HROB 2100 Test 2 Practice Qs

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77) The immediate supervisor is generally responsible for making the final selection decision. Reasons for this include all of the following EXCEPT: A) If he or she is not committed to the selected individual, that person can easily be set up for failure. B) He or she is often highly skilled in the selection process. C) It is important that the individual selected fits in with current department members. D) He or she must provide guidance and assistance to the new hire. E) He or she is generally best qualified to assess job knowledge and skills.

B. HE OR SHE IS OFTEN HIGHLY SKILLED IN THE SELECTION PROCESS

11) The biggest constraint on recruiting activity at this time is the: A) the recruitment budget. B) emerging labour shortage. C) environmental factors. D) recruiter preferences. E) organizational plans.

B) emerging labour shortage.

8) Constraints affecting the recruitment process arise from: A) emerging labour shortages and inducements offered by competitors. B) emerging labour shortages, inducements offered by competitors, and employment equity plans. C) there are no constraints. D) inducements offered by competitors. E) employment equity plans and emerging labour shortages.

B) emerging labour shortages, inducements offered by competitors, and employment equity plans.

44) Many companies are trying to reduce the cost of psychiatric disabilities in the following ways EXCEPT: A) peer support groups. B) employment testing. C) prevention programs. D) early intervention programs. E) psychiatric counseling.

B) employment testing

44) There are several steps in pricing jobs with a wage curve. The first is: A) determine the pay rate for a cluster of jobs. B) find the average pay for each pay grade. C) determine the pay grade. D) create a wage line. E) determine the rate range.

B) find the average pay for each pay grade.

40) Statistics Canada provides monthly data on earnings by: A) industry and city. B) geographic area, industry, and occupation. C) geographic area and size of company. D) size of company. E) city and occupation.

B) geographic area, industry, and occupation.

27) The job classification method of job evaluation is a widely used method in which jobs are categorized into: A) departments. B) groups. C) factors. D) clusters. E) functions.

B) groups.

75) Recognition is important for ________, who are driven by internal motivation. A) management B) high performers C) new employees D) low performers E) none of the above

B) high performers

34) Approaches to health care benefit cost reduction include the following EXCEPT: A) increase the amount of health care costs paid by employees. B) increasing government subsidies. C) publish a restricted list of drugs that will be paid for under the plan. D) risk-assessment programs. E) health promotion.

B) increasing government subsidies.

59) Employers must pay careful attention to their obligation to educate plan members about pension investment. They must also: A) provide sessions. B) inform. C) provide quarterly bulletins. D) advise. E) cousel.

B) inform.

36) Executive perquisites are usually provided to: A) executives with base salaries of $100,000 or more. B) only a few top executives. C) head office executives. D) the CEO and the president. E) all executives

B) only a few top executives.

57) Family-friendly benefits options include the following EXCEPT: A) subsidies for paid parental leave. B) outsourcing benefits administration. C) a casual dress code. D) alternative transportation options. E) telecommuting.

B) outsourcing benefits administration.

58) Employers who offer a defined contribution pension plan must pay careful attention to their obligation to educate and inform plan members about: A) pension benefits formula. B) pension investments. C) pension portability. D) pension vesting. E) early retirement incentives.

B) pension investments.

6) Accurate ________ are a precondition for effective variable pay plans. A) job evaluation B) performance appraisals C) salary curves D) job specifications E) job descriptions

B) performance appraisals

43) Long-term incentive plans whose payment or value is contingent on financial performance measured against objectives set at the start of a multi-year period are called: A) multi-year plans. B) performance plans. C) contingent plans. D) financial plans. E) book value plans.

B) performance plans

60) The looming labour shortage when baby boomers start retiring is resulting in employers seeking to retain older employees. Melʹs organization is experiencing this issue. One program to support this issue is: A) supplemental employee retirement plans. B) phased retirement. C) RRSPs. D) defined contribution pension plans. E) defined benefit pension plans.

B) phased retirement.

17) The following are disadvantages of a piecework incentive plan EXCEPT: A) new job evaluation produces a new wage rate; thus piece rates need to be revised. B) piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle. C) employers arbitrarily increase the standard because of workers earning ʺexcessiveʺ wages. D) in workersʹ minds production standards become tied inseparably to the amount of money earned. E) workers resist attempts to raise production standards.

B) piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle

45) There are several steps in pricing jobs with a wage curve. The second is: A) determine the rate range. B) plot the pay rates. C) find the average pay for each pay grade. D) create a wage line. E) price jobs.

B) plot the pay rates.

45) Unlike government-provided retirement benefits, employer -sponsored pension plans are: A) easily managed. B) pre-funded. C) invested in foreign securities. D) restricted to deferred profit sharing. E) formalized.

B) pre-funded.

6) The EI benefit is generally 55% of average earnings during the last 14 to 26 weeks of the: A) benefit period. B) qualifying period. C) previous 52 weeks. D) previous calendar year. E) probationary period.

B) qualifying period.

62) The following are counseling services employers are providing to their employees EXCEPT: A) financial counseling. B) real-estate counseling. C) family counseling. D) career counseling. E) preretirement counseling.

B) real-estate counseling

17) Employees in Ontario and the federal jurisdiction may be eligible for ________ in certain termination situations, in addition to pay in lieu of notice. A) unemployment pay B) severance pay C) notice pay D) terminal pay E) exit pay

B) severance pay

43) ASP firms provide: A) resume writing workshops. B) standardized application forms. C) a short list of candidates for interviews. D) a long list of candidates for interviews. E) sample resumes.

B) standardized application form

45) The following are advantages of various appraisal tools EXCEPT: A) alternation ranking is simple to use. B) forced distribution results depend on the adequacy of the original choice of cutoff points. C) MBO is tied to jointly agreed goals. D) a graphic rating scale is simple to use. E) BARS is very accurate.

B. Forced distribution results depend o the adequacy of the original choice of cutoff points

8) Renu has been hired as the first human resources professional at a growing landscape architecture firm, Terrastyle Inc. The firm is currently using a formal appraisal method which lists traits such as ʺteamworkʺ and performance values ranging from ʺneeds improvementʺ to ʺoutstanding.ʺ Terrastyle is using the following appraisal method: A) paired comparison method. B) graphic rating scale. C) forced distribution method. D) behaviourally anchored rating scale. E) critical incident method.

B. Graphic rating scale

54) An example of a situational question is: A) Tell me about a time when you had to discipline an employee arriving late for work three days in a row. B) How would you handle an irate boss who was just told that the output in the department was below standard? C) Tell me about a time when you managed numerous priorities in a short period of time. D) What type of computer skills are you proficient in? E) None of the above.

B. HOW WOULD YOU HANDLE AN IRATE BOSS WHO JUST TOLD THAT THE OUTPUT IN THE DEPARTMENT WAS BELOW STANDARD?

23) Initial applicant screening is typically performed by: A) computer technology. B) HR professionals. C) an external recruitment agency. D) voice-response technology. E) line managers.

B. HR PROFESSIONALS

3) Recent research indicates that implementing a comprehensive onboarding program in a corporation carries the following additional direct benefit: A) improving employee perceptions of managementʹs leadership abilities. B) improving employee perceptions of managementʹs leadership abilities and reducing employee turnover. C) increasing work-life balance for employees. D) improving managementʹs leadership ability. E) increasing customer loyalty.

B. IMPROVING EMPLOYEE PERCEPTIONS OF MANAGEMENT'S LEADERSHIP ABILITIES AND REDUCING EMPLOYEE TURNOVER

40) Micro-assessment focuses on: A) verbal questions. B) individual performance. C) group performance. D) paper-based questions. E) computer-based questions.

B. INDIVIDUAL PERFORMANCE

66) Which error is of particular concern from a human rights law perspective? A) telegraphing B) influence of nonverbal behaviour C) playing attorney D) contrast (candidate-order) error E) too little talking

B. INFLUENCE OF NONVERBAL BEHAVIOUR

7) Which is true of the interview question: ʺHow would you handle an angry customer?ʺ A) It is a situational question. B) It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience. C) It tests knowledge and experience. D) It tests intellectual capacity. E) It is an example of behavioural interviewing.

B. IT IS SITUATIONAL QUESTION WHICH TESTS KNOWLEDGE AND EXPERIENCE

20) The procedure for determining the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job and the human attributes required to perform it is known as: A) writing a job specification. B) job analysis. C) job evaluation. D) job design. E) preparing a job description.

B. JOB ANALYSIS

13) Amal works for a production line. His task is to sew a button to the button hole of winter jackets. Since last month he was also given the task of creating the button hole in addition to attaching the button to the hole of the jacket. This is known as: A) job enrichment. B) job enlargement. C) vertical loading. D) job rotation. E) skill variety.

B. JOB ENLARGEMENT

35) Work samples focus on measuring: A) the ʺBig Fiveʺ personality dimensions. B) job performance directly. C) expert appraisersʹ evaluations. D) physical abilities only. E) hypothetical situations.

B. JOB PEFORMANCE DIRECTLY

71) Hints for conducting an effective panel interview include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Plan the interview. B) Listen carefully rather than taking notes. C) Evaluate the candidate. D) Build rapport. E) Ask questions

B. LISTEN CAREFULLY RATHER THAN TAKING NOTES

40) When supervisors who are engaged in a performance rating have a tendency to rate all employees either high or low, this is a problem that is referred to as: A) halo effect. B) leniency/strictness. C) central tendency. D) appraisal bias. E) bias.

B. Leniency/strictness

16) The stage of oneʹs career, including the period from about ages 45 to 65 during which the person secures their place in the world, is called the: A) secure stage. B) maintenance stage. C) decline stage. D) midcareer stage. E) stabilization stage.

B. MAINTENANCE STAGE

37) The use of an experienced individual to teach and train someone with less knowledge in a given area is called: A) basic training. B) mentoring. C) lecturing. D) on-the-job training. E) apprenticeship training.

B. MENTORING

27) A method for appraising performance involving setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made is called: A) progress review method. B) management by objectives. C) critical goal method. D) behaviourally anchored rating scale method. E) periodic review method.

B. Management by objectives

64) A common interviewing mistake is to make the interview itself mostly a search for: A) the ideal candidate. B) negative information. C) information about medical history. D) positive information. E) personal information.

B. NEGATIVE INFORMATION

20) The skills needed to be successful in a particular occupation are referred to as: A) job skills. B) occupational skills. C) trade skills. D) life skills. E) aptitudes

B. OCCUPATIONAL SKILLS

1) The definition of ________ is the formal relationships among jobs in an organization. A) job hierarchy B) organizational structure C) organizational design D) organization chart E) chain-of-command

B. ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE

62) When writing job specifications it is important to list all bona fide occupational requirements based on job duties and responsibilities, because: A) job specifications are limited to specific jobs. B) organizations are required to comply with human rights legislation. C) organizations are required to comply with federal employment legislation. D) organizations are required to provide reasonable accommodation. E) none of the above.

B. ORGANIZATIONS ARE REQUIRED TO COMPLY WITH HUMAN RIGHTS LEGISLATION

1) Once employees have been recruited and selected, the next step would be: A) affirmative action and equal access to a job. B) orientation and training. C) interviews by coworkers. D) rules and procedures. E) discipline and counselling.

B. ORIENTATION AND TRAINING

41) A technique for determining the training needs of current employees is: A) training analysis. B) performance analysis. C) questionnaires. D) task analysis. E) motivation analysis.

B. PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

44) The technique used when verifying whether there is a significant performance deficiency, and determining if that deficiency should be rectified through training or by some other means (such as changing the machinery or transferring the employee), is called: A) motivation analysis. B) performance analysis. C) training analysis. D) employee analysis. E) task analysis.

B. PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

19) Ergonomics aims to adapt the entire job system to match human characteristics. Doing so results in eliminating/minimizing: A) negative psychological effects. B) product defects, worker injuries, and negative psychological effects. C) product defects. D) product defects, worker injuries, and task variability. E) worker injuries.

B. PRODUCT DEFECTS, WORKER INJURIES, AND NEGATIVE PSYCHOLOGICAL EFFECTS

44) Executive compensation is more likely to be effective if it is appropriately linked to: A) external issues. B) a cost-reduction strategy. C) corporate strategy. D) internal issues. E) job evaluation.

C) corporate strategy

46) A type of pension plan that contains a formula for determining retirement benefits so that the actual benefits to be received are defined ahead of time is called a: A) deferred profit-sharing plan. B) money purchase pension plan. C) defined benefit pension plan. D) defined contribution pension plan. E) retirement plan.

C) defined benefit pension plan

4) The second step in employer branding includes: A) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them. B) defining the reasons why the organization is a unique place to work. C) defining the reasons why the organization is a unique place to work and would be an attractive employer to the desired audience. D) building a pool of candidates. E) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them and what they would want from an employer.

C) defining the reasons why the organization is a unique place to work and would be an attractive employer to the desired audience.

43) A Harvard University study projects that, by 2020, ________ will become the biggest source of lost workdays in developed countries. A) occupational illness B) work-related illness C) depression D) anxiety attacks E) psychiatric illness

C) depression

42) The most common psychiatric disability is: A) schizophrenia. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) depression. D) multiple personality disorder. E) anxiety attacks.

C) depression.

11) Abacus Trucking Ltd. has experienced a rise in workers compensation claims over the past year. You are the Human Resources professional who has been asked what the company can do to reduce the number of claims. You respond that the following are steps the company should take EXCEPT: A) institute effective health and safety programs. B) comply with government safety standards. C) discipline workers who have more than one workersʹ compensation claim. D) provide career counseling to guide employees into less strenuous or stressful jobs. E) institute rehabilitation programs for injured or ill workers.

C) discipline workers who have more than one workersʹ compensation claim

23) The chief disadvantage of group plans is that: A) each worker sees his/her effort leading to the desired reward. B) a group incentive plan may not prove as effective as an individual incentive plan in improving performance. C) each workerʹs rewards are no longer based just on his/her own efforts. D) a group incentive plan does not facilitate on-the-job training. E) a group incentive plan is problematic when conflict arises between group members.

C) each worker's rewards are no longer based just on his/her own efforts

64) A job-related services benefit that is designed to help employees who must help elderly parents or relatives who are not fully able to care for themselves is known as: A) aging care. B) personal care. C) eldercare. D) on-site eldercare. E) family medical care.

C) eldercare.

63) A formal employer program for providing employees with counseling and/or treatment programs for problems such as mental health issues, marital/family problems, legal problems or stress is called a(n): A) rehabilitation program. B) employee services benefit. C) employee assistance program. D) legal aid benefits. E) AA and NA program.

C) employee assistance program

8) The Revlex Company did a salary survey, and the results showed that 10 of its key positions had lower wages compared with similar positions at their key competitors. The problem the company faces is: A) broadbanding. B) pay equity. C) external inequity. D) internal inequity. E) comparable worth.

C) external inequity.

33) Online job boards are: A) fast, convenient and easy, when the job boards used are large. B) slow but easy to use. C) fast, convenient and easy. D) secure and confidential. E) fast, but not easy.

C) fast, convenient and easy.

12) Individualized benefit plans allowed by some employers in order to accommodate employee preferences for benefits are known as: A) family-friendly benefits. B) perquisite benefits plans. C) flexible benefits programs. D) constrained benefits plans. E) individualized benefits plans.

C) flexible benefits programs

54) An alternative method to a traditional job evaluation is pay: A) for education. B) for responsibility. C) for skill/competency. D) for ability. E) based on seniority.

C) for skill/competency.

69) A type of organization-wide incentive plan that engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a companyʹs productivity objectives by sharing the resulting cost savings among employees and the company is referred to as a: A) profit-sharing plan. B) productivity plan. C) gainsharing plan. D) cost savings plan. E) common incentive plan.

C) gainsharing plan

10) Amy is part of a team of 4 software developers. Upon completion of a major client project she and each of her team members received a set amount in addition to their base salary. All received the same additional amount. Amy received this payment as part of a: A) gain-sharing program. B) individual incentive plan. C) group incentive program. D) spot bonus plan. E) profit-sharing plan.

C) group incentive program

41) Best practices for career Web sites include: A) including a unique application for each functional area. B) using an ASP. C) having a direct link from the homepage to the career page. D) using print along with the Web site. E) embellishing business prospects.

C) having a direct link from the homepage to the career page.

11) The key factors in employee retention today are: A) employees who understand what motivates them. B) fair processes in ʺpeopleʺ decisions. C) an organizational culture that values and nurtures talented employees and fair processes in ʺpeopleʹ decisions. D) an organizational culture that values and nurtures talented employees. E) lifelong learning opportunities

C. AN ORGANIZATIONAL CULTURE THAT VALUES AND NURTURES TALENTED EMPLOYEES AND FAIR PROCESSES IN "PEOPLE" DECISIONS

26) Tests that measure an individualʹs potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given proper training, are known as: A) intelligence tests. B) interest inventories. C) aptitude tests. D) achievement tests. E) personality tests.

C. APTITUDE TEST

9) A common method for appraising performance which involves evaluating employees by ranking them from best to worst on some trait is called the: A) paired comparison method. B) graphic rating scale. C) alternation ranking method. D) behaviourally anchored rating scale. E) forced distribution method.

C. Alternation ranking method

41) When supervisors allow individual differences such as age, race, and sex to affect the appraisal ratings that employees receive, this problem is referred to as: A) strictness/leniency. B) halo effect. C) appraisal bias. D) central tendency. E) trait effect

C. Appraisal Bias

14) The stage of oneʹs career, including the period from around ages 15 to 24 during which a person seriously explores various occupational alternatives, attempting to match these alternatives with his/her interests and abilities, is called the: A) establishment stage. B) alternative stage. C) exploration stage. D) growth stage. E) maintenance stage

C. EXPLORATION STAGE

46) Harryʹs competence as a manager was rated very high. How is his competence defined and measured? A) predicting career-related decisions B) predicting environmental assessment C) forecasting personʹs potential D) measuring career assessment E) understanding employee needs

C. FORECASTING PERSON'S POTENTIAL

13) The stage of oneʹs career, including the period from birth to age 14 during which the person develops a self-concept by identifying with and interacting with other people such as family, friends, and teachers, is called the: A) childhood stage. B) adolescent stage. C) growth stage. D) maintenance stage. E) interaction stage.

C. GROWTH STAGE

24) The step used in developing a behaviourally anchored rating scale where persons who know the job being appraised are asked to describe specific illustrations of effective and ineffective performance is: A) scaling the incidents. B) developing the final instrument. C) generating critical incidents. D) reallocating incidents. E) developing performance dimensions.

C. Generating critical incidents

7) A scale that lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each is called a(n): A) alternation ranking method. B) behaviourally anchored rating scale. C) graphic rating scale. D) paired comparison scale. E) forced distribution method.

C. Graphic rating scale

17) In todayʹs service-based economy, a companyʹs most important assets are often: A) plant facilities. B) machinery. C) highly knowledgeable workers. D) office premises. E) cash.

C. HIGHLY KNOWLEDGEABLE WORKERS

69) You are the HR professional at a forestry company. You are responsible for implementing a pay equity plan. Which of the following questions would not be beneficial for the purpose of avoiding pay equity problems? A) Are job duties and responsibilities clearly documented? B) Are pay equity laws being monitored and adhered to in each province? C) Have pay equity consultants been hired? D) When was the pay system last reviewed? E) Is the pay system clearly documented in a salary administration manual?

C. Have pay equity consultants been hired?

65) Interviewers who donʹt know precisely what the job entails and what sort of candidate is best suited for it usually make their decisions based on: A) candidate responses. B) applicant screening. C) incorrect stereotypes. D) letters of reference. E) employment test results.

C. INCORRECT STEREOTYPES

27) Edgar Schein identified the following career anchors EXCEPT: A) technical/functional. B) autonomy and independence. C) insecurity and inexperience. D) security. E) managerial competence.

C. INSECURITY AND INEXPERIENCE

32) The screening tool which is most often used by employers in the selection process is: A) personality test. B) working sampling. C) interview. D) assessment centre. E) interview and personality test.

C. INTERVIEW

43) All of the following statements about selection interviews are true EXCEPT: A) The interview is used by virtually all organizations for selection purposes. B) Interviews significantly affect job applicantsʹ views of the job and firm. C) Interviews are conducted following testing in a majority of firms. D) Interviews enable the employer to fill in information gaps. E) Interview objectives include providing job applicants with information about expected duties of the position.

C. INTERVIEWS ARE CONDUCTED FOLLOWING TESTING IN A MAJORITY OF FIRMS

11) Making jobs more rewarding or satisfying by adding more meaningful tasks is primarily associated with: A) job rotation. B) industrial democracy. C) job enrichment. D) co-determination. E) job enlargement.

C. JOB ENRICHMENT

52) The job identification section of a job description includes which of the following? A) performance standards B) relationships C) job title D) job summary E) working conditions

C. JOB TITLE

40) An organization focused on creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge, and at modifying its behaviour to reflect new knowledge and insights, is a(n): A) mentoring organization. B) in-house development centre. C) learning organization. D) training and development organization. E) post-secondary institution.

C. LEARNING ORGANIZATION

64) Literacy training improves bottom-line performance through: A) programmed learning. B) outside professional teachers. C) lower costs. D) employer discipline processes. E) computer-based training.

C. LOWER COSTS

49) A potential problem with peer appraisal occurs when all the peers get together to rate each other highly. This is called: A) preferential evaluation. B) appraisal bias. C) logrolling. D) halo error. E) leniency error.

C. Logrolling

51) Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes or enhancing skills, is called: A) career enhancement. B) T-group training. C) management development. D) assessment centre training. E) professional development.

C. MANAGEMENT DEVELOPMENT

47) The interview format that yields comparable answers and in -depth insights is known as: A) behavioural. B) stress-producing. C) mixed. D) patterned. E) situational.

C. MIXED

42) A learning organization is an organization skilled at creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge, and at modifying its behaviour to reflect: A) conservative views and news. B) traditional standards and values. C) new knowledge and insights. D) contemporary attitudes and norms. E) the skills of its employees.

C. NEW KNOWLEDGE AND INSIGHTS

50) To overcome the record number of rejections of relocation offers, companies are: A) paying moving expenses. B) increasing financial incentives. C) offering spousal support through career transition programs. D) offering additional perquisites. E) increasing salaries

C. OFFERING SPOUSAL SUPPORT THROUGH CAREER TRANSITION PROGRAMS

56) Most interviews are administered: A) on a standard evaluation form. B) simultaneously by a group. C) one on one. D) simultaneously by several candidates. E) by computers.

C. ONE ON ONE

27) A number of tests commonly used in selection can conveniently be classified according to whether they measure each of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A) general intellectual abilities. B) monitoring oneʹs own emotions. C) personal attractiveness and suitability. D) motor and physical abilities. E) memory.

C. PERSONAL ATTRACTIVENESS AND SUITABILITY

73) Toward the end of the interview, time should be allotted to do all of the following EXCEPT: A) Answer any questions the candidate may have. B) Advocate for the firm, if appropriate. C) Politely advise a candidate if it has been determined that he or she will not be given further consideration. D) Thank the interviewee. E) Advocate for the position, if appropriate.

C. POLITELY ADVISE A CANDIDATE IF IT HAS BEEN DETERMINED THAT HE OR SHE WILL NOT BE GIVEN FURTHER CONSIDERATION

20) Some employers evaluate the progress and development of their supervisory employees via the use of a narrative form of appraisal. One example of the form that is used is called the: A) performance discussion plan. B) essay form. C) performance improvement plan. D) critical incident method. E) assessment method.

C. Performance improvement plan

54) The subsection of the job description that describes contact with others, inside and outside the organization, is titled: A) working conditions. B) authority. C) relationships. D) job identification. E) job summary.

C. RELATIONSHIPS

16) The consistency of scores obtained by a person when he or she is retested on the identical test or an equivalent version is an example of: A) criterion-related reliability. B) validity. C) reliability. D) content validity. E) construct validity.

C. RELIABILITY

44) You are the Director of Human Resources at a software development firm. With respect to the position of software developer the disadvantage of using the group interview job analysis method is: A) it is a good method when the survey sample is widely scattered. B) it focuses more on reality than on perceptions. C) reliability/validity tends to be high. D) highly detailed information can be collected over the entire job cycle. E) it is relatively inexpensive.

C. RELIABILITY/VALIDITY TENDS TO BE HIGH

67) The employerʹs role in university-related programs increasingly involves granting technical and professional employees extended periods of time off for attending a college or university to pursue a higher degree or to upgrade skills. This employer support is called a(n): A) vacation. B) upgrade program. C) sabbatical. D) leave without pay. E) professional leave.

C. SABBATICAL

61) A physical demands analysis identifies: A) senses used and amount of mental effort involved in the job. B) the work environment. C) senses used, and the type, frequency and amount of physical effort involved in the job. D) mental/emotional demands involved in the job. E) type and frequency of motions used.

C. SENSES USED, AND THE TYPE, FREQUENCY AND AMOUNT OF PHYSICAL EFFORT INVOLVED IN THE JOB

50) Asking an applicant how he or she would handle a situation where his/her manager assigned work with competing deadlines would be an example of which interview technique? A) structured B) behavioural C) situational D) nondirective E) stress

C. SITUATIONAL

40) In column three of a task analysis record form the standards of performance should be: A) randomly selected. B) as loose as possible. C) stated in measurable terms. D) tightly woven. E) estimated.

C. STATED IN MEASURABLE TERMS

16) Training is part of an organizationʹs: A) business plan. B) immediate plan. C) strategic plan. D) business need. E) tactical plan.

C. STRATEGIC PLAN

75) Significant benefits to hiring and retaining older employees include: A) the opportunity to develop flexible work options. B) their knowledge of history-how things were done. C) their strong work ethic. D) the opportunity to invest in retraining. E) none of the above.

C. STRONG WORK ETHIC

24) Which of the following statements about selection testing is true? A) Testing is more prevalent in small organizations. B) The use of tests has been declining in recent years. C) Studies have shown that approximately two-thirds of Canadian organizations use tests for hiring. D) Personality and aptitude tests are not commonly used for selection purposes. E) Selection testing generally involves a demonstration of skills.

C. STUDIES HAVE SHOWN THAT APPROXIMATELY TWO-THIRDS OF CANADIAN ORGANIZATIONS USE TESTS FOR HIRING

43) The learning organization depends on experimentation, which means: A) observing labour market trends. B) exploitative data of primary research. C) systematic searching for, and testing of, new knowledge. D) intuitive guesswork of research data. E) random testing of information.

C. SYSTEMATIC SEARCHING FOR, AND TESTING OF, NEW KNOWLEDGE

70) A hiring manager asks the following question in an interview ʺThis position requires someone skilled in dispute resolution. This is skill you possess isnʹt it?ʺ This is an example of the interviewing mistake known as: A) contrast error. B) snap judgments. C) telegraphing. D) halo effect. E) similar to me bias.

C. TELEGRAPHING

46) A qualitative approach to job analysis is more suitable when: A) the organization has limited time and financial resources. B) the organization is using external consultants for job analysis purposes. C) the aim is to assign a value to each job for comparisons for pay purposes. D) the aim is to reduce the amount of data collection. E) the organization exceeds 200 in staff strength.

C. THE AIM IS TO ASSIGN A VALUE TO EACH JOB FOR COMPARISONS FOR PAY PURPOSES

38) A career-planning workbook underlines the employeeʹs responsibility to initiate: A) self-assessment activity. B) career workshops. C) the career-development process. D) lifelong learning. E) environmental assessment.

