Human Development Exams

40. What are good sources of dietary choline? A. Eggs. B. Bread. C. Meat. D. Vegetables.

A. Eggs.

43. Which nutrients have been positively associated with a reduced risk of developing preeclampsia? A. Fiber and calcium. B. Calcium and zinc. C. Fiber and B12. D. B12 and magnesium.

A. Fiber and calcium.

30. Powdered infant formula can cause serious infant illness because: A. It is not sterile and may contain pathogens. B. It expires quickly after the can is opened. C. It is made from cow's milk and can cause allergies. D. It doesn't dissolve well when mixed with cold water.

A. It is not sterile and may contain pathogens.

35. Which of the following nutrients are required for optimal brain development? A. Long chain fatty acids B. Whey proteins C. Fat soluble vitamins D. Oligosaccharides.

A. Long chain fatty acids

2. Why is folic acid intake so important and recommended to all women of childbearing age prior to conception? A. Many women do not know they are pregnant at the time when the folic acid is most needed to close the neural tube. B. Up to half of all pregnancies are unplanned. C. It is possible to get enough folic acid in food, but you would have to eat a lot of fruit. D. Folic acid is so important we fortify cereals and other grains with it.

A. Many women do not know they are pregnant at the time when the folic acid is most needed to close the neural tube.

65. What is the caregiver's role in the "division of labor"? A. Provide healthy foods that are accessible. B. Decide when the child eats. C. Decide how much the child will eat. D. Decide when the child eats, as well as decide how much the child will eat.

A. Provide healthy foods that are accessible.

41. How is the number of weeks of pregnancy counted? A. The first day of the woman's last period. B. The final day of the woman's last period. C. Two weeks after conception. D. At conception.

A. The first day of the woman's last period.

37. Vegan breastfeeding mothers may need to supplement their diets with: A. Vitamin B12. B. Iron. C. Protein. D. Calcium.

A. Vitamin B12. *but may be calcium too... not sure

21. The following statement about exercise during pregnancy is true: A. Women should avoid contact sports and those that require balance. B. All exercise should be avoided by pregnant women because it is associated with an increase in back pain and swelling. C. The ACOG recommends that pregnant women should engage in vigorous activity two days a week. D. Women should stretch in order to stimulate the release of relaxin.

A. Women should avoid contact sports and those that require balance.

74. An infant with cystic fibrosis born at the 50th %ile for age whose weight drops to <3rd %ile for age by 9 months has: A. failure to thrive. B. low birth weight. C. intrauterine growth restriction. D. no diagnosis; this represents normal growth for an infant with cystic fibrosis

A. failure to thrive.

67. Failure to thrive can be classified as: A. Organic. B. Genetic. C. Inorganic. D. Both Organic and Inorganic.

D. Both Organic and Inorganic.

70. What types of fat are best to provide to the growing toddler and school-aged child? A. Polyunsaturated fat. B. Monounsaturated fat. C. Saturated fat. D. Both Polyunsaturated fat and Monounsaturated fat.

D. Both Polyunsaturated fat and Monounsaturated fat.

13. How does iron deficiency manifest itself in infancy and early childhood? A. Changes in temperament B. Feelings of weakness and fatigue C. Impaired memory function D. Both changes in temperament and impaired memory function E. All of the above

D. Both changes in temperament and impaired memory function

57. Energy requirements differ in toddlers and children based on differences in: A. Growth rates. B. Parental intake. C. Levels of activity. D. Both growth rates and levels of activity.

D. Both growth rates and levels of activity.

17. What are ways to manage mild nausea and vomiting? A. Consume 3 large meals per day. B. Skip meals and snacks. C. Eat a low carbohydrate breakfast in the morning. D. Consume foods that are high in carbohydrates and low in fat.

D. Consume foods that are high in carbohydrates and low in fat.

66. How should a caregiver handle a picky eater? A. Make special foods or meals. B. Use rewards. C. Use punishments. D. Continue to provide healthy food options.

