Immunology exam 2

to determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best test to perform is what?

b. skin prick test

What are the 4 types of hypersensitive?

type I type II type III type IV

What are the 4 immunodeficiencies?

1. Humoral 2. Cellular immunity 3. Combined 4. Acquired

What is type II and what's an example?

Antibody mediated Detection of DAT or IAT ABO incompatibility

What is combined deficiencies and an example?

Involve multiple components of the immune system; Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

What is humoral deficiencies and an example?

Caused by the failure of B cells; X-linked Brutons Agammaglobulinemia

What is type IV and what's an example?

Delayed reaction Cell-mediated Work with PPD Poison Ivy, Oak, and TB

what is acquired deficiencies and an example?

External process or diseases; HIV, Cancer

What is type III and what's an example?

Immediate reaction Inflammation Arthur's reactions vaccines, bee stings

What is the function of a complete cascade?

Promotes inflammatory response by opsonization which enhances susceptibility of coated cells to phagocytosis. Alters biological membranes to cause direct cell lysis

which of the following explains the difference between Type II and Type III? a. type II involves cellular antigens b. type III involves IgE c. IgG is involved in only type III reactions d. Type II reactions involve no antibody

a

What is hypersensitivity?

a state of altered reactivity in which the body reacts with an exaggerated immune response to a foreign agent

A 4-year old boy presents with recurrent wound and soft-tissue infections. Which of the following assays should be considered for diagnosing his presumed PID? a. DHR reduction b. CD4 quantitation c. CD19 quantitation d. CD56 quantitation

a. DHR reduction

Factor h act by competing with which of the following for the same binding site?

a. Factor B

The CH50 test measures which of the following?

a. Patient serum required to lyse 50% of sensitized sheep RBCs

recurrent periodic fevers may be associated with increased production of which immunoglobulin? a. T cells b. B cells c. NK cells d. Neutrophils

a. T cells

DiGeorge anomaly may be characterized by all of the following except? a. autosomal recessive inhertiance b. cardiac abnormalities c. parathyroid hypoplasia d. decreased number of mature T cells

a. autosomal recessive inheritance

which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis? a. buildup of IgE on mast cells b. activation of complement c. increase in cytotoxic T cells d. Large amount of circulating IgG

a. buildup of IgE on mast cells

defects in which branch of the immune system are most commonly associated with serve illness after administration of live virus vaccines? a. cell-mediated immunity b. humoral immunity c. complement d. phagocytic cells

a. cell-mediated immunity

All of the following represent functions of the complement system EXCEPT?

a. decreases clearance of antigen-antibody complexes

which of the following is characteristic of complement components? a. normally present in serum b. mainly synthesized by B cells c. present in active enzymes d. heat stable

a. normally present in serum

which of the following describes the role od properdin in the alternate pathway?

a. stabilization of C3/C5 convertase

Two days after administration of the PPD test, a female health-care worker developed an area if redness and induration 12 mm in size at the injection site. this result means what? a. an active cause of Tuberculosis b. been exposed to M tuberculosis c. developed protective immunity against tuberculosis d. a result in the normal range for her risk group

b

which of the following is associated with an increase in IgE production?

b. Activation of Th2 cells

Which would be most effective in measuring an individual complement component?

b. Radial immunodiffusion

all of the following are associated with type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT? a. release of preformed mediators from mast cells b. activation of complement c. cell-bound antibody bridged by antigens d. an inherited tendency to respond to allergens

b. activation of complement

Which best describes the role of CR2 on cell membranes?

b. acts as co-receptor on B cells for antigens

The classical complement pathway is activated by a. most viruses b. antigen-antibody complexes c. fungal cell walls d. mannose in bacterial cell walls

b. antigen-antibody complexes

A lack of CR1 receptors on RBCs would result in which of the following?

b. decrease clearance of immune complexes by the spleen

What is the immune mechanism involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions? a. cellular antigens are involved b. deposition of immune complexes c. only heterologous antigens are involved d. tissue damage results from exocytosis

b. deposition of immune complexes

which of the following best characterizes hemolytic uremic syndrome?

b. it can be associated with deficiencies in Factor H

which best describes the role of the H factor?

b. prevents binding of Factor B to C3b

a patient with a deficiency in complement component C7 would likely present with a. recurrent staphylococcal infections b. recurrent neisserial infection c. recurrent E coli infection d. recurrent Nocardia infections

b. recurrent neisserial infection

which of the following statements applies to Bruton's thymidine kinase deficiency? a. it typically appears in females b. there is a lack of circulating CD19+ B cells c. T cells are abnormal d. there is a lack of pre-B cells in the bone marrow

b. there is a lack of circulating CD19+ B cells

prenatal screening for SCID involves detecting a. treggs b. trecs c. thelps d. tcytos

b. trecs

which of the following conclusions can be drawn about a patient whose total IgE level was determined to be 150 IU/mL? a. the patient definitely has allergic tendencies b. the patient may be subject to anaphylactic shock c. antigen-specific testing should be done d. the patient will never have an allergic reaction

c

Mannose-binding protein In the lection pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component? a. C3 b. C1rs c. C1q d. C4

c. C1q

Which of the following is true of amplification loop in complement activation ?