C. THE CAREER-DEVELOPMENT PROCESS

35) Which of the following should be addressed in a job analysis questionnaire? A) job enrichment B) job rotation C) the general purpose of the job D) skill variety E) individual competencies

C. THE GENERAL PURPOSE OF THE JOB

6) Girish is the owner of a software development firm with 60 employees. He wishes to implement a formal testing program which measures work related traits and behaviours. Which of the following do you recommend he implement? A) the Wonderlic Personnel Text B) a computerized testing program C) The Predictive Index D) panel interviews E) There is no such tool.

C. THE PREDICTIVE INDEX

22) Which of the following is true of preliminary applicant screening? A) It involves eliminating candidates lacking the ʺnice to haveʺ selection criteria. B) It may involve selection testing. C) The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular at this stage of the selection process. D) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the line managers. E) It may involve candidate interviews.

C. THE USE OF TECHNOLOGY IS BECOMING INCREASINGLY POPULAR AT THIS STAGE OF THE SELECTION PROCESS

71) There are several specific common-sense considerations in establishing any incentive plan. Of primary importance is: A) line of sight. B) goal setting. C) superior business results. D) pay-for-performance plans. E) relationship building.

A) line of sight

58) The great challenge of competency -based pay is: A) measurement of skills, abilities and competencies. B) determining base pay. C) competency definition. D) educational levels of employees. E) determining bonuses.

A) measurement of skills, abilities and competencies.

19) An examination of human resources records may reveal all of the following EXCEPT: A) occupational segregation. B) people who already have the requisite KSAs. C) persons with the potential to move into the vacant position if given some additional training. D) underemployment. E) employees who are working in jobs below their education or skill levels.

A) occupational segregation.

54) The following are reasons why merit pay plans can backfire EXCEPT: A) only pay (or other rewards) tied directly to performance can motivate improved performance. B) supervisors often tend to minimize differences in employee performance when computing merit raises. C) almost every employee thinks that he or she is an above-average performer, thus being paid a below-average merit increase can be demoralizing. D) supervisors often tend to minimize differences in employee performance when computing merit raises, to ensure that everyone gets a raise of at least the cost of living. E) the usefulness of the merit pay plan depends on the validity of the performance appraisal system-if performance appraisals are viewed as unfair, so too will the merit pay that is based on them.

A) only pay (or other rewards) tied directly to performance can motivate improved performance

68) To date, the evidence regarding the actual effects of employer -sponsored child care on employee absenteeism, turnover, productivity, recruitment, or job satisfaction is: A) positive, with respect to reducing obstacles in coming to work and improving workersʹ attitudes. B) negative, in respect to employeesʹ attitudes. C) neutral, with some positive and some negative effects. D) positive, with respect to increasing obstacles in coming to work. E) positive, without consideration of obstacles or attitudes toward work.

A) positive, with respect to reducing obstacles in coming to work and improving workersʹ attitudes.

37) Corporate career Web sites: A) provide a platform that promotes the corporate brand. B) educate the applicant about the industry. C) provide details about the human resource planning. D) capture data about the organization. E) provide links to company advertisements.

A) provide a platform that promotes the corporate brand.

26) The job evaluation method that rates each job relative to all other jobs, usually based on some overall factor like ʺjob difficulty,ʺ is the: A) ranking method. B) classification method. C) critical incidence method. D) point method plan. E) factor comparison method.

A) ranking method.

36) In a profit-sharing plan, each participant gets a bonus based on the companyʹs results: A) regardless of the participantʹs actual effort. B) adjusted for their departmentʹs results. C) factored together with the participantʹs actual effort. D) combined with no other hard-and-fast rules. E) combined with the individual effort and performance of each manager.

A) regardless of the participant's actual effort

15) The amount of time off provided for bereavement leave varies by jurisdiction, and also depends on: A) the closeness of the relationship between the employee and the deceased. B) the location of the funeral. C) the employeeʹs length of service. D) family circumstances. E) the reason for the death.

A) the closeness of the relationship between the employee and the deceased.

37) The list of specific duties and skills required on the job, which are used in determining the training required for performing the job, are found in: A) job descriptions and job specifications. B) equal access and affirmative action. C) job instruction and on-the-job training. D) job standards and specialization. E) performance standards.

A. JOB DESCRIPTIONS AND JOB SPECIFICATIONS

6) The process of systematically organizing work into tasks is involved in: A) job design. B) writing job descriptions. C) job analysis. D) job evaluation. E) organizational design

A. JOB DESIGN

25) It is suggested that training programs are designed to facilitate the transfer of learning from the training site to the: A) job site. B) traineeʹs examination paper. C) vestibule school. D) trainee. E) classroom.

A. JOB SITE

60) The document that results from an examination of the duties and responsibilities and answering the question, ʺWhat human traits and experience are required to do this job?ʺ is the: A) job specification. B) position description. C) job description. D) job evaluation. E) position analysis questionnaire.

A. JOB SPECIFICATION

15) Development is training of a: A) long-term nature. B) technical nature. C) specific strategic nature. D) immediate nature. E) short-term nature.

A. LONG-TERM NATURE

39) In a task analysis record form, the task list defines the jobs: A) main tasks and subtasks. B) supplementary tasks. C) primary tasks. D) secondary tasks. E) supplemental tasks.

A. MAIN TASKS AND SUBTASKS

79) The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid predictors and weighting them through statistical methods such as multiple regression is called: A) statistical strategy. B) clinical strategy. C) multiple-evaluation approach. D) multiple-hurdle strategy. E) benchmark approach.

A. STATISTICAL STRATEGY

2) Young is the new Director of Human resources at a consulting engineering company. She wishes to implement career management initiatives and has been asked by the CEO why this would be of benefit to the business. She should respond as follows: A) this increases employee commitment. B) this assists directly in human resource planning. C) this reduces turnover and increases employee commitment. D) this reduces turnover. E) this promotes compliance with employment equity laws.

C. THIS REDUCES TURNOVER AND INCREASES EMPLOYEE COMMITMENT

66) The employerʹs role in university-related programs often involves the provision of an incentive for employees to develop job-related skills. This incentive often takes the form of: A) lavish prizes. B) cash. C) tuition refunds. D) paid leave of absence. E) exotic job assignments.

C. TUITION REFUNDS

52) Rating committees are usually composed of the employeeʹs immediate supervisor and: A) that supervisorʹs boss. B) three or four peers. C) three or four other supervisors. D) that supervisorʹs boss and a customer. E) other supervisors and peers.

C. Three or four other supervisors

44) Learning organizations engage in the following activities EXCEPT: A) experimentation. B) learning from experience. C) unsystematic problem solving. D) transferring knowledge. E) learning from others.

C. UNSYSTEMATIC PROBLEM SOLVING

59) Organizations that have implemented 360 -degree appraisal have the following advice for those considering it EXCEPT: A) plan to evaluate the system for fine tuning. B) be clear about who will have access to reports. C) use standard questionnaires. D) assure all raters that their comments will be kept anonymous. E) provide training for supervisors, raters and ratees.

C. Use standard questionnaires

19) The following are personality types that John Holland found through his research, EXCEPT: A) social orientation. B) investigative orientation. C) vocational orientation. D) realistic orientation. E) enterprising orientation.

C. VOCATIONAL ORIENTATION

34) Appraisal systems must be based on performance criteria that are ________ for the position being rated, and ________ in that their application must produce consistent ratings for the same performance. A) valid, measurable B) measurable, valid C) valid, reliable D) reliable, reliable E) reliable, valid

C. Valid, reliable

29) Another way to categorize jobs, other than using class descriptions, when undertaking the job classification method is to: A) assign points to compensable factors. B) rank jobs by compensable factors. C) draw up a set of classifying rules. D) rank jobs against one another. E) rank jobs from lowest to highest.

C. draw up a set of classifying rules

27) The first step in the job analysis process is: A) selecting the representative jobs and positions to be analyzed. B) reviewing relevant background information about positions and jobs. C) developing a job description and job specification. D) identifying the use to which the information will be put. E) designing a job analysis questionnaire.

D. IDENTIFYING THE USE TO WHICH THE INFORMATION WILL BE PUT

65) ʺBest practicesʺ when dealing with defensive employees include: A) never back down. B) using intimidation to convince. C) solve all problems quickly. D) recognize that defensive behaviour is normal. E) explain the personʹs behaviour to them.

D. Recognize that defensive behaviour is normal

43) The following are ways to minimize the impact of appraisal problems such as bias and central tendency EXCEPT: A) be sure to understand the problem in order to prevent it. B) be familiar with the typical rating errors that can undermine rating scale appraisals. C) train supervisors to eliminate rating errors. D) refrain from confusing the employee by including him/her in the rating and evaluation process. E) choose the right appraisal tool.

D. Refrain from confusing the employee by including him/her in the rating and evaluation process

30) According to Schein, graduates who are mostly concerned with long-run career stability have a career anchor of: A) creativity. B) managerial competence. C) autonomy and independence. D) security. E) technical and functional.

D. SECURITY

36) An activity during a career planning workshop in which individual employees actively analyze their own career interests, skills, and career anchors is called a: A) peer job evaluation appraisal. B) testing appraisal. C) career performance appraisal. D) self-assessment activity. E) supervisor appraisal.

D. SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY

28) Motor abilities a firm might want to measure include all of the following EXCEPT: A) finger dexterity. B) speed of arm movement. C) reaction time. D) spacial visualization. E) manual dexterity.

D. SPACIAL VISUALIZATION

26) The following are advantages of the behaviourally anchored rating scale appraisal method EXCEPT: A) clearer standards. B) specific feedback for supervisors to give employees. C) a more accurate measure. D) specific forced behavioural dimensions. E) consistency.

D. Specific forced behavioural dimensions

34) A technique for determining the training needs of newly-hired employees is: A) testing. B) observations. C) performance analysis. D) task analysis. E) personnel records.

D. TASK ANALYSIS

21) A personʹs aptitudes, such as intelligence and mathematical ability, are often measured with: A) talent testing. B) intelligence testing. C) an essay on their most enjoyable occupational task. D) the general aptitude test battery. E) career testing.

D. THE GENERAL APTITUDE TEST BATTERY

21) All of the following statements are true EXCEPT: A) Selection testing is a common screening device to assess specific job-related skills. B) Completing an application form is often part of the online application process. C) Initial applicant screening involves eliminating candidates lacking the ʺmust haveʺ selection criteria. D) The selection process is a one-way street. E) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the HR Dept.

D. THE SELECTION PROCESS IS A ONE WAY STREET

41) All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a step in the selection process EXCEPT: A) to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position. B) to reduce absenteeism and accidents. C) to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims. D) to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical disability that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties. E) There are no exceptions listed above.

D. TO PROVIDE DOCUMENTATION TO JUSTIFY NOT HIRING A QUALIFIED INDIVIDUAL WITH A PHYSICAL DISABILITY THAT WOULD PREVENT HIM OR HER FROM PERFORMING THE ESSENTIAL JOB DUTIES

32) To reduce the risk of negligent training accusations, an employer should: A) accept all applicants for training programs. B) hire consultants to do training. C) never change the training program content. D) train all employees who work with dangerous equipment, materials, or processes. E) offer basic training programs only.

D. TRAIN ALL EMPLOYEES WHO WORK WITH DANGEROUS EQUIPMENT, MATERIALS, OR PROCESSES

26) By comparing the knowledge, skills and abilities that employees bring to the job with those that are identified through job analysis, managers can determine the gap that exists. This is particularly useful for: A) establishing recruitment criteria. B) designing the job. C) determining a jobʹs pay range. D) training and development. E) union negotiations.

D. TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT

63) When conducting the appraisal interview the following should be kept in mind EXCEPT: A) encourage the person to talk. B) develop an action plan. C) be direct and specific. D) talk in generalities. E) donʹt get personal.

D. Talk in generalities

29) The legal aspects of training may require showing that the admissions procedures are: A) external. B) reviewed regularly. C) invalid. D) valid. E) reliable.

D. VALID

58) A training technique in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on-the-job, but the trainees are actually trained off-the-job, is known as: A) off-the-job training. B) on-the-job training. C) actual training. D) vestibule or simulated training. E) programmed learning.

D. VESTIBULE OR SIMULATED TRAINING

3) To clarify performance expectations, ________ should be developed. A) an HR strategy B) a business plan C) strategic objectives D) measurable standards E) a list of traits

D. measurable standards

9) Strategic selection is important for the following reasons: A) the time and costs involved. B) the budget required and legal implications. C) the employment equity plan. D) the costs involved, impact on performance, and legal implications. E) ethical reasons.

D.THE COSTS INVOLVED, IMPACT ON PERFORMANCE, AND LEGAL IMPLICATIONS

13) The Employment Insurance Act provides unemployment benefits varying by region and other factors for up to ________ weeks. A) 18 B) 26 C) 30 D) 52 E) 45

E) 45

24) You are a recruiter for a telecommunications company. When recruiting for the position of Director of Customer Service which of the following would not account for why you would recruit externally? A) Creative problem-solving techniques may be acquired. B) Rivalry and competition between employees may be eliminated. C) Employment equity goals and timetables may be met. D) The quality of the selection decision may be better. E) Qualified employees have a chance for promotion.

E) Qualified employees have a chance for promotion.

72) All of the following statements about temporary help agencies are true EXCEPT: A) Temps cost much less than permanent employees. B) Firms may use temporary employees to handle special projects for which there are no current employees with time and/or expertise. C) Temporary agencies provide supplemental workers. D) If a temp performs unsatisfactorily, a substitute can generally be sent within one business day. E) Temps are generally well paid.

E) Temps are generally well paid.

60) Situations in which an employer may use an employment agency for candidate recruitment include all of the following EXCEPT: A) difficulty in generating a pool of qualified job candidates for this type of position in the past. B) the need to fill an open position quickly. C) the organization does not have an HR department. D) lack of an internal HR department. E) a perceived need to attract a more homogeneous pool of applicants.

E) a perceived need to attract a more homogeneous pool of applicants.

60) Non-salary items that professional employees need in order to do their best work include the following EXCEPT: A) support for professional journal publications. B) supportive management. C) modern equipment. D) up-to-date facilities. E) bonuses.

E) bonuses

6) When job openings arise unexpectedly these openings are identified by: A) determining the job requirements. B) building a pool of candidates. C) human resources planning. D) manager request. E) choosing the appropriate recruitment source(s) and method(s).

E) choosing the appropriate recruitment source(s) and method(s).

61) The following are personal services that most employees need at one time or another EXCEPT: A) employee assistance plans. B) credit unions. C) social/recreational opportunities. D) counseling. E) clerical services.

E) clerical services

25) External recruitment often results in: A) the generation of a homogeneous pool of applicants. B) rivalry and competition among employees. C) problems in meeting employment equity goals. D) higher costs due to extensive training. E) cost savings due to less extensive training.

E) cost savings due to less extensive training.

23) Critical illness insurance provides: A) a deductible expense per year that gives money for expensive new drugs. B) coverage for prescription drugs. C) coverage providing a fixed lump-sum benefit in addition to life insurance benefits when death is accidental. D) money to an employee paid in incrementals for critical illness. E) coverage providing a lump-sum benefit to an employee who is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness.

E) coverage providing a lump-sum benefit to an employee who is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness.

22) Job evaluation is mostly a judgmental process which requires close cooperation and input from the following EXCEPT: A) supervisors. B) employees. C) compensation specialists. D) union representatives. E) customer responses.

E) customer responses.

70) Reasons why incentive plans do not work include the following EXCEPT: A) performance pay cannot replace good management. B) rewards may undermine responsiveness. C) rewards rupture relationships. D) pay is not a motivator. E) firms do not get what they pay for.

E) firms do not get what they pay for

6) Work/life programs help employees do their jobs effectively using: A) recognition programs. B) advancement opportunities. C) vacation and holidays. D) employer-paid insurance. E) flexible scheduling and childcare.

E) flexible scheduling and childcare.

2) Outsourcing benefits administration to a third-party expert has the following advantage(s): A) reduced cost and enhanced service. B) increased employee understanding of benefits. C) reduced cost. D) fewer benefit claims. E) greater efficiency and consistency, and enhanced service.

E) greater efficiency and consistency, and enhanced service.

67) One feature of the Scanlon plan is a focus on employee involvement, which means the companyʹs mission or purpose must be clearly articulated and employees must fundamentally understand how the business operates in terms of customers, prices, and costs. This is referred to as: A) involvement system. B) evaluation of the system. C) entitlement. D) competence. E) identity.

E) identity

70) Job fair events would not allow: A) top prospects to be invited to visit the firm at a later date. B) recruiters to share information about the organization. C) computer technology can be used; some job fairs are held on-line. D) recruiters to share job opportunities in an informal, relaxed setting. E) in-depth assessment of candidates

E) in-depth assessment of candidates

12) Recruiters must try to meet the prevailing standards while dealing with: A) organizational policies. B) environmental factors. C) the job specifications. D) recruiter preferences. E) inducements of competitors.

E) inducements of competitors.

37) Wage surveys undertaken by the human resources department may collect other data which would include the following EXCEPT: A) sick leave benefits. B) vacation time. C) employee benefits. D) insurance benefits. E) industry demand

E) industry demand

61) All of the following are common interviewing mistakes EXCEPT: A) poor knowledge of job. B) too little talking. C) making snap judgments. D) poor planning. E) asking discriminatory questions.

E. ASKING DISCRIMINATORY QUESTIONS

28) People who are driven by the need to be on their own, free of the dependence that can arise when working in a large organization where promotions, transfers, and salary decisions make them subordinate to others, have a career anchor of: A) creativity. B) technical and functional. C) managerial competence. D) security. E) autonomy and independence.

E. AUTONOMY AND INDEPENDENCE

29) Consultants, professors of business, freelance writers, and proprietors of small retail businesses tend to be identified with the career anchor of: A) creativity and intuition. B) technical and functional. C) security. D) managerial competence. E) autonomy and independence.

E. AUTONOMY AND INDEPENDENCE

42) The purpose of pre-employment substance abuse testing is to: A) determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position. B) address absenteeism. C) test mental abilities. D) reduce accidents. E) avoid hiring employees who would pose unnecessary risks to themselves or others

E. AVOID HIRING EMPLOYEES WHO WOULD POSE UNNECESSARY RISKS TO THEMSELVES OR OTHERS

22) An appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative, critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good or poor performance is called the: A) graphic rating scale method. B) paired narrative-quantitative method. C) critical incident method. D) anchored narrative-quantitative method. E) behaviourally anchored rating scale method.

E. Behaviourally anchored rating scale method

4) Maria is the Vice President of Operations for a company in the retail industry. She has 10 store managers and 200 associates. The associates report to the store managers and they in turn report to Maria. Management has a decentralized approach towards individual stores. This company has the structure of a: A) hierarchical organization. B) boundaryless organization. C) decentralized organization. D) bureaucratic organization. E) flat organization.

E. FLAT ORGANIZATION

34) An HR department engaged in a job analysis exercise is conducting interviews with employees who hold the same job. Which type of interview is the HR department using? A) checklist interview B) supervisory interview C) structured interview D) individual interview E) group interview

E. GROUP INTERVIEW

49) A recent study of 92 real employment interviews found that the interviewers using ________ of structure in the interview process evaluated applicantʹs ________ than those who used unstructured interviews. A) high levels; more favourably B) low levels; less favourably C) mixed levels; less favourably D) mixed levels; more favourably E) high levels; less favourably

E. HIGH LEVELS; LESS FAVOURABLY

68) A written warning to an employee with poor performance should include the following EXCEPT: A) indicate that the employee had an opportunity to correct their behaviour. B) identify standards under which the employee is judged. C) specify any violation of the standards. D) make it clear the employee was aware of the standards. E) specify that 360-degree appraisal will be used in future.

E. Specify that 360-degree appraisal will be used in future

15. One weakness of skill-based pay programs is that a. employees may "top out", or learn all the skills available. b. team performance can be difficult to evaluate. c. earnings vary from year to year. d. individuals do not always have control over factors that affect productivity. e. equity problems could arise if all members are paid equally.

16. Terry likes to see a direct connection between her performance and the compensation she receives each year. Terry prefers a a. merit-based pay program. b. seniority-based pay program. c. inflation-based pay program. d. variable pay program. e. profit sharing pay program.

17. According to the equity theory, if you pay an individual an hourly rate, overpaying this individual will result in greater output. a. True b. False

18. Profit-sharing plans share company profit based on a. past financial results. b. monthly expectations. c. individual performance results. d. future financial results. e. projected financial results.

19. A negative instrumentality indicates that high performance reduces the chances of getting a desired outcome. a. True b. False

19. According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating? a. when it is substantially satisfied b. it never stops motivating c. when one returns to a lower level need d. when a higher level need comes into focus e. when too many other needs come into focus.

19. According to expectancy theory, for employees to be motivated a. performance must be directly linked to rewards. b. their compensation must be incremental. c. they can expect to work less but still find financial benefits. d. rewards are irrelevant and performance is the key driver for motivation. e. performance must be indirectly linked to rewards.

2. Factors that motivate depend on the individual and the situation the individual is in. a. True b. False

21. Research suggests that the level of commitment and financial incentives affect whether goals are achieved. a. True b. False

24. Variable-pay programs are consistent with expectancy theory predictions; expectancy theory perceives a strong relationship between performance and a. rewards. b. productivity. c. stock options. d. salary. e. seniority.

26. For the individual employee, MBO provides a. specific, personal performance objectives. b. increased monetary compensation. c. communication between co-workers. d. a means to an end. e. a way to keep the company accountable.

26. To increase employees' perception of procedural justice, managers should consider openly sharing information the process they follow when allocating rewards and work assignments. a. True b. False

27. Operant conditioning assumes behaviour is influenced by the consequences of the behaviour. a. True b. False

27. ROWE stands for a. Results-Only Work Environment. b. Recognition Organization Work Environment. c. Realistic Organizational Work Expectancies. d. Results-Only Work Expectancies. e. Rational Organizational Work Environment.

28. Michealson suggests that researchers have a moral obligation to make workplaces better for employees. a. True b. False

29. A spontaneous and private "thank you," or a "bragging board," are examples of a. employee recognition programs. b. intrinsic employee reward systems. c. union-sponsored recognition programs. d. gainsharing and profit-sharing programs. e. motivation theories.

29. Goal commitment and financial incentives affect whether goals are achieved. a. True b. False

30. Last month a company produced 1000 items/10,000 person hours and this month they produced 1000 items/9,000 person hours. Dividing the productivity savings between company and employees is an example of a. gainsharing. b. profit sharing. c. a piece-rate plan. d. a variable-pay plan. e. recognition program savings.

31. When extrinsic rewards are given to someone for performing an interesting task, it causes intrinsic interest in the task itself to decline. a. True b. False

36. Bikram, a recent B.Eng. (engineer), has started his first job with an engineering firm; Bikram uses a self-outside comparison to determine if the company is treating him fairly. Bikram will compare his treatment to a. his experience as a work study student b. a fellow male B.Eng recently hired by the firm c. a fellow female B.Eng hired by the firm two years ago d. a fellow female B.Eng recently hired by another firm e. a woman with an M.Sc. hired with Bikram for the same department

36. Latin American managers have stronger belief that their employees are motivated by intrinsic factors. a. True b. False

38. Employees in a country that values individualism would likely prefer the reward of a. stock options. b. maternity leave programs. c. career-break schemes. d. flexible benefit. e. skill-based pay.

39. The most important thing to John after 15 years with the same company is his job title and public recognition. This indicates that he is at the esteem stage of Maslow's hierarchy. a. True b. False

40. The most important job-related issue for Diane is an easy commute to work. This is known as a hygiene factor according to Hertzberg. a. True b. False

41. Mike has a tendency to try to intimidate his employees, believing that they are best motivated by fear. This is consistent with Theory X. a. True b. False

42. Sam and his assistant Kim recently sat down to collectively set tangible performance goals for her. This is a key aspect of MBO. a. True b. False

42. Within the framework of the equity theory, if an employee perceives iniquitous treatment and decides to exert less effort, what choice have they made? a. change their inputs b. change their outcomes c. adjust perceptions of self d. choose a different referent e. adjust perceptions of others

44. Tom is of the belief that the more effort that he puts into his job, the better he will perform. This is called expectancy. a. True b. False

45. Historically, equity theory focused on ________ justice. a. distributive b. procedural c. organizational d. interactional e. relative.

47. Kenneth Thomas identifies four key rewards that increase an individual's intrinsic motivation; they are a. sense of choice, sense of competence, sense of meaningfulness, sense of progress. b. sense of justice, sense of competence, sense of meaningfulness, sense of progress. c. sense of choice, sense of competence, sense of meaningfulness, sense of task. d. sense of choice, sense of competence, sense of meaningfulness, sense of justice. e. sense of choice, sense of judgment, sense of meaningfulness, sense of progress.

5. Profit sharing plans a. focus on past financial results. b. are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquires stock as part of their benefits. c. give employees the right to buy stock in the company at a later date for a guaranteed price d. focus on future financial results. e. give employees the right to buy stock in the company at a later date for the market price at that time.

51. An employee motivated by intrinsic rewards, would most likely choose a. ongoing opportunities for education and training. b. a company car. c. incentive bonuses. d. increased salary. e. generous employee benefits.

53. A call center operator who must answer calls as they come according to routine, highly scripted procedures is an example of low a. task identity. b. skill variety. c. autonomy. d. feedback. e. task significance.

54. Which of the following is suggested by cognitive evaluation theory? a. It would make sense to make an individual's pay non-contingent on performance. b. Employees are motivated by a hierarchy of needs. c. Extrinsic rewards increase intrinsic rewards. d. Needs are divided into higher-order and lower-order categories. e. It would make sense to make an individual's pay contingent on performance.

57. A home security system installer who schedules work for the day, makes visits without supervision, and decides the most effective system and techniques for each installation has a job that has a. high autonomy. b. high significance. c. high identity. d. high variety. e. high feedback.

13. Maslow's hierarchy of needs is arranged in which order? a. physiological, esteem, safety, social, and self-actualization b. physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization c. safety, physiological, esteem, social, and self-actualization d. physiological, social, safety, esteem, and self-actualization e. physiological, social, safety, self-actualization, and esteem

13. Paying a data entry clerk an hourly rate plus bonus per page is an example of a a. variable-pay plan. b. modified piece-rate plan. c. teamwork incentive plan. d. gainsharing plan. e. piece-rate plan.

