Imaging Procedures
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera
2 & 3 only
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
45-degree internal rotation
Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?
IVU
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
Lateral oblique foot
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
Left sacroiliac joint
The apex of the heart is formed by the
Left ventricle
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper GI series is most likely to be
NPO after midnight
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
PA oblique scapular Y
The lower portion of the costal margin is approximately at the same level as that of the
Third lumbar vertebra
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when -object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam -object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR -anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR -anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR
anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be
cathartics and cleansing enemas
The ossified portion of a long bone is where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
metaphysis
What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric PA hand image seen in figure 2-1 below?
metaphysis
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
subarachnoid space
In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the
subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is retured to the heart by the
superior vena cava
The term valgus refers to
turned outward
Sternclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except weight-bearing RAO LAO PA
weight-bearing
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
AP (medial) oblique
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys? Lateral abdomen AP abdomen Dorsal decubitus abdomen Ventral decubitus abdomen
AP abdomen
Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?
AP and scapular Y
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double contrast of the left and right colic flexures?
AP erect
Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees? AP recumbent Lateral Recumbent AP erect Medial oblique
AP erect
An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection
AP erect, both shoulders
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?
AP oblique, medial rotation
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
AP projection
Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the
AP projection
Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
AP projection, left lateral decubitus
In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?
Abducted 40 degrees from vertical
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
hilus
The body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the
hypersthenic
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except the left lung has 2 fissures the inferior portion of a lung is its apex each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum
the left lung has 2 fissures
The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except the temporal bones the occipital bone the ethmoid bone the sphenoid bone
the occipital bone
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
the recumbent position
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the
thyroid cartilage
A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed
to the level of the laryngeal prominence
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees
toward the affected side
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint
1 & 2 only
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi
1 & 2 only
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
0 degree (perpendicular)
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae
1 & 2 only
A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process
1 & 2 only
A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the completion of an IVU and may be helpful in demonstrating 1. Residual urine 2. Prostate enlargement 3. Uretral tortuosity
1 & 2 only
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the IV disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
1 & 2 only
Chest radiography should be performed used 72" SID whenever possible in order to 1. Visualize vascular markings 2. Obtain better lung detail 3. Maximize magnification of the heart
1 & 2 only
During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces
1 & 2 only
During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate 1. Filling of obstructed ureters 2. The renal pelvis 3. The superior calyces
1 & 2 only
During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate 1. Barium-filled fundus 2. Double contrast of distal stomach portions 3. Barium-filled duodenum and pylorus
1 & 2 only
ERCP usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. intriduction of barium directly into the duodenum
1 & 2 only
Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. Weight evenly distributed on feet 2. Elevation of the chin 3. Shoulders elevated and rolled forward
1 & 2 only
In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is verical 2. fibular projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized
1 & 2 only
In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized
1 & 2 only
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demontrate 1. Pneumothorax 2. Presence of a foreign body 3. Bronchitis
1 & 2 only
Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula
1 & 2 only
Radiographic indications of atelectasis include(s) 1. Decreased radiographic density/increased brightness of the affected side 2. Elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side 3. Flattening of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side
1 & 2 only
Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water-soluble iodinated contrast agents include 1. Flushed feeling 2. Bitter taste 3. Urticaria
1 & 2 only
Structures comprising the naural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body
1 & 2 only
Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma
1 & 2 only
Structures located in the right lower quadrant include the following 1. Cecum 2. Vermiform appendix 3. Sigmoid
1 & 2 only
Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. valgus 3. oblique
1 & 2 only
The RPO (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column
1 & 2 only
The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. the male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. the female coccyx is more vertical
1 & 2 only
The structures that would be visualized when obtained as positioned in figure 2-2 (prone patella), could also be visualized when performed with the patient in the following position 1. Lateral recumbent 2. Seated 3. Erect AP
1 & 2 only
The thoracic vertebare are unique in that they participate in the following articulations: 1. Costovertebral 2. Costotransverse 3. Costochondral
1 & 2 only
The type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. Fibrous 2. Cartilaginous 3. Synovial
1 & 2 only
To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast BE, the radiographer should 1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure 2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 degrees F) to aid in retension
1 & 2 only
To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) reccomended? 1. Close collimation 2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. Decreased SID
1 & 2 only
Types of mechanical obstruction found in pediatric patients include 1. volvulus 2. intussusception 3. paralytic ileus
1 & 2 only
When examining the patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
1 & 2 only
Which of the follow blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells
1 & 2 only
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low
1 & 2 only
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured anterior tibia