D. Continue to provide healthy food options.

4. Pregnant women with eating disorders are at a higher risk of all the following EXCEPT: A. Preterm labor B. Anemia C. Genitourinary tract infections D. Gestational Diabetes

D. Gestational Diabetes

42. The following statement is true about normal nausea and vomiting during pregnancy (NVP): A. It is commonly known as "morning sickness" and only occurs during the morning. B. Only 50% of pregnant women experience this at some point during pregnancy. C. 50% of pregnant women experience it throughout the pregnancy. D. Studies show an association between NVP and fewer miscarriages, preterm deliveries, and stillbirths. E. Both A and D are correct.

D. Studies show an association between NVP and fewer miscarriages, preterm deliveries, and stillbirths.

3. What amount of alcohol has been found to be safe prior to conception? A. 1-2 servings a day B. 1-2 servings per week C. 3-5 servings per week D. The data are not clear, but alcohol should be avoided to increase fertility and decrease risks if a woman becomes pregnant accidentally.

D. The data are not clear, but alcohol should be avoided to increase fertility and decrease risks if a woman becomes pregnant accidentally.

20. What happens to the fetus when the mother has poor blood sugar control in late pregnancy? A. The fetus will over-produce insulin to manage high blood sugar levels. B. Nothing happens. The mother's own insulin will protect the fetus. C. The fetus is at a higher risk of macrosomia, dystocia, and NICU admission. D. The fetus will both over-produce insulin to manage high blood sugar levels and will be at a higher risk of macrosomia, dystocia, and NICU admission. E. All of the above.

D. The fetus will both over-produce insulin to manage high blood sugar levels and will be at a higher risk of macrosomia, dystocia, and NICU admission.

1. What are the possible negative outcomes for the mother and baby when a woman enters a pregnancy with uncontrolled blood sugar? A. Low and high blood sugar B. Large babies C. Fetal death D. High blood pressure for the mother E. All of the above

E. All of the above

22. What foods should pregnant women avoid? A. Raw or undercooked meat, seafood, or eggs. B. Unpasteurized cheeses or milk. C. All fresh fruits and vegetables. D. Raw or undercooked meat, seafood, or eggs, as well as all fresh fruits and vegetables. E. All of the above.

E. All of the above. This is a weird question and she told us to just put E

8. Which of the following populations should be carefully monitored for adequate protein intake and quality during pregnancy? A. Vegetarians B. Vegans C. Low-income women experiencing food insecurity D. Women with severe nausea and vomiting E. All of these answers are correct

E. All of these answers are correct

15. The following statement about magnesium is true: A. Low magnesium has been linked to miscarriage, fetal growth retardation and preterm delivery. B. Low magnesium is a risk factor for gestational and type 2 diabetes. C. Low magnesium is associated with an increased risk for SIDS after birth. D. Most prenatal vitamins do not contain 100% of the RDA for magnesium. E. All of these answers are correct.

E. All of these answers are correct.

19. Which of the following is a risk factor for preeclampsia? A. BMI ≥ 30. B. Maternal age > 40 or < 18. C. Carrying multiple fetuses. D. Diabetes. E. All of these answers are correct.

E. All of these answers are correct.

12. In order to get adequate amounts of vitamin A, pregnant women should A. Choose a prenatal vitamin with high amounts of beta-carotene B. Choose a prenatal vitamin with high amounts of pre-formed vitamin A C. Consume 770 mcg per day D. Both b and c E. Both a and c

E. Both a and c

44. The following statement is true about alcohol intake during pregnancy and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). A. Only binge drinking during pregnancy contributes to fetal damage. B. Alcohol does not pass freely through the placenta so there is no risk of damage. C. One level of FASD is "fetal alcohol effects," which describes lesser damage caused by moderate drinking. D. Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by mental retardation, malformation of the skeletal system, heart, and brain, and problems with memory. E. Both c and d are true.

E. Both c and d are true.

10. What is the recommended calcium intake for pregnant women? A. 1300 mg. B. 1400mg. C. The same as non-pregnant women. D. 1000 mg. E. Both c and d.