14. The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an implicit time period, and performance feedback. a. True b. False

16. Herzberg's theory of needs assumes a link between satisfaction and productivity that was measured and demonstrated. a. True b. False

18. McClelland's theory tells us that individuals with a high need for achievement make good managers. a. True b. False

20. Difficult goals, when accepted, result in lower performance than do easy goals. a. True b. False

21. The needs for achievement, power, and affiliation are part of whose theory? a. Frederick Herzberg's b. David McClelland's c. Victor Vroom's d. Abraham Maslow's e. Douglas McGregor's

22. In general, organizational citizenship behaviour is motivated more by extrinsic rewards, than intrinsic rewards. a. True b. False

22. What are the three core groups of needs in the ERG theory? a. existence, external, growth b. relatedness, growth, existence c. existence, reliability, growth d. external, growth, reliability e. reliability, external, growth

23. Extrinsic rewards include challenging projects, autonomy, recognition, and opportunity for additional training. a. True b. False

25. An employee low in self-efficacy is likely to increase their effort when given negative feedback. a. True b. False

26. Bonuses reward _________ behaviour, rather than historical performance and are ________ rewards rather than ongoing entitlements. a. intrinsic, current b. recent, one-time c. extrinsic, one-time d. innovative, current e. innovative, intrinsic

27. The research on ESOP's indicates a. CEO's with ESOP plans are more likely to lie to affect stock price. b. ESOP's positively affect employee satisfaction but the effect on performance is unclear. c. ESOP's positively affect profit growth for a company, but don't necessarily improve net profit. d. ESOP's negatively affect employee satisfaction but positively effect performance. e. ESOP's positively affect revenues per employee but have a negative affect on job satisfaction on employees.

30. Cognitive evaluation theory is concerned with whether individuals perceive that rewards are distributed in a fair and equitable manner. a. True b. False

32. Cognitive evaluation theory argues that extrinsic rewards increase intrinsic motivation. a. True b. False

37. Harry is motivated by salary increases, promotions and benefits packages. Thus, he is motivated by intrinsic rewards. a. True b. False

40. An example of a country where employees would prefer social benefits as rewards is a. Greece. b. the Netherlands. c. United Kingdom. d. Australia. e. Portugal.

43. Yvonne made sure that the salary increases for her staff were perceived as fair in the amount given to each employee and fair in the process of distributing the increases. This is known as interactional justice. a. True b. False

44. If a hard-working athlete or student with modest abilities consistently outperforms a more gifted, but lazy student, this indicates that a. if both ability and motivation are inadequate, performance will be negatively affected. b. if either ability or motivation is inadequate, performance will be negatively affected. c. if either ability or compensation is inadequate, performance will be negatively affected. d. if either ability or motivation is inadequate, performance will be positively affected. e. if both ability and motivation are inadequate, performance will be positively affected.

45. Xavier is considered to be a sensitive manager when it comes to the issues facing his employees on a personal level. This means that he scores high with them in terms of distributive justice. a. True b. False

46. Carefully matching people to their jobs and giving them the opportunity to try new jobs is an example of creating a more motivating work environment by a. encouraging collaboration b. enhancing content c. providing the opportunity to perform d. providing choice e. enhancing autonomy.

48. Kerry was happy with recent changes to her job. She now has more freedom, independence, and responsibility, as she now is able to complete all seven steps of assembly by herself. She also inspects her product to ensure it is functioning. This is an example of a. job rotation. b. job enrichment. c. job security. d. job sharing. e. job evaluation.

50. The JCM is well researched and evidence supports that there is a multiple set of a. task variety. b. job characteristics. c. task identity. d. task significance. e. skill variety.

50. Which of the following set of four behaviours has Kenneth Thomas identified as ones that can build intrinsic rewards for their employees? a. leading for choice, leading for justice, leading for meaningfulness, and leading for progress b. leading for choice, leading for competence, leading for meaningfulness, and leading for progress c. leading for passion, leading for competence, leading for meaningfulness, and leading for progress d. leading for choice, leading for competence, leading for meaningfulness, and leading for satisfaction

51. Nursing the sick in a hospital intensive care unit is an example of a. high feedback. b. high task significance. c. high task identity. d. high autonomy. e. high skill variety.

52. As Gail has gained more experience as a customer service representative in a bank, she has been given more freedom to complete transactions for clients by herself and she has been given more responsibilities for planning her training courses and skill development. Gail is experiencing a. job design. b. job enrichment. c. job rotation. d. job satisfaction. e. job enlargement.

54. A cabinet maker who designs a piece of furniture, selects the wood, builds the object and finishes it to perfection is an example of high a. autonomy. b. task identity. c. task significance. d. skill variety. e. feedback.

55. Jobs that are high on motivating potential must be high on both a. creativity and responsibility. b. autonomy and feedback. c. compensation and responsibility. d. variety and potential. e. idealism and responsibility.

6. The main theories of motivation fall into one of two categories: needs theories and justice theories. a. True b. False

61. Jason was a unique employee. He has a wide range of skills and gets frustrated when he doesn't get a chance to utilize them on the job. To motivate Jason, it is important that his job reflect a. autonomy. b. skill variety. c. security. d. teamwork. e. gainsharing.

62. Reinforcement theory allows managers to vary rewards and punishments based on a. time intervals and fixed schedules. b. time intervals and behaviour ratios. c. intermittent schedules and fixed intervals. d. continuous reinforcement behaviour intervals. e. intermittent schedules and .

64. Weekly paychecks are an example of what type of schedule of reinforcement? a. continuous b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-interval e. variable-ratio

65. According to the JCM, any job can be described in terms of five core dimensions a. motivational factors, performance outcomes, satisfaction, activities, and growth. b. skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy and feedback. c. meaningfulness, experience, outcomes, tasks, skill acquisition. d. collaboration, choice, evaluation, motivation and opportunity. e. skill variety, collaboration, outcomes, satisfaction and feedback.

68. When two or more people split a 40 hour a week job it is called a. job compression. b. job sharing. c. job rotation. d. telework. e. job expansion.

7. Taylor Inc. has different benefits plans for employees who are single parents as compared to those for single employees with no dependents. Specifically, single parents get additional disability insurance as well as life insurance. This type of benefit plan is known as a. core-plus. b. modular. c. flexible spending. d. cafeteria. e. secondary.

7. When hygiene factors are present, they usually lead to job satisfaction. a. True b. False

73. Job sharing is defined as the practice of a. having an employee share his or her experience with other employees. b. having two or more people split a 40-hour-a-week job. c. having an employee work at home for a portion of the week. d. having an employee report on the effectiveness of his or her performance. e. having two or more people working at the same time.

73. Zeke was a manager who believed that, in general, people disliked work; he believed people had to be forced or threatened with punishment to motivate them to work. Zeke believes in which of the following management theories? a. Theory Z b. Theory X c. Theory Y d. Theory Q e. Theory T

74. When a manager located in Vancouver reports to an executive in Toronto regarding work being done in Calgary, this is an example of a. job sharing. b. telework. c. job enriching. d. job friendly. e. satellite communication.

78. Which of the following is a process theory of motivation? a. equity theory b. expectancy theory c. needs theory d. hygiene theory e. ERG theory.

8. According to Alderfer, once an employee's existence needs are substantially satisfied, the employee moves on to his or her relatedness needs. a. True b. False

8. Chao has a lot of internal drive. His overall goal in life is to "be all that he can be" in all aspects of his life. Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is reflected in Tommy's attitude? a. social b. self-actualization c. physiological d. esteem e. safety.

80. Jason faced an uproar recently after his employees received their annual pay increases. The employees complained that the company didn't follow a fair process in awarding the increases. This is an example of a. distributive justice. b. procedural justice. c. interactional justice.

81. Ama Foods uses thank you cards to express gratitude to individuals and teams that have benefited the organization. This is an example of management providing a. extrinsic rewards. b. intrinsic rewards. c. gainsharing. d. skill-based compensation. e. flexible benefits.

82. The premise that higher level needs can emerge before lower level needs are met is part of a. Maslow's theory. b. ERG theory. c. process theory. d. expectancy theory. e. valence theory.

85. Employee involvement strategies try to increase an employee's a. distributive justice. b. organizational commitment. c. organizational rivalry. d. participative management. e. gainsharing.

Julie wishes to apply Maslow's hierarchy in her workplace. She is interested in how various employee needs are met by the organization. The organization will find that employees' self-actualization needs are the easiest to satisfy. a. True b. False

16. Which of the following would Herzberg classify as a hygiene factor? a. responsibility b. growth c. company policy d. achievement e. self-satisfaction.

17. A $5 employee bonus at the National Bank, awarded every time employees referred clients, was abandoned because a. it was too expensive. b. it was too difficult to track. c. it caused colleagues to compete against one another. d. there was not enough money. e. employees made too much money.

18. Herzberg investigated which of the following questions? a. What do people need from their jobs? b. What do people dislike about their jobs? c. What do people want from their jobs? d. What do people take from their jobs? e. What do people do at their jobs?

2. Kane was a manager who believed most employees worked only for money. He assumed that they disliked work, and as a result a. he lets employees choose their own goals. b. he allows employees to use discretion. c. he imposes strict controls. d. he makes extensive use of delegating authority. e. he allows employees to make decisions.

20. The financial meltdown of September 2008 may have been related to a. a failing global stock market. b. lack of proper accounting procedures within mortgage lending. c. bonus compensation strategies in mortgage lending. d. too few regulatory managers. e. an unrealistic need for profit.

20. The theory which asserts that motivation depends upon the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way, which in turn depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual, is called a. Herzberg's dual-factor theory. b. McClelland's three needs theory. c. Vroom's expectancy theory. d. Maslow's hierarchy of needs e. Alderfer's ERG theory.

23. In contrast to the hierarchy of needs theory, ERG theory suggests that a. no more than one need may be working at one time. b. lower-level needs must be satisfied before higher-level needs. c. more than one need may be working at the same time. d. ERG is less consistent with our knowledge of individual differences than other needs theories. e. interpersonal relationships are the most pressing need to be satisfied.

24. Which of the following is least important in goal-setting theory? a. goal difficulty b. goal specificity c. equity among co-workers d. feedback e. participation in goal setting

25. Management by objectives (MBO) emphasizes setting goals with the employee; according to MBO, goals should be a. easy to attain. b. approved by management. c. tangible, verifiable, measurable. d. easy to create and develop. e. general in nature.

28. Personally congratulating an employee in private for a good job is an example of a. managerial effectiveness. b. Maslow's hierarchy theory. c. employee recognition. d. Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory. e. expectant behaviour.

28. SMART stands for a. specific, measurable, attainable, reliable, and time-bound. b. specific, unfixed, attainable, results-oriented, and time-bound. c. specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and time-bound. d. equivocal, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and time-bound. e. specific, measurable, inaccessible, results-oriented, and time-bound.

37. When people perceive an imbalance in their outcome-input ratio relative to others a. an illegal situation is assumed. b. they expect to be promoted. c. tension is created. d. turnover is inevitable. e. goal setting needs to be renewed.

6. Frito-Lay Corporation ties its compensation for frontline operations managers to developing their skills in leadership, workforce development, and functional excellence. This is known as a. gainsharing. b. profit sharing. c. skill-based pay. d. merit-based pay. e. bonuses.

60. Don was in the habit of reprimanding employees when they arrived late for work. The second time an employee was late, he or she would be docked pay. Don is using which type of reinforcement? a. positive b. negative c. punishment d. extinction e. critical incident

69. Flextime is short for? a. flexible time off b. flexible employee schedules c. flexible work hours d. flexible variations at work e. flexible break times

70. The three categories of jobs identified as most appropriate to telecommuting are? a. routine information-handling tasks, public relations tasks, and repetitive tasks b. routine information-handling tasks, intricate tasks, and repetitive tasks c. routine information-handling tasks, mobile activities and professional/knowledge-related tasks d. routine information-handling tasks, managerial tasks, and service-related tasks e. routine information-handling tasks, routine tracking tasks, and routine organizational tasks

70. When Brock was recently deciding between two job offers, his decision came down to which offer reflected the better health insurance, pension plan, and safe working conditions. According to Maslow, which need level is he focusing on in his decision? a. esteem b. physiological c. safety d. social

72. ABC Inc. is well known as a company that uses a human relations approach; the company emphasizes nurtures creativity and self-control in its employees. This company was following a. Theory X. b. Theory Z. c. Theory Y. d. Theory T. e. Theory Q.

74. When dealing with his employees, Ted follows the practice of explicitly setting aside time to find out what kind of rewards each of his employees prefers and striving to offer these in the work environment He is likely following a. equity theory. b. goal-setting theory. c. expectancy theory. d. EKG theory. e. hygiene theory.

75. Based on her long experience as a manager, Stella was convinced that people exert higher levels of effort when the goals set out for them are challenging and specific. Stella appears to be an advocate of a. expectancy theory. b. equity theory. c. goal-setting theory. d. Theory Y. e. motivation-hygiene theory.

76. When an organization has employees who sit on the company's board of directors the company is increasing employee involvement through a. participative management. b. collaborative labour relations. c. representative participation. d. hierarchical participation. e. high power distance.

77. The premise that people learn how to behave to get something that they want or to avoid something that they don't want is called a. positive reinforcement. b. extinction. c. operant conditioning. d. continuous reinforcement. e. intermittent reinforcement.

79. Tonya was confused. In order to motivate Sam, one of her employees, she began to pay him for work that she knew he liked to do and for which he was previously not paid. However, she noticed that his overall level of motivation appeared to decrease. The motivation theory that best explains this example is a. operant conditioning. b. distributive justice. c. cognitive evaluation theory. d. Maslow theory. e. Theory X.

8. Gainsharing is a variable-pay program that is an incentive plan for a. individuals, where improvements in an individual's productivity, from one period to another, determine the amount awarded. b. all employees of the company, where employees gain when the company gains market share. c. workplace groups or departments, where improvements in group productivity, from one period to another, determine the amount shared. d. all employees of the company, where every employee gains when the company increases productivity. e. individuals, where an individual who accomplishes specific goals, receives a percentage of company profit.

82. Carol works for a tailor and she is being paid a fixed sum for each garment that she alters to customer specifications. Carol is receiving pay that is a. merit-based. b. skill-based. c. piece-rate. d. gainsharing. e. ESOP.

83. The concept that individuals with a high need for achievement prefer to work on tasks of moderate difficulty is consistent with a. ERG Theory. b. Maslow's theory. c. McClelland's theory. d. expectancy theory. e. valence theory.

84. People who work at baseball parks selling peanuts and soft drinks are typically paid according to a. salary. b. bonuses. c. piece rate. d. gainsharing. e. profit sharing.

1. Thinking of money as a motivator, expectancy theory mainly suggests that a. money plays no part in motivating employee behaviour. b. money is the only extrinsic motivator. c. individuals need to value the reward, whether it is money or something else, or it won't be motivational. d. individuals care little about the value of the reward but appreciate the gesture. e. the mere suggestion of more money will motivate employees.

c.individuals need to value the reward, whether it is money or something else, or it won't be motivational.

46. ________ justice is the perceived fairness of process used to determine the distribution of rewards. a. Distributive b. Interactional c. Organizational d. Procedural e. Relative.

52. According to Cognitive Evaluation Theory, providing incentive pay a. causes co-workers to compete with each other for rewards. b. encourages employees to perform at a higher level to balance the i/o ratio. c. changes the employee's perceptions of self. d. decreases employees' overall levels of intrinsic motivation. e. helps employees meet their need for achievement.

53. Which theory considers the issue of whether intrinsic and extrinsic motivators are independent? a. expectancy b. reinforcement c. equity d. cognitive evaluation e. goal-setting

56. Assigning goals appears to generate greater goal commitment in a. all cultures around the globe. b. in low individualism cultures. c. in low power distance cultures. d. in high power distance cultures. e. in high individualism cultures.

58. Flex time and telework grant employees a. low task identity. b. high task significance. c. high autonomy. d. low skill variety. e. low feedback.

63. Tina is a weak manager because when she trains people the reinforcement type she uses is a. positive reinforcement. b. fixed interval. c. fixed ratio. d. punishment. e. intermittent extinction.

75. Telework is defined as a. conducting business via technology. b. conducting job through smartphone outreach in your community. c. an arrangement where employees are encouraged to meet with clients via technology, rather than make face-to-face visits. d. an arrangement where employees work away from an office, connecting to work and office via technology. e. an arrangement where employees fax documents from home to office.

76. Harry was concerned about one of his best employees, Karen. She was great at what she did, but she was chronically late for work. To correct this, every time Karen wasn't late for work, he made a point of acknowledging it. Harry was utilizing a. intermittent reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. operant reinforcement. d. continuous reinforcement. e. variable reinforcement.

77. Participative management includes a. workers setting targets with co-workers. b. subordinates reporting to supervisors. c. workers participating as team leaders. d. subordinates sharing decision-making with immediate superiors. e. workers sitting on the board of directors.

78. Participative management is linked to a. Herzberg's hygiene. b. Herzberg's dissatisfaction scale. c. Theory X. d. Theory Y. e. McClelland's need for power.

79. Nunavut has had great difficulty finding doctors willing to commit to serving the territory for more than short periods of time. This problem could be solved by a. job enrichment. b. job redesign. c. job enlargement. d. job sharing. e. gainsharing.

85. An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task is known as a. self-fulfillment. b. self-respect. c. self-esteem. d. self-efficacy. e. self-starting.

69. Kelly, a single mother, recently re-entered the workforce in order to be able to pay for her most basic needs, namely food shelter and clothing for her and her son. According to Maslow, which need level was she trying to fulfill? a. self-actualization b. esteem c. safety d. social e. physiological

71. Don was a real "people person" so he was glad when his employer recently began to emphasize working in teams. Don enjoyed working with others as opposed to by himself. According to Maslow, which need level is motivating Don? a. esteem b. safety c. self-actualization d. physiological e. social

84. Tony was so concerned that his department's project be completed on time that he offered all of his employees a $100 bonus for each day that the project was completed ahead of schedule. This is an example of a. extinction. b. valence. c. variable reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. e. extrinsic reward.

5) Identifying which job requirements should be filled internally and which externally is most closely associated with: A) building a pool of candidates. B) choosing the appropriate recruitment method(s). C) a human resources requisition form. D) determining the job requirements. E) HR planning.

e. hr planning

64) A potential pitfall to using Executive Search Firms includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) they may present unpromising candidates to a client. B) they can be more interested in persuading the employer to hire any candidate. C) they tend to be more salespeople than they are professionals. D) they tend to focus only on persons currently looking for new positions. E) the time that must be spent explaining in detail the type of candidate required.

D) they tend to focus only on persons currently looking for new positions

7) The purpose of an SUB plan is: A) to supplement maternity leave. B) to facilitate an agreement between an employer and the employees. C) the result of collective bargaining. D) to supplement EI benefits by receiving a combined benefit closer to the actual working wage. E) to provide benefits separate from EI so that employees can better maintain their standard of living during periods of unemployment.

D) to supplement EI benefits by receiving a combined benefit closer to the actual working wage.

53) A provision in pension plans referring to the money contributed by the employer that has been placed in a pension fund and cannot be forfeited for any reason is: A) investing. B) stockholder equity. C) non-funding. D) vesting. E) bonding.

D) vesting.

51) Which of the following is considered an inexpensive recruitment method? A) employee referrals B) educational institutions C) walk-ins D) walk-ins and write-ins E) write-ins

D) walk-ins and write-ins

77) Renu, a recruiter at a sportswear retailer, has developed a job application form on which applicant responses have been weighted, based on their statistical relationship to measures of job success. The form she developed is known as a: A) weighted application form. B) statistical application form. C) biographical information blank. D) weighted application blank. E) selection test.

D) weighted application blank.

55) With skill/competency-based pay, employees are not paid for the job they currently hold, but instead for the following EXCEPT: A) types of skills. B) depth of skills. C) knowledge. D) years of experience. E) range of skills.

D) years of experience.

9) Workersʹ compensation is in effect a ________ insurance plan to help employees with work-related injuries or illnesses get well and return to work. A) pension B) bureaucratic C) guaranteed D) ʺno faultʺ E) ʺno costʺ

D) ʺno faultʺ

58) Professional employees almost always reach their positions through prolonged periods of: A) reference groups. B) political influence. C) work experience. D) formal study. E) informal networking.

D)formal study

38) One drawback to the split-award approach is that it pays too much to the marginal performer, who, even if his or her own performance is mediocre, at least gets the second, company -based bonus. One way to get around this would be to use the: A) lump-sum bonus method. B) group incentive plan. C) individual award system. D) multiplier method. E) individual bonus method.

D)multiplier method

25) Typically a critical incident is retained if some percentage (usually ________% to ________%) of the second group assigns it to the same cluster. A) 50; 50 B) 40; 90 C) 40; 80 D) 50; 80 E) 0; 100

D. 50; 80

64) In this off-the-job management development technique, teams of managers compete with one another by making decisions regarding realistic but simulated companies. This technique is called: A) action learning. B) a computerized case study. C) a computerized junior board. D) a computerized management game. E) a simulation exercise.

D. A COMPUTERIZED MANAGEMENT GAME

65) The traditional meaning of a ʺjobʺ as a set of well-defined responsibilities is changing. This is because: A) of reduced hierarchical structures. B) work is becoming more team based. C) employees are expected to adapt to changes infrequently. D) employees are expected to adapt to changes frequently. E) all of the above.

D. EMPLOYEES ARE EXPECTED TO ADAPT TO CHANGES FREQUENTLY

52) Canadian firms tend to routinely transfer employees less today than was the case 10 years ago. The general reasons for this change in practice is: A) the cost of transferring employees has increased. B) the cost of transferring employees has increased. C) the negative impact on diversity programs. D) employees are less willing to disrupt their family life and the cost of transferring employees has increased. E) the difficulty in finding employees to fill the transferred employeeʹs former position.

D. EMPLOYEES ARE LESS WILLING TO DISRPT THEIR FAMILY LIFE AND THE COST OF TRANSFERRING EMPLOYEES HAS INCREASED

21) Negligent training occurs when an employer: A) does not do a validation process. B) does not do a needs analysis. C) fails to develop an employee for long-term opportunity. D) fails to train adequately and an employee subsequently harms a third party. E) does not evaluate the training.

D. FAIL TO TRAIN ADEQUATELY AND AN EMPLOYEE SUBSEQUENTLY HARMS A THIRD PARTY

49) Transfer policies have fallen into disfavour partly because of the cost of relocating employees, and also because of the assumption that frequent transfers have a bad effect on the employeeʹs: A) emotional stability. B) financial responsibility. C) job performance. D) family life. E) job attitude.

D. FAMILY LIFE

74) Which of the following statements about reference checking is true? A) Women are more likely to lie on resumes than men. B) Only about 10 percent of resumes contain inaccurate information that will be discovered when checking references. C) Reference checking is generally not worthwhile. D) Firms are increasingly using reference-checking services to thoroughly check references. E) Letters of reference from former employers are viewed very positively.

D. FIRMS ARE INCREASINGLY USING REFERENCE-CHECKING SERVICES TO THOROUGHLY CHECK REFERENCES

3) Which of the following statements about organizational structures is true? A) Boundaryless organizations are good for top-down management style. B) There are four types of organizational structure. C) Bureaucratic designs are becoming more common. D) Flat structures are increasingly the norm. E) Emphasis on teams whose members cross organizational boundaries is a characteristic of flat structures.

D. FLAT STRUCTURES ARE INCREASINGLY THE NORM

8) In an office with one supervisor, one assistant, two clerks, and two data-entry operators, there are: A) four positions and six jobs. B) four jobs and four positions. C) four positions and four jobs. D) four jobs and six positions. E) six jobs and six positions.

D. FOUR JOBS AND SIX POSITIONS

24) According to Schein, people who had a strong technical/functional career anchor tended to avoid decisions that would drive them toward: A) specialized management. B) certified public accountancy. C) technical work. D) general management. E) mechanical engineering

D. GENERAL MANAGEMENT

6) The simplest and most popular technique for appraising employees is the: A) alternation ranking method. B) forced distribution method. C) critical incident method. D) graphic rating scale. E) paired comparison method.

D. Graphic rating scale

13) Integration at senior levels in the organization requires an ongoing process that can continue for months as the new executive learns about: A) performance appraisals. B) the organizational structure. C) socialization. D) how decisions are made and who holds what type of power. E) senior management.

D. HOW DECISIONS ARFE MADE AND WHO HOLDS WHAT TYPE OF POWER

36) The job analyst and supervisor should work together to: A) identify the top-performing employee, since he or she should be involved. B) answer the questionnaire. C) analyze the data collected from job analysis techniques. D) identify the employees who know the most about the job and are likely to be objective. E) prepare the job analysis questionnaire.

D. IDENTIFY THE EMPLOYEES WHO KNOW THE MOST ABOUT THE JOB AND ARE LIKELY TO BE OBJECTIVE

10) ________ influence the attractiveness of the job to potential applicants. A) Human resources plans B) Recruitment budgets C) Promote-from-within policies D) Employment status policies E) Compensation policies

) Compensation policies

48) To achieve optimum results from an ad, the ad should: A) tell people where to apply. B) create desire for the job. C) name whom to call. D) appear in the classified ads. E) none of the above.

) create desire for the job.

16) An effective way of spreading the word about job opportunities to current employees is: A) radio advertising. B) preparing a job description. C) placing a classified advertisement in the newspaper. D) job posting. E) preparing a job specification.

) job posting.

38. Institutions such as prisons and the military are unlikely to embrace Theory X. a. True b. False

65) Research suggests that employee stock ownership plans encourage employees to develop: A) a sense of ownership in and commitment to the firm. B) an interest in gainsharing. C) a lack of interest in their job. D) little interest in unions. E) concern about their retirement plan.

A) a sense of ownership in and commitment to the firm

1) Total rewards refers to: A) all forms of pay or other compensation provided to employees. B) payroll costs. C) contractual pay methods or fringe benefits to employees. D) certain forms of pay and rewards to employees. E) cash payments only.

A) all forms of pay or other compensation provided to employees.

65) To achieve optimum results from an advertisement, the four -point guide known as AIDA should be used. This stands for: A) attention, interest, desire, action. B) attention, illumination, development, assessment. C) attention, interest, development, action. D) approach, introspection, desire, activity. E) alert, interest, desire, appraisal.

A) attention, interest, desire, action.

51) In a contributory pension plan, contributions are made by: A) both the employer and the employee. B) the employer only. C) the government and the employer. D) the government and the employee. E) the employee only.

A) both the employer and the employee.

2) The total rewards approach has arisen from the: A) changing business environment of the last several decades. B) organizationʹs business needs. C) executive boardroom. D) changing global economy. E) employeeʹs requirement for stability.

A) changing business environment of the last several decades.

50) Paying salespeople according to a plan that compensates them in direct proportion to their sales is called a: A) commission plan. B) proportional compensation plan. C) direct compensation plan. D) combination plan. E) straight salary plan.

A) commission plan

62) The following are elements in a managerʹs compensation package EXCEPT: A) commission. B) long-term incentives. C) short-term incentives. D) benefits. E) salary.

A) commission.

33) The simplest approach to reducing health benefit costs is to increase the amount of health care costs paid by: A) employees. B) smokers. C) the federal government. D) provincial governments. E) workersʹ compensation plans.

A) employees.

1) Popularized by Frederick Taylor in the late 1800s, financial rewards paid to workers whose production exceeds some predetermined standard came into use. These financial rewards are commonly referred to as: A) financial incentives. B) perquisites. C) group incentive plans. D) Taylor bonuses. E) piecework plans.

A) financial incentives.

57) Experience has shown that competency -based pay is more efficient in the ________ years of its existence. A) first B) first 10 C) later D) first 5 E) last

A) first

40) Passive job seekers are: A) happily employed in their present job. B) manufacturing employees. C) professional employees. D) looking for a new job. E) managerial employees.

A) happily employed in their present job.

14) An employer tactic to minimize the problem of employeesʹ excessive use of sick days would include the following EXCEPT: A) increasing the number of sick days for employees. B) aggressively investigating all absences. C) holding cash prize lotteries for employees with perfect attendance. D) buying back unused sick leave at the end of the year. E) calling the absent employees at their homes.

