enlargement C. Job commitment D. Job involvement E. Job satisfaction

E. Job satisfaction

_____ is the relative pay of jobs in an organization. A. Pay level B. Pay grade C. Compa-ratio D. Range spread E. Job structure

E. Job structure

Which of the following is true of labor market competition? A. The labor market focuses primarily on competing through providing a quality product or service at a competitive price in the market. B. The labor market places an upper bound on labor costs and compensation. C. The upper bound placed by the labor market is more constrictive when labor costs are a very small share of the total costs. D. An indirect payment such as Social Security, a major component of labor costs, is not included in calculating the average cost of an employee. E. Labor market competition places a lower bound on pay levels.

E. Labor market competition places a lower bound on pay levels.

Which of the following facets is measured by both the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) and the Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ)? A. Job satisfaction B. Supervision C. Tasks involved in a job D. Job description E. Pay

E. Pay

According to a merit increase grid, one of the factors that determine the size and frequency of pay increases is the _____. A. company's annual output B. attrition rate in the company C. company's stock price D. recruitment ratio E. individual's performance rating

E. individual's performance rating

The _____ requires defined contribution plans holding publicly traded securities to provide employees with at least three investment options other than employer securities. A. Pensions Act of 2008 B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 D. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 E. Pension Protection Act of 2006

E. Pension Protection Act of 2006

Which of the following individuals is eligible for unemployment benefits? A. Miguel was discharged for willful misconduct. B. Ricky is not actively seeking work. C. Kendrick quit his job voluntarily. D. Heather is just out of college and looking to start her career. E. Reena lost her job due to outsourcing.

E. Reena lost her job due to outsourcing.

Which of the following steps in progressive discipline involves the right to go to arbitration? A. Unofficial verbal warning B. Official written warning C. Temporary suspension D. Threat of suspension E. Termination

E. Termination

Which of the following affects the amount of income that will be available to an employee upon retirement in defined contribution plans? A. The number of times an employee shifted jobs B. The number of employees covered in the plan C. The size of the organization D. The level of job performance E. The age at which investments are made

E. The age at which investments are made

Which of the following is true about outcome-oriented contracts? A. They require more supervision than behavior-oriented contracts. B. When profits drop, agents' compensation goes up in outcome-oriented contracts. C. Agents do not demand compensating wage differentials in such contracts. D. Agents face minimal risks in such contracts. E. They are typically a major component of executive compensation.

E. They are typically a major component of executive compensation.

Which of the following is true of nonkey jobs? A. They have stable content. B. They can be used in pay surveys. C. They can be valued directly. D. They can be compared through market surveys. E. They are unique to organizations.

E. They are unique to organizations.

Which of the following is true of individual incentives? A. They contribute to a more disintegrated workforce. B. They are helpful in the pursuit of total quality management objectives. C. They encourage employees to go beyond the call of duty. D. They reduce the motivation of acquiring multiple skills and proactive problem solving. E. They must be continuously earned and re-earned.

E. They must be continuously earned and re-earned.

Which of the following is true of whistle-blowers? A. They are satisfied employees. B. They are capable of bringing about internal change. C. They avoid taking their issue to external constituencies. D. They avoid making the grievance public. E. They resort to the government to address the grievance.

E. They resort to the government to address the grievance.

In the context of benefits, which of the following is true of the demographics of a workforce? A. Young employees are more concerned about medical coverage. B. Young employees are more concerned about life insurance. C. Young, unmarried men often have more interest in benefits. D. Young, unmarried women have less interest in high salary and wages. E. Women of childbearing age care more about disability leave.

E. Women of childbearing age care more about disability leave.

Which of the following is true of employees' movements across an organization? A. A transfer always includes a raise in pay and position. B. A promotion usually does not include a raise in pay or responsibility. C. A transfer usually includes an increase in responsibility and authority. D. A promotion usually occurs across different departments of the organization. E. A downward move may involve a move to another position at the same level.

E. a downward move may involve a move to another position at the same level

The concept of _____ suggests that similar groups of people whose scores differ by only a small amount all be treated as having the same score. A. attribution error B. probability distribution C. standard deviation D. groupthink E. banding

E. banding

The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on _____. A. the work itself B. co-workers C. promotions D. supervision E. benefits

E. benefits

Employee wellness programs primarily aim at A. providing treatment for ailing employees. B. managing health care costs by helping employees in need. C. providing rehabilitation services. D. managing insurance-related queries from employees. E. changing health-related behaviors both on and off work time.

E. changing health-related behaviors both on and off work time.

With regard to supervision, employee satisfaction is likely to be highest when A. managers and employees have different values and personalities. B. employees are micromanaged. C. managers focus more on supervising than their own work. D. employees take up supervision as an informal responsibility. E. employees get the support needed to achieve their goal.

