immuno adaptive quizzing

For which illness should airborne precautions be implemented?

1 Influenza Correct2 Chickenpox 3 Pneumonia 4 Respiratory syncytial virus

What is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

1 Syphilis Correct2 Chlamydia 3 Gonorrhea 4 Herpes simplex

What is the role of shark cartilage in the management of human immunodeficiency (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

Shark cartilage enhances immunity Shark cartilage reduces oral thrush (correct)Shark cartilage is a complementary therapy Shark cartilage is a nutritional supplement

What is a common characteristic of Sjögren's syndrome (SS)?

Correct1 Dry eyes 2 Muscle cramping 3 Urinary tract infection 4 Elevated blood pressure

The nurse is taking care of four clients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections. Which client's condition should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider within 24 hours after observation?

Correct1 Client A Incorrect2 Client B 3 Client C 4 Client D A client with an HIV infection is at risk for multiple diseases. Burning, itching and discharge from the eyes are not life-threatening and can be reported within 24 hours. Therefore client A's condition can be reported within 24 hours. All the other clients' conditions should be reported immediately.

Correct1 Infection 2 Depression 3 Social isolation 4 Kaposi sarcoma

A nurse is caring for a client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. Which complication associated with this diagnosis is most important for the nurse to teach prevention strategies? The client has a weakened immune response. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection. Clients can be taught cognitive strategies to cope with depression, but the strategies will not prevent depression. The client may experience social isolation as a result of society's fears and misconceptions; these are beyond the client's control. Although Kaposi sarcoma is related to HIV infection, there are no specific measures to prevent its occurrence.

A client is admitted with full-blown anaphylactic shock that developed due to a type 1 latex allergic reaction. Which findings will the nurse observe upon assessment? Select all that apply

. Correct1 Stridor 2 Fissuring Correct3 Hypotension Correct4 Dyspnea 5 Cracking of the skin Full-blown anaphylactic shock produces stridor, hypotension, and dyspnea. Fissuring and cracking of the skin occurs in individuals with a type IV contact dermatitis.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) reports painless, white, raised lesions on the lateral aspect of the tongue. Which disease does the nurse suspect?

1 Oral thrush 2 Genital herpes 3 Kaposi sarcoma Correct4 Oral hairy leukoplakia Oral hairy leukoplakia is found in a client with AIDS. The symptoms of oral hairy leukoplakia are painless, white, raised lesions on the lateral aspect of the tongue. The symptoms of oral thrush are white lesions in the mouth. The symptoms of genital herpes are the presence of fluid-filled vesicles in the genital area. The symptoms of Kaposi's sarcoma are malignant vascular lesions on the skin.

A client with erythematous papules in the interdigital spaces reports severe itching at night. Which insect is responsible for this condition?

1 Phthirus pubis Correct2 Sarcoptes scabiei 3 Pediculus humanus 4 Borrelia burgdorferi

A client reports hair loss, joint pain, and a facial rash. The nurse documents the presence of a butterfly rash on the face in the client's medical record. Which disorder does the nurse suspect?

1 Scleroderma 2 Angioedema 3 Rheumatoid arthritis Correct4 Systemic lupus erythematosus Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune connective tissue disorder characterized by joint pain, alopecia, and rashes on the face. A characteristic butterfly rash is a major skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus. Scleroderma is a chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune connective tissue disease characterized by hardening of the skin. Angioedema is the diffuse swelling of the eyes and lips. Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory autoimmune disease process that affects primarily the synovial joints. The primary symptom of rheumatoid arthritis is painful swollen joints.

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by Treponema pallidum?

( Correct)Syphilis Gonorrhea Genital warts Vulvovaginitis

A client newly diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) comments to a nurse, "There are so many rotten people around. Why couldn't one of them get HIV instead of me?" What is the nurse's best response?

1 "I can understand why you're afraid of dying." Correct2 "It seems unfair that you contracted this disorder." 3 "Do you really wish this disorder on someone else?" 4 "Have you thought of speaking with your religious advisor?" The client is in the anger or "why me" stage; encouraging the expression of feelings will help the client resolve them and move toward acceptance. The response "I can understand why you're afraid of dying" does not reflect what the client said; introducing the topic of death may not be therapeutic. The response "Do you really wish this disorder on someone else?" is judgmental and may precipitate feelings of guilt and block the nurse-client relationship. The response "Have you thought of speaking with your religious advisor?" abdicates the responsibility of talking with the client; suggesting speaking with a religious advisor ignores the client's present concerns.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory reports of four clients. Which client should the nurse suspect to have type I mediated asthma?