A) increasing the number of sick days for employees

37) In a true individual incentive bonus plan each individual person gets a bonus based on: A) individual effort and performance. B) no hard-and-fast rules. C) group effort and performance. D) department productivity. E) the same amount, from year to year.

A) individual effort and performance

8) A type of incentive plan that gives income over and above base salary to individual employees who meet a specific individual performance standard is a(n): A) individual incentive program. B) straight commission. C) spot bonuses. D) cash bonus system. E) profit-sharing plan.

A) individual incentive program.

3) A total rewards approach considers: A) individual reward components as part of an integrated whole. B) cost constraints. C) compensation and benefits together. D) business strategy. E) employee value

A) individual reward components as part of an integrated whole.

3) Aziz is the human resources professional at a consulting engineering company. He has been asked by the executive team to suggest incentives that would most likely motivate the junior engineers who have recently graduated from university and are generally in their mid to late 20ʹs. Which of the following should Aziz suggest? A) paid time off to volunteer for charitable organizations B) a luxury cruise C) on-site elder care D) high-end fitness equipment E) on-site day care

A) paid time off to volunteer for charitable organizations

34) The job evaluation committee will want to group similar jobs (in terms of their ranking or number of points, for instance) into grades for: A) pay purposes. B) assessment purposes. C) wage structure purposes. D) personal growth. E) non-economic reasons.

A) pay purposes.

9) You are advising the President of a newly formed company as to payroll obligations. This company is provincially regulated and is located in British Columbia. She has asked you to advise her as to legislative minimum standards regarding pay. You respond that the British Columbia Employment Standards Act sets minimum standards regarding pay for each of the following categories EXCEPT: A) pensions. B) paid statutory holidays. C) overtime pay. D) paid vacation. E) minimum wage.

A) pensions.

68) The ʺwage gapʺ between men and women is a result of systemic discrimination, as well as the following EXCEPT: A) performance levels. B) differences in hours worked. C) education levels. D) level of unionization. E) experience levels.

A) performance levels

25) Employers provide supplementary health care/medical insurance to provide protection for employees against the following costs EXCEPT: A) physicianʹs fees. B) medical supplies. C) private duty nursing. D) prescription drugs. E) physiotherapy.

A) physicianʹs fees.

55) A pension provision whereby employees who change jobs can transfer the lump sum value of the pension they have earned to a locked-in RRSP or their new employerʹs pension plan is: A) portability. B) a non-locked-in provision. C) flexible pensions. D) vesting. E) non-funding.

A) portability.

26) For executive-level positions, firms normally rely on: A) professional search firms. B) employment agencies. C) employee referrals. D) newspaper ads. E) online recruitment.

A) professional search firms

7) Determining the job requirements involves: A) reviewing the job description and job specification and updating them, if necessary. B) perusing the human resources plan. C) reviewing the employment equity plan. D) relying on the human resources requisition form. E) relying on the supervisorʹs judgment.

A) reviewing the job description and job specification and updating them, if necessary.

13) A benefit that provides pay to an employee when he/she is out of work because of a non -work related injury or illness is called: A) short-term disability/sick leave. B) workersʹ compensation. C) unemployment pay. D) hospitalization benefits. E) severance pay.

A) short-term disability/sick leave

67) Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicantʹs rating. A) 80 B) 50 C) 40 D) 70 E) 60

A. 80

13) Suggested guidelines to avoid negative legal consequences include all of the following EXCEPT: A) There are no exceptions listed above. B) keeping careful records documenting each stage of the selection process. C) checking references very carefully. D) adequately assessing each applicantʹs ability to meet performance standards. E) rejecting applicants who make false statements on their application forms.

A. THERE ARE NO EXCEPTIONS LISTED ABOVE

33) The first step in a training program is to determine: A) training needs. B) job instruction training. C) the number of trainees. D) training evaluation. E) on-the-job training.

A. TRAINING NEEDS

70) Susan, the HR Director, is developing performance management training sessions for junior managers. She wants to be sure to emphasize the key success factor for effective performance appraisal that most often leads to optimum employee performance. The factor she emphasizes is: A) the quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between the manager and employee. B) linking pay with performance. C) legally compliant policies. D) effective career development discussions. E) none of the above

A. The quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between the manager and employee

36) When an appraisal scale is too open to interpretation, it is characterized as having: A) unclear performance standards. B) translation openness. C) critical incidents. D) lack of appraisal specificity. E) non-quantitative standards.

A. Unclear performance standards

20) People have three main learning styles. One is: A) visual. B) differences. C) organizing. D) similarities. E) presenting.

A. VISUAL

62) When preparing for the appraisal interview, there are three things to do. First, assemble the data; second, prepare the employee; and finally: A) choose the time and place. B) prepare the appraisal examination. C) lay out an action plan. D) do the performance appraisal. E) document all information to be discussed in the interview.

A. choose the time and place

67) When compensating professional employees, the commonly used job evaluation method is: A) factor comparison. B) job classification method. C) competency. D) point. E) ranking.

B) job classification method.

46) The heart of performance analysis is distinguishing between: A) employee training levels. B) ʺcanʹt doʺ and ʺwonʹt doʺ problems. C) experience levels of employees. D) good and bad employees. E) different supervisory practices.

B "CANT DO" AND "WONT DO" PROBLEMS

30) Canadian employers pay about ________% of all health care expenses in Canada, most of which is for prescription drugs. A) 50 B) 30 C) 36 D) 40 E) 25

B) 30

63) When a predetermined portion of profits is placed in each employeeʹs account under the supervision of a trustee, this is called a(n): A) cash profit-sharing plan. B) deferred profit-sharing plan. C) employee trust fund plan. D) employee trust fund. E) predetermined account plan.

B) Deferred profit-sharing plan

12) A type of incentive plan that is an organization-wide pay plan designed to reward employees for improvements in organizational productivity is: A) a group incentive program. B) a gain-sharing program. C) a profit-sharing plan. D) variable pay. E) a spot bonus.

B) a gain-sharing program

50) Which of the following is an advantage of using advertising as a recruitment method? A) advertising reduces costs associated with recruitment B) advertising allows employers to reach a diverse group of job applicants C) advertising saves time in the process D) there is no advantage E) advertising allows job seekers to respond very quickly

B) advertising allows employers to reach a diverse group of job applicants

74) Employee leasing typically is: A) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of a subsidiary of the organization. B) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of a professional employer organization (PEO) in an explicit joint-employment relationship. C) an contract that involves an organization hiring individuals permanently. D) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of an agency. E) an arrangement to hire that involves an organization hiring individuals from designated groups.

B) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of a professional employer organization (PEO) in an explicit joint-employment relationship.

61) To seek out middle- to senior-level professional and managerial employees, firms often retain: A) an employment agency. B) an executive search firm. C) a talent scout. D) a professional or trade association. E) a professional agency.

B) an executive search firm.

33) When a target bonus is set for each eligible position, and adjustments are then made for greater - or less-than-targeted performance, this is called: A) retirement income. B) an individual award. C) an annual bonus. D) a lump-sum bonus. E) gainsharing.

B) an individual award

39) Long-term incentives most often reserved for senior executives are called: A) performance achievement plans. B) capital accumulation programs. C) stock option programs. D) book value plans. E) stock appreciation rights programs.

B) capital accumulation programs

51) There has been a definite movement away from the extremes of straight commission or fixed salary for salespeople to: A) pay-for-performance. B) combination plans. C) incentive plans. D) merit pay. E) variable pay.

B) combination plans

20) Job evaluation involves comparing jobs to one another based on their content. Job content is assessed using: A) behavioural anchors. B) compensable factors. C) job design. D) critical incidence. E) comparable worth.

B) compensable factors.

47) A type of pension plan that specifies what contribution the employer will make to a retirement or savings fund set up for the employee is called a: A) retirement plan. B) defined contribution pension plan. C) government-sponsored plan. D) deferred profit-sharing plan. E) defined benefit pension plan.

B) defined contribution pension plan

48) A type of retirement plan that does not guarantee the eventual pension benefit an employee will receive at retirement, but only what the employee and employer contributions to the plan will be, is called a: A) deferred profit-sharing plan. B) defined contribution pension plan. C) retirement plan. D) defined benefit pension plan. E) government-sponsored plan.

B) defined contribution pension plan.

42) Firms use application service providers to power their career Web sites so that the company: A) can reduce recruitment costs. B) does not have to worry about maintaining or updating the recruiting software. C) can worry about administering recruiting software only. D) can allow the HR department to focus on tactical recruitment efforts. E) can reduce recruitment costs.

B) does not have to worry about maintaining or updating the recruiting software

28) To determine eligibility in a short-term incentive program, a job-by-job review is conducted to identify the key jobs (typically only line jobs) that have measurable impact on profitability, which is called the criterion of: A) salary grade. B) key position. C) industry requirements for piece rate production. D) salary level. E) position level.

B) key position

14) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business Development. The disadvantages of filling the position with inside candidates includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) difficulty for a newly-chosen leader to gain acceptance. B) less orientation is required C) inbreeding. D) less innovative approaches to decision-making E) a waste of time if all internal candidates must be interviewed.

B) less orientation is required

3) The following factor(s) is/are expected to increase the cost of benefits: A) employee services. B) looming labour shortage. C) baby boomers. D) advances in dental care. E) pension plans.

B) looming labour shortage.

67) Based on survey data, the following are benefits to employers who institute subsidized day care centres EXCEPT: A) lower turnover. B) lower performance appraisals. C) enhanced recruitment. D) increased productivity. E) lowered absenteeism.

B) lower performance appraisals.

15) To be effective, promotion from within requires using each of the following tools EXCEPT: A) human resources records. B) newspaper advertisements. C) skills inventories. D) interviewing. E) job posting.

B) newspaper advertisements.

21) Jeffrey is the newly hired HR professional who is responsible for evaluating compensation practices at the company. To determine if there are issues with internal equity he has chosen to conduct a job evaluation according to the method popularized by the Hay consulting firm. Which of the following are the compensable factors he uses to evaluate jobs: A) skill, effort, problem solving, and working conditions. B) responsibility, skill, effort, and working conditions. C) know-how, problem solving, accountability, and working conditions. D) knowledge, problem solving, responsibility, and working conditions. E) effort, responsibility, authority, and working conditions.

B) responsibility, skill, effort, and working conditions.

8) The three types of benefits provided under the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan are: A) disability, survivor, old age security. B) retirement, disability, survivor. C) retirement, survivor, health care. D) retirement, vacation, disability. E) retirement, survivor, old age security.

B) retirement, disability, survivor.

61) Many employers have incentive plans in which virtually all employees can participate. They include the following EXCEPT: A) Scanlon plans. B) salary and fringe benefit programs. C) profit-sharing plans. D) deferred profit sharing plans. E) employee stock ownership.

B) salary and fringe benefit programs

26) Aziz is the human resources professional at a consulting engineering company. He has been asked by the executive team to implement a short term incentive plan for senior managers. The following are basic issues he should consider, with the exception of: A) fund-size determination. B) salary grade. C) individual awards. D) eligibility. E) how much to pay out.

B) salary grade

30) Revlex Inc. has implemented a refinement of the salary cutoff approach to short -term incentive eligibility, which assumes that all managers should be eligible for short-term incentives. This is known as: A) performance appraisals. B) salary grade. C) key position. D) gainsharing. E) profit-sharing plans.

B) salary grade

24) The following are primary functions of the job evaluation committee EXCEPT: A) evaluating the worth of each job. B) selecting behavioural anchors. C) selecting compensable factors. D) selecting a job evaluation method. E) identifying 10 or 15 key benchmark jobs.

B) selecting behavioural anchors.

74) Employees favour recognition from their ________ by a majority of two -to-one over recognition from other sources. A) subordinates B) supervisor/manager C) customers D) mentor E) peers

B) supervisor/manager

34) Popularity of Internet job boards among job seekers is high due to: A) the technological requirements of the Internet. B) the number of job postings available on one site. C) they are not popular. D) the types of job postings available. E) the features of the job boards.

B) the number of job postings available on one site.

18) Job evaluation is a technique used to determine: A) performance appraisals of individuals to the group. B) the relative worth of each job. C) the relative value of an individualʹs career earnings to the groupʹs. D) merit reviews of individuals to the group. E) promotability.

B) the relative worth of each job.

36) With the overabundance of applicants now found on most online job boards, employers now use: A) Monster.ca. B) their own corporate websites to recruit. C) print advertising. D) application service providers. E) workopolis.ca.

B) their own corporate websites to recruit.

35) One problem with Internet job boards is: A) there are no problems. B) they are vulnerable to privacy breaches. C) job seekers cannot search multiple job boards with one query. D) fake job postings lead to resumes copied onto competing job boards. E) it is difficult to post resumes online.

B) they are vulnerable to privacy breaches.

45) The first step in performance analysis is to appraise the employeeʹs performance, since to improve it, the firm must first determine the personʹs current performance compared to: A) work group performance. B) what it should be. C) what it really is. D) co-workersʹ performance. E) managerial performance.

B. WHAT IT SHOULD BE

53) Audiovisual training techniques are useful in the following situations EXCEPT: A) when it is too costly to move trainers from place to place. B) when a training method less expensive than conventional lectures is needed. C) when stop-action, instant-replay, or fast- or slow-motion capabilities are needed. D) when trainees must be exposed to events that are not easily demonstrated in live lectures. E) when training is going to be used organization-wide.

B. WHEN A TRAINING METHOD LESS EXPENSIVE THAN CONVENTIONAL LECTURES IS NEEDED

39) Reverse mentoring is: A) older workers provide guidance to younger workers. B) younger workers provide guidance to senior executives. C) senior executives provide guidance to new employees. D) senior executives provide guidance to junior employees in management. E) younger workers provide guidance to older workers.

B. YOUNGER WORKERS PROVIDE GUIDANCE TO SENIOR EXECUTIVES

54) In most provinces, employer pension plan contributions must be vested once the employee has completed ________ years of service. A) 5 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 E) 1

C) 2

16) One or more of parental, paternity, and adoption leaves are provided in each Canadian jurisdiction. These leaves range from ________ weeks to ________ weeks. A) 2, 15 B) 12, 24 C) 8, 52 D) 9, 25 E) 6, 12

C) 8, 52

47) The four-point guide should be used to construct an ad. The guide is called: A) PA. B) DA. C) AIDA. D) IDA. E) none of the above.

C) AIDA.

73) All of the following statements about contract workers are true EXCEPT: A) Many professionals with specialized skills become contract workers. B) Some have found themselves out of a full -time job due to cutbacks. C) Contract workers tend to have high employer commitment. D) Some contractors are individuals who have been unable to obtain full-time work. E) Some have consciously made a decision to work for themselves.

C) Contract workers tend to have high employer commitment.

15) Under this pay system, each worker receives the minimum hourly wage plus an incentive for each piece produced above a set number of pieces per hour. It is known as a: A) gainsharing plan. B) minimum hourly wage plan. C) guaranteed piecework plan. D) piecework plan. E) straight piecework plan.

C) Gauranteed piecework plan

35) In establishing pay rates, an employer should conduct a salary survey for the purpose of: A) fine tuning pay rates. B) slotting jobs into pay grades. C) pricing jobs. D) job evaluation. E) performance appraisals.ber of points, for instance) into grades for: A) pay purposes.

C) Pricing jobs

11) A type of incentive plan that generally is organization-wide and that provides employees with a share of the organizationʹs profits in a specified period is a(n): A) gainsharing plan. B) individual incentive plan. C) profit-sharing plan. D) semi-variable incentive plan. E) group incentive plan.

C) Profit-sharing plan

10) All parties agree that the best way to manage workersʹ compensation claims over the long term is: A) reducing benefits. B) instituting employee premiums. C) accident prevention. D) better claims monitoring. E) privatization of workersʹ compensation.

C) accident prevention

22) The benefit that provides a fixed lump-sum benefit in addition to life insurance benefits when death is accidental is: A) major medical insurance. B) health insurance. C) accidental death and dismemberment insurance. D) survivorsʹ benefit. E) dental coverage.

C) accidental death and dismemberment insurance

49) Blind ads: A) are always used if the position is still staffed. B) are the same as want ads. C) allow for confidentiality for the hiring firm. D) are favoured by job seekers. E) do not allow a job seeker to unknowingly send a resume to the firm at which they are currently employed

C) allow for confidentiality for the hiring firm.

1) Any indirect financial payments given to employees are known as: A) commissions. B) stock options. C) employee benefits. D) financial incentives. E) perquisites.

C) employee benefits.

45) Active job seekers: A) must have an accessible, prominently positioned link on the homepage leading directly to the career section to make it easier for them to pursue job opportunities. B) are the individuals that visit the career Web sites. C) are not the only type of individuals to visit the career Web site. D) have the best access to the career Web sites. E) are known as ʺpassiveʺ job seekers.

C) are not the only type of individuals to visit the career Web site.

64) The general trend in executive compensation today is to decrease the relative importance of ________ and increase the relative importance of short - and long-term executive incentives. A) perquisites B) employee benefits C) base salary D) pension plans E) commissions

C) base salary

35) With a true individual incentive, it is the managerʹs individual effort and performance that are rewarded with a(n): A) individual wage. B) salary. C) bonus. D) cost-of-living adjustment. E) perquisite.

C) bonus

24) Because of the role managers play in determining divisional and corporate profitability, most employers pay their managers and executives some type of: A) gainsharing. B) hourly wage. C) bonus or incentive. D) salary. E) commission.

C) bonus or incentive

50) Collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or ʺbandsʺ is called: A) compensation banding. B) wide banding. C) broadbanding. D) red circle banding. E) job specialization.

C) broadbanding.

55) Nepotism is a problem most closely associated with: A) walk-ins. B) human resource centres. C) employee referrals. D) write-ins. E) educational institutions.

C) employee referral

68) The Scanlon plan has been quite successful at reducing costs and fostering a sense of sharing and cooperation among: A) employer associations. B) industrial associations. C) employees. D) global environment associations. E) stakeholders.

C) employees

58) Benefits associated with internship, co-op, and field placement programs include all of the following EXCEPT: A) current knowledge and enthusiasm. B) less likelihood of leaving shortly after hire if employed by the firm. C) experienced talent D) the ability of employers to assess the skills and abilities of potential employees. E) low recruitment costs.

C) experienced talent

31) The job evaluation method in which a number of compensable factors are identified, and then the degree to which each of these factors is present on the job is determined, is the: A) factor comparison method. B) ranking method. C) point method. D) job classification method. E) Hay plan method.

C) point method.

7) Engagement is: A) the belief that the organization cares about talent management. B) transactional rewards which are consistent across competing organizations. C) positive emotional connection to the employer and a clear understanding of the strategic significance of the job. D) providing competitive base pay. E) relational work experiences.

C) positive emotional connection to the employer and a clear understanding of the strategic significance of the job.

66) The following are various social and recreational opportunities extended to the employees EXCEPT: A) athletic events. B) craft activities. C) pre-retirement counseling. D) annual summer picnics. E) parties.

C) pre-retirement counseling.

57) Employees whose work involves the application of learned knowledge to the solution of the employerʹs problems are referred to as: A) hourly employees. B) managerial employees. C) professional employees. D) executives. E) supervisory employees.

C) professional employees

62) Untac Inc., a consulting engineering firm, has recently implemented a type of organization -wide incentive plan whereby all full time employees share in the companyʹs profits. Untac Inc. has implemented a: A) salary and commission plan. B) gainsharing plan. C) profit-sharing plan. D) piece-rate incentive plan. E) profit-loss plan.

C) profit-sharing plan

68) The CFLC is responsible for: A) developing a database of job postings for skilled personnel at no charge. B) conducting reserve force training that develops military skills. C) promoting the hiring of reservists by civilian employers. D) allowing employers to interview for personnel at more than 300 military units. E) requiring civilian employers to give reservists time off for training.

C) promoting the hiring of reservists by civilian employers.

47) One way to depict the pay rate ranges for each pay grade is with a wage structure graphically depicting the: A) scatter-plot points within a pay grade. B) range of jobs. C) range of pay rates for each pay grade. D) range of pay grades for each pay rate. E) pay for each job.

C) range of pay rates for each pay grade.

53) Rates being paid to overpaid employees are often called: A) black circle pay rates. B) excessive pay rates. C) red circle pay rates. D) silver circle pay rates. E) premium jobs pay rates.

C) red circle pay rates

21) The following are ways that employers use team or group incentive plans EXCEPT: A) setting a production standard based on the final output of the group as a whole. B) setting work standards for each member of the group and maintaining a count of the output of each member. C) setting a standard that all members receive payment equal to the 75th percentile of the group as a whole. D) broad criteria such as total labour-hours per final product. E) choosing a measurable definition of group performance or productivity that the group can control.

C) setting a standard that all members receive payment equal to the 75th percentile of the group as a whole

40) Costs associated with mental health problems relate to: A) younger workers. B) short-term disability and increased drug usage. C) short- and long-term disability. D) increased drug usage. E) long-term disability and increased drug usage.

C) short- and long-term disability.

16) Ira, the manager of a woodworking business, is considering implementing a piecework incentive plan for the word workers reporting to him. You are an HR consultant he has asked for advice as to the benefits of implementing such a plan. You advise him of all of the following EXCEPT: A) the incentive value of piece-rate plans can be powerful since rewards are directly tied to performance. B) piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle. C) since the piece rate is quoted on a per-piece basis, in workersʹ minds, production standards become tied inseparably to the amount of money earned. D) piecework plans are simple and easily understood. E) they are easily understood by employees.

C) since the piece rate is quoted on a per-piece basis, in workers' minds, production standards become tied inseparably to the amount of money earned

9) Amy received $2000 from her employer last week in order to recognize the extra hours. beyond normal work hours, that she had worked in the past month. Which of the following did Amy receive? A) retirement income plan B) profit-sharing plan C) spot bonus D) variable pay plan E) individual incentive program

C) spot bonus

20) A plan in which a production standard is set for a specific work group, and its members are paid incentives if the group exceeds the production standard, is known as a(n): A) standard hour plan. B) excess production plan. C) team or group incentive plan. D) work group plan. E) gainsharing.

C) team or group incentive plan

17) Information typically found in a job posting includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) job title. B) pay range. C) the name of the previous incumbent. D) qualifications required. E) posting date.

C) the name of the previous incumbent.

30) A disadvantage of the job classification method of job evaluation is the difficulty in: A) classifying jobs. B) writing job descriptions. C) writing grade descriptions. D) grouping jobs. E) developing job clusters.

C) writing grade descriptions.

25) Job evaluation methods include the following EXCEPT the: A) job classification method. B) ranking method. C) point method. D) Hay plan method. E) factor comparison method.

D) Hay plan method.

23) Which of the following is a limitation of recruiting from within the organization? A) If there is a job posting policy, external candidates can only be considered if there are no qualified internal candidates. B) In firms with a promote-from-within policy, positions are rarely filled externally. C) Most entry-level jobs are filled with current employees. D) If positions are vacated unexpectedly, there may be no qualified internal candidates. E) All of the above are limitations of recruiting from within.

D) If positions are vacated unexpectedly, there may be no qualified internal candidates.

53) Amy received a salary increase based on her individual performance over the past year. Amy received the following type of compensation: A) individual increases. B) individual incentives. C) individual bonuses. D) merit pay. E) special awards.

D) Merit pay

41) The type of wage survey that pertains to members of associations includes: A) geographic surveys. B) benefits surveys. C) local surveys. D) Professional Engineers Ontario. E) area surveys.

D) Professional Engineers Ontario.

38) Corporate Web sites can help the company create a pool of candidates who have: A) already worked with the company. B) already been prescreened. C) already filled out an application form. D) already expressed interest in the organization. E) replied to a specific ad in print.

D) already expressed interest in the organization.

31) Employers may use time-lapse data for each recruitment method to determine the: A) number of applicants rejected. B) number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process. C) projected turnover rate. D) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees. E) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees.

D) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees

25) A short-term incentive plan that is designed to motivate the short-term performance of managers and is tied to company profitability is called a(n): A) commission plan. B) eligibility plan. C) gainsharing. D) annual bonus. E) capital accumulation program.

D) annual bonus

32) The percentage of expenses (in excess of the deductible) that are paid for by the insurance plan is called the: A) insured amount. B) assessment. C) uninsured amount. D) coinsurance level. E) premium.

D) coinsurance level.

4) Originally, total rewards were conceptualized as having three broad categories: They are: A) performance and recognition, benefits, work experience. B) compensation, flexible benefits, work experience. C) bonus, benefits, work experience. D) compensation, benefits, work experience. E) development/career opportunities, benefits, work experience.

D) compensation, benefits, work experience.

49) A pension plan in which a certain amount of profit is credited to each employeeʹs account, payable at retirement, termination, or death, is a: A) group pension plan. B) group RRSP. C) defined contribution plan. D) deferred profit-sharing plan. E) defined benefit pension plan.

D) deferred profit-sharing plan

57) Summer internship programs: A) hire college and/or university students to complete summer projects before they graduate. B) produce win-win results, but students benefit more. C) have one objective only: to allow students to obtain business experience. D) frequently offer permanent positions following graduation if interns have excellent performance. E) are expensive to assess students.

D) frequently offer permanent positions following graduation if interns have excellent performance

20) A type of life insurance providing for lower rates than for individual insurance, and including all employees, regardless of health or physical condition, is called: A) whole life insurance. B) term insurance. C) endowment insurance. D) group life insurance. E) universal life insurance.

D) group life insurance.

66) The following are basic features of the Scanlon plan EXCEPT: A) a formula for sharing of benefits. B) a philosophy of cooperation. C) competence required from all employees. D) guaranteed minimum payouts. E) an identity around which to focus employee involvement.

D) guaranteed minimum payouts

35) Employers can reduce the cost of retiree benefits in the following ways EXCEPT: A) tightening eligibility requirements. B) increasing deductibles. C) increasing retiree contributions. D) increasing costs paid by workersʹ compensation. E) reducing maximum payouts.

D) increasing costs paid by workersʹ compensation.

28) The biggest issue facing benefits managers in Canada today is: A) workersʹ compensation costs. B) AIDS coverage. C) pension funding. D) increasing health care benefit costs. E) retiree benefits

D) increasing health care benefit costs.

13) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business Development. The advantages of filling the position with inside candidates includes: A) insiders are less likely to require training and are more likely to have an innovative approach. B) managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions. C) there would be no advantages. D) managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions and insiders may be more committed to company goals and less likely to leave. E) insiders are likely to have an innovative approach.

D) managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions and insiders may be more committed to company goals and less likely to leave.

65) When compensating professional employees, most employers use a: A) skill-based pay approach. B) pay equity approach. C) job-based pay approach. D) market-pricing approach. E) job evaluation approach.

D) market-pricing approach.

18) Skills inventories are: A) not useful unless there is a unique job being applied for. B) only computerized. C) used for employee training. D) often used as a supplement to job postings. E) always used instead of job postings.

D) often used as a supplement to job postings.

55) One adaptation of merit pay plans is merit raises that are: A) linked to group performance. B) paid in quarterly installments. C) linked to profit sharing. D) paid in one lump sum once a year. E) linked to annual performance appraisals.

D) paid in one lump sum once a year

19) The basic procedure of job evaluation is to compare the content of jobs in relation to one another in terms of the following EXCEPT: A) skill. B) effort. C) responsibility. D) personality traits. E) working conditions.