E. employees get the support needed to achieve their goal.

According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA), in early retirement incentive programs, _____. A. it is the employees', not the employers', responsibility to gather all information about available options B. employers should ensure that only employees over the age of 60 receive the program's benefits C. employees meet a stringent deadline in making their decision about early retirement D. employers can cease the accrual of retirement benefits at about 65 years to induce older employees to retire E. employees should not be coerced to accept an incentive and retire

E. employees should not be coerced to accept an incentive and retire

In skill-based pay systems, performance measures are primarily based on _____. A. a supervisor's appraisal B. individual productivity C. company profits D. company stock returns E. employees' competency acquisition

E. employees' competency acquisition

_____ career patterns involve a lifelong commitment to a field or specialization. A. Nonlinear B. Boundaryless C. Spiral D. Flexible E. Expert

E. expert

Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of _____. A. quantitative analysis B. empirical study C. statistical analysis D. procedural study E. expert judgment

E. expert judgement

The utility of any given test generally increases as the selection ratio gets higher. T/F?

False

Self-motivation A. is the ability to sense and read emotions in others. B. is the ability to manage the emotions of other people. C. is the knowledge of one's strengths and weaknesses. D. is the ability to keep disruptive emotions in check. E. is the ability to persevere.

E. is the ability to persevere

Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is _____. A. job transfer B. job rotation C. job evaluation D. job enlargement E. job enrichment

E. job enrichment

A _____ system is composed of compensable factors and a weighting scheme based on the importance of each compensable factor to the organization. A. job analysis B. job description C. job design D. job specification E. job evaluation

E. job evaluation

_____ are the relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features that employees face in their jobs. A. Job specifications B. Job evaluations C. Job designs D. Job redesigns E. Job experiences

E. job experiences

Product market comparisons that focus on labor costs are likely to deserve greater weight when A. product demand is inelastic. B. the supply of labor is elastic. C. attracting and retaining qualified employees is difficult. D. the costs of recruiting replacements are high. E. labor costs represent a large share of total costs.

E. labor costs represent a large share of total costs.

In a(n) _____, a team of five to seven employees is given a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period. A. stretch assignment B. in-basket simulation C. role-play D. focused interview E. leaderless group discussion

E. leaderless group discussion

_____ is an interpersonal relationship that is used to develop employees. A. Internship B. Apprenticeship C. Externship D. Training E. Mentoring

E. mentoring

A lateral demotion involves a A. raise in responsibility without a change in position. B. raise in responsibility without a change in authority. C. movement to higher position in a different area. D. movement to a lower position for cross-functional experience. E. movement to another position at the same level.

E. movement to another position at the same level

Which of the following is true of a typical assessment center? A. It has one rater who is responsible for assessing all employees' performances. B. It is usually an on-site location where people can be assessed while at work. C. It is primarily used to check if an employee has the basic technical skills required for a job. D. Usually, a single comprehensive test is conducted that tests employees on different skills. E. Multiple assessors evaluate performance on a number of exercises.

E. multiple assessors evaluate performance on a number of exercises

Under the _____ approach, jobs of similar worth or content are grouped together for pay administration purposes. A. market survey data B. pay policy line C. compa-ratio D. skill-based E. pay grade

E. pay grade

The performance effectiveness of employees is provided to them during the _____ process. A. performance appraisal B. achievement discrepancy C. job rotation D. ability analysis E. performance feedback

E. performance feedback

Which of the following personnel selection methods has low generalizability for all job types? A. Drug test B. Biographical information C. Work-sample test D. Cognitive ability test E. Reference check

E. reference check

Which of the following would be most appropriate to help employees understand the situations that managers face and the decisions they have to make? A. Interviews B. Leaderless group discussions C. Focus group discussions D. Personality tests E. Role-plays

E. role-plays

A leave of absence from the company for personal reflection, renewal, and skill development is called a(n) _____. A. externship B. apprenticeship C. internship D. retirement E. sabbatical

E. sabbatical

The percentage of people chosen relative to the total number of people tested gives the _____ ratio. A. break-even B. furlough C. retention D. turnover E. selection

E. selection

The _____ identifies employees' preferences for working in different types of environments. A. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory B. Big Five Locater C. Attribute Hierarchy Model D. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator E. Self-Directed Search

E. self-directed search

_____ is the ability to keep disruptive emotions in check. A. Social skill B. Empathy C. Self-motivation D. Self-awareness E. Self-regulation

E. self-regulation

The employment-at-will doctrine A. has become more influential in recent years. B. has more legal consequences in voluntary turnover than in involuntary turnover. C. implies that a person may leave an organization at will despite an existing contract. D. allows employers to discharge people at will without sufficient reasons for the discharge. E. states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the employment.