Correct1 Client A 2 Client B 3 Client C 4 Client D Asthma is a type I or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. Therefore client A, with IgE antibodies in the blood, has type 1 mediated asthma. Client B, with no antibodies, may not have humoral allergy or may have a humoral deficiency. Client C and client D may have either type II or type III hypersensitivity reactions.

Which type of cytokine is used to treat anemia related to chronic kidney disease?

α-Interferon Interleukin-2 Interleukin-11 (Correct) Erythropoietin

A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen for culture and sensitivity from a client with an elevated temperature for the last 2 days. Place in order of priority the nursing actions that should be taken.

Correct 1. Explain the procedure to the client. Correct 2. Collect the specimen according to protocol. Correct 3. Send the specimen to the laboratory. Correct 4. Administer the first dose of antibiotics. First, the procedure should be explained to the client. Then the specimen should be collected and sent to the laboratory. The antibiotic should be administered last. If it were administered before the specimen was collected, the test results might not indicate the cause of the fever.

What is the most important intervention to prevent hospital-acquired catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

Correct1 Removing the catheter 2 Keeping the drainage bag off of the floor 3 Washing hands before and after assessing the catheter 4 Cleansing the urinary meatus with soap and water daily

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized immunosuppressed client. Which interventions will be beneficial for safe and effective care of this client? Select all that apply.

1 Advise the client to eat raw fruits daily Correct2 Avoid using supplies from common areas Correct3 Encourage activity at an appropriate level Correct4 Use alcohol-based hand rubs before touching the client Incorrect5 Change gauze-containing wound dressing on alternative days Supplies from common areas should not be used for neutropenic clients to prevent contracting infection. Physical activity at a level appropriate for client's condition should be encouraged to promote health. Alcohol-based hand rubs should be used before touching the client to decrease the risk of infection. Immunosuppressed clients should avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables; they should eat low-bacteria diet. Gauge-containing wound dressings should be changed on a daily basis, not on alternative days, to prevent infection.

A client with multiple myeloma who is receiving chemotherapy has a temperature of 102.2° F (39° C). The temperature was 99.2° F (37.3° C) when it was taken 6 hours ago. What is a priority nursing intervention in this case?

1 Assess the amount and color of urine; obtain a specimen for a urinalysis. Correct2 Administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider. 3 Note the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtain a specimen for culture. 4 Obtain the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure; recheck the temperature in 1 hour. Because an elevated temperature increases metabolic demands, the pyrexia must be treated immediately. The practitioner should be notified because this client is immunodeficient from both the disease and the chemotherapy. A search for the cause of the pyrexia then can be initiated. More vigorous intervention than obtaining the respirations, pulse, and blood pressure is rechecking the temperature in 1 hour. This client has a disease in which the immunoglobulins are ineffective and the therapy further suppresses the immune system. Assessing the amount and color of urine and obtaining a specimen for a urinalysis is not the immediate priority, although it is important because the cause of the pyrexia must be determined. Also, the increased amount of calcium and urates in the urine can cause renal complications if dehydration occurs. Noting the consistency of respiratory secretions and obtaining a specimen for culture is not the priority, although important because respiratory tract infections are a common occurrence in clients with multiple myeloma.

A client treated with antitubercular medications reports vision changes. Which medication may be responsible for the client's condition?

Incorrect1 Isoniazid 2 Rifampin 3 Pyrazinamide Correct4 Ethambutol Ethambutol, an antitubercular drug, can cause optic neuritis when given in high doses. Isoniazid may cause liver toxicity, and the client may report darkening of urine. Rifampin reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, and the client may have to use an additional method of contraception. Pyrazinamide may cause kidney problems.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) reports speech, gait, and vision difficulty. The nurse observes the client is confused and lethargic. Which microorganism is most likely responsible for this condition?

1 Candida albicans Correct2 Toxoplasma gondii 3 Pneumocystis jiroveci 4 Mycobacterium tuberculosis Toxoplasmosis encephalitis is an opportunistic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii. The symptoms of toxoplasmosis encephalitis are speech, gait, and vision difficulty along with confusion and lethargy. An overgrowth of Candida albicans causes mouth pain and difficulty swallowing. Pneumocystis jiroveci causes pneumonia in a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis in a client with AIDS.