D) personality traits.

53) Perhaps the biggest drawback associated with employee referrals is the: A) dissatisfaction of employees whose referral is not hired. B) potential for morale problems. C) unrealistic expectations newly-hired employees have about the firm. D) potential for systemic discrimination. E) costs involved in providing cash awards

D) potential for systemic discrimination

52) The problem with having a wage structure with underpaid employees can be solved through raising their wages to: A) another pay grade. B) the midrange of an employeeʹs pay grade. C) the maximum of the rate range for their pay grade. D) the minimum of the rate range for their pay grade. E) be competitive with other jobs in the firm.

D) the minimum of the rate range for their pay grade.

59) Human resource centres are used primarily to help: A) technical employees. B) union employees. C) supervisory employees. D) unemployed individuals. E) skilled tradespersons.

D) unemployed individuals.

2) Renu is the human resources professional at a telecommunications company who is tasked with ensuring that the firmʹs selection process adheres with the firmʹs employment equity plan mandated by legislation. Which of the following must she ensure? A) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or persons with disabilities. B) The process does not have an adverse effect on women, persons with disabilities, aboriginalʹs persons or visible minorities. C) No employees with unsuitable backgrounds are hired. D) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or members of certain religious groups. E) Written authorization is obtained for reference checking.

D. THE PROCESS DOES NOT HAVE AN ADVERSE EFFECT ON WOMEN OR MEMBERS OF CERTAIN RELIGIOUS

14) The process of teaching new employees the basic skills they need to perform their jobs is: A) orientation. B) recruiting. C) coaching. D) training. E) affirmative action.

D. TRAINING

4) The average cost of benefits, as a percentage of payroll, is approximately: A) 50%. B) 25%. C) 10%. D) 30%. E) 37%.

E) 37%

19) The piecework plan is expressed in monetary terms whereas the standard hour plan is expressed in: A) dollars per standard. B) cents per hour. C) profits. D) cents per unit of output. E) a premium that equals the percent by which his or her performance exceeds standard.

E) a premium that equals the percent by which his or her performance exceeds standard

45) Compensation experts suggest defining the strategic context for the executive compensation plan before creating the package itself by: A) checking for compliance with all legal requirements. B) checking for tax effectiveness. C) installing a process for review and evaluation whenever a major business change occurs. D) defining external issues that face the company and its business objectives. E) all of the above

E) all of the above

44) Corporate Web sites: A) create different types of applications and help recruiters manage relationships with candidates. B) improve recruitment through online screening tools for communicating with candidates, thereby saving time. C) are using career Web sites to advertise products or services sold. D) are allowing streamlining of data to use in the application. E) are using career Web sites to position corporate brands to advertise career opportunities.

E) are using career Web sites to position corporate brands to advertise career opportunities.

12) Important considerations for paying employees include the following EXCEPT: A) equity considerations. B) policy considerations. C) legal considerations. D) union considerations. E) average age considerations.

E) average age considerations.

60) When developing compensation plans for managers and professionals, job evaluation is central to: A) non-salary issues. B) bonuses. C) incentives. D) benefits. E) base salary.

E) base salary.

59) Studies in industries like pharmaceuticals and aerospace consistently show that firms with the most productive research and development groups have incentive pay plans for their professionals, usually in the form of: A) merit pay. B) hourly wages. C) retirement income. D) piece-rate incentives. E) bonuses.

E) bonuses

3) The first step in employer branding includes: A) HR planning. B) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them. C) building a pool of candidates. D) developing the employee value proposition. E) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them and what they would want from an employer.

E) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them and what they would want from an employer

65) The number of EAPs in Canada is growing because they are a proactive way for organizations to reduce: A) disciplinary costs. B) counseling costs. C) supervisory training costs. D) employee services costs. E) disability costs.

E) disability costs.

38) Effective disability management programs include: A) remedial programs. B) a required company medical. C) monitoring sick leave plans. D) monitoring workerʹs compensation. E) early and safe return-to-work policies

E) early and safe return-to-work policies

64) A type of organization-wide incentive plan which usually involves having a corporation contribute shares of its own stock to a trust, and distributes the stock to employees on retirement or separation from service, is referred to as a(n): A) employee trusteeship plan. B) individual retirement plan. C) gainsharing plan. D) profit-sharing plan. E) employee stock ownership plan.

E) employee stock ownership plan

16) Wages must compare favourably with rates in other organizations or an employer will find it hard to attract and retain qualified employees. This is known as: A) wage compensation. B) need for equity. C) compensation policy. D) internal equity. E) external equity

E) external equity

11) Most Canadian human rights acts prohibit discrimination in pay based on the following grounds EXCEPT: A) sex. B) age. C) physical disability. D) colour. E) height.

E) height.

36) Establishing pay rates involves three stages, which are: A) collecting data used to price every job in the organization, working with a compensation consultant, and working with a benefits specialist. B) consulting with industry, determining salaries for executive positions, and deciding on a benefits plan. C) pricing of benchmark jobs, collecting data on insurance benefits, evaluating benefits packages. D) collecting data on insurance benefits, creating a salary survey, and hiring external consultants. E) job evaluation, conducting salary surveys and combining job evaluation and salary survey results.

E) job evaluation, conducting salary surveys and combining job evaluation and salary survey results.

27) The following are criteria to become eligible for a short-term incentive program: A) key position; salary grade only. B) industry requirements for piece rate production. C) length of service. D) position level. E) key position; salary level; salary grade.

E) key position; salary; salary grade

24) The benefits that form the cornerstone of almost all benefits programs are: A) life insurance and long-term disability. B) life insurance and supplementary health care/medical insurance. C) long-term disability and pension plan. D) life insurance and pension plan. E) life insurance, long-term disability, and supplementary health care/medical insurance.

E) life insurance, long-term disability, and supplementary health care/medical insurance

32) A non-deductible formula is: A) when all employees are earning over the threshold amount. B) a straight percentage used to create a short-term incentive fund. C) job-by-job review to identify the key formula. D) a short-term incentive fund that begins to accumulate only after the firm has met a specified level of earnings. E) none of the above

E) none of the above

63) Executive compensation tends to emphasize performance incentives more than do: A) pay plans for boards of trustees. B) pay plans for boards of directors. C) pay plans for boards of governors. D) stockholdersʹ pay plans. E) other employeesʹ pay plans.

E) other employeesʹ pay plans.

33) Once a job evaluation method has been used to determine the relative worth of each job, the committee can turn to the task of assigning pay rates to each job, but it will usually want to first group jobs into: A) range rates. B) department classes. C) personal contracts. D) labour contracts. E) pay grades.

E) pay grades.

47) Compensation plans for salespeople have typically relied heavily on incentives in the form of: A) stock appreciation rights. B) stock options. C) gainsharing. D) profit sharing. E) sales commissions.

E) sales commissions

67) The types of positions commonly filled through union hiring halls include all of the following EXCEPT: A) welders. B) pipe fitters. C) plumbers. D) carpenters. E) security guards.

E) security guards.

15) Compensation policies are usually written by the HR or compensation manager together with: A) compensation consultants. B) stockholders. C) supervisors. D) employees. E) senior management.

E) senior management.

41) The right to purchase a specific number of shares of company stock at a specific price during a specified period of time is called a: A) stock appreciation right. B) restricted stock plan. C) phantom stock plan. D) book value plan. E) stock option

E) stock option

7) The following are types of incentive plans EXCEPT: A) individual incentive programs. B) group incentive programs. C) spot bonuses. D) profit-sharing plans. E) straight salary and commission.

E) straight salary and commission.

39) An example of an informal survey conducted by an employer would be a(n): A) professional organization survey. B) governmental agency survey. C) commercial survey. D) industry-wide survey. E) telephone survey.

E) telephone survey.

71) As outlined in the text, sources of nonpermanent staff are: A) older workers. B) younger workers. C) contract workers and temporary help agencies. D) temporary help agencies. E) temporary help agencies, contract workers, and employee leasing

E) temporary help agencies, contract workers, and employee leasing

43) Assigning pay rates to each pay grade (or to each job) is usually accomplished with a: A) rate range. B) job evaluation. C) wage grade. D) performance appraisal. E) wage curve.

E) wage curve.

49) The rate range is usually built around the: A) Hay system. B) performance appraisal. C) job evaluation. D) job specialization. E) wage line or curve.

E) wage line or curve.

5) Research conducted by WorldatWork has clarified the ʺwork experienceʺ category of total rewards by splitting it into three parts. They are: A) work/life programs, business strategy and development/career opportunities. B) work/life programs, succession programs, and salary grade. C) work/life programs, organizational culture and development/career opportunities. D) work/life programs, HR strategy, and development/career opportunities. E) work/life programs, performance and recognition, and development and career opportunities.

E) work/life programs, performance and recognition, and development and career opportunities.

45) The most important promotion-related decisions are: A) how competence will be defined and measured. B) whether or not the promotion will involve a transfer. C) whether the promotion process will be formal or informal. D) whether to take future potential into account. E) whether promotion will be based on seniority or competence, or some combination of the two.

E. WHETHER PROMOTION WILL BE BASED ON SENIORITY OR COMPETENCE, OR SOME COMBINATION OF THE TWO

66) Cross-cultural communications training covers: A) literacy training. B) computer-based simulations. C) history of other nations. D) T-groups. E) workplace cultural etiquette and interpersonal skills.

E. WORKPLACE CULTURAL ETIQUETTE AND INTERPERSONAL SKILLS

67) Taking only industrial engineering concerns into consideration in job design is sufficient, because research does not support the view that human considerations are also critical.

FALSE

70) Job analysis is defined as the process of listing duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships and working conditions of a job.

FALSE

74) If an employee is unable to perform one or more of the essential duties of the job due to a physical or mental disability, accommodation is not required.

FALSE

66) Designing an organizational structure depends on the strategic goals of the company.

TRUE

68) Work simplification can increase operating efficiency in a stable environment.

TRUE

10. If managers at Walmart pressure workers to work extra hours for free because the managers must keep payroll costs below fixed targets or risk demotion, these managers are faced with a. an ethical dilemma. b. a gainsharing program. c. a business decision. d. an advancement opportunity. e. intrinsic motivation.

15. In equity theory, if perceived inputs and outcomes are not balanced, an individual will make adjustments to correct the imbalance. a. True b. False

34. The choice of intrinsic or extrinsic reward has little effect on employee behaviour. a. True b. False

12. James had dreamed of making lots of money since he was a child, and that has driven him to great success. James is motivated by a. intrinsic motivators. b. esteem motivators. c. extrinsic motivators. d. safety motivators.

2) Which of the following is true of employer branding? A) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by persons external to the organization as well as current employees. B) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by persons external to the organization only. C) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by current employees only. D) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by applicants for a position with the organization only. E) It is important only for persons who are eventually hired by the organization.

A) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by persons external to the organization as well as current employees.

52) You are a recruiter in a telecommunication company. In recruiting for the position of Business Division Sales Manager which of the following would be the advantage of the employee referral method? A) It represents a low recruiting cost. B) It usually leads to higher quality candidates. C) It would assist in managing diversity in the firm. D) It generally attracts a greater pool of applicants than other methods. E) It does not allow inbreeding.

A) It represents a low recruiting cost.

1) Which of the following statements about recruitment is true? A) The recruitment process begins with the identification of a position that requires staffing, and is completed when resumes and/or completed application forms are received from an adequate number of applicants. B) The recruitment process begins with the identification of a position that requires staffing, and is completed when a short list of candidates has been compiled. C) In large organizations, in which recruiting is done on an almost continuous basis, there are specialists, known as employment managers, whose job it is to find and attract capable applicants. D) Recruitment is the process of searching for and selecting the most appropriate individual to staff job requirements. E) The HR department staff members have line authority for recruitment.

A) The recruitment process begins with the identification of a position that requires staffing, and is completed when resumes and/or completed application forms are received from an adequate number of applicants.

62) Which of the following statements about headhunters is true? A) They often specialize in a particular type of talent. B) Their code of ethics prohibits them from contacting individuals who are currently employed. C) They are used for jobs in the $30,000 plus pay range. D) They are paid a fee by the job seeker. E) The percentage of positions filled by such firms is generally quite large.

A) They often specialize in a particular type of talent.

76) Which of the following is true about recruiting members from Generation Y according to recent research? A) They value creativity, diversity, and social responsibility. B) They value job security. C) Work/life balance is their greatest priority in choosing an employer. D) They value job security and diversity. E) They value creativity and social responsibility.

A) They value creativity, diversity, and social responsibility.

56) Traditional merit pay plans have the following characteristics: A) a merit raise is usually based on individual performance, although the overall level of company profits may affect the total sum for merit raises. B) a merit raise is based on overall level of company profits. C) a merit raise is usually based on individual performance only. D) a merit raise is usually based exclusively on group performance. E) a merit raise is usually based on corporate performance.

A) a merit raise is usually based on individual performance, although the overall level of company profits may affect the total sum of merit raises

4) Aziz is the human resources professional at a consulting engineering company. He has been asked by the executive team to suggest incentives that would most likely motivate the senior engineers who have worked in their professional capacity for at least 20 years and are generally in their early 50ʹs. Which of the following should Aziz suggest? A) a recognition program and adventure travel B) a luxury cruise C) on-site day care D) paid time off to volunteer for charitable organizations E) adventure travel

A) a recognition program and adventure travel

32) The point method of job evaluation identifies several compensable factors, each having several degrees, in addition to: A) degrees to which each of these factors is present in the job. B) identifying behavioural anchors. C) establishing points in ranking jobs. D) ranking jobs. E) degrees within a present job.

A) degrees to which each of these factors is present in the job.

32) Online recruitment: A) does increase hiring speed, and therefore reduces the costs of vacant positions. B) reduces hiring speed but does reduce the costs of vacant positions. C) reduces the use of the Intranet and Internet technology. D) increases hiring speed, and therefore increases the costs of vacant positions. E) reduces hiring speed because of technological complexities.

A) does increase hiring speed, and therefore reduces the costs of vacant positions

56) You are a recruiter in a telecommunications company and are hiring for the position of Human Resources Clerk. The position requires some formal training but little work experience. Which of the following recruitment methods is likely to be most effective in generating a pool of qualified candidates at low cost? A) educational institutions B) employment agencies C) newspaper advertisements D) human resource centres E) professional journal advertisements

A) educational institutions

20) Advantages of job posting include all of the following EXCEPT: A) employment equity goals are more likely to be met. B) every qualified employee is provided with a chance for a transfer or promotion. C) the organizationʹs policies and guidelines regarding promotions and transfers are communicated. D) the likelihood of special deals and favouritism is reduced. E) the organizationʹs commitment to career growth and development is demonstrated.

A) employment equity goals are more likely to be met

5) A government-sponsored program that provides weekly income benefits if a person is unable to work through no fault of his/her own is usually called: A) employment insurance. B) strike pay. C) severance pay. D) sick pay. E) termination pay.

A) employment insurance.

28) The type of job evaluation method where the groups are called classes if they contain similar jobs is called the: A) job classification method. B) ranking method. C) factor comparison method. D) point method. E) Hay plan method.

A) job classification method.

51) Broadbanding facilitates less specialized, boundaryless: A) jobs and organizations. B) division of work. C) leniency and error. D) job evaluation. E) geographic dispersion.

A) jobs and organizations.

21) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business Development. The disadvantages of an internal job posting include: A) the decision about which candidate to select may be more difficult if there are two or more equally qualified candidates. B) unsuccessful job candidates are rarely demotivated, understanding feedback may not be communicated in a timely manner. C) it is rare that it is a difficult decision about which candidate to select; even if there are two or more equally qualified candidates. D) every qualified employee does not have a chance for transfer or promotion. E) it does not reduce the likelihood of special deals and favouritism.

A) the decision about which candidate to select may be more difficult if there are two or more equally qualified candidates.

59) Quantitative job evaluation systems, primarily the point plan, are widely used in Canada, partly due to: A) the requirements of pay equity legislation. B) job descriptions that restrict employee behaviour. C) the influence of job specifications on employee behaviour. D) the need for hourly jobs to be compared to salaried positions. E) employee behaviour that is limited to what is on paper.

A) the requirements of pay equity legislation.

5) A term plan that refers to any plan that ties pay to productivity or to some other measure of the firmʹs profitability is called: A) variable pay. B) a quality circle. C) a profit-sharing plan. D) a fringe benefit. E) a supplemental pay benefit.

A) variable pay.

26) Common health-related insurance plans other than supplementary health care/medical insurance include the following: A) vision care; hearing aids; dental care. B) vision care; physiotherapy. C) group legal insurance. D) vision care; psychological counseling; dental insurance. E) chronic illness benefits; vision care; dental care.

A) vision care; hearing aids; dental care

21) Job analysis provides data on job requirements that can be used to develop: A) a job description. B) a staffing table. C) a skills inventory. D) an organization chart. E) HR policies and procedures.

A. A JOB DESCRIPTION

63) Identifying human requirements for a job can be accomplished through: A) a judgmental approach. B) questionnaires. C) supervisorʹs interviews. D) an interview approach. E) none of the above.

A. A JUDGMENTAL APPROACH

45) The job analysis technique that involves 194 items, each of which represents a basic element that may or may not play an important role in the job, is known as: A) a position analysis questionnaire (PAQ). B) the point factor method. C) a structured survey. D) a participant diary/log. E) functional job analysis.

A. A POSITION ANALYSIS QUESTIONNAIRE (PAQ)

39) Assessment centres are: A) a tool that assesses management potential using a special room with a one-way mirror. B) useful for predicting success in jobs of all levels. C) a better predictor of performance than any other selection tool. D) an inexpensive selection strategy. E) characterized by all of the above

A. A TOOL THAT ASSESSES MANAGEMENT POTENTIAL USING A SPECIAL ROOM WITH A ONE WAY MIRROR

46) The following are disadvantages of appraisal tools EXCEPT: A) a graphic rating scale is simple to use. B) BARS is difficult to develop. C) the critical incident method is difficult to use to rate employees relative to one another. D) MBO is time-consuming. E) the alternation ranking method can cause disagreements among employees.

A. A graphic rating scale is simple to use

38) Which of the following jobs could be analyzed effectively using direct observation? A) accounting clerk B) design engineer C) human resources manager D) lawyer E) Any of the above jobs could be analyzed using direct observation

A. ACCOUNTING CLERK

26) Which of the following is true of mentoring programs? A) An effective program supports organizational strategy by retaining future leaders. B) They are costly to implement. C) They are required in order to motivate senior employees to mentor. D) Research shows no significant correlation to employee commitment. E) They provide benefits to protégés only.

A. AN EFFECTIVE PROGRAM SUPPORTS ORGANIZATIONAL STRATEGY BY RETAINING FUTURE LEADERS

56) The part of the job description in which budgetary limitations are identified is titled: A) authority. B) working conditions. C) duties and responsibilities. D) performance standards. E) relationships.

A. AUTHORITY

60) An interview with an employee to make development plans, to maintain satisfactory performance if promotion is not indicated, or to correct unsatisfactory performance, is called a(n): A) appraisal interview. B) exit interview. C) evaluation interview. D) job interview. E) development interview.

A. Appraisal interview

74) Avica Inc., a Toronto based management consulting company would like to encourage certain key consultants to continue employment past age 60. Which of the following steps would NOT be a good step for the company to take to keep older consultants fully engaged and willing to continue employment with the firm: A) canceling training and development programs for this group and requiring this group of employees to work long work weeks. B) providing career counseling. C) requiring this group of employees to work long work weeks. D) canceling training and development programs for this group. E) offering creative work arrangements.

A. CANCELING TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS FOR THIS GROUP AND REQUIRING THIS GROUP OF EMPLOYEES TO WORK LONG WORK WEEKS

12) The stages through which a personʹs career evolves is referred to as a(n): A) career cycle. B) exploration cycle. C) growth cycle. D) development cycle. E) life cycle.

A. CAREER CYCLE

7) A lifelong series of activities (such as workshops) that contributes to a personʹs career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment is: A) career development. B) retraining. C) empowerment. D) product life-cycles. E) a job seminar.

A. CAREER DEVELOPMENT

61) An off-the-job management development technique which involves presenting a trainee with a written description of an organizational problem is called a(n): A) case study method. B) role-play exercise. C) management game. D) action learning program. E) coaching/understudy approach.

A. CASE STUDY METHOD

73) Some employers have in-house development centres for managers and employees that would include the following EXCEPT: A) job analysis programs. B) classroom learning. C) assessment centres. D) in-basket exercises. E) role-playing.

A. JOB ANALYSIS PROGRAMS

7) You have just been hired as the Director of Human Resources at a sportswear retailer. The employee handbook states that ʺall employees will have the benefits listed in the handbook for as long as they are employed with the company.ʺ In revising the contents of the employee handbook it is an important component of your role to be aware of the following; A) courts have found certain terms in employee handbooks to constitute terms of the employment contract. The company is at legal risk if it decides to alter the benefits package in the future. B) employee handbooks should not form part of the orientation process. C) it is a best practice to keep benefits static over time. D) in employee dismissal situations courts rarely review handbooks. E) it should not be a job requirement that employees review the handbook.

A. COURTS HAVE FOUND CERTAIN TERMS IN EMPLOYEE HANDBOOKS TO CONSTITUTE TERMS OF THE EMPLOYMENT CONTRACT. THE COMPANY IS AT LEGAL RISK IF IT DECIDES TO ALTER THE BENEFITS PACKAGE IN THE FUTURE.

19) The extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of work behaviour is known as: A) criterion-related validity. B) reliability. C) content validity. D) differential validity. E) predictive validity.

A. CRITERION-RELATED VALIDITY

1) Which of the following are considered to be ʺhiddenʺ costs of a poor selection process? A) Customer alienation and internal disorganization when an unsuccessful employee is terminated. B) The cost of orienting a newly selected employee to replace the unsuccessful employee who was terminated. C) customer alienation D) Strategic objectives will not be met. E) The cost of beginning the selection process over again when an unsuccessful employee is terminated.

A. CUSTOMER ALIENATION AND INTERNAL DISORGANIZATION WHEN AN UNSUCCESSFUL EMPLOYEE IS TERMINATED

4) The following are reasons for the failure of a performance appraisal EXCEPT: A) clearly defining performance standards. B) arguing and poor communications which arise as problems during feedback sessions. C) not telling employees ahead of time exactly what is expected of them. D) a lenient supervisor. E) having poor measures of performance.

A. Clearly defining performance standards

22) Purposes of training needs analysis include the following EXCEPT: A) ensure employment equity goals are met. B) develop specific knowledge objectives. C) identify specific job performance and skills needed. D) develop reasonable performance objectives. E) analyze skills and needs of prospective trainees.

A. ENSURE EMPLOYMENT EQUITY GOALS ARE MET

58) Which of the following would not be included in the subsection of the job description titled ʺworking conditionsʺ? A) equipment failure B) hazardous conditions C) frequency of interruptions D) noise level E) amount of travel

A. EQUIPMENT FAILURE

8) A new employeeʹs supervisor orients the employee by: A) explaining the exact nature of the job. B) taking the entire work group out to lunch. C) explaining the retirement plan. D) conducting an exit interview. E) conducting an appraisal session.

A. EXPLAINING THE EXACT NATURE OF THE JOB

31) When using MBO, in order to avoid having the process demotivate employees, objectives must be: A) fair and attainable. B) difficult to attain. C) the same for all employees in the same job. D) easy to attain. E) based on the employeeʹs educational level.

A. Fair and attainable

12) Job enlargement involves: A) horizontal loading. B) multi-skilling. C) systematically moving employees from one job to another. D) vertical loading. E) increased challenge.

A. HORIZONTAL LOADING

38) Gary is the supervisor of Mindy. He is very impressed with Mindyʹs ability to work in a team so has rated her as ʺoutstandingʺ for this trait. Although she has had more missed delivery deadlines than her peers over the past financial quarter Gary rated her as ʺabove averageʺ for the trait ʺpersonal effectiveness.ʺ Garyʹs actions indicate the following performance appraisal problem: A) halo effect. B) trait effect. C) bias. D) trait bias. E) appraisal bias.

A. Halo Effect

43) The following data collection method of job analysis can be used structured, unstructured or in combination. When structured, questions are read to job holders and supervisors and/or fixed response choices are provided. When unstructured, questions are posed to job holders and supervisors and/or general response choices are provided. This is called the: A) individual interview method. B) group interview method. C) observation method. D) questionnaire method. E) diary/log method.

A. INDIVIDUAL INTERVIEW METHOD

39) Direct observation is often combined with which other job analysis method? A) interviewing B) questionnaires C) position analysis questionnaire D) functional job analysis E) participant diary/log

A. INTERVIEWING

60) Amy is the new Director of Learning and Development at a pharmaceutical company, Medica Inc. She is contemplating implementing an action learning program and is considering the advantages and disadvantages of this approach for the development of new managers recently hired. The benefits of action learning to Medica include the following EXCEPT: A) It benefits the managers department during the training period. B) By working with others, trainees find solutions to major problems. C) It develops planning skills. D) It encourages teamwork. E) It develops problem analysis skills

A. IT BENEFITS THE MANAGERS DEPARTMENT DURING THE TRAINING PERIOD

63) Tech Solutions Inc. is a software development firm that is considering implementing a Web-based training program for experienced software developers who will be working on a new program for the company. Tech Solutions wishes the training program students to be from its offices located in Toronto, Canada Shang Hai, China, and Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. This E --learning training technique is ideal for the following reasons: A) it provides these busy professionals with flexibility in scheduling training sessions B) there is no instructional consistency. C) research shows students do not have to be highly motivated to complete the training. D) it is ʺblended learning.ʺ E) it is only slightly less costly than traditional classroom based training.

A. IT PROVIDES THESE BUSY PROFESSIONALS WITH FLEXIBILITY IN SCHEDULING TRAINING SESSIONS

33) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the behaviourally anchored rating scale method? A) It is relatively consistent and reliable. B) It is generally a more accurate measure of performance. C) It is the simplest form of performance appraisal so little supervisor time is involved in using this performance appraisal tool. D) The critical incidents allow for clearer standards. E) It provides specific behavioural examples for each trait.

A. It is relatively consistent and reliable

2) You have been hired as the new Executive Director of a child and family services agency and are considering implementing an employee orientation program at this organization. The benefits that this new program will likely bring to the organization include: A) making employees more productive more quickly and establishing a foundation for ongoing performance management. B) making employees more productive more quickly. C) promoting workforce diversity. D) legal compliance. E) affirmative action.

A. MAKING EMPLOYEES MORE PRODUCTIVE MORE QUICKLY AND ESTABLISHING A FOUNDATION FOR ONGOING PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT

68) Research has shown that those rated as more physically attractive than other candidates are also rated as: A) more suitable for employment. B) suitable for temporary employment. C) equally suitable for employment. D) less suitable for employment. E) unsuitable for employment.

A. MORE SUITABLE FOR EMPLOYMENT

5) The job description often is not sufficient to clarify what employees are to do. This lack of clarity is because: A) managers may ask individual employees to take on additional tasks. B) it is written only for benchmark jobs. C) it is the same for groups of employees. D) it is written for specific departments. E) it is written for specific employees

A. Managers may ask individual employees to take on additional tasks

29) The following are problems that are typically encountered when an organization uses the MBO method of performance appraisal EXCEPT: A) measurable objectives. B) unmeasurable objectives. C) unclear objectives. D) tug of war concerning objectives between supervisor and employee. E) time-consuming procedures.