E. Both c and d.

16. Pregnant women have increased zinc requirements because it: A. reduces the risk of gestational diabetes. B. reduces symptoms of nausea and vomiting. C. is important for organ formation during the first trimester. D. plays a role in immune system development. E. is both important for organ formation during the first trimester and plays a role in immune system development.

E. is both important for organ formation during the first trimester and plays a role in immune system development.

51. T/F: Mothers who drink alcohol should choose formula to feed their infants

False This is what the doc said. I suppose as long as they wait until alcohol is metabolized before nursing...

EXAM 1

Let me know if you guys disagree on any of the answers

63. Forcing a child to eat everything on the plate at meals desensitizes them to: A. Feelings of hunger. B. Feeling valued. C. Feelings of satiety. D. Both feelings of hunger and feelings of satiety.

Someone put C but D is highlighted

26. Nutrition recommendations for infant feeding include: A. Breastfeeding for 3 months followed by formula feeding until one year. B. Breastfeeding followed by introduction of baby food and cow's milk at 3 months. C. Breastfeeding or formula feeding for 6 months exclusively. D. Breastfeeding for at least 1 year including exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months.

The group doc put C but I think it's D

22. Older adults are more susceptible to the risk of side effects from certain drugs compared with younger adults because of: a. decreases in bone mineralization. b. increases in the proportion of body fat to lean muscle. c. increases in systolic blood pressure. d. decreases in production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.

We put D, which is likely correct. Some people put B

19. ____________ relies on the principle that lean tissue is denser than water. a. underwater weighing. b. bioelectrical impedance. c. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry. d. direct calorimetry.

a. underwater weighing.

4. Diets low in the following nutrients are associated with the development of cataracts and macular degeneration in older adults: a. vitamin C, vitamin E, and zinc. b. vitamin B12, vitamin B6, and iron. c. vitamin B1, vitamin B2, and selenium. d. vitamin A, vitamin D, and magnesium.

a. vitamin C, vitamin E, and zinc.

10. An advanced directive: a. must be a written document. b. is not valid after 6 months. c. is valid in both oral and written forms. d. none of the above.

c. is valid in both oral and written forms.

12. Feeding by hand is recommended over tube feeding for patients with advanced dementia because: a. it is cost-effective. b. it is the law in several states. c. it provides sensory stimulation. d. it takes less time.

c. it provides sensory stimulation.

11. In the long-term, diabetes can damage the health of the: a. liver, gall bladder, and spleen. b. stomach, liver, and brain. c. kidneys, eyes, and nerves. d. adrenal, parotid, and thyroid glands.

c. kidneys, eyes, and nerves.

22. Patients with mild hypertriglyceridemia may improve their triglyceride levels by: a. reducing sodium intake. b. consuming moderate to large amounts of alcohol. c. limiting intakes of refined carbohydrate. d. reducing cholesterol intake.

c. limiting intakes of refined carbohydrate.

2. Women of childbearing age need more iron than men of the same age because they: a. are more active. b. have lower muscle mass. c. lose iron through menstruation. d. have fewer absorptive enterocytes.

c. lose iron through menstruation.

17. Female athletes who restrict energy intake and experience menstrual dysfunction are at higher risk for the long-term complication of: a. high blood pressure. b. neural tube defects. c. osteoporosis. d. type2 diabetes.

c. osteoporosis.

14. When an experienced RD is newly hired at a new institution in a new U.S. state, before having a discussion on whether a patient should receive tube feeding, the dietitian should first: a. review the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Code of Ethics. b. read the position papers of the American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition. c. read the policies and procedures of the institution regarding feeding. d. consult with the institution's chaplaincy.

c. read the policies and procedures of the institution regarding feeding.

4. The best fluid to consume during a marathon is ____________. a. plain iced water. b. sweetened fruit juice. c. sports drink with glucose and sodium. d. a high protein shake.

c. sports drink with glucose and sodium.