A client reports disturbed sleep due to itching caused by an allergy. Which medication would be prescribed to help the client sleep well and treat the allergic symptoms?

1 Cetirizine 2 Fexofenadine 3 Desloratadine Correct4 Chlorpheniramine Chlorpheniramine [1] [2] is an antihistamine that helps to manage allergic symptoms by preventing vasodilation and decreasing allergic symptoms. Sedation is a side effect of chlorpheniramine; therefore this drug is prescribed to clients experiencing sleep issues due to allergic symptoms. Cetirizine effectively blocks histamine from binding to receptors and has less sedating potential. Fexofenadine and desloratadine are also less sedating antihistamine drugs.

While assessing the mouth of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the nurse finds the condition illustrated in the image. Which pathogen is responsible for the client's condition?

1 Cryptosporidium Correct2 Candida albicans 3 Toxoplasma gondii 4 Histoplasma capsulatum This infection is caused by the fungus Candida albicans. The image shows oral candidiasis. The cottage cheese-like, yellowish white plaques and inflammation are the manifestations that indicate oral candidiasis. Cryptosporidium is responsible for cryptosporidiosis, which is an intestinal infection. Toxoplasmosis encephalitis is caused by Toxoplasma gondii. Histoplasmosis is caused by Histoplasma capsulatum, which is a respiratory infection.

What are the symptoms of tuberculosis? Select all that apply.

1 Diarrhea Correct2 Anorexia 3 Weight gain Correct4 Hemoptysis Correct5 Night sweats Tuberculosis is an infectious respiratory disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Signs include a persistent cough, anorexia, hemoptysis, night sweats, shortness of breath, and a high body temperature. Diarrhea and weight gain are not associated with tuberculosis.

Which medication class helps to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) incorporating its genetic material into the client's cell?

1 Entry inhibitors 2 Protease inhibitors Correct3 Integrase inhibitors Incorrect4 Reverse transcriptase inhibitors Integrase inhibitors such as raltegravir and dolutegravir bind with integrase enzymes and prevent HIV from incorporating its genetic material into the host (client's) cell. Entry inhibitors prevent the binding of HIV. Protease inhibitors prevent the protease enzyme from cutting HIV proteins into the proper lengths needed to allow viable virions to assemble. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the action of reverse transcriptase.

The image illustrates the toe of a client with a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which other symptom should a nurse assess for in the client with this disease?

1 Gummas on the skin Incorrect2 Loss of vision and perception Correct3 Mucopurulent cervical discharge 4 Unilateral scrotal pain and swelling Gonorrhea is an STI caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The image depicts skin lesions with disseminated gonococcal infection, which is also manifested by mucopurulent cervical discharge. Gummas on the skin accompanied with a loss of vision and perception are symptoms of tertiary syphilis. Unilateral scrotal pain and swelling are symptoms of a chlamydial infection.

A client with scleroderma reports having difficulty chewing and swallowing. What should the nurse recommend to safely facilitate eating?

1 Liquefy food in a blender. Correct2 Eat a mechanical soft diet. 3 Take frequent sips of water with meals. 4 Use a local anesthetic mouthwash before eating. Scleroderma causes chronic hardening and shrinking of the connective tissues of any organ of the body, including the esophagus and face; a mechanical soft diet includes foods that limit the need to chew and are easier to swallow. Liquefied foods are difficult to swallow; esophageal peristalsis is decreased, and liquids are aspirated easily. Taking frequent sips of water with meals will not help; it is equally difficult to swallow solids and liquids, and aspiration may result. Using a local anesthetic mouthwash before eating is not necessary; oral pain is not associated with scleroderma.

A client scheduled for surgery has a history of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) since developing an infection in a surgical site 9 months ago. The site is healed, and the client reports having received antibiotics for the infection. What should the nurse do to determine if the infecting organism is still present?

1 Notify the infection control officer. 2 Inform the operating room of the MRSA. Correct3 Obtain an order to culture the client's blood. 4 Call the surgeon for an infectious disease consultation. Obtaining cultures is the most reliable method of determining the presence of an infecting microorganism. Although notifying the infection control officer should be done, the presence of an infecting microorganism should be identified first. Informing the operating room personnel of the MRSA is usual when an infecting microorganism is present; however, it is not yet confirmed that an infecting microorganism is present. Although calling the surgeon for an infectious disease consultation may be done, the presence of an infecting agent should be identified first.

