Immunology Final

The relative time of recovery of lymphocytes after a bone marrow transplant is

6-24 months, with T cells faster than B cells

Epstein-Barr virus infects and establishes latency in _____, gaining entry by binding to _____.

B cells; CR2

Rituximab depletes _____ through a process involving the binding of _____ on the surface of NK cells leading to killing.

B cells; FcR

The co-stimulatory molecule _____ on professional antigen-presenting cells binds CD28 on the surface of naive T cells.

B7

_____ on professional antigen-presenting cells binds CD28 on the surface of naive T cells.

B7

In the laboratory work-up of a person with complement deficiency, it has been found that complement in the serum of this patient can be activated by bacterial surfaces and MBL, but not by immune complexes containing IgG. The molecular defect in this person could be in

C1q

Complement deficiencies may lead to loss of

C3b opsonization

Individuals resistant to a primary infection by macrophage-tropic HIV express a mutant form of _______

CCR5

HIV uses two chemokine receptors to infect cells. The express of CCR5 and CXCR4 is such that

CCR5 is expressed on monocytes and DCs and CXCR4 is expressed on CD4 T cells

The pathogenic immune mechanisms of Type IV hypersensitivity are

CD4 and CD8 T cells

Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells involves

CD40 on the B cells with CD40 ligand on the Th2 cell

Complement is able to enhance removal of immune complexes because of

CR1 on red blood cells recognizes C3b and phagocytosis of the complexes by macrophages using CR1

Activated T cells express _____, which binds to B7 and results in _____ of T cell activity and proliferation.

CTLA4; suppression

Phagocytic immunodeficiencies include _____

Chediak-Higashi syndrome, Chronic Granulomatous disease, Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

_____ is expressed exclusively on activated dendritic cells and binds to ICAM-3 on naive T cells in secondary lymphoid tissue.

DC-SIGN

This interaction between MEMBRANE-BOUND _____ on cytotoxic CD8 T cells and MEMBRANE- BOUND _____ on the target cells leads to target cell killing.

Fas ligand; Fas

The transcription factor ____ induces IL-4 secretion by CD4 Th cells

GATA-3

An autoimmune disease of the thyroid is ________

Graves' disease

Ankylosing spondylitis has a strong association with _____

HLA-B27

Ankylosing spondylitis has a strong association with ______.

HLA-B27

A pathogen that does NOT use gene rearrangement to evade the immune response is ______

Herpes Simplex virus

Dendritic cells DO NOT acquire antigen by

ICAM

Macrophage requires two signals for activation, which include

IFN gamma secreted by effector Th1 cells and CD40L on Th1 interacts with CD40 on macrophage

Macrophage requires two signals

IFN gamma secreted by effector Th1 cells and CD40L on Th1 interacts with CD40 on macrophage

The effector molecules of Th1 cells include

IFN gamma, GM-CSF, TNF alpha, CD40 ligand

Which of the following is NOT produced by TH2 cells?

IFN-gamma

Proinflammatory mediators secreted by macrophages include

IL-1, IL-6, TNF alpha

_____ regulates CTL activity

IL-2

_______ activates CTL to become cytotoxic

IL-2

After T cell activation, the first set of genes begin transcribing messages that code for

IL-2 cytokine and IL-2 receptors for autocrine stimulation of proliferation

Which of the following is NOT produced by Th1 cells?

IL-4

Which of the following is NOT produced by cytotoxic CD8 T cells?

IL-4

The cytokine influencing eosinophil development and function during helminth infections is _____

IL-5

Acute phase proteins are released by hepatocytes in response to ________. Acute phase proteins include _______.

IL-6; C-reactive protein, mannose binding lectin, and fibrinogen

The dominant immunoglobulin synthesized at mucosal surfaces is _____.

IgA

The formation of a wheal and flare is associated with allergic reactions mediated by

IgE

______ is NOT an effector mechanisms of solid organ rejection

IgE antibody

The effector responses of autoimmune reactions does NOT include

IgE-mediated disease

The pathogenic immune mechanisms of Type II hypersensitivity are

IgG and IgM antibodies against cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens

_____ compensates for the absence of secretory IgA in selective IgA deficiency because it can be secreted by mucosal tissues using the same receptor needed for transcytosis

IgM

_____ are T-cell mediated autoimmune diseases

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and multiple sclerosis

Naive lymphocytes homing to lymphoid tissue use _____ to bind to CD34 and GlyCAM-1 on high endothelial venules.