9. A person's metabolic rate would increase significantly with a body temperature of: a. 97.4 °F b. 98.4 °F c. 98.6 °F d. 101.2 °F

d. 101.2 °F

Exam 2

starts now

Exam 3

starts now

27. The majority of calories in human milk are provided by: A. Protein. B. Carbohydrate. C. Fat. D. Ketones.

C. Fat.

75. A mother brings her 7-month-old male infant to see you. He weighs 6 kg with length 65 cm. What are his estimated needs for catch-up growth? A. 108 kcal/kg B. 130 kcal/kg C. 98 kcal/kg D. 112 kcal/kg

B. 130 kcal/kg

58. Until what age does dietary fat play a key role in brain development? A. 2 years. B. 3 years. C. 5 years. D. 7 years.

B. 3 years.

39. According to the IOM, women should increase energy intake in the second trimester by approximately: A. 0 calories. B. 340 calories. C. 450 calories. D. 600 calories.

B. 340 calories.

69. What is the daily limit for juice recommended by the AAP for a young child? A. 2 ounces/day. B. 4-6 ounces/day. C. 6-8 ounces/day. D. Unlimited.

B. 4-6 ounces/day.

62. What behavior has been associated with increased intake of fruits and vegetables in young children? A. Watching TV while eating. B. Eating together as a family. C. Allowing the child to dictate the meal. D. All of these answers are correct.

B. Eating together as a family.

32. The following infant condition is a contraindication to breastfeeding: A. Hypothyroidism. B. Galactosemia. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Prematurity.

B. Galactosemia.

28. Lactoferrin, cytokines, and nucleotides in human milk are examples of: A. Minerals. B. Immune factors. C. Pathogens. D. Enzyme.

B. Immune factors.

31. The most common nutrient deficiency among children is: A. Vitamin A deficiency. B. Iron deficiency anemia. C. Calcium deficiency. D. Vitamin K deficiency.

B. Iron deficiency anemia.

11. Fiber is necessary in a pregnant woman's diet for the following reason(s): A. It is important for fetal brain development B. It reduces constipation C. It reduces the risk of pre-term delivery D. Both a and b

B. It reduces constipation

38. Pregorexia can best be most accurately defined as: A. Following a pattern of binge eating and purging. B. Overly restricting calories and/or over-exercising during pregnancy to minimize weight gain. C. Overly restricting calories and/or over-exercising to minimize weight gain at any stage of life. D. Consuming large amounts of extra calories.

B. Overly restricting calories and/or over-exercising during pregnancy to minimize weight gain.

59. As children get older, milk intake is often replaced with: A. Water. B. Soft drinks and juice. C. Soy milk. D. Snack foods.

B. Soft drinks and juice.

6. Which of the following statements about nutrient metabolism occurs in a normal pregnancy? A. Cholesterol and triglycerides decrease. B. Total nitrogen excretion decreases. C. Insulin secretion in the later months of pregnancy decreases. D. Serum albumin increases in the early months of pregnancy.

B. Total nitrogen excretion decreases.

36. Vitamin D excess during pregnancy can cause which of the following: A. Hypocalcemia. B. Rickets. C. Hypercalcemia. D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism.

C. Hypercalcemia.

7. Taking which of the following medications is most likely to result in a drug-nutrient interaction? a. Levodopa. b. Morphine. c. Reglan. d. Aspirin.

Becky you put A, but group doc put C

18. Which of the following medications is most likely to affect dietary intake in an older patient? a. Zyprexa. b. Prednisone. c. Digoxin. d. Lipitor.

Becky you put C, I thought it was A, and some people put B. so IDK lol

3. When an older adult has osteoporosis, the following intervention is recommended except: a. paying attention to fall prevention at home. b. adding supplementation, even if dietary intake of vitamin D meets the DRI. c. maintaining adequate levels of vitamin K. d. engaging in physical activity, including weight-bearing exercises.

Becky- we put B, but the group doc put C

15. A healthcare proxy is used when the patient is: a. medically unconscious for a short period. b. acutely ill. c. terminally ill. d. terminally ill and unable to communicate.