A. Measurable objectives

31) When an employer fails to train adequately this is referred to as: A) negligent training. B) simulated training. C) job instruction training. D) affirmative action. E) on-the-job training.

A. NEGLIGENT TRAINING

9) The employer performs the following career development functions: A) offers career information. B) manages employeesʹ careers. C) provides a formal career path. D) is altruistic. E) acts as coach and appraiser.

A. OFFERS CAREER INFORMATION

49) When an employee actually learns a job by performing it, it is called: A) on-the-job training. B) vestibule training. C) job instruction training. D) computerized training. E) distance learning.

A. ON THE JOB TRAINING

37) A typical job analysis questionnaire has several: A) open-ended questions. B) non-job-related questions. C) questions regarding biographical data. D) questions about the incumbentʹs educational background. E) closed-ended questions.

A. OPEN-ENDED QUESTIONS

57) The following are functions of programmed learning EXCEPT: A) permitting the trainee to perform on-the-job. B) presenting questions or problems to the learner. C) allowing the person to respond. D) presenting facts to the learner. E) providing feedback on the accuracy of his or her answers.

A. PERMITTING THE TRAINEE TO PERFORM ON-THE-JOB

64) A survey instrument designed to assist managers in identifying potential personality-related traits that may be important in a job is called a: A) PPRF. B) FAQ. C) PAQ. D) SPSS. E) all of the above

A. PPRF

55) Before getting in front of a camera for videoconferencing, the instructor should: A) prepare a training manual for learners. B) practice vestibule training. C) arrive just before going on camera. D) participate in computerized training. E) visit other cities where learners will be located.

A. PREPARE A TRAINING MANUAL FOR LEARNERS

56) A systematic method of training that is used for teaching job skills involving presenting questions or facts, allowing the trainee to respond, and giving the trainee immediate feedback on the accuracy of his/her answers is known as: A) programmed learning. B) systematic learning. C) responsive learning. D) immediate feedback learning. E) on-the-job training.

A. PROGRAMMED LEARNING

57) The following are advantages of the developmental job rotation technique EXCEPT: A) providing experience in analyzing overall company problems. B) providing a well-rounded training experience for each trainee. C) broadening understanding of all parts of the business. D) avoiding stagnation through constant introduction of new points of view in each department. E) testing the trainee and helping identify the personʹs strong and weak points.

A. PROVIDING EXPERIENCE IN ANALYZING OVERALL COMPANY PROBLEMS

11) The method for appraising performance which ranks employees by making a chart of all possible pairs of the employees for each trait and indicating which employee is the better of the pair is known as the: A) paired comparison method. B) forced distribution method. C) graphic rating scale. D) alternation ranking method. E) critical incident method.

A. Paired comparison method

19) In a behaviourally anchored rating scale there are critical incident anchors along the: A) performance rating scale. B) graphic rating scale. C) forced distribution scale. D) alternation ranking method scale. E) paired comparison scale.

A. Performance Rating Scale

21) A summary performance appraisal discussion focuses on: A) problem solving. B) controlling. C) planning. D) developing people. E) administering.

A. Problem Solving

72) Best practices in evaluation of training involve the following: A) running a pilot study. B) job evaluation. C) evaluating trainees reactions to the program and assessing whether the trainees behaviour on the job has changed. D) evaluating trainees reactions to the program. E) reviewing orientation outcomes.

A. RUNNING A PILOT STUDY

42) When an employeeʹs most recent performance can affect the evaluation of his/her overall performance, the ________ error has occurred. A) recency B) halo C) similar-to-me D) central tendency E) appraisal bias

A. Recency

50) Advantages of on-the-job training include the following EXCEPT: A) self-paced training. B) trainees get quick feedback. C) being relatively inexpensive. D) minimal or no use of classrooms or programmed learning devices. E) learning while producing.

A. SELF PACED TRAINING

12) An important key to successful executive integration is: A) stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency and identifying position specifications. B) stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency. C) norms of the organization must be understood before the first day of work. D) the realization that executives rarely experience reality shock. E) to let executives integrate on their own initiative.

A. STRESSING THE IMPORTANCE OF LISTENING AS WELL AS DEMONSTRATING COMPETENCY AND IDENTIFYING POSITION SPECIFICATIONS

46) The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as: A) structured. B) nondirective. C) mixed. D) stress-producing. E) unstructured.

A. STRUCTURED

61) The easiest appraisal interview to conduct is ________ performance, ________ employee. A) satisfactory, promotable. B) unsatisfactory, correctable. C) unsatisfactory, uncorrectable. D) satisfactory, unpromotable. E) unsatisfactory, unpromotable.

A. Satisfactory, promotable

30) When it comes to performance appraisals, most firms combine: A) several appraisal techniques. B) computerized techniques and BARS. C) computerized and narrative techniques. D) manual and subjective techniques. E) manual techniques and MBO.

A. Several appraisal techniques

48) The individual ratings that are still the heart of most appraisal systems are the: A) supervisorʹs ratings. B) self-paced ratings. C) customer ratings. D) individual ratings. E) peer ratings.

A. Supervisor's ratings

53) An example of a behavioural question is: A) Tell me about a time when you managed a situation requiring negotiation. B) If a co-worker hurt her back, what would you do? C) What type of work do you want to be doing in five years? D) What are the skill areas you must develop? E) None of the above.

A. TELL ME ABOUT A TIME WHEN YOU MANAGED A SITUATION REQUIRING NEGOTIATION

80) All of the following statements pertaining to the final steps in the selection process are true EXCEPT: A) The immediate supervisor generally handles the offer of employment. B) Candidates should be given a reasonable length of time to think over the job offer. C) The offer specifies the starting salary. D) The initial offer is made by telephone. E) A written offer of employment should always be extended.

A. THE IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR GENERALLY HANDLES THE OFFER OF EMPLOYMENT

68) More and more companies are finding it necessary to compete based on: A) the quality of their service. B) discount prices. C) union problems. D) production bottlenecks. E) unity-of-command principles.

A. THE QUALITY OF THEIR SERVICE

49) Future Shop, an electronics retailer, is considering removing commission for its sales staff from their compensation plan, and compensating them on a straight salary basis. The following is an advantage of this approach EXCEPT: A) a long-term perspective is encouraged. B) straight salaries make it difficult to switch territories or quotas or to reassign salespeople. C) the employer has fixed, predictable sales force expenses. D) straight salaries develop a high degree of loyalty among the sales staff. E) salespeople know in advance what their income will be.

B) straight salaries make it difficult to switch territories or quotas or to reassign salespeople

31) A ʺgolden parachuteʺ is an executive perk in the form of a salary guarantee in the following circumstances: A) death of the executive in a work-related accident. B) targeting of the company for acquisition or merger. C) termination of employment. D) divorce from spouse. E) overseas transfer.

B) targeting of the company for acquisition or merger.

63) Advantages associated with the use of headhunters include all of the following EXCEPT: A) they typically know the marketplace. B) their skill in recruiting employees of all levels. C) their skill in reaching individuals who are employed. D) their wide number of business contacts. E) their skill in reaching individuals who are not actively looking to change jobs

B) their skill in recruiting employees of all levels.

21) Group life insurance is usually provided in the amount of: A) $100,000. B) two yearsʹ salary. C) one yearʹs salary. D) $25,000. E) five yearsʹ salary.

B) two yearsʹ salary.

2) Today, any plan that ties pay to productivity or profitability is called: A) competency-based pay. B) variable pay. C) pay-for-performance. D) profit-sharing. E) job-based pay.

B) variable pay.

52) The term ʺmerit payʺ can apply to incentive raises given to any employees, but is most often used with respect to: A) blue-collar employees. B) white-collar employees. C) hourly workers. D) salespeople. E) executives.

B) white-collar employees

14) Unions tend to believe that no one can judge the relative worth of jobs better than: A) job evaluation consultants. B) workers. C) union leaders. D) management. E) HR staff.

B) workers.

46) Rate ranges are a series of steps or levels of pay within a pay grade, usually based upon: A) years of education. B) years of service. C) teamwork. D) amount of responsibility. E) peer appraisals.

B) years of service.

10) Employers are increasingly being held liable for damages stemming from their: A) discriminatory practices in the selection process. B) ʺnegligent hiringʺ of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job. C) use of unreliable selection tests. D) failure to abide by employment equity legislative requirements. E) use of invalid selection tests.

B. "NEGLIGENT HIRING" OF WORKERS WHO SUBSEQUENTLY COMMIT CRIMINAL ACTS ON THE JOB

50) A written statement of what the jobholder actually does, how he or she does it, and under what conditions the job is performed, is known as: A) a job specification. B) a job description. C) the job standards. D) a job evaluation. E) a job analysis.

B. A JOB DESCRIPTION

37) The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidatesʹ management potential is known as: A) an in-basket exercise. B) a management assessment centre. C) a leaderless group discussion. D) a supervisory interest inventory. E) a managerial aptitude test.

B. A MANAGMENT ASSESSMENT CENTRE

7) The collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by one person is known as: A) a job specification. B) a position. C) a job. D) a job description. E) a job analysis.

B. A POSITION

14) Renu has been hired as the first human resources professional at a growing landscape architecture firm, Terrastyle Inc. She is considering changing the current performance appraisal method, the graphic rating scale, to the forced distribution method of performance appraisal. What criticism of using this method do you advise her about? A) It is similar to grading on a curve. B) A considerable proportion of the workforce is classified as less than average. C) Predetermined percentages of employees are placed in performance categories. D) Employees are rated on a comparison basis. E) Traits being appraised are decided by management.

B. A considerable proportion of the workforce is classified as less than average

66) Rules for constructive criticism include the following EXCEPT: A) criticize in private. B) a once-a-year ʺcritical broadsideʺ can be effective. C) provide suggestions about what could be done to change behaviour. D) ensure criticism is free of bias. E) let the employee maintain their sense of dignity and self-worth.

B. A once-a-year "critical broadside" can be effective

8) Selection is a strategic activity in that the ideal individual will possess the: A) required KSAs, with the right experience. B) ability to fit with the strategic direction of the organization. C) required KSAs, perform well, and fit the organizational culture. D) required skills, technical ability and knowledge. E) required skills, and fit the organizational culture.

B. ABILITY TO FIT WITH THE STRATEGIC DIRECTION OF THE ORGANIZATION

34) Tests used to measure knowledge and/or proficiency acquired through education, training and experience are known as: A) aptitude tests. B) achievement tests. C) interest inventories. D) personality tests. E) intelligence tests.

B. ACHIEVEMENT TESTS

15) Which of the following is true of work simplification? A) It enhances skill variety. B) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction and a demand for premium pay. C) It increases autonomy. D) It often leads to lower job satisfaction. E) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction.

B. AMONG EDUCATED WORKERS IT OFTEN LEADS TO LOWER JOB SATISFACTION AND A DEMAND FOR PREMIUM PAY

71) A training program in which trainees are first shown good management techniques (in a film), are then asked to play roles in a simulated situation, and are given feedback regarding their performance, is called: A) role-playing. B) behaviour modelling. C) action learning. D) good-example training. E) case study method.

B. BEHAVIOUR MODELLING

18) When a worker is rewarded by a percent premium that equals the percent by which his/her performance is above standard, this is known as: A) gainsharing. B) the percent incentive plan. C) the bonus hour plan. D) the standard hour plan. E) the premium plan.

D) the standard hour plan

5) James Martini is the Director of HR for Study Inc. He is working on a project to restructure the organization. At the moment, the organization has a top-down management approach with many levels of management. Jobs are highly specified with a narrow focus. It wants to move into a more decentralized management approach with a high focus on teams and customer service. The organization is planning to move from a ________ organization to a ________ organization. A) boundaryless, flat B) bureaucratic, flat C) flat, bureaucratic D) bureaucratic, boundaryless E) none of the above

B. BUREAUCRATIC, FLAT

3) Yung is the manager of human resources at a credit union. Following an incident where a former employee was convicted for theft of customer account information she has become increasingly concerned about negligent hiring lawsuits. Which of the following steps would be the most helpful in addressing her concern? A) ensuring selection criteria are based on job descriptions B) carefully scrutinizing application forms and checking references C) obtaining consent to check references D) ensuring selection criteria are based on job specifications E) adequately assessing the applicantʹs ability to meet performance standards

B. CAREFULLY SCRUTINIZING APPLICATION FORMS AND CHECKING REFERENCES

58) In one management training technique, the trainee works directly with the person that he/she is to replace. This technique is called the: A) job rotation approach. B) coaching/understudy approach. C) replacement approach. D) learning approach. E) direct replacement approach.

B. COACHING / UNDERSTUDY APPROACH

18) More employers today are also taking advantage of the fact that training can strengthen employee: A) turnover. B) commitment. C) absenteeism. D) quality. E) complacency.

B. COMMITMENT

72) The basic behaviour modelling procedure includes the following EXCEPT: A) role-playing. B) computer program training. C) transfer of training. D) social reinforcement. E) modelling.

B. COMPUTER PROGRAM TRAINING

26) Effective pre-training preparation includes: A) a realistic job preview. B) creating a perceived need for training in the mind of participants. C) reality shock. D) employee orientation. E) employee testing.

B. CREATING A PERCEIVED NEED FOR TRAINING IN THE MIND OF PARTICIPANTS

47) Guidelines for developing a legally defensible performance appraisal process include the following EXCEPT: A) document evaluations. B) conduct job specialization for each employee. C) use clearly defined individual dimensions of job performance. D) incorporate job characteristics into a rating instrument. E) provide definitive performance standards to rater and ratees.

B. Conduct job specialization for each employee

57) The 360-degree appraisal approach fits closely with the goals of organizations committed to: A) employment equity. B) continuous learning. C) pay equity. D) MBO. E) hierarchical chain of command.

B. Continuous learning

15) The performance appraisal method which involves keeping a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employeeʹs work -related behaviour and reviewing it with the employee at predetermined times is the: A) paired comparison method. B) critical incident method. C) alternation ranking method. D) forced distribution method. E) behaviourally anchored rating scales.

B. Critical indicent method

17) The stage of oneʹs career, including the period during which many people are faced with the prospect of accepting reduced levels of power and responsibility and having to accept the new roles of mentor and confidante for those who are younger, is called the: A) maintenance stage. B) decline stage. C) consultant stage. D) stabilization stage. E) mentor stage.

B. DECLINE STAGE

41) Which job analysis technique is meaningless for jobs requiring mental effort? A) an individual interview B) direct observation C) a position analysis questionnaire D) a participant diary/log E) a survey questionnaire

B. DIRECT OBSERVATION

30) Members of designated groups should have as much chance of successfully completing the training program as do others to prevent any: A) grievance actions. B) discrimination. C) unreliable results. D) on-the-job training. E) job instruction training.

B. DISCRIMINATION

2) The critical step in employeesʹ understanding of how their work makes a contribution is: A) the promotion decision. B) defining performance expectations. C) the career planning session. D) the pay decision. E) the appraisal session.

B. Defining performance expectations

64) When a person is accused of poor performance, research indicates that the first reaction that he/she may have is often: A) anger. B) denial. C) changing the subject. D) ignoring the accusation. E) aggression.

B. Denial

61) ʺLearning management systemsʺ are: A) learner support tools. B) focused on the logistics of managing learning. C) able to deliver personalized content in small ʺchunks.ʺ D) ʺblended learning systems.ʺ E) educational strategies.

B. FOCUSED ON THE LOGISTICS OF MANAGING LEARNING

48) The job analysis method that rates each job in terms of the incumbentʹs responsibilities pertaining to data, people, and things is known as: A) PAQ. B) functional job analysis. C) a structured survey. D) direct observation. E) a participant diary/log.

B. FUNCTIONAL JOB ANALYSIS

13) The performance appraisal method which is similar to grading on a curve, and which places a predetermined percentage of ratees in various performance categories, is the: A) graphic rating scale. B) forced distribution method. C) paired comparison method. D) alternation ranking method. E) critical incident method.

B. Forced distribution method

50) In a study involving more than 200 industrial managers, the type of performance rating that predicted who would be promoted was the: A) committee appraisal. B) self-appraisal. C) supervisor appraisal. D) peer appraisal. E) customer appraisal.

D. Peer appraisal

4) Developmental activities are: A) providing educational and training resources required to help employees identify job-sharing opportunities. B) providing educational and training resources required to help employees identify their career potential. C) providing educational and training resources required to help managers identify job rotations. D) providing on the job training. E) providing educational and training resources required to help employees identify career-related progress

B. PROVIDING EDUCATIONAL AND TRAINING RESOURCES REQUIRED TO HELP EMPLOYEES IDENTIFY THEIR CAREER POTENTIAL

12) The performance appraisal method that would use a ʺ+ʺ to denote ʺbetter thanʺ and a ʺ-ʺ to denote ʺworse thanʺ when comparing employees in order to get the highest -ranked employee is the: A) alternation ranking method. B) paired comparison method. C) graphic rating scale method. D) critical incident method. E) forced distribution method.

B. Paired comparison method

56) 360-degree feedback was originally used only for training and development purposes, but has rapidly spread to being used in the management of: A) job evaluation. B) performance and pay. C) customer service. D) rating errors. E) employee orientation.

B. Performance and pay

35) The following are problems for managers when using performance appraisal methods EXCEPT: A) halo effect. B) quota appraisals. C) appraisal bias. D) unclear standards. E) central tendency.

B. Quota appraisals

8) You are a consultant that has been hired by a large retailer to lead a workshop for management trainees on the topic of career planning and development. Which of the following do you advise the trainees are the required skills for an employee accepting responsibility for his or her career? A) career planning, self-assessment B) self motivation, independent learning, effective time and money management, self-promotion C) entrepreneurialism, networking, money management D) goal orientation, networking E) self-motivation, effective time management

B. SELF MOTIVATION, INDEPENDENT LEARNING, EFFECTIVE TIME AND MONEY MANAGEMENT, SELF-PROMOTION

44) All of the following are common interviewer objectives EXCEPT: A) assessing applicantsʹ qualifications. B) selling their skills. C) promoting the organization. D) observing interpersonal skills. E) providing candidates with information about the job.

B. SELLING THEIR SKILLS

67) Cultural sensitivity training includes: A) T-groups. B) sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work. C) on-the-job training. D) language training. E) audiovisual techniques

B. SENSITIZING EMPLOYEES TO THE VIEWS OF DIFFERENT CULTURAL GROUPS TOWARD WORK

5) The multiple hurdle strategy is an approach to selection involving a(n): A) series of interviews. B) series of successive steps or hurdles. C) selection of instruments for selection purposes. D) reliability and validity analysis. E) none of the above.

B. SERIES OF SUCCESSIVE STEPS OR HURDLES

23) Yung made a choice to leave a large management consulting firm she had worked at for 10 years to become the Executive Director of a newly established non profit association, ChildAid, which is dedicated to helping children living in poverty. She had been volunteering with the organization prior to become the Executive Director as she was inspired by the organizationʹs mission. ChildAid has enough funds to give her a very modest salary for a year. She must engage in vigourous fundraising efforts to enable the organization to continue paying her salary beyond 1 year. Yung most likely has the following career anchors: A) creativity and autonomy. B) service/ dedication. C) service/dedication and security. D) independence and lifestyle. E) technical/functional.

B. SERVICE / DEDICATION

47) When employees are not made aware of jobs that are available, criteria for promotion and how the decisions are made, the link between performance and promotion is: A) weakened. B) severed. C) strengthened. D) diminished. E) none of the above.

B. SEVERED

10) The manager performs the following career development functions EXCEPT: A) offering organizational support. B) shielding the employee from organizational resources and career options. C) listening to and clarifying the individualʹs career plans. D) giving feedback. E) generating career options.

B. SHIELDING THE EMPLOYEE FROM ORGANIZATIONAL RESOURCES AND CAREER OPTIONS

51) While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given situation, ________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation in the past. A) structured; situational B) situational; behavioural C) nondirective; behavioural D) behavioural,;situational E) stress; situational

B. SITUATIONAL; BEHAVIOURAL

28) The HR department of a company is engaged in conducting a job analysis. A number of the HR representatives are collecting data on job activities, required employee behaviours, work conditions and human traits and abilities needed to perform the jobs. Which step of the job analysis process is the company in? A) step 5 B) step 4 C) step 1 D) step 2 E) step 3

B. STEP 4

53) When a management development program is individualized and it is aimed at filling a specific executive position, this process is usually called: A) personnel planning. B) succession planning. C) management forecasting. D) management needs analysis and development. E) individual development.

B. SUCCESSION PLANNING

24) The following are steps in an ideal training program EXCEPT: A) validation. B) summarize and review. C) instructional design. D) evaluation. E) needs analysis.

B. SUMMARIZE AND REVIEW

62) Amy is the new Director of Learning and Development at a pharmaceutical company, Medica Inc. She is designing the off the job management development program for Medica and will be including the case student method of learning. The following elements are present in a case study method of training EXCEPT: A) presenting findings and solutions to the group. B) summarizing events to stockholders. C) diagnosing problems. D) discussion with other trainees. E) analyzing cases in private.

B. SUMMARIZING EVENTS TO STOCKHOLDERS

28) MBO almost always refers to a comprehensive organization -wide goal-setting and appraisal program that consists of the following steps EXCEPT: A) providing feedback to employees. B) setting long-term performance targets. C) setting the organizationʹs goals. D) setting the departmentʹs goals. E) discussing the departmentʹs goals.

B. Setting long-term performance targets

76) Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing reference information is true EXCEPT: A) Failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits. B) The defence of ʺqualified privilegeʺ protects reference givers, regardless of the circumstances. C) Many companies are adopting a ʺno referenceʺ policy. D) Even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the reference giver is legally protected. E) As long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally protected.

B. THE DEFENSE OF "QUALIFIED PRIVILEDGE" PROTECTS REFERENCE GIVERS, REGARDLESS OF THE CIRCUMSTANCES

32) Collecting job analysis information generally involves: A) a member from senior management. B) the jobholderʹs immediate supervisor. C) peer groups. D) a union representative. E) an external consultant.

B. THE JOBHOLDER'S IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR

27) Trainees learn best when they learn at: A) the pace set by their trainer. B) their own pace. C) the pace set by their supervisor. D) an off-the-job setting. E) a country resort.

B. THEIR OWN PACE

4) A selection ratio of 1:3 generally means the following: A) there are high quality recruits and many applicants from which to select. B) there are a limited number of applicants from which to select and likely low quality recruits. C) there are a limited number of applicants from which to select. D) there are many applicants from which to select. E) there are low quality recruits but many applicants from which to select

B. THERE ARE A LIMITED NUMBER OF APPLICANTS FROM WHICH TO SELECT AND LIKELY LOW QUALITY RECRUITS

75) Avica Inc., a Toronto based furniture manufacturer is considering encouraging certain key employees to continue employment past age 60. You are a consultant hired by Avica to advise on whether the company should take this step and to discuss the latest research in to the impacts on Canadian firms of continuing the employment of key employees past age 60. What do you advise? A) These employees are usually risk averse and backward looking. B) These employees often have a stronger work ethic. C) These employees often have a higher rate of absenteeism. D) Many have diminished mental capacity. E) These employees often have a stronger work ethic but a higher rate of absenteeism.

B. THESE EMPLOYEES OFTEN HAVE A STRONGER WORK ETHIC

41) Harold is the recently hired CEO of a telecommunications company. He wishes to create a learning organization. Activities that are necessary for this to occur include: A) establishing a career development program. B) transferring knowledge. C) making effective promotion decisions. D) making effective transfer decisions. E) making effective termination decisions.

B. TRANSFERRING KNOWLEDGE

67) The following steps are important to ensure that the appraisal interview leads to improved performance EXCEPT: A) set improvement goals and a schedule for attaining them. B) the supervisor should be in firm control of the interview. C) ensure employees donʹt feel threatened during the interview. D) give employees the opportunity to present their ideas and feelings. E) the supervisor should be helpful and constructive.

B. The supervisor should be in firm control of the interview

75) Hints for making reference checking more productive include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Use references provided by the applicant as a source for other references. B) Use an assessment centre. C) Use a structured form. D) Persist in order to obtain information from the references who are difficult to reach. E) Obtain consent for reference checks.

B. USE AN ASSESSMENT CENTRE

52) Behavioural questions describe: A) preset candidate reactions. B) various situations experienced in the past. C) candidate personality D) hypothetical situations. E) future behaviour.

B. VARIOUS SITUATIONS EXPERIENCED IN THE PAST

54) A training method that joins two or more distant groups using a combination of audio and visual equipment is called: A) computer program training. B) videoconferencing. C) job instruction training. D) on-the-job training. E) programmed learning.

B. VIDEOCONFRENCING

29) The main reasons for increasing health care benefit costs are: A) psychiatric disabilities and AIDS. B) rising drug utilization and expensive new drugs. C) increasing use of expensive new drugs, rising drug utilization, and ʺcost cuttingʺ reductions in provincial health care plans. D) increasing workersʹ compensation claims for occupational illness, and expensive new drugs. E) ʺcost cuttingʺ in provincial health care plans, and the AIDS epidemic.

C) increasing use of expensive new drugs, rising drug utilization, and ʺcost cuttingʺ reductions in provincial health care plans.

39) Online recruiting must be consistent with the companyʹs overall: A) business development strategy. B) sales strategy. C) marketing strategy. D) operations strategy. E) finance strategy.

C) marketing strategy.

50) Group RRSP/DPSP combinations are popular in Kerrieʹs company and commonly popular in Canada. Kerrie found this out because: A) they increase severance payments. B) membership is automatic upon beginning employment. C) no tax is paid until money is received from the plans at the time of employeeʹs death. D) no tax is paid at all. E) employerʹs provide contribution to them.

C) no tax is paid until money is received from the plans at the time of employeeʹs death.

30) Employers may use a recruiting yield pyramid for each recruitment method to determine the: A) number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process. B) number of applicants rejected. C) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees. D) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees. E) projected turnover rate.

C) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees.

27) In a recent survey, local newspaper advertising was rated as ʺvery usefulʺ by 54 percent of respondents for which of the following categories of employees? A) technical employees B) managers/supervisors C) other salaried employees D) executives E) professional employees

C) other salaried employees

48) An advantage of using rate ranges for each pay grade is that it allows for: A) education differences. B) gender differences. C) performance differences. D) employer inflexibility. E) age differences.

C) performance differences.

39) One of the most common approaches to returning a worker with a disability to work is: A) providing additional compensation. B) providing termination pay. C) reduced work duties. D) prevention programs. E) early assessment and intervention.

C) reduced work duties.

48) The most prevalent approach to compensating salespeople is to use a combination of: A) commissions and profit sharing. B) salary, commission, stock options, and profit sharing. C) salary and commissions. D) salary and stock options. E) commission and stock options.

C) salary and commissions

29) When all employees earning over a threshold amount are automatically eligible for consideration for short-term incentives, this is called the criterion of: A) key position. B) job evaluation. C) salary-level cutoff point. D) job clusters. E) salary grade.

C) salary level cutoff point

18) An employer is required to provide advance notice to an employee whose employment is being terminated, unless the employee is working on a short-term contract or: A) a mass layoff is occurring. B) the employee works outdoors. C) the employee is being fired for just cause. D) the company is shutting down. E) the employee is eligible for early retirement.