1 & 2 only
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. Condyloid 2. Sellar 3. Gomphosis
1 & 2 only
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella
1 & 2 only
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. Supine. IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, PP to tibia 3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, hell rotate 5-10 degrees lateral, CR PP to knee joint
1 & 2 only
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. Stent placement 3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
1 & 2 only
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR 3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
1 & 2 only
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromiclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
1 & 2 only
Which of the following positions demonstrated the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters' (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial
1 & 2 only
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint
1 & 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral bodies 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline
1 & 2 only
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1
1 & 2 only
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
1 & 3 only
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line PP to the IR 2. MSP PP to the IR 3. IOML parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
1 & 3 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular
1 & 3 only
Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of the patient's diet? 1. GI series 2. Abdominal survey 3. Urogram
1 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lumbar spine with an oblique view? 1. Zygapophyseal articulations 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Inferior articular processes
1 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) imporant when positioning the patient for a PA projection of the chest? 1. The patient should be examined erect 2. Clavicles should be brought above the apices 3. Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields
1 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. Clavicles 3. 24 ribs
1 & 3 only
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination
1 & 3 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized
1 & 3 only
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion
1 and 3 only
During a GI examination, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate 1. Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach 2. Medial and lateral aspects of the stomach 3. Double-contrast body and antral portions
1 only
In the AP projection of the knee, the 1. Patella is visualized through the femur 2. CR is directed 1/2" distal to the patellar base 3. CR is directed 3-5 degrees cephalad when the distance between the tabletop and ASIS is 17 cm
1 only
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the rib
1 only
In which of the following tangenital axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) 2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)
1 only
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. Posterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disk 2. Anterior protrusion of herniated intervertebral disk 3. Internal disk lesions
1 only
To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IVU, it is helpful to 1. Use a 15 degree AP Trendelenburg position 2. Apply compression to the proximal ureters 3. Apply compression to the distal ureters
1 only
Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the ureters? 1. Retrograde urogram 2. Cystogram 3. Voiding cystogram
1 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine? 1. C3-C7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Zygopophyseal joints
1 only
Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera
1 only
Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity
1 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to AP images of the sacrum and coccyx? 1. AP sacrum is made with cephalad angulation 2. AP coccyx is made with cephalad angulation 3. AP sacrum and coccyx are made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad
1 only
A Colles fracture usually involves the following 1. Transeverse fracture of the distal radius 2. Posterior and outward displacement of the hand 3. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process
1, 2, & 3
An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in figure 2-3 would include the following 1. The pulmonary apices are demonstrated 2. The air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. 10 posterior ribs are seen above the diaphram
1, 2, & 3
Before bringing the patient into the radiographic room the radiographer should: 1. Be certain that the x-ray room is clean and orderly 2. Check that all necessary accessories are available in the room 3. Check that x-ray table is clean and pillowcases are fresh
1, 2, & 3
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position
1, 2, & 3
For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing
1, 2, & 3
Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s) 1. Demonstration of fistulous tracts 2. Investigation of infertility 3. Demonstration of tubal patency
1, 2, & 3
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position
1, 2, & 3
Image identification markers should include: 1. Patient's name and/or ID number 2. Date 3. A right or left marker
1, 2, & 3
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. Fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
1, 2, & 3
In the 15-20 degree mortise oblique position of the ankle, the 1. Talofibular joint is visualized 2. Talotibial joint is visualized 3. Plantar surface should be vertical
1, 2, & 3
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large bowel obstruction 3. Preoperative patients
1, 2, & 3
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body
1, 2, & 3
Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder 2. Review the patient's allergy history 3. Check the patient's creatinine level
1, 2, & 3
Prior to x-ray examinations of the skull and cervical spine, the patient should remove: 1. Dentures 2. Earrings 3. Necklaces
1, 2, & 3
The radiographer should be able to: 1. Take a short patient history prior to the examination 2. Modify routine protocol to obtain similar images in patients unable to move 3. Evaluate patient condition and needs
1, 2, & 3
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation
1, 2, & 3
Venous, or deoxygenated blood, is returned to the heart via the 1. Inferior vena cava 2. Superior vena cava 3. Coronary sinus
1, 2, & 3
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA position 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filters
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's" position, is (are) correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in figure 2-6 is (are) true? (Caldwell for sinuses) 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true? 1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated 2. Sterile technique is observed 3. MRI can follow x-ray
1, 2,, & 3
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed
1/2 inch distal to the nasion
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
10-15 degrees caudal
In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed
15 degrees caudad to C4
If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head
15 degrees toward the side being examined
With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
15 to 30 degrees caudad
To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed
15-20 degrees cephalad
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue
2 & 3 only
A medial oblique foot demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular
2 & 3 only
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligamental tear
2 & 3 only
Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when 1. the patient is in the AP erect position 2. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation 3. the patient is in the recumbent position
2 & 3 only
Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening of self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures
2 & 3 only
During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
2 & 3 only
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles
2 & 3 only
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. 2 views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required
2 & 3 only
Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation
2 & 3 only
Shoulder arthrography is perfomed to 1. Evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum
2 & 3 only
The 4 major arteries supplying the brain include 1. Brachiocephalic artery 2. Common carotid arteries 3. Vertebral arteries
2 & 3 only
The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine
2 & 3 only
The act of expiration will cause the 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly
2 & 3 only
The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the central ray 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body
2 & 3 only
The following projection(s) should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has been ruled out 1. AP knee 2. Lateral knee 3. Axial/tangenital patella
2 & 3 only
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries
2 & 3 only
The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates 1. A lateral projection of the shoulder 2. Anterior or posterior dislocation 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder
2 & 3 only
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum
2 & 3 only
Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpals? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid
2 & 3 only
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
2 & 3 only
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms
2 & 3 only
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis
2 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s)for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient
2 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement
2 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints
2 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in figure 2-8 (lateral) 1. zygopophyseal articulations 2. intervertebral foramina 3. pedicles
2 & 3 only
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO
2 & 3 only
Which of the following projections of the abdomen could be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained? 1. AP Trendelenburg 2. Dorsal decubitus 3. Lateral decubitus
2 & 3 only
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder
2 & 3 only
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed? 1. Lateral thumb 2. Lateral wrist 3. Lateral humerus
2 & 3 only
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. An oblique projection of the shoulders is obtained
2 & 3 only
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the RUQ? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbladder 3. Hepatic flexure
2 & 3 only
The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
2 only
The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2" above the pubic symphysis 3. Midline at the level of the lesser trochanter
2 only
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the oblique projection of the thoracic spine? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina
2 only
In what order should the following studies be performed? 1. Barium enema 2. Intravenous urogram 3. Upper GI
2, 1, 3
To visualize or open the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned
25 to 30 degrees LPO
The left sacroiliac joint is placed perpendicular to the IR when the patient is placed in a
25-30 degree RPO position
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?
30-degree RPO
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
30-degree oblique
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homegenous glandular breast tissue? A postpubertal adolescent A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy A menopausal woman A postmenopausal 65 year old
A postpubertal adolescent
Which of the following paranasal sinuses is composed of many thin-walled air cells?
Ethmoid
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?
Angle the CR 35-45 degrees cephalad
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
The upper chambers of the heart are the
Atria
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
Avulsion fracture
What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?
Axial plantodorsal projection
The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine
Body
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
C4
To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the
CR is directed perpendicular to the IR
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest? Esophagus Trachea Cardiac apex Superimposed scapular borders
Cardiac apex
The best way to control voluntary motion is
Careful explanation
An axial projection of the clavicles is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how should the CR be directed?
Cephalic
Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?
Cholecystokinin
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?
Compound
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
Coronoid process
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
Diarthrodial
What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
Dome of the acetabulum
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
Dorsal decubitus position
Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in figure 2-6? (Caldwell for sinuses)
Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the esophagus and trachea?
Esophagus is posterior to the trachea
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include 2 views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
Emergency and trauma radiography
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is
Ewing sarcoma
With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
Facial bones
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
First metacarpal
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
Flexion and extension laterals
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?
Hepatic flexure
Which of the following barium/air-filled anatoic structures is best demonstrated in the RAO position?
Hepatic flexure
What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?
High and horizontal
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?
Horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or strictures?
Hydronephrosis
Which of the following examinatoins involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
Hysterosalpingogram
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?
Intussusception
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?
Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position
The position of the asthenic gallbladder, as compared to the position of the sthenic gallbladder, is more:
Inferior and medial
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3?
Inferior costal margin
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?
Internal rotation
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile laterally?
Internal rotation
Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the 2nd and 3rd thoracic vertebrae?
Jugular notch
During routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates the
Kidney of the side up in parallel to the IR
What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
LAO
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
LAO
During an upper GI, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely
LPO
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
LPO
All elbow fat pads are demonstrated in which position?