Becky- we put D, some ppl put A.

29. Colostrum contains all of the following except: A. Immune factors. B. Beta-carotene. C. Large amounts of fat. D. Bifidus factor.

C. Large amounts of fat.

60. How much iron is recommended for children aged 4-8 years? A. 7 mg/day. B. 8 mg/day. C. 10 mg/day. D. 12 mg/day.

C. 10 mg/day.

9. What is the recommendation for fat intake during pregnancy for women who are not at risk of malnutrition? A. 10-25% of calories. B. 5-7% of calories. C. 20-35% of total calories. D. More than 35% of total calories.

C. 20-35% of total calories.

56. What percent of normal infants and toddlers will drop to a lower growth percentile during the first 2 years of life? A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 30%

C. 25%

68. What percent of daily recommendations for nutrition are met with the government funded school lunch program? A. 10% B. 25% C. 33% D. 40%

C. 33%

5. According to the IOM (now known as the National Academy of Medicine), how much weight should a pregnant woman gain if she is expecting twins? A. The same as if she were expecting one child B. 25-35 lbs C. 35-45 lbs D. More than 50 lbs

C. 35-45 lbs

34. What percent of energy intake is used for growth in a one month old infant? A. 10% B. 25% C. 40% D. 75%

C. 40%

33. At what age can an infant receive a bolus of food without reflexively pushing it out of the mouth? A. 3-4 months. B. 4-6 months. C. 6-9 months. D. 9-12 months.

C. 6-9 months.

18. All of the following statements about reflux during pregnancy are true EXCEPT: A. Hormonal changes during early pregnancy can cause heartburn symptoms. B. Later in pregnancy, pressure of the baby pushing up against the mother's stomach exacerbates symptoms. C. Pregnant women crave acidic foods that cause reflux. D. Calcium carbonate supplements are safe and can neutralize stomach acid.

C. Pregnant women crave acidic foods that cause reflux.

7. Do women need to limit caffeine during pregnancy? A. No. Pregnant women do not need to limit caffeine at all. B. Pregnant women should not drink coffee, but they are able to drink as much tea and soda as they want. C. Pregnant women should consume no more than 300 mg per day. D. Pregnant women can consume the equivalent of 2 medium coffees per day.

C. Pregnant women should consume no more than 300 mg per day.

14. Prior to conception, it is recommended that women make all the following changes EXCEPT: A. Take prenatal vitamin/mineral supplements B. Consume fish oil C. Start smoking D. Drink caffeine in moderation E. Evaluate the safety of current medications

C. Start smoking

61. Foods containing what vitamin should be eaten with high iron foods for better absorption? A. Vitamin A. B. Vitamin B12 . C. Vitamin C. D. Vitamin E.

C. Vitamin C.

64. How many exposures to a new food are often needed to promote acceptance? A. 2. B. 4. C. 7. D. 10.

D. 10.

24. T/F: Women need approximately 46 additional grams of protein per day to meet needs of pregnancy.

False

25. T/F: Fetal iron stores last a child until approximately for one year of life.

False

45. T/F: Pregnant women are "eating for two" and should therefore double their caloric intake to compensate.

False

46. T/F Fetal development is dependent on an adequate supply of fiber

False

48. T/F: All women experience food cravings and food aversions during pregnancy.

False

53. T/F: Infants who are bottle fed formula grow more slowly than breastfed babies in the first year of life.

False

54. T/F: The FITS study found that most children receive adequate portions of fruits and vegetables.

False

72. T/F Males and female have different energy requirements throughout childhood

False

73. T/F: Most toddlers should be on a low-fat diet

False

23. T/F: Preconception obesity has been associated with a substantial increase in risk for pregnancy complications such as gestational diabetes and preeclampsia as well as a significant increase in birth defects.