c. C3b is the produce that is increased

Which of the following is referred to as C3 convertase? a. C1qrs b. C3bD c. C3bBb d. C4b5a

c. C3bBb

which of the following would be most effective in preventing bystander lysis in RBCs?

c. DAF

a decreased CH50 level and a normal AH50 level indicate which deficiency?

d. decrease in components of the classical pathway only

The Cylex ImmunoKnow assay is useful in determining functional capabilities of which cell type? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgE

c. IgD

T cells subset enumeration by flow cytometry would be most useful in making the diagnosis of which disorder? a. Bruton's thymidine kinase deficiency b. selective IgA deficiency c. SCID d. Multiple myeloma

c. SCID

patients with which immunodeficiency syndrome should receive irradiated blood products to protect against the development of GVHD? a. Bruton's thymidine kinase deficiency b. selective IgA deficiency c. SCID d.CGD

c. SCID

which of the following is a general characteristic of hypersensitivity reactions?

c. an exaggerated immune response to an antigen occurs

What is the immune phenomenon associated with the thus reaction? a. tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells b. Removal of antibody-coasted RBCs c. deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels d. release of histamines from mast cells

c. deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome C. Hereditary angioedema D. Increased bacterial infections

c. hereditary angioedema

to determine a cold agglutinin titer a. patient serum should be separated from whole blood at 4 degrees Celsius and tested at 4 degrees celsius b. patient serum should be separated from whole blood at 4 degrees celsius and tested at 37 degrees celsius c. patient serum should be separated from whole blood at 37 degrees celsius and tested at 4 degrees celsius d. patient serum should be separated from whole blood at 37 degrees celsius and tested at 37 degrees celsius

c. patient serum should be separated from whole blood at 37 degrees celsius and tested at 4 degrees celsius

What is Cellular immunity deficiencies and an example?

caused by problems with the T-cell; DiGeorge Anomaly

All of the following are true of the recognition unit EXCEPT? a. it consists of C1q, C1r, and C1s b. the subunits require calcium for binding together c. binding occurs at the FC region of antibody molecules d. C1q becomes an active esterase

d. C1q becomes an active esterase

which best characterizes the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

d. C9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel

Which best describes the role of an anaphylatoxin?

d. Increases permeability of blood vessels

A 3 year old boys is hospitalized because of recurrent bouts of pneumonia. lab tests are run and the following findings notes: prolonged bleeding time, decreased platelets count, increased level of serum alpha-fetoprotein, and a deficiency of naturally occurring isohemagglutinins. based on these result, which is most likely the diagnosis ? a. PNP deficiency b. Selective IgA deficiency c. SCID d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Reactions to latex are caused by a. type I hypersensitivity. b. type IV hypersensitivity. c. skin irritation. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above

which of the following are associated with ataxia-telangiectasia? a. inherited as an autosomal recessive b. defect in both cellular and humoral immunity c. chromosomal breaks in lymphocytes d. all of the above

d. all of the above

which of the following would cause a positive DAT test? a. presence of IgG on RBCS b. Presence of Ceb or C3d on RBCs c. a transfusion reaction caused by preformed antibody d. any of the above

d. any of the above

Which clinical manifestation would be seeing a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency? a. defective T cell function b. Inability to produce IgG c. defective NK cell function d. Defective neutrophil function

d. defective neutrophil function

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, a PID that was previously thought to be cell-mediated deficiency, is now classified as which type of PID? a. autoinflammatory disorder b. complement deficiency c. predominantly antibody deficiency d. innate immunity deficiency

d. innate immunity deficiency

which condition would result in HDN? a. buildup of IgE on mother's cells b. sensitization of cytotoxic T cells c. Exposure to antigen found on both mother and baby RBCs d. prior exposure to foreign RBC antigen

d. prior exposure to foreign RBC antigens

A FocP3 gene mutation may lead to a deficiency of what type of cell? a. T helper cells b. T cytotoxic cells c. B cells d. T regulatory cells

d. t regulatory cells

A young woman developed red, itchy papule on her wrist 2 days after wearing a new bracelet. this reaction was caused by a. IgE sensitized mast cells in the skim b. antigen-antibody complexes in the skin c. damage to the skin cells by antibodies and complement d. an inflammatory response induced by cytokines released from the Th1 cells

d.an inflammatory response induced by cytokines released from the Th1 cells

What is type I and what's an example

production of IgE, basophils Hay fever, asthma, hives