E. states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the employment.

A _____ plan gives employees the opportunity to buy the company's shares at a previously fixed price. A. mutual fund B. gainsharing C. group incentive D. profit-sharing E. stock option

E. stock option

_____ is the process of identifying and tracking high-potential employees. A. Career management B. Talent management C. Action planning D. Resource planning E. Succession planning

E. succession planning

Which of the following acts explicitly prohibits the granting of preferential treatment to minority groups? A. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 B. The Tenure of Office Act of 1867 C. The Judiciary Act of 1801 D. The Third Liberty Bond Act of 1918 E. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

E. the Civil Rights Act of 1991

Compensable factors are employees' job characteristics that A. are immeasurable. B. go unrecognized by the company. C. do not motivate employees to work better. D. primarily lead to intrinsic motivation. E. the company is willing to pay for.

E. the company is willing to pay for.

Work-sample tests are not job-specific and their generalizability is high. T/F?

False

Which of the following best describes traditional careers? A. They are boundaryless. B. They follow a nonlinear path. C. They consist of movements that follow a spiral pattern. D. They consist of career moves across different fields. E. They consist of a series of steps in a linear hierarchy.

E. they consist of a series of steps in a linear hierarchy

In cafeteria-style plans, adverse selection can be controlled by A. allowing employees to choose benefits based on their personal needs. B. removing the limitations on coverage amounts. C. pricing benefits subject to a low adverse selection. D. increasing the choices that cater to individual needs. E. using a limited set of packaged options.

E. using a limited set of packaged options.

Job satisfaction is a function of _____, which can be defined as what a person consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain. A. perception B. appreciation C. contentment D. appraisal E. values

E. values

With respect to employee termination, a(n) _____ suit typically attempts to establish that the termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy. A. discrimination B. forgery C. encroachment D. unethical practice E. wrongful discharge

E. wrongful discharge

CobWeb Inc., a software firm, assesses managers based on how well they understand their subordinates, as well as the factors involved in their poor performance. Which of the following examples is the most appropriate evaluation of the input factors involved in analyzing poor performance? A. Lin considers if her subordinate has the technical skills required for the task. B. Rocio checks if his subordinate is emotionally able to perform at the expected level. C. Aliya looks into whether her subordinate has been given information about his performance. D. Will analyzes if performance consequences are given in a timely manner. E. DeShaun checks if the job flow and procedures are logical.

E: DeShaun checks if the job flow and procedures are logical

The _____ approach to performance management focuses on the extent to which individuals have certain characteristics or traits believed desirable for the company's success. A. results B. quality C. behavioral D. comparative E. attribute

E: attribute

Understanding a company's norms and mission is part of the _____ step in the effective onboarding process. A. clarification B. compliance C. compensation D. connection E. culture

E: culture

In the context of factors that influence the motivation to learn, which of the following management actions is likely to increase employees' self-efficacy? A. Not sharing information on the purpose of training programs B. Making it clear that only the best of the employees can get through the training programs C. Communicating that training will focus on identifying areas of incompetence D. Informing the employees about the times their peers have failed to benefit from the training E. Emphasizing that learning is under the employees' personal control

E: emphasizing that learning is under the employee's personal control

Implementing an alternative dispute resolution process is part of the _____ component of an effective managing diversity program. A. top management support B. recruitment and hiring C. improving stakeholders' relationship D. employee support E. ensuring fair treatment

E: ensuring fair treatment

Teknikal Inc. decides to implement a new performance management system. It consists of a list of five traits used to evaluate all the employees. The manager considers one employee at a time and, on a continuum with different points, circles the number that signifies how much of a particular trait the individual has. Which type of performance management system is Teknikal Inc. using? A. Probability distribution B. Simple ranking C. Forced distribution D. Paired comparison E. Graphic rating scale

E: graphic rating scale

Which of the following is true about task analysis? A. It involves determining the cause for performance deficiency—lack of skill or a training issue. B. It involves identifying who requires training. C. It involves determining employees' readiness for training. D. It involves determining the business appropriateness of training. E. It involves identifying the knowledge and skills required for the job.

E: it involves identifying the knowledge and skills required for the job

Which of the following is true of informal learning? A. It is initiated by the management of an organization. B. It involves training and development programs. C. It occurs in a planned setting for facilitating knowledge. D. It occurs as a result of gathering explicit knowledge. E. It is motivated by a personal intent to develop.