True

47. T/F Not all prenatal vitamins contain iodine

True

49. T/F: Preeclampsia is a leading cause of premature births in the United States

True

50. T/F: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) risk is reduced by half with exclusive breastfeeding for one month

True

52. T/F Bioactive components in human milk are not destroyed after pasteurization

True

55. T/F Whole cow's milk should not be introduced into a child's diet until age one.

True

71. T/F: After age 2, body mass index is an appropriate measure to assess weight for height.

True

1. Which of the following groups requires the least protein per kilogram of body weight? a. adult men. b. pregnant women. c. infants. d. young children.

a. adult men.

7. For the child with type 1 diabetes, medical nutrition therapy should include: a. carbohydrate counting. b. A calorie restricted diet plan. c. Restriction of all refined carbohydrates. d. No bed time snack.

a. carbohydrate counting.

14. All of the following are true with respect to insulin resistance, except that it: a. develops in the later stages of type 2 diabetes. b. can occur even when the pancreas produces normal amounts of insulin. c. is associated with excess adipose tissue and obesity. d. results from impaired removal of excess glucose from blood.

a. develops in the later stages of type 2 diabetes.

5. All of the following is generally recommended for treating childhood obesity except: a. eating a calorie-restricted diet. b. limiting sweetened beverages. c. getting at least 60 minutes of daily exercise. d. using an app to maintain a food log.

a. eating a calorie-restricted diet.

11. Parenteral nutrition or tube feeding are not recommended for patients with: a. end-stage dementia. b. head and neck cancer. c. swallowing disorders. d. pancreatic insufficiency.

a. end-stage dementia.

18. All of the following are true with regard to hydration for athletes except: a. it is impossible to consume too much water - the more the better. b. you should begin intense activities fully hydrated. c. urine color can be an indication of hydration status. d. sports drinks may help hydrate and prevent hyponatremia following prolonged exercise.

a. it is impossible to consume too much water - the more the better.

25. Which of the following minerals may help regulate blood pressure. a. potassium. b. selenium. c. manganese. d. none of the above.

a. potassium.

25. Some experts suggest that moderate increases in an older adult's protein intake above 0.8g/kg/day may inhibit: a. progressive muscle loss. b. decline in kidney function. c. urinary incontinence. d. the onset of osteoarthritis.

a. progressive muscle loss.

8. Some of the benefits for using PEG tubes for certain diseases at the end of life include all of the following except: a. reversing dementia. b. decreasing dehydration. c. reducing aspiration d. healing pressure sores.

a. reversing dementia.

13. The role of the healthcare team in whether or not to tube feed is to: a. share what is known about the value of each option. b. convince the patient or family of what to do. c. only consider the medical value. d. all of the above.

a. share what is known about the value of each option.

24. The consequences of chronic xerostomia in the older years is most commonly associated with: a. significant dental decay. b. chronic esophagitis. c. sinus congestion. d. none of the above.

a. significant dental decay.

20. Adult malnutrition is often associated with the following factors except: a. hospitalization. b. PEG feedings. c. poor dentition. d. polypharmacy.

b. PEG feedings.

20. Which of the following statements is true? a. at the present time, there is no direct way to measure a person's metabolic rate. b. a person's total daily energy output is the sum of calories used for metabolism and physical activity in a 24-hour period. c. a calorimetric chamber is used to measure a person's basal metabolic rate. d. most people use more energy for NEAT than for resting metabolism.

b. a person's total daily energy output is the sum of calories used for metabolism and physical activity in a 24-hour period.

17. Liquid supplements are best given to LTC residents at what time? a. before breakfast. b. between meals. c. before bedtime. d. during meals.

b. between meals.

9. What are the regulations regarding withholding and withdrawing tube feeding? a. both are illegal in the United States. b. both are legally and ethically accepted. c. only withholding is legally accepted. d. only withdrawing is legally accepted.

b. both are legally and ethically accepted.

8. Which of the following is least likely to be a main component of the DASH eating plan? a. raw vegetables. b. canned vegetables. c. steamed vegetables. d. frozen vegetables.

b. canned vegetables.