Which statement is true regarding Sjögren's syndrome?

1 Sjögren's syndrome increases lacrimation. 2 Sjögren's syndrome increases body secretions. 3 Sjögren's syndrome decreases the risk for infection. Correct4 Sjögren's syndrome decreases the digestion of carbohydrates. Sjögren's syndrome decreases the digestion of carbohydrates because of insufficient secretion of saliva. Sjögren's syndrome decreases lacrimation. Sjögren's syndrome also decreases body secretions and saliva, therefore increasing the risk of infection.

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of acute salpingitis. Which condition most commonly causing inflammation of the fallopian tubes should the nurse include when planning a teaching program for this client?

1 Syphilis Correct2 Gonorrhea 3 Hydatidiform mole 4 Spontaneous abortion Gonorrhea frequently is an ascending infection that affects the fallopian tubes. Syphilis, if untreated, may spread to the nervous system via the blood; it usually does not cause ascending infection of the fallopian tubes. Hydatidiform mole is an aberrant growth; it will not cause inflammation of the fallopian tubes. A spontaneous abortion should not cause inflammation of the fallopian tubes.

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be prescribed diphenoxylate hydrochloride?

1 To manage pain Correct2 To manage diarrhea 3 To manage candidal esophagitis 4 To manage behavioral problems Diphenoxylate hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal drug prescribed to clients with AIDS to manage frequent diarrhea experienced by a client with AIDS. Opioid analgesics such as tramadol are used to manage pain. Ketoconazole can be used to treat candidal esophagitis associated with AIDS. Behavioral problems are managed with psychotropic drugs.

Which hypersensitivity reaction may occur in a newborn with hemolytic disease?

1 Type I Correct2 Type II 3 Type III 4 Type IV Hemolytic disease in a pregnant woman may result in erythroblastosis fetalis, a type II hypersensitivity reaction. Type I reactions involve immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated reactions such as anaphylaxis and wheal-and-flare reactions. Type III reactions are immune complex reactions such as rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus. Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions such as contact dermatitis.

What functions of leukocytes are involved in inflammation? Select all that apply.

Correct1 Destruction of bacteria and cellular debris Incorrect2 Selective attack and destruction of non-self cells Correct3 Release of vasoactive amines during allergic reactions 4 Secretion of immunoglobulins in response to a specific antigen 5 Enhancement of immune activity through secretion of various factors, cytokines, and lymphokines Leukocytes such as monocytes and eosinophils are involved in inflammation. Their functions include the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris and the release of vasoactive amines during allergic reactions to limit these reactions. Helper/inducer T-cells and cytotoxic cells selectively attack and destroy non-self cells and secrete immunoglobulins in response to the presence of a specific antigen. B-lymphocytes, or plasma cells, secrete immunoglobulins in response to the presence of a specific antigen. Helper/inducer T-cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, enhancing immune activity through the secretion of various factors, cytokines, and lymphokines.

A nurse employed in an outpatient radiology department is reviewing safety precautions with staff members. What explanation does the nurse provide to explain the reason radium is stored in lead containers?

Correct1 Lead functions as a barrier. 2 Radium is a heavy substance. 3 Heat is produced as radium disintegrates. 4 Lead prevents disintegration of the radium. Radium atoms are unstable and spontaneously disintegrate. This disintegration produces potentially harmful radiation; lead is a barrier to radiation. Radium is not heavy, but is unstable. Radiation, not heat, is produced during spontaneous disintegration of radium atoms. Disintegration of radium occurs in lead containers.

A client is concerned about contracting malaria while visiting relatives in Southeast Asia. What should the nurse teach the client to avoid to prevent malaria?

Correct1 Mosquito bites 2 Untreated water 3 Undercooked food 4 Overpopulated areas Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum, which is carried by mosquitoes. Avoiding untreated water, undercooked food, and overpopulated areas will not prevent protozoa from entering the bloodstream.

A nurse is teaching a health class about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which basic methods are used to reduce the incidence of HIV transmission? Select all that apply.

Correct1 Using condoms 2 Using separate toilets Correct3 Practicing sexual abstinence 4 Preventing direct casual contacts 5 Sterilizing the household utensils