E: it is motivated by a personal intent to develop

Which of the following statements best defines the acceptability of a performance measure? A. It is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job performance that is consistent with the organization's strategy, goals, and culture. B. It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed guidance to employees about what is expected of them and in what ways they are unsuitable for the job. C. It is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant—and only the relevant—aspects of job performance. D. It is the extent to which a performance measure is free from random error. E. It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or adequate by those who use it.

E: it is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed to be satisfactory or adequate by those who use it

Which of the following is true of a support network in training? A. It is the support that managers from different teams offer to trainees. B. It is the support system built by an organization to support knowledge transfer. C. It is the support that trainers offer to employees within the training program. D. It is the support that trainers offer to employees to transfer training to the job. E. It is the support that trainees give one another to discuss their progress.

E: it is the support that trainees give one another to discuss their progress

Whittaker Publishing Corp. is a publishing company that wants to hire more technical experts to handle the software requirements in the publishing process. However, the test given to the programmers assesses not only their technical knowledge but also their communication skills, language abilities, and understanding of client services. The test conducted by Whittaker Publishing Corp. is _____. A. high on reliability B. low on strategic congruence C. high on specificity D. high on acceptability E. low on validity

E: low on validity

In which performance technique are managers given three statements of performance per dimension and asked to indicate whether an employee's performance is above (+), at (0), or below (-) the statements? A. Behaviorally anchored rating scale B. Forced distribution scale C. Behavior observation scale D. Graphic rating scale E. Mixed-standard scale

E: mixed-standard scale

Which of the following is true about the results approach to performance management? A. The results approach relies primarily on a combination of the attribute and results approaches to performance measurement. B. The results approach virtually eliminates problems of leniency, central tendency, and strictness. C. The techniques of the results approach usually have very little congruence with the company's strategy. D. The results approach is usually highly unacceptable to both managers and employees. E. The results approach minimizes subjectivity, relying on objective, quantifiable indicators of performance.

E: the results approach minimizes subjectivity, relying on objective, quantifiable indicators of performance

Which of the following is true about simulations as a training technique? A. They provide limited opportunities for trainees to relate to actual jobs. B. They are used to teach only management and interpersonal skills. C. They prevent trainees from seeing the impact of their decisions in a risk-free environment. D. They are inexpensive to develop and maintain. E. They are methods used to represent real-life situations.

E: they are methods used to represent real-life situations

Which of the following is true of the presentation method of training? A. Trainees are active participants in preparing the training module. B. This method of training does not include distance learning. C. Gadgets such as smartphones and tablets cannot be used in this method. D. This method of training is ideal for presenting only old facts and existing knowledge. E. This method of training can be used to transfer alternative problem-solving solutions.

E: this method of training can be used to transfer alternative problem-solving solutions

Appraisals that involve collecting subordinates' evaluations of a manager's behavior or skills are known as _____. A. 360-degree feedback B. screening interviews C. peer review D. social performance E. upward feedback

E: upward feedback

Which performance management evaluation criterion reflects the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the relevant—and only the relevant—aspects of performance? A. Reliability B. Strategic congruence C. Acceptability D. Specificity E. Validity

E: validity

A large-scale, independent review of validity studies suggests that paper-and-pencil honesty tests cannot predict both theft and other disruptive behaviors. T/F?

False

A measure can be valid without being reliable. T/F?

False

A physical ability test measures balance, but not coordination. T/F?

False

As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, the burden of proof always lies with the person who faces discrimination. T/F?

False

Employees with high conscientiousness tend to be lethargic and ill-disciplined. T/F?

False

Executive Order 11246 extends protections outlined in the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967. T/F?

False

Experience-based items ask what a person is likely to do when confronting a certain hypothetical situation in the future. T/F?

False

Reliability is the degree to which the validity of a selection method established in one context extends to other contexts. T/F?

False

The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991 protects individuals with physical disabilities, but not those with mental disabilities. T/F?

False

The Polygraph Act in 1988 permitted the use of polygraphs in employment screening. T/F?

False

The correlation coefficient is zero for a perfect positive relationship. T/F?

False

The inability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally less applicable than criterion-related validation. T/F?

False

The size of the sample on which a correlation is based has no role in achieving statistical significance. T/F?

False

A concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance. T/F?

True

Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment. T/F?

True

Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people to determine who will be accepted for job openings. T/F?

True

One of the concerns regarding the use of drug tests in a workplace is the undue invasion of privacy. T/F?

True

Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself. T/F?

True

The Civil Rights Act of 1991 protects individuals from discrimination based on race, sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working conditions. T/F?

True

The degree to which a measure is free from random error is its reliability. T/F?

True

The more reliable, valid, and generalizable a selection method is, the more utility it will have. T/F?

True

Validity is necessary but not sufficient for generalizability. T/F?

True

Validity is the extent to which performance on a measure is related to performance on the job. T/F?

True