23. A person with chronic kidney disease who has been following a renal diet for several years begins hemodialysis treatment. An appropriate dietary adjustment would be to: a. reduce protein intake. b. consume protein more liberally. c. increase intakes of sodium and water. d. Decrease water consumption.

b. consume protein more liberally.

2. Gastric acid production and secretion decreases with age and potentially results in all of the following except: a. impaired digestion and absorption of certain nutrients. b. diminished absorption of most commonly prescribed medications. c. malabsorption of naturally occurring vitamin B12 from food. d. increase risk of foodborne illness.

b. diminished absorption of most commonly prescribed medications.

13. Patients with chronic kidney disease develop iron-deficiency anemia because their kidneys synthesize inadequate amounts of: a. hemoglobin. b. erythropoietin. c. vitamin D3. d. renin.

b. erythropoietin.

21. In clinical practice, the most practical and cost-effective method used to diagnose sarcopenic obesity is: a. waist circumference. b. hand grip strength. c. body mass index. d. skinfold thickness

b. hand grip strength.

3. Basal metabolic rate (BMR): a. is a small component of total energy expenditure. b. includes the energy needed for kidney function and heart beat. c. includes the energy needed for exercise. d. is a large component of the energy needed for digestion

b. includes the energy needed for kidney function and heart beat.

15. Atherosclerosis is theorized to begin with: a. a heart attack. b. injury to the lining of the artery. c. excessive sugar intake over time. d. blood clot formation.

b. injury to the lining of the artery.

10. A factor that contributes to women having lower basal metabolism requirements than men is: a. blood loss through menstruation. b. smaller proportion of muscle mass to fat. c. lower surface area. d. higher estrogen levels.

b. smaller proportion of muscle mass to fat.

19. Calcium or calcium-containing foods should not be ingested with which of the following medications? a. Zantac. b. Levodopa. c. Tetracycline. d. Codeine.

c. Tetracycline.

1. The DETERMINE checklist is used to ________________. a. qualify recipients for federal food assistance programs. b. check for adverse reactions between food and prescription medications. c. assess the risk of malnutrition in older adults. d. decide whether an older adult needs assisted living.

c. assess the risk of malnutrition in older adults.

24. Body fat can be assessed by which of the following techniques: a. a blood lipid test. b. chest circumference. c. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry. d. all of the above.

c. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry.

16. In a long-term care facility, which of the following type(s) of feeding assistance have been shown to significantly increase resident food intake? a. physical assistance with eating. b. verbal prompting. c. social interaction. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

6. In older adults, which of the following impairs chewing and adequate mastication? a. decreased salivation. b. ill-fitting dentures. c. mouth sores. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

21. Most chronic complications associated with diabetes result from: a. altered kidney function. b. infections that deplete nutrient reserves. c. weight gain and hypertension. d. damage to blood vessels and nerves.

d. damage to blood vessels and nerves.

6. Which of the following statements about energy requirements is true? a. total energy needs are higher in early childhood than at any other time of life. b. energy needs per kilogram of body weight decrease with weight loss at every stage of life. c. energy needs are the same for both boys and girls during adolescence. d. energy needs are lower in older adults than in younger adults.

d. energy needs are lower in older adults than in younger adults.

12. A consequence of abnormalities of calcium, phosphorous, and vitamin D metabolism seen in chronic kidney disease is the development of: a. hyperglycemia. b. microalbunemia. c. negative nitrogen balance. d. osteoporosis.

d. osteoporosis.

16. More carbohydrate is used as fuel when someone is: a. sitting. b. walking. c. jogging. d. running.

d. running.

5. The assessment of visceral adiposity may be most accurately measured by: a. skinfold thickness. b. body mass index. c. waist-to-hip ratio. d. waist circumference.

d. waist circumference. *group doc put C but I don't agree

23. adequate hydration is particularly challenging for older adults due to all of the following reasons except: a. changes in kidney function decrease water conservation in the body. b. brain changes with age alter thirst perception. c. self-restriction of fluid intake in response to urinary incontinence. d. weakening taste perception leads to an aversion to liquids.

d. weakening taste perception leads to an aversion to liquids.