L-selectin

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Listeria monocytogenes are pathogens that exploit the immune system because

M. tuberculosis is able to prevent fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome and L. monocytogenes is able to escape phagosomes into the cytosol

_____ is the vascular addressin found on endothelial cells of intestinal mucosa that binds to integrins of gut-homing effector lymphocytes.

MAdCAM-1

_____ in a bone marrow transplant can lead to acute graft-versus-host disease

Mature donor T cells

_____ is an autoimmune disease in which the autoantigen is myelin basic protein

Multiple Sclerosis

Auto-antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen in

Myasthenia gravis

Intracytoplasmic bacteria in enterocytes of the gastrointestinal tract are detected by _____

NOD proteins

Cytolytic T lymphocytes kill their target cells by SECRETION of

Pore-forming proteins and proteases

Signal 1 and signal 2 are involved in T cell activation. Select the TRUE statement.

Signal 2 is a co-stimulatory signal that leads to the stabilization of mRNA for IL-2 and increases the rate of transcription of the IL-2 gene

The transcription factor _____ induces secretion of IFNg in CD4 Th cells

T-bet

An allergic reaction to poison oak is associated with _____.

T-cell activation

Dendritic cells in tissue travel to

T-rich areas of secondary lymphoid tissue where they present antigen to naive T cells

The pathogenic immune mechanisms of Type I hypersensitivity are

Th2 cells, IgE, mast cells, and eosinophils

True or false: During a Type I hypersensitivity reactions, mast cell degranulation initiates an inflammatory response that recruits eosinophils and basophils.

True

"Original Antigenic Sin" is best described as a phenomenon in which _____

a bias is seen in successive immune responses to structurally related antigens such on those on different strains of influenza virus

The ligand bound by the alpha/beta T-cell receptors of a CD4+ helper T cell which responds to tetanus toxoid is most likely

a peptide derived from tetanus toxoid, bound to a Class II MHC molecule

HIV is

a retrovirus that carries genetic information in the form of RNA

Which is NOT true for IgG? a. IgG is transported into the respiratory tract by the poly Ig receptor b. IgG is made principally in the lymph nodes, spleen and bone marrow c. IgG1 and IgG3 interact with Fc-gamma receptors on phagocytic cells d. IgG can be found at extracellular sites e. IgG is typically made during a secondary immune response

a. IgG is transported into the respiratory tract by the poly Ig receptor

Select which statement is TRUE about the response time of a specific hypersensitivity reaction a. Type I reactions occur within 15-30 mins after allergen exposure b. Type II reactions occur around 48-72 hrs after allergen exposure c. Type III reactions occur within 1-2 mins after allergen exposure d. Type IV reactions occur around 10-15 mins after allergen exposure e. Type V reacitons occurs within 60-90 mins after allergen exposure

a. Type I reactions occur within 15-30 mins after allergen exposure

Which of the following is NOT used by the herpes simplex virus to subvert host immune responses? a. a virus-encoded TLR4 receptor b. a virus-encoded complement receptor c. inhibition of MHC class I expression d. inhibition of peptide transport by transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP) e. a virus-encoded Fc receptor

a. a virus-encoded TLR4 receptor

Which characteristic is NOT CORRECT for the B cell co-receptor a. associates with the CD3 complex for cell signaling b. cooperates with the membrane Ig in B cell activation c. increase the sensitivity of the B cell to antigen d. is able to recognize breakdown products of C3 (C3d, iC3b) deposited on pathogen e. cooperates with the membrane Ig in B cell activation

a. associates with the CD3 complex for cell signaling

Which is NOT true for IgE? a. class switching to IgE occurs independent of T cell help b. IgE can bind tightly to the high affinity IgE receptor on mast cells c. IgE is important in the expulsion of worms and other parasites d. IgE triggers a type of ADCC reaction in eosinophils e. Th2 cytokines stimulate B cells to make IgE