C) the employee is being fired for just cause.

31) For short term incentives, the term ʺfund sizeʺ means: A) the companyʹs net income. B) the amount each employee will receive. C) the total amount of bonus money that will be available to be paid out. D) average capital invested in the business. E) the incentive bonus formula.

C) the total amount of bonus money that will be avaiilable to be paid out

38) The problem resulting from using data in employee compensation surveys is known as: A) employee discrimination. B) systemic undervaluing. C) upward bias. D) report bias. E) stereotyping of data.

C) upward bias

66) When compensating professional employees, compensable factors tend to focus on the following EXCEPT: A) creativity. B) problem solving. C) working conditions. D) technical expertise. E) technical knowledge.

C) working conditions.

48) Training objectives provide a focus for the efforts of the trainer and the trainees, and: A) orientation topics. B) performance analysis techniques. C) a benchmark for evaluating the success of the training program. D) data for the task analysis record form data. E) input for Markov analysis.

C. A BENCHMARK FOR EVALUATING THE SUCCESS OF THE TRAINING PROGRAM

6) A series of work-related positions, paid or unpaid, that help a person grow in job skills, success, and fulfillment is: A) a job. B) a position. C) a career. D) a profession. E) work.

C. A CAREER

55) Something that should be avoided in writing a job description is: A) a description of the working conditions. B) a definition of the limits of the jobholderʹs authority. C) a general statement such as ʺperforms other duties as assigned.ʺ D) an indication of which tasks are most important. E) a separate listing of each major duty.

C. A GENERAL STATEMENT SUCH AS "PERFORMS OTHER DUTIES AS ASSIGNED"

23) A list of the knowledge, skills and abilities needed to perform a particular job is known as: A) the human requirements. B) a position analysis. C) a job specification. D) a job description. E) the job standards.

C. A JOB SPECIFICATION

59) A training technique by which management trainees are allowed to work full-time analyzing and solving problems in other departments is: A) job rotation. B) the coaching/understudy approach. C) action learning. D) the case study method. E) on-the-job training.

C. ACTION LEARNING

70) Role-playing has some drawbacks. An exercise can take an hour or more to complete, only to be deemed a waste of time by participants if the instructor does not: A) praise the participants. B) lecture at the beginning to all trainees. C) explain what the participants were to learn. D) present an expert system for trainees to observe. E) coach or mentor trainees throughout the session

C. EXPLAIN WHAT THE PARTICIPANTS WERE TO LEARN

51) The following are advantages of using rating committees in the performance appraisal process EXCEPT: A) the composite ratings tend to be more fair than those of individual raters. B) variations in ratersʹ ratings usually stem from the fact that raters often observe different facets of an employeeʹs performance. C) appraisal is generally more biased because of personality clashes. D) the composite ratings tend to be more reliable and valid than those of individual raters. E) several raters can help cancel out problems like bias and halo effect on the part of individual raters.

C. Appraisal is generally more biased because of personality clashes

62) Research findings claim that the interviewer makes up his/her mind about the candidate: A) during the last few minutes of the interview. B) about half-way through the interview. C) before the interview even begins. D) immediately after the interview. E) within the first few minutes of the interview.

C. BEFOER THE INTERVIEW EVEN BEGINS

12) Which of the following statements is true? A) The selection ratio is generally unrelated to the quality of recruits. B) A small selection ratio, such as 25:1, means that there are very few applicants from which to select. C) By basing selection criteria on bona fide occupational requirements, defined through job analysis, firms can create a legally defensible hiring system. D) The organizationʹs right to know outweighs an individualʹs right to privacy. E) Accepting gifts from a private employment agency wanting the firmʹs business is an acceptable practice.

C. BY BASING SELECTION CRITERIA ON BONA FIDE OCCUPATIONAL REQUIREMENTS, DEFINED THROUGH JOB ANALYSIS, FIRMS CAN CREATE A LEGALLY DEFENSIBLE HIRING SYSTEM

1) Which of the following is true about performance management? A) The process does not involve coaching. B) Research indicates that most companies manage performance well. C) Better performance management represents a largely untapped opportunity to improve company profitability. D) It is indirectly related to achieving strategic objectives. E) The process contains 3 steps.

C. Better performance management represents a largerly untapped opportunity to improve company profitability

35) A planned learning event in which participants are expected to be actively involved, completing career planning exercises and inventories and participating in career skills practice sessions is called a(n): A) lecture method of training. B) organization development program. C) career planning workshop. D) job inspection training. E) strategic planning exercise.

C. CAREER PLANNING WORKSHOP

32) Most experts agree that one of the most important things that an employer can do is to provide new employees with: A) computer-oriented first jobs. B) slow-paced first jobs. C) challenging first jobs. D) high-pressure first jobs. E) comfortably paced first jobs.

C. CHALLENGING FIRST JOBS

36) Interest inventories are tests that: A) measure job performance directly. B) measure knowledge and/or proficiency. C) compare a candidateʹs interests with those of people in various occupations. D) apply to extroversion and emotional stability. E) measure basic elements of personality.

C. COMPARE A CANDIDATE'S INTERESTS WITH THOSE OF PEOPLE IN VARIOUS OCCUPATIONS

20) Differential validity is: A) the extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct or trait deemed necessary to perform the job well. B) the extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of work behaviour. C) confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible employee subgroups, including white males. D) the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it is supposed to measure. E) none of the above.

C. CONFIRMATION THAT THE SELECTION TOOL ACCURATELY PREDICTS THE PERFORMANCE OF ALL POSSIBLE EMPLOYEE SUBGROUPS, INCLUDING WHITE MALES

23) The following are steps in developing a behaviourally anchored rating scale EXCEPT: A) scaling the incidents. B) developing performance dimensions. C) causing critical incidents to occur. D) generating critical incidents. E) developing the final instrument.

C. Causing critical incidents to occur

58) An employeeʹs 360-degree appraisal usually involves the following appraisers EXCEPT: A) peers. B) any employees reporting to the person being appraised. C) competitors. D) customers. E) supervisors.

C. Competitors

30) Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicantʹs personality, which include all of the following EXCEPT: A) introversion. B) stability. C) dexterity. D) motivation. E) neurotic tendency.

C. DEXTERITY

65) With a work force that is becoming increasingly diverse, many more firms find they must implement: A) teamwork training programs. B) value training programs. C) diversity training programs. D) experimentation training programs. E) computer-based training.

C. DIVERSITY TRAINING PROGRAMS

10) An example of the alternation ranking method would include the following steps EXCEPT: A) listing the highest-ranking employee on the first line. B) putting the lowest-ranking employee on the last line. C) defining the compensable factors. D) cross off names not known well enough to rank. E) listing all the employees to be ranked.

C. Defining the compensable factors

17) The following are examples of critical incidents for an assistant plant manager EXCEPT: A) preventing a machine breakdown by discovering a faulty part. B) instituting a new preventative maintenance system for the plant. C) developing a corporate strategy to implement company-wide. D) allowing inventory storage costs to rise 15% in the prior month. E) instituting a new production system which decreased late orders by 10%.

C. Developing a corporate strategy to implement company wide

60) To comply with human rights laws an interviewer should not ask questions about any of the following EXCEPT: A) childcare arrangements. B) ethnic background. C) educational qualifications. D) workersʹ compensation history. E) marital status.

C. EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS

46) Sales compensation plans have typically relied heavily on incentives (sales commissions), although this varies by: A) geographic location. B) domestic policy. C) human resource plan. D) industry. E) labour contract.

D) industry

17) Pay rates must be equitable for each employee relative to other pay rates inside the organization. This is known as: A) need for equity. B) compensation plan. C) external equity. D) internal equity. E) wage compensation.

D) internal equity.

54) Nepotism: A) is a disadvantage as associated with hiring on an on-line job board. B) is a preference for hiring past colleagues of current employees; this is associated with employee referrals. C) is associated with recruiting at schools. D) is a preference for hiring relatives of current employees. E) can cause morale problems associated with hiring for executive positions.

D) is a preference for hiring relatives of current employeeS

23) The process whereby several people meet together who are familiar with the jobs in question, and who may have different perspectives regarding the nature of the jobs, is called a(n): A) union negotiating team. B) management negotiating team. C) position review committee. D) job evaluation committee. E) performance appraisal.

D) job evaluation committee.

73) Amish is the human resources professional at a software development company that has experienced high employee turnover over the past year. The CEO has asked him to explain what the most likely primary cause of this is. Amish reports that recent research indicates that the number-one reason that employees leave an organization is: A) conflict with supervisor. B) poor leadership. C) low pay. D) lack of recognition and praise. E) unattractive benefits.

D) lack of recognition and praise

72) Sue, the Compensation Analyst, found recent research that indicates that there are seven principles that support effective implementation of incentive plans. They include: A) group incentives must be complex. B) firms get what they pay for. C) rewards may undermine responsiveness. D) link incentives to measurable competencies. E) none of the above

D) link incentives to measurable competencies

52) Defined benefit plans are expected to remain in large organizations with a norm of: A) layoffs. B) high turnover. C) unionization. D) long tenure. E) early retirement incentives.

D) long tenure.

34) A plan that offers each person a bonus based on the companyʹs results, regardless of the personʹs actual effort, is called: A) gainsharing. B) a lump-sum bonus. C) financial incentives. D) profit sharing. E) piece-rate production.

D) profit sharing

41) The fastest growing occupational disabilities are: A) chronic fatigue. B) back problems. C) repetitive strain injuries. D) psychiatric. E) HIV/AIDS-related.

D) psychiatric.

42) In these long-term incentive plans, shares are usually awarded without cost to the executive, but with certain restrictions that are imposed by the employer. These plans are called: A) book value plans. B) stock appreciation rights. C) stock options. D) restricted stock plans. E) phantom stock plans.

D) restricted stock plans

40) The following are long-term incentive plans extended to employees EXCEPT: A) stock options. B) phantom stock plans. C) restricted stock plans. D) retained earnings plans. E) stock appreciation rights.

D) retained earnings plans

22) You are a recruiter for a telecommunications company. When recruiting for the position of Director of Customer Service which of the following is most helpful as a supplement to job postings to ensure that qualified internal candidates are identified and considered when vacancies arise? A) a telephone hot-line B) a succession plan C) a replacement chart D) skills inventories E) replacement summaries

D) skills inventories

14) Under this pay system, each worker receives a set payment for each piece produced or processed in a factory or shop. It is known as a: A) process plan. B) piecework plan. C) gainsharing plan. D) straight piecework plan. E) guaranteed piecework plan.

D) straight piecework plan

56) There are often more opportunities for advancement with skill-based pay plans than with job-based pay plans because of: A) higher base pay. B) the emphasis on years of experience. C) the lack of job evaluation. D) the company-wide focus on skill building. E) less bureaucracy.

D) the company-wide focus on skill building.

55) A Canadian bank has for several years established formal promotion procedures and published these procedures so all employees are aware of the criteria by which promotions are rewarded. What are the benefits to the bank of doing this? A) Replacement summaries are better utilized. B) There are no benefits. C) Managers have greater autonomy and more discretion in promotion decisions. D) A greater number of qualified employees are likely to be considered for openings and promotion becomes more closely linked to performance for employees. E) A greater number of qualified employees are likely to be considered for openings and managers have more discretion in promotion decisions.

D. A GREATER NUMBER OF QUALIFIED EMPLOYEES ARE LIKELY TO BE CONSIDERED FOR OPENINGS AND PROMOTION BECOMES MORE CLOSELY LINKED TO PERFORMANCE FOR EMPLOYEES

22) A list of a jobʹs duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and working conditions is known as A) a job specification. B) a position analysis. C) a job analysis questionnaire. D) a job description. E) the job standards.

D. A JOB DESCRIPTION

24) Collecting job analysis data in a larger organization usually involves: A) the work of the supervisor alone. B) a labour union. C) the work of the HR specialist alone. D) a joint effort by a HR specialist, the incumbent, and the supervisor. E) HR generalists who are not consultants.

D. A JOINT EFFORT BY A HR SPECIALIST, THE INCUMBENT, AND THE SUPERVISOR

40) The problem of exaggeration of some activities and underplaying of others is minimized by the detailed, chronological nature of: A) a position analysis questionnaire. B) a survey questionnaire. C) an individual interview. D) a participant diary/log. E) functional job analysis.

D. A PARTICIPANT DIARY/LOG

69) A performance appraisal system that does not force managers to give false or misleading measurements and instead facilitates open, job-related discussions between the supervisor and the employee is: A) behaviourally anchored rating scales. B) total quality control. C) management by objectives. D) a performance management system. E) self-managed teams.

D. A performance management system

33) The most widely used method for determining the duties and responsibilities of a job is: A) a participant diary/log. B) direct observation. C) a position analysis questionnaire. D) an interview. E) a survey questionnaire.

D. AN INTERVIEW

23) The following are steps in an employeeʹs training program EXCEPT: A) validating the training program. B) designing the training program. C) evaluating the training. D) attending the orientation program. E) assessing training needs.

D. ATTENDING THE ORIENTATION PROGRAM

22) A concern or value that a person who is engaged in career planning will not give up if a choice must be made is referred to as a(n): A) value anchor. B) skill. C) planning anchor. D) career anchor. E) anchor.

D. CAREER ANCHOR

1) The deliberate process through which an employee becomes aware of personal career -related attributes and the lifelong series of activities that contribute to his or her career fulfillment is known as: A) the growth stage of the career cycle. B) a career cycle. C) empowerment. D) career planning and development. E) the exploration stage of the career cycle.

D. CAREER PLANNING AND DEVELOPMENT

5) Career-oriented firms stress career-oriented appraisals that link past performance and: A) the internal job posting system. B) training resources. C) fundamental skills. D) career preferences and developmental needs. E) teamwork skills.

D. CAREER PREFERENCES AND DEVELOPMENTAL NEEDS

2) An organization chart is often used to depict the structure of an organization. The chart is also used to: A) specify duties and responsibilities. B) present a ʺsnapshotʺ of the firm at a particular point in time. C) indicate the types of departments established in the firm. D) clarify the chain of command and show who is accountable to whom. E) There are no exceptions listed above.

D. CLARIFY THE CHAIN OF COMMAND AND SHOW WHO IS ACCOUNTABLE TO WHOM

6) Effective means to connect the firm to employees who have been hired but have not yet started in the workplace include: A) performance management. B) voicemail training. C) invitations to meet with mentors. D) communications through newsletters and invitations to meet with mentors. E) no means are recommended.

D. COMMUNICATIONS THROUGH NEWSLETTERS AND INVITATIONS TO MEET WITH MENTORS

70) You have chosen the instructional design for the new training program you are responsible for. In order to ensure that the training program will meet its objectives it is important to do the following before implementing the program company -wide: A) decide whether computer-based training is appropriate. B) assess employee socialization. C) conduct a job analysis. D) conduct a pilot study with a small group of employees and assess the results. E) do a needs assessment.

D. CONDUCT A PILOT STUDY WITH A SMALL GROUP OF EMPLOYEES AND ASSESS THE RESULTS

11) One approach to the evaluation of orientation programs is: A) Markov analysis. B) regression analysis. C) quality circles. D) cost-benefit analysis. E) case studies.

D. COST-BENEFIT ANALYSIS

28) Under Canadian human rights legislation, several aspects of training programs must be assessed with an eye toward the programʹs impact on: A) white males. B) reverse discrimination. C) highly educated workers. D) designated group members. E) company profits.

D. DESIGNATED GROUP MEMBERS

56) A management training technique that involves moving a trainee from department to department in order to broaden his/her experience and identify strong and weak points is called: A) job enlargement. B) job enrichment. C) global job rotation. D) developmental job rotation. E) action learning.

D. DEVELOPMENTAL JOB ROTATION

51) Jim was recently hired as an HR assistant. As his first project his immediate supervisor requested that he put forward a proposal to develop job descriptions for some of the key positions within the organization. What do you think Jim would have identified in the proposal as most common areas to be included in a job description? A) job holderʹs name B) company name C) summary of performance evaluations D) duties and responsibilities E) work culture

D. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES

35) No matter what training needs assessment technique is used to assess training effectiveness, it is wise to seek input from: A) training journals. B) professional trainers. C) other companies. D) employees. E) managers and supervisors.

D. EMPLOYEES

69) According to the 30/70 rule: A) interviewers should remain silent 30 percent of the time. B) the interview should be structured to begin with 30 minutes of questions from the interviewer followed by 70 minutes of questions from the interviewee. C) interviewers should speak 70 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 30 percent of the time. D) interviewers should speak 30 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 70 percent of the time. E) interviewees should remain silent 30 percent of the time

D. INTERVIEWERS SHOULD SPEAK 30% OF THE TIME AND INTERVIEWEES SHOULD SPEAK 70% OF THE TIME

9) Work simplification is an approach to job design. Which of the following statement is true of work simplification? A) It is effective in a changing environment. B) It can be used to motivate highly educated employees. C) It can sometimes lead to a reduced demand for premium pay. D) It is based on the premise that work can be broken down into clearly defined tasks. E) It may be very appropriate in settings employing highly educated persons.

D. IT IS BASED ON THE PREMISE THAT WORK CAN BE BROKEN DOWN INTO CLEARLY DEFINED TASKS

17) Which of the following statements is true? A) Job redesign efforts can correct almost all job dissatisfaction problems. B) Unions are generally very supportive of job enrichment. C) Managers tend to be very supportive of job enrichment because it makes their jobs easier. D) Job enrichment programs are more successful in some jobs and settings than others. E) Most employees today want additional responsibilities.

D. JOB ENRICHMENT PROGRAMS ARE MORE SUCCESSFUL IN SOME JOBS AND SETTINGS THAN OTHERS

52) Many jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step by step. This type of training is called: A) computerized training. B) on-the-job training. C) vestibule training. D) job instruction training. E) process training.

D. JOB INSTRUCTION TRAINING

53) The section of the job description in which the major functions or activities are briefly identified is the: A) job duties. B) job identification. C) working conditions. D) job summary. E) relationships.

D. JOB SUMMARY

31) Job analysis information should be verified by: A) speaking to co-workers. B) HR department staff members. C) a comparison with the procedures manual. D) jobholder(s). E) a comparison with the previous job description

D. JOBHOLDER(S)

55) The 360-degree appraisal approach supports the following activities EXCEPT: A) leadership development. B) recognition. C) succession planning. D) job evaluation. E) coaching.

D. Job Evaluation

19) Training is essentially a (n): A) technical process. B) assessment process. C) testing process. D) learning process. E) memorizing process.

D. LEARNING PROCESS

54) The following are steps contained in a typical succession program EXCEPT: A) Job rotation and executive development programs are arranged. B) Management replacement charts are drawn. C) Management skills inventories are prepared. D) Management forecasts of the competition are made. E) An organization projection must be made.

D. MANAGEMENT FORECASTS OF THE COMPETITION ARE MADE

59) When several candidates are interviewed simultaneously by a panel, this is referred to as a ________ interview. A) patterned B) panel C) sequential D) mass E) stress

D. MASS

43) The last column of the task analysis record form indicates whether the task is best learned from: A) job instruction training. B) simulated training. C) on-the-job training. D) on- or off-the-job training. E) vestibule training.

D. ON OR OFF THE JOB TRAINING

38) Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following EXCEPT: A) objective tests. B) a leaderless group discussion. C) an in-basket exercise. D) on-the-job training. E) individual presentations.

D. ON THE JOB TRAINING

9) Targus, an engineering consulting company based in Vancouver, Canada, has opened new offices in Hong Kong and Singapore. Targus wishes to hire Asian-born staff for these new offices and would also like to increase the percentage of aboriginal persons it hires as engineering consultants in British Columbia and Saskatchewan. Given this shift in hiring practices, designing the orientation program for the company will present the following challenge: A) the main leaning style of new employees will be auditory. B) the challenge of union vs non-union employees. C) hiring a diverse workforce creates a new corporate culture. D) orienting employees from a different background poses a special challenge. The values of the organization may be new to them. E) there is no challenge.

D. ORIENTING EMPLOYEES FROM A DIFFERENT BACKGROUND POSES A SPECIAL CHALLENGE. THE VALUES OF THE ORGANIZATION MAY BE NEW TO THEM.

57) The interviewing method in which the applicant is interviewed by a number of people at once is known as: A) behavioural. B) sequential. C) mass. D) panel. E) serialized.

D. PANEL

57) ʺNo more than three posting errors per month occur on average.ʺ Which component of the job description would this statement belong to? A) job identification B) relationships C) job summary D) performance standards E) responsibilities and duties

D. PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

63) The halo effect related to selection is a: A) negative impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewerʹs rating. B) positive impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewerʹs rating. C) negative initial impression that distorts an interviewerʹs rating. D) positive initial impression that distorts an interviewerʹs rating. E) None of the above.

D. POSITIVE INITIAL IMPRESSION THAT DISTORTS AN INTERVIEWER'S RATING

78) The best strategy for creating appropriate expectations about the job is: A) using simulations. B) providing an in-depth interview. C) giving each applicant a copy of the job description. D) providing a realistic job preview. E) using realistic testing.

D. PROVIDING A REALISTIC JOB PREVIEW

34) Hanan is the manager of a busy branch of a credit union. She has recently hired new staff and has noticed that the more work she gives to them and the more she expects of them the better they perform. This relationship is referred to as the: A) expectation effect. B) supportive effect. C) deadwood effect. D) Pygmalion effect. E) demand effect.

D. PYGMALION EFFECT

68) A training technique in which trainees act out the parts of people in a realistic management situation is called: A) case study method. B) realistic training. C) action learning. D) role-playing. E) situational training

D. ROLE-PLAYING

29) Time-lapse data: A) can not be used for every recruitment method. B) is the average number of days from when the company initiates a recruitment method to when the successful candidate begins to work and has completed the orientation process. C) does not take into account the amount of lead time available. D) is not a useful tool in the recruitment process. E) is the average number of days from when the company initiates a recruitment method to when the successful candidate begins to work.

E) is the average number of days from when the company initiates a recruitment method to when the successful candidate begins to work.

13) The most commonly used and oldest type of incentive plan is this system of pay based on the number of items processed by each individual worker in a unit of time. It is known as a(n): A) process plan. B) gainsharing plan. C) item plan. D) standard hour plan. E) piecework plan.

E) piecework plan

37) Disability management is a: A) reactive, employer-centred process. B) proactive, employee-centred process. C) proactive, employer-centred process. D) process that coordinates the activities of employer and employee. E) proactive, employer-centred process that coordinates activities of the employer, the insurance company, and health care providers.

E) proactive, employer-centred process that coordinates activities of the employer, the insurance company, and health care providers.

66) You are a recruiter with a software development firm and are seeking to fill positions requiring specific computer programming knowledge and work experience. Which of the following recruitment sources or methods would be particularly useful to you? A) educational institutions B) a labour organization C) newspaper advertising D) write-ins E) professional and trade associations

E) professional and trade associations

22) The following are reasons to use team incentive plans EXCEPT: A) helping ensure collaboration. B) facilitating on-the-job training. C) reinforcing problem solving. D) reinforcing group planning. E) reinforcing individual incentives.

E) reinforcing individual incentives

56) Once an employee is vested, he or she will not receive any benefit from the pension plan until: A) 30 years of service. B) termination. C) changing jobs. D) disability. E) retirement.

E) retirement.

69) Open houses are: A) common in government organizations. B) the most popular recruitment method. C) not used today. D) none of the above E) the choice when there are many jobs for candidates.

E) the choice when there are many jobs for candidates.

27) The amount of health/dental expenses an employee must pay before insurance benefits will be paid is called: A) workersʹ compensation. B) dental coverage. C) coinsurance. D) life insurance. E) the deductible.

E) the deductible.

10) Pay equity laws were enacted in response to: A) pay discrimination against senior citizens B) gender-neutral job evaluation systems. C) the variety of job evaluation systems being used to evaluate jobs. D) the variety of compensable factors being used to evaluate jobs. E) the historical undervaluing of ʺwomenʹs work.ʺ

E) the historical undervaluing of ʺwomenʹs work.ʺ

9) An engineering consulting company operating across Canada has launched an initiative to recruit engineers from England. Which of the constraints on the recruitment process is this most likely primarily designed to address? A) employment equity plans B) employment status policies C) inducements offered by competitors D) compensation policies E) the labour shortage for certain occupations in Canada

E) the labour shortage for certain occupations in Canada

19) Some provinces require additional termination pay when mass layoffs occur. The amount of additional pay depends on: A) the employeeʹs length of service. B) the level of unemployment in the region. C) the reasons for the layoff. D) the time of year. E) the number of employees being laid off.

E) the number of employees being laid off.

28) Yield ratio is: A) applicants who perform well in the hiring process. B) the percentage of applicants that will not proceed to the next stage of the process. C) applicants that do not continue in the hiring process. D) applicants who perform poorly in the hiring process. E) the percentage of applicants that proceed to the next stage of the process

E) the percentage of applicants that proceed to the next stage of the process

46) Best practices for career Web sites include: A) flashy design. B) focusing on easy navigation but not allowing fast download times. C) allowing no third-party sources of information. D) presenting material in large blocks of text. E) trying to personalize each job seekerʹs experience.

E) trying to personalize each job seekerʹs experience.

42) The graphic description of the relationship between the value of the job and the average wage paid for this job is called a: A) wage structure. B) rate range. C) wage grade. D) pay grade. E) wage curve.

E) wage curve.

62) Web-based training costs about ________ less than traditional classroom -based training. A) 40% B) 5% C) 20% D) 80% E) 50%

E. 50%

29) The blueprint that shows how the flow of inputs to outputs for the job under study is known as: A) a pay grade. B) a job specification. C) a job description. D) an organization chart. E) a process chart.

E. A PROCESS CHART

30) During a job analysis process it is important to consider the following: A) reviewing the organization chart, process charts and existing job descriptions. B) collecting data on identified jobs using job analysis techniques. C) reviewing information with job holders and immediate supervisors. D) selecting representative positions and jobs to be analyzed. E) all of the above.

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

71) Recent research has identified critical competencies required to succeed in the global economy. They are: A) business literacy. B) understanding and valuing oneself. C) engaging and challenging other people. D) focusing and mobilizing the business. E) all of the above.

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

51) A structured process by which individuals become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is referred to as: A) job instruction training. B) computerized training. C) vestibule training. D) special assignment training. E) apprenticeship training.

E. APPRENTICESHIP TRAINING

63) Amy is the new Director of Learning and Development at a pharmaceutical company, Medica Inc. She is designing the off the job management development program for Medica and will be including the case student method of learning. She wishes to improve the effectiveness of this method for the development of new management hires. Which of the following steps would NOT increase effectiveness: A) instructors should act as a catalyst or coach. B) participants should discuss the case in small groups before class. C) cases should be actual scenarios from the traineesʹ own firm. D) instructors should guard against dominating the case analysis. E) cases should be scenarios from companies other than that of the trainees.

E. CASES SHOULD BE SCENARIOS FROM COMPANIES OTHER THAN THAT OF THE TRAINEES

59) A training technique where trainees are presented with integrated computerized simulations and the use of multimedia, including videotapes, to help the trainee learn how to do the job is called: A) coaching or mentoring. B) job instruction training. C) videoconferencing. D) on-the-job training. E) computer-based training.