Lateral
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?
Lateral decubitus, affected side up
Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
Lateral oblique
Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?
Lateral oblique
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimpostion in the following projection
Lateral oblique elbow
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
MRI
All of the following statements regarding the PA projection of the skull, with CR PP to the IR are true except OML is PP to the IR Petrous pyramids fill the orbits MSP is parallel to the IR CR exits at the nasion
MSP is parallel to the IR
The intervertebral joints of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
MSP parallel to the IR
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
Medial oblique
The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
Medial oblique
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
Medial oblique 15-20 degrees
Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal?
Medial oblique foot
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
Nose
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive MCP joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
Occipital bone
Which of the following structures is subject to blowout fracture?
Orbital floor
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
Osgood-Schlatter disease
In order to demonstrate undistorted air/fluid levels, the CR must always be directed
Parallel with the fllor
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
Patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
What is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal planes?
Perpendicular
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?
Plantodorsal projection of the os calsis
Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of
Pleural effusion
Which of the following is a condition in which an occlude blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
Pulmonary embolism
Indicate the correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart
Pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?
RAO
In which of the following positions are a barium-filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?
RAO
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
RPO
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? DIP joints PIP joints Metacarpals Radial styloid process
Radial styloid process
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
Rami
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the
Recumbent position
Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
Retrograde urography
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?
Right iliac
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
Right lateral decubitus
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
Right main bronchus
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
SMV
The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
Skeletal
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters' method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?
Sphenoidal
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
Spondylolisthesis
The space located between the arachnoid mater and dura mater is the
Subdural space
The method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called
Subtraction
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as
T5
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
Tangenital metatarsals/toes
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?
Tangenital patella
The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is
Tangenital projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method
Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-4 is correct (RPO IVU)? The left kidney is more parallel to the IR The image was made in the LPO position The left ureter is better visualized The image was made post void
The left kidney is more parallel to the IR
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except The right lung has 3 lobes The uppermost portion of a lung is its apex The lobes of the left lung are separated by the horizontal fissure The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi
The lobes of the left lung are separated by the horizontal fissure
All of the following statements regarding the urinary system are true except The left kidney is usually higher than the right The kidneys move inferiorly in the erect position The upper, expanded part of the ureter is the hilum Vessels, nerves, and lymphatics pass through the renal hilum
The upper, expanded part of the ureter is the hilum
During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?
Transverse colon
With the patient recumbent and head positioned at a level lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
Trendelenburg position
With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
Trendelenburg position
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
Trochlea
Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients? Use restraint only when necessary Always use physical or mechanical restraint Use physical restraint only Use mechanical restraint only
Use restraint only when necessary
Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicouretral reflux?
Voiding cystourethrogram
To demonstrate the first 2 cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that
a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical
The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is
a patent ductus arteriosus
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
adduction
The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as
apposition
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
aspiration
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
avoid superimposition on the apices
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
bregma
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
completely within the orbits
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of primary injury is referred to as
contrecoup
The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is
distal
Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
emphysema
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
epiphysis
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?
erect
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
fourth lumbar vertebra
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
gastric or bowel mucosa
The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is
gender
The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is
hematemesis
The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
hiatal hernia
All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except popliteal surface intercondyloid fossa intertrochanteric line linea aspera
intertrochanteric line
In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the
intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
laminae
All the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except -metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients -patients on metformin who have IV iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure -metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies -metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies
metformin should be wittheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing in into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
midcoronal plane
The plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into left and right halves is termed the
midsagittal plane
The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR
For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter
midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
must be supported parallel to the IR
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
myelogram
The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the
nasopharynx
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
occipital bone
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The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed
paralytic
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
parietoacanthal (Waters' method) projection
The innominate bone is located in the
pelvis
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called
pulse
Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is
respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single and double-contrast exams of the large bowel except lateral rectum AP axial rectosigmoid right and left lateral decubitus abdomen RAO and LAO abdomen
right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
Aspirated foreign bodies is older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
right main stem bronchus
Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the
right ventricle
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
serosa
All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination retained fecal material can obscure pathology single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions
single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except the OML is PP to the IR the petrous pyramids fill the orbits the MSP is parallel to the IR the CR is PP to the IR and exits at the nasion
the MSP is parallel to the IR
All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the femoral neck the pubic symphysis the greater trochanter the iliac crest
the femoral neck
The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is
yellow marrow