E. COMPUTER BASED TRAINING

47) Effective training needs analysis results in: A) performance analysis. B) excellent job performance. C) performance standards. D) task analysis. E) concrete, measurable training objectives

E. CONCRETE, MEASURABLE TRAINING OBJECTIVES

25) Renu made a choice to leave a mid-sized law firm and start her own law practice where she is the named principal in the firm. It will take her at least a year to pay back the loan she has taken out in anticipation that her practice will be successful. She will work very long work hours until she establishes a good client base and gains sufficient funds to hire support staff. Renu values that she now chooses which clients to accept work from and which area of law to practice in. Renu most likely has the following career anchors: A) service/dedication and autonomy. B) lifestyle. C) service/ dedication and security. D) technical/functional. E) creativity and autonomy and independence.

E. CREATIVITY AND AUTONOMY AND INDEPENDENCE

39) Kai has a tendency to rate all of his direct reports as average. Kaiʹs actions indicate the following performance appraisal problem: A) equal rating tendency. B) halo effect. C) bias. D) appraisal bias. E) central tendency.

E. Central Tendency

32) Because of good results, more employers are turning to a new approach to appraisal, namely a(n): A) critical incidents narrative. B) point method plan. C) forced distribution system. D) bell-shaped curve. E) computerized performance appraisal system.

E. Computerized performance appraisal system

25) The final step in job analysis involves the following: A) developing a compensation policy. B) collecting data on job activities. C) performance management. D) reviewing the information collected with job incumbents. E) developing a job description and a job specification.

E. DEVELOPING A JOB DESCRIPTION AND A JOB SPECIFICATION

65) Computerized management games are good developmental tools for the following reasons EXCEPT: A) fostering cooperation. B) development of leadership skills. C) fostering teamwork. D) development of problem-solving skills. E) development of computer skills.

E. DEVELOPMENT OF COMPUTER SKILLS

55) A serialized interview occurs when: A) a panel simultaneously interviews several candidates. B) a candidateʹs oral and/or computerized responses are obtained in response to computerized oral and written questions. C) each interviewer evaluates the applicant from his or her own point of view. D) each interviewee only attends one interview. E) each interviewer rates the candidate on a standard evaluation form, and the ratings are compared before the hiring decision is made.

E. EACH INTERVIEWER RATES THE CANDIDATE ON A STANDARD EVALUATION FORM, AND THE RATINGS ARE COMPARED BEFORE THE HIRING DECISION IS MADE

69) The basic aim of customer service training is to: A) use online training. B) use CBT training. C) train all employees to have excellent knowledge of the organization. D) train in teams. E) emphasize that ʺthe customer is always right.ʺ

E. EMPHASIZE THAT "THE CUSTOMER IS ALWAYS RIGHT"

48) Employees seek transfers for the following reasons EXCEPT: A) personal enrichment. B) better location of work. C) greater possibility of advancement. D) a more interesting job. E) enhancement of family life.

E. ENHANCEMENT OF FAMILY LIFE

18) Seeking to integrate and accommodate the physical needs of workers into the design of jobs is known as: A) scientific management. B) industrial engineering. C) job enrichment. D) job enlargement. E) ergonomics.

E. ERGONOMICS

15) The stage of oneʹs career, including the period roughly from ages 24 to 44 that is the heart of most peopleʹs work lives, is called the: A) exploration stage. B) interaction stage. C) adult stage. D) maintenance steps. E) establishment stage.

E. ESTABLISHMENT STAGE

25) Intelligence tests measure all of the following traits EXCEPT: A) memory. B) verbal fluency. C) vocabulary. D) numerical ability. E) extrasensory perception.

E. EXTRASENSORY PERCEPTION

53) The basic problem with employee self-ratings is: A) employee reluctance to self-rate. B) peers rate themselves lower than they are rated by supervisors or peers. C) lack of anonymity. D) supervisor distrust of employee self-ratings. E) employees rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers.

E. Employees rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers

16) The following are advantages of the critical incident method EXCEPT: A) ensures that the evaluator thinks about the employeeʹs appraisal all during the year. B) can be used to supplement another appraisal technique. C) provides the evaluator with some specific hard facts for explaining the appraisal. D) provides concrete examples of what an employee can do to eliminate any performance deficiencies. E) ensures that the evaluator will only consider the employeeʹs most recent job performance.

E. Ensures that the evaluator will only consider the employee's most recent job performance

69) Role-playing trains a trainee to be aware of and sensitive to the: A) background of others. B) expertise of others. C) decisions of others. D) thoughts of others. E) feelings of others.

E. FEELINGS OF OTHERS

4) The on-going process of instilling in all employees the prevailing attitudes, standards, values, and patterns of behaviour that are expected by the organization and its departments is: A) performance appraisal. B) affirmative action. C) job evaluation. D) culture. E) socialization.

E. SOCIALIZATION

59) Which of the following statements related to legal compliance is true? A) Canadian employers are legally obligated to have job descriptions. B) When assessing suitability for employment, employers can assess factors other than those related to the knowledge, skills and abilities required for the essential job duties. C) If a candidate is unable to perform one or more of the essential job duties due to a physical disability, it is legally permissible for an employer to refuse to hire that individual. D) If a candidate is unable to work on Friday evenings due to religious beliefs, and rotating shifts are a job requirement specified in the working conditions subsection of the job description, the reasonable accommodation provisions of human rights legislation do not apply. E) Indicating the percentage of time spent on each duty can help to differentiate between essential and nonessential tasks and responsibilities.

E. INDICATING THE PERCENTAGE OF TIME SPENT ON EACH DUTY CAN HELP TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN ESSENTIAL AND NONESSENTIAL TASKS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

10) The field of study concerned with analyzing work methods and establishing time standards is known as: A) ergonomics. B) job evaluation. C) job design. D) job analysis. E) industrial engineering.

E. INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

36) It is common for organizations to hire and train entry-level workers who are: A) very intelligent. B) highly motivated. C) highly experienced. D) highly educated. E) inexperienced.

E. INEXPERIENCED

60) Computer-based training programs (CBT) are beneficial in the following ways: A) instructional consistency. B) increased auditory learning. C) decreased content complexity. D) increased trainee motivation. E) instructional consistency and flexibility of scheduling for the trainee.

E. INSTRUCTIONAL CONSISTENCY AND FLEXIBILITY OF SCHEDULING FOR THE TRAINEE

72) Suggestions to ensure that questioning is effective include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Listen to the candidate and encourage the full expression of his or her thoughts. B) Prepare questions in advance. C) Ask questions in order. D) Record the candidateʹs answers briefly but thoroughly. E) Interrogate the applicant.

E. INTERROGATE THE APPLICANT

16) Which of the following is true of industrial engineering? A) It is a field of study focused on worker autonomy. B) It is about control and autonomy. C) It is a field of study concerned with analyzing work methods. D) It is a field of study focused on satisfying psychological needs. E) It is a field of study emerging with scientific management which is concerned with analyzing work methods and making them more efficient.

E. IT IS A FIELD OF STUDY EMERGING WITH SCIENTIFIC MANAGEMENT WHICH IS CONCERNED WITH ANALYZING WORK METHODS AND MAKING THEM MORE EFFICIENT.

14) Lee has been with a financial institution for over a year now as a call centre specialist. During his time he has had the opportunity to work in two other departments. The organization adopts a similar technique with other employees in the call centre. This is known as: A) job enlargement. B) job enrichment. C) skill variety. D) vertical loading. E) job rotation.

E. JOB ROTATION

47) The PAQ rates jobs on the following dimension: A) safety risks. B) job context. C) processing information and incumbent performance. D) incumbent performance. E) mental processes and job context.

E. MENTAL PROCESSES AND JOB CONTEXT

48) Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a series of preset candidate-specific questions? A) situational B) behavioural C) structured D) nondirective E) mixed

E. MIXED

49) An individual preparing a job description for the first time would find it helpful to refer to the: A) Dictionary of Occupational Titles . B) Canadian Classification and Dictionary of Occupations. C) Standard Occupational Classification. D) HRDC Job Classification Dictionary. E) National Occupational Classification.

E. NATIONAL OCCUPATIONAL CLASSIFICATION

37) A graphic rating scale used with unclear standards may appear to be objective; however, it will probably result in unfair appraisals because the traits and degrees of merit are: A) well defined. B) too strict/lenient. C) specific in nature. D) tightly structured. E) open to interpretation.

E. Open to interpretation

31) A test in which an ambiguous stimulus is presented and the person taking the test is expected to interpret or react to it is a common type of: A) aptitude test. B) achievement test. C) intelligence test. D) interest inventory. E) personality test.

E. PERSONALITY TEST

33) Providing recruits with realistic job previews regarding what to expect should they be selected to work in the organization can be an effective way to minimize: A) absenteeism. B) the Pygmalion effect. C) social loafing. D) workplace accidents. E) reality shock

E. REALITY SHOCK

5) The state which results from the discrepancy between what the new employee expected from his or her new job and the realities of it is: A) job instruction training. B) affirmative action. C) socialization. D) mentoring. E) reality shock.

E. REALITY SHOCK

31) For the new employee, a period during which his or her initial hopes and goals first confront the reality of organizational life and of the personʹs talents and needs is known as: A) job evaluation. B) career adjustment. C) probationary time. D) performance evaluation. E) reality testing.

E. REALITY TESTING

18) The critical incident method of performance appraisal is often used to supplement a: A) narrative form. B) management-by-objectives method. C) forced distribution method. D) paired comparison method. E) ranking method.

E. Ranking Method

44) Improving appraisal accuracy calls not just for training of supervisors, but also for: A) a quantitative job evaluation system. B) MBO. C) an effective employee orientation program. D) performance bonuses. E) reducing outside factors such as union pressure and time constraints.

E. Reducing outside factors such as union pressure and time constraints

38) The type of information that is found on an employer task analysis record form includes the following EXCEPT: A) quantity, quality standards. B) performance conditions. C) task list. D) how often performed. E) skills not required to learn.

E. SKILLS NOT REQUIRED TO LEARN

18) A person with strong social orientation might be attracted to careers that entail interpersonal rather than intellectual or physical activities and to occupations such as: A) accountant. B) professor. C) research chemist. D) contemporary artist. E) social work.

E. SOCIAL WORK

33) Which of the following statements about personality testing is true? A) The predictive power of personality tests is generally quite low. B) Extroversion is a valid predictor of performance for all occupations. C) Personality tests are not very useful for hiring purposes. D) Attainment of the full potential of personality testing relates primarily to the careful analysis of test results. E) The ʺBig Fiveʺ personality dimensions include extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.

E. THE "BIG FIVE" PERSONALITY DIMENSIONS INCLUDE EXTROVERSION, EMOTIONAL STABILITY, AGREEABLENESS, CONSCIENTIOUSNESS, AND OPENNESS TO EXPERIENCE

42) The heart of the task analysis record form is the column in which: A) the jobʹs main tasks and subtasks are listed. B) the task is listed. C) the standards of performance for each task and subtask are listed. D) there is an indication of whether the task is learned best on- or off-the-job. E) the competencies and specific skills or knowledge required for each of the tasks and subtasks are listed

E. THE COMPETENCIES AND SPECIFIC SKILLS OR KNOWLEDGE REQUIRED FOR EACH OF THE TASKS AND SUBTASKS ARE LISTED

10) The following may be problems with an orientation program EXCEPT: A) Orientation provided by the HR department is too broad to be meaningful. B) Too much information is provided in a short time. C) Little or no orientation is provided. D) New employees are inundated with forms to fill out. E) The immediate supervisor provides a few details at a time.

E. THE IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR PROVIDES A FEW DETAILS AT A TIME

3) Your colleague wishes to find a position with another employer and has asked you to define what is meant by ʺnetworkingʺ as a career development tool. You advise her as follows: A) personal networking involves speaking to external professional contacts about career goals but not to colleagues within the organization. B) the objective is to let people know about background and career goals and to share information so the job seeker benefits. C) the objective is to provide information so the employer can decide if the job seeker is the right candidate. D) it involves asking a contact for a job. E) the objective is to let people know about background and career goals and to share information so both parties benefit.

E. THE OBJECTIVE IS TO LET PEOPLE KNOW ABOUT BACKGROUND AND CAREER GOALS AND TO SHARE INFORMATION SO BOTH PARTIES BENEFIT

11) Which of the following statements is true? A) Selection plays a relatively minor role in the achievement of employment equity goals. B) The types of selection instruments and screening devices used are fairly standardized. C) Selection strategies should be continually refined, regardless of cost. D) The HR department staff members generally screen and test applicants, perform reference checking, and make the final selection decision. E) The organizationʹs strategic plan places major constraints on selection decisions.

E. THE ORGANIZATION'S STRATEGIC PLAN PLACES MAJOR CONSTRAINTS ON SELECTION DECISIONS

14) A selection ratio is: A) the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of applicants. B) the cost per hire. C) the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants. D) the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired. E) the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.

E. THE RATIO OF THE TOTAL NUMBER OF APPLICANTS HIRED TO THE TOTAL NUMBER OF APPLICANTS

42) You are the Director of Human Resources at a software development firm. With respect to the position of software developer the disadvantage of using the questionnaire method of job analysis is: A) the amount of double-checking required. B) the fact that it is more costly than interviewing hundreds of workers. C) the length of time involved. D) the fact that it is labour-intensive. E) the time and expense involved in development and testing

E. THE TIME AND EXPENSE INVOLVED IN DEVELOPMENT AND TESTING

17) Each of the following is a potential source of unreliability EXCEPT: A) changes within the applicant. B) chance response tendencies. C) the conditions under which the instrument is administered. D) tiredness of the applicant. E) There are no exceptions listed above.

E. THERE ARE NO EXCEPTIONS LISTED ABOVE

58) Advantages of a panel interview include all of the following EXCEPT: A) they require less time, overall. B) the likelihood of human rights/employment equity violations is greatly reduced. C) they include varied questions pertaining to each interviewerʹs area of expertise. D) there is less likelihood of interviewer error. E) there are no exceptions listed above.

E. THERE ARE NO EXECEPTIONS LISTED ABOVE

45) The interview technique that involves questions being asked as they come to mind is known as: A) sequential. B) mixed. C) directive. D) structured. E) unstructured.

E. UNSTRUCTURED

54) More firms today let employees anonymously evaluate their supervisorsʹ performance. This process is known as: A) team appraisal. B) anonymous evaluation. C) supervisor appraisal. D) 360-degree appraisal. E) upward feedback.

E. Upward feedback

15) Sandeep Gill is the manager of a busy local branch of a provincial credit union, Envirobank. The branch recently had to hire 5 new tellers to meet the rise in demand for branch services. The branch relied mainly on candidate interviews as a selection ʺtool.ʺ Although Sandeep thought he had planned the candidate interviewing process well and had designed effective questions for assessing the candidates, the 3 candidates who were rated the highest in the interview did not meet basic performance expectations following their hire. The primary problem with the selection ʺtoolʺ chosen and designed by Sandeep is one of: A) reliability. B) impression management. C) integrity. D) There is no problem with this selection ʺtool.ʺ E) validity.

E. VALIDITY

18) Answering the question, ʺDoes this predictor measure what itʹs supposed to measure?ʺ is an assessment of: A) differential validity. B) reliability. C) personality and behaviour. D) aptitude and achievement. E) validity

E. VALIDITY

29) The following are physical abilities that an employer might want to measure EXCEPT: A) pulling/pushing strength. B) lifting strength. C) climbing. D) stamina. E) verbal abilities.

E. VERBAL ABILITIES

69) Job analysis is called the cornerstone of human resources management, because information gathered through job analysis forms the basis for a number of interrelated HRM activities.

TRUE

71) In order to overcome the disadvantages of qualitative techniques of job analysis, it is important to use a quantitative method.

TRUE

72) National Occupational Classification is a reference tool for writing job descriptions and job specifications. It classifies occupations based on two key dimensions-skill level and skill type.

TRUE

73) A job description should not include phrases such as ʺother duties as assignedʺ because it can leave open the nature of the job and can be subject to abuse.

TRUE

75) Jobs have become more cognitively complex, more team based and more time pressured, which has led some organizations to focus on personal competencies and skills in job analysis, rather than specific duties and skills.

TRUE

11. In McClelland's theory of needs, the need for power is the drive to excel, and to achieve in relation to a set of standards. a. True b. False

11. Pay for performance means employees must a. share only in the rewards of a company. b. share in the risks as well as the rewards of their employer's business. c. share in the risks at the expense of the rewards of their employer's business. d. share all aspects of a company's business. e. share very little yet gain from any success the company might achieve.

12. In MBO, goals are established for departments and units rather than for individual employees. a. True b. False

60. The JCM allows us to make this statement with relative confidence a. People who work on jobs with high core job dimensions are generally more motivated, satisfied and productive than are those who do not. b. People who work on jobs with low core job dimensions are generally more motivated, satisfied and productive than are those who do. c. People who work on jobs with high core job dimensions are generally less motivated, satisfied and productive than are those who do not. d. People who work on jobs with high core job dimensions cannot be motivated, satisfied and productive. e. People who work on jobs with high core job dimensions are generally motivated through salary and recognition.

61. If a manager uses positive or negative reinforcement when an employee completes a task, the manager is trying to a. strengthen the behaviour of completing the task. b. weaken the behaviour of completing the task. c. strengthen the behaviour of completing the task with positive reinforcement and weaken the behaviour of completing the task with negative reinforcement. d. weaken the behaviour of completing the task with positive reinforcement and strengthen the behaviour of completing the task with negative reinforcement.. e. intermittently strengthen the behaviour by using positive reinforcement and then negative reinforcement.

63. Job enrichment refers to a. the vertical expansion of jobs. b. the horizontal expansion of jobs. c. both vertical and horizontal expansion of jobs. d. the complexity of motivational incentives being offered in the workplace. e. the relationship between motivation and bonuses.

68. Roy really disliked his job. He forced himself to go to work each day out of fear of losing his only source of income. Roy was working mainly because of a. negative reinforcement. b. operant conditioning. c. positive reinforcement. d. intermittent reinforcement. e. continuous reinforcement.

7. Unlike her co-workers, Jane was motivated by challenge, personal satisfaction, and by doing interesting work; most of her coworkers were just in it for the money. Jane was motivated by a. intrinsic motivators. b. safety motivators. c. social motivators. d. extrinsic motivators. e. esteem motivators

71. Jessica works from her home via her computer, which is linked to her office. This is an example of a. telework. b. job sharing. c. job enlargement. d. flextime. e. job rotation.

72. The major difficulty of job sharing is a. finding a compatible pair of employees who can successfully coordinate the demands of the job. b. finding a clear and concise job description to share. c. finding enough employees to fill the position. d. finding a job where the manager can deal with this recent phenomenon. e. finding a job with a clear division of labour.

81. Carrie was unhappy with the pay increase that she recently received. She didn't think that the dollar value was fair relative to her performance, and she was even more upset that some of her coworkers received a greater increase than she did. This is an example of a. distributive justice. b. procedural justice. c. interactional justice. d. operant justice. e. equitable justice.

9. In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's expectancy depends on how strongly he believes he can achieve high performance in the task. a. True b. False

9. Variable-pay or pay-for-performance programs operate reward programs at three levels a. individual, group and organizational. b. individual, departmental and organizational. c. individual, departmental and community. d. individual, group and community. e. individual, group and managerial.

In MBO, goals should be tangible and measurable. a. True b. False

Julie wishes to apply Maslow's hierarchy in her workplace. She is interested in how various employee needs are met by the organization. Social needs can be met by providing employees with a place to take their breaks together. a. True b. False

Julie wishes to apply Maslow's hierarchy in her workplace. She is interested in how various employee needs are met by the organization. Some of the employees' safety needs are met by providing them with insurance. a. True b. False

1. According to Maslow, the highest level of needs pertain to safety. a. True b. False

1. Motivation is a. a component of ability, personal traits and desire. b. an individual's intensity, direction and persistence. c. an effort toward creating goals. d. a constant intensity. e. an attitudinal trait.

10. Expectancy theory predicts that an employee will exert only a low level of effort if he or she perceives a strong relationship between effort and performance, performance and rewards, and rewards and personal goals. a. True b. False

17. Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the motivation-hygiene theory? a. salary b. supervision c. working conditions d. recognition e. company policy

2. Money is probably the most emotionally meaningful object in contemporary life. Only a. sex and ambition are its close competitors. b. ego and ambition are its close competitors. c. shelter and ambition are its close competitors. d. food and sex are its close competitors. e. food and shelter are its close competitors.

22. In a piece-rate pay plan, employees are paid a. a piece of company profits equal to their production quota. b. a piece of their salary and increases when specific targets are met or surpassed. c. a fixed hourly rate and a bonus for achieving targets. d. a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. e. a fixed sum based on their performance appraisal.

23. Expectancy theory tells us that a key component of motivation is a. the link between satisfaction and compensation. b. the link between seniority and compensation. c. the link between productivity and compensation. d. the link between performance and reward. e. the link between profit and compensation.

3. Lilly was a strong employee who was committed to the work objectives of her department and to the goals of her company. Which of the following would likely also be applicable to her? a. dislikes work b. needs to be controlled c. avoids responsibility d. exercises self-direction e. displays little ambition.

3. When using bonuses, managers should be mindful of a. the amount, so that the bonus does not negatively effect the profits of the company. b. not recognizing friends within the company. c. the size of the bonus in relation to the event recognized. d. potential unexpected behaviours arising when employees try to ensure they will receive bonuses. e. very little, the bonus is just so effective.

31. Motivation theories are culturally sensitive and managers should be sensitive to national differences. In India, a study found that managers who empowered their employees were given a. higher productivity. b. greater innovation and self-efficacy. c. weaker productivity and increased absenteeism. d. low ratings by their employees. e. continuance commitment.

33. Organizations hoping for improved teamwork and collaboration should reward a. individual team members for individual productivity. b. individual team members who mentor good group relationships. c. team leaders who direct the team d. team members equally for team productivity. e. only after training in teamwork in provided.

35. Jace is foreman of a team of welders; the team meets at the beginning of each shift to discuss what work tasks must be completed, decides how the work will be processed and assigns roles to each worker. Of Alfie Cohen's recommendations, this style represents a. incentive pay. b. authentic motivation. c. cooperative process. d. providing choice. e. technical achievement.

35. ________ is the belief that performance is related to rewards. a. Valence b. Expectancy c. Self-esteem d. Instrumentality e. Perception

36. Which is true of autonomy and the perception of autonomy? a. It makes a clear link between organizational goals and individual rewards. b. It is valued in cultures high in individualism. c. All cultures value autonomy that gives complete freedom of choice to employees. d. All cultures value autonomy but each culture and perhaps each organization must adjust how the autonomy is applied. e. Autonomy promotes team work and collaboration.

40. Jessica feels she received an appropriate salary increase this year, but does not believe that the company's methods for determining salary increases are fair. She believes there is a problem with the firm's a. interpersonal justice. b. distributive justice. c. equity practices. d. procedural justice. e. goal setting methods.

41. Within the framework of the equity theory, if an employee perceives iniquitous treatment and decides to work harder, what choice have they made? a. adjust perceptions of others b. choose a different referent c. adjust perceptions of self d. change their outcomes e. change their inputs

42. Alfie Kohn, in his book Punished by Rewards, proposes that we re-evaluate evaluation and, as a result, the performance evaluation system might be structured a. around the employee listening better. b. more on what you are doing poorly. c. more on who is performing poorly. d. more like a two-way conversation. e. more on who gets raises or promoted.

43. When Carol walked out of her annual performance review, she felt good. She felt that the meeting was fair and constructive, and that the manager who did the review was sincere. There is no financial component to Carol's performance review, it is just an open discussion. This form of review can be described as a. peer-based. b. 360. c. modular. d. effective. e. a waste of time.

44. Equity theory demonstrates that, for most employees, motivation is influenced by a. relative rewards. b. input-output ratio. c. absolute rewards. d. relative and absolute rewards. e. job satisfaction.

45. "We are most likely to become enthusiastic about what we are doing-and all else being equal, to do it well-when we are free to make decisions about the way we carry out a task." This speaks to which of the following approaches to creating a motivating work environment? a. establish incentive pay b. encourage collaboration c. enhance content d. provide choice e. provide the conditions for authentic motivation.

12. Studies have shown that the most powerful workplace motivator is a. a company dinner. b. promotion. c. time in lieu. d. money. e. recognition.

14. If an organization wants a group of individuals to function as a team, emphasis needs to be on a. individual rewards, rather than team-based awards. b. team-based performance, rather than team-based rewards. c. individual rewards, rather than team-based rewards. d. a sense of company loyalty. e. team-based rewards, rather than individual rewards.

21. Two specific forms of individual-based pay-for-performance programs a. stock options and gainsharing. b. piece-rate wages and gainsharing. c. profit-sharing and gainsharing. d. variable-pay programs and piece-rate wages. e. piece-rate wages and bonuses.

33. Allowing employees to participate in goal setting, rather than have their boss arbitrarily assign a goal, has an additional effect: each person is more likely to ________ even a difficult goal. a. reject b. misunderstand c. begin resenting d. resist achieving e. accept

34. Strategies for authentic motivation, according to Alfie Kohn, include a. communicating to employees the company viewpoint. b. setting goals and explaining to employees the outcomes if goals are not achieved. c. focusing on what the employee is doing wrong and how that affects the company. d. providing choice to employees over how they do the task. e. helping employees rather than putting them under surveillance.

37. When skill variety, task identity and task significance are all present in a job they create a. autonomy. b. self-efficacy. c. distributive justice. d. continuance commitment. e. meaningful work.

41. If a country put a high value on humane orientation, its reward preference would be a. stock options. b. individual incentives. c. pay for performance. d. skill-based pay. e. workplace child-care programs.

43. Extrinsic reward for a task may shift employees from a. high performance to higher performance. b. linking performance to appropriate rewards. c. perceiving the work task to be of less importance than others. d. linking employee recognition to organizational goals. e. intrinsic motivation to extrinsic motivation.

47. Job rotation is defined as a. changing jobs every month so as to keep the newness level high. b. changing jobs every week so as to keep the newness level high. c. an opportunity for employees to change jobs when they feel the need. d. the systematic removal of employees and their replacement by new, energetic employees. e. the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another.

49. Sense of competence is a. the opportunity to delegate authority. b. the opportunity to pursue worthwhile tasks. c. the opportunity to compete with others. d. the opportunity to select what one will do and perform the way one thinks best. e. the feeling of accomplishment from doing a good job.

59. A factory worker who assembles microchips but passes quality control inspections to another department has a job with a. low skill variety. b. low task identity. c. low task significance. d. low feedback. e. low autonomy.

62. Job enrichment is a. giving an employee more tasks while paying at the same level. b. expanding a job horizontally. c. a result of downsizing, as employees must cover the duties of the departed employee. d. giving an employee a title which suggest he or she has more responsibility, but in fact does not. e. expanding a job vertically.

64. Job enrichment increases the degree to which workers control the a. number of motivational incentives in the workplace. b. hours and pay of their job. c. ability to communicate with managers within the workplace. d. planning, motivation and incentives of their work. e. planning, execution and evaluation of their work.

67. If jobs score high on motivating potential, the MPS model predicts improved a. teamwork, collaboration and achievement. b. responsibility, growth and commitment. c. empowerment, involvement and development. d. teamwork, performance and satisfaction. e. motivation, performance and satisfaction.

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