a. class switching to IgE occurs independent of T cell help

Primary immunodeficiencies do NOT include a. defects due to chemotherapy and infection b. defects in the myeloid lineage that leads to cell disorders that affect phagocytic function c. defects in the lymphoid lineage that leads to cell disorders that affect T and/or B cells d. humoral deficiencies, cell-mediated deficiencies, and/or combined deficiencies e. defects early in hematopoietic development that affect the entire immune system

a. defects due to chemotherapy and infection

Which of the following is FALSE regarding memory T cells? a. memory T cells continuously secrete cytokines or have cytolytic activity b. memory T cells can be activated by dendritic cells, macrophages or B cells c. memory T cells typically have low to variable activation requirements d. memory T cells express high levels of adhesion molecules e. memory T cells are only made in response to T-independent antigens

a. memory T cells continuously secrete cytokines or have cytolytic activity

What are the main clinical effects of defects in phagocytic function?

a. persistent infections with bacteria, especially encapsulated bacteria

In what way are the classical, lectin, and alternative pathways for complement activation IDENTICAL?

a. requirement of a C3 and C5 convertase

_____ express FceRI and contain granules containing inflammatory mediators

activated eosinophils, mast cells, basophils

When donor MHC:donor self-peptide complexes activate recipient T cells, _____.

acute rejection of transplanted organs occurs

Examples of Type I hypersensitivity are

allegic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, hives

The components of a Type I hypersensitivity reactions include

allergen, presensitization, IgE, IgE receptors, mast cells

The term _______ is used to describe polymorphic antigens that vary between individuals of the same species.

alloantigens

An _______ is a graft or transplant from one individual to another individual who is not genetically identical.

allograft

During an acute rejection

alloreactive CD8 T cells attack the organ and destroy it

The graft versus leukemia effect is when

alloreactive T cells in the graft help to rid the patient of residual leukemia cells

_____ accounts for the production of different isoforms of CD45 observed in naive, effector, and memory T cells

alternative splicing

The wheal and flare reaction is an example of _________

an immediate type I allergic response

During infection with HIV, a person is said to undergo seroconversion when

anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum.

Components of hyperacute rejection include

antibody and complement

The lesions of antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity (Type II) contain

antibody, complement and neutrophils

Which of the following types of immune responses are beneficial in clearing helminth infections in the intestinal tract?

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, IgE antibodies, complement fixation

Degranulation of mast cells is most directly triggered by

antigen cross-linking IgE bound to the Fc epsilon receptor

In the CLASSICAL pathway of complement activation

antigen-antibody complexes bind and activate C1q

_____ cause mild and limited disease, whereas _____ cause more severe disease and higher mortality.

antigenic drift; antigenic shift

________ is responsible for the production of recombinant influenza viruses composed of a genome derived from two different influenza variants

antigenic shift

Trypanosomes, are able to undergo _______, which causing a periodic rise and fall in number

antigenic variation

The classical and alternative pathways of complement activation DIFFER in that ONLY in the CLASSICAL pathway

are antigen-antibody complexes required for activation

The B7 molecules on antigen presenting cells

are costimulatory molecules for T cells when bound to CD28 on the T cell

The B7 molecules present on antigen presenting cells

are costimulatory molecules for T cells when bound to CD28 on the T cell

M cells in the gut ________

are located in the dome of a Peyer's patch

Germinal centers found in lymph nodes and spleen

are sties where antigen-activated mature B cells proliferate and differentiate

Examples of Type III hypersensitivity is

arthus reaction

The B cell co-receptor is NOT/does NOT

associate with CD3 to enhance signaling through the BCR

An _______ is a graft or transplant from one area to another on the same individual

autograft

Which of the following is expressed on the surface of a mature B cells? a. MHC class II molecules, CD40L, IgM and IgD, CD28 b. MHC class II, CD40, IgM and IgD, CD19 c. MHC class I, CD40L, IgM and IgD, CD19 d. MHC class II, CD40L, IgM and IgD, CD3 e. MHC class I, CD40L, IgM and IgD, CD3

b. MHC class II, CD40, IgM and IgD, CD19

Select which statement is FALSE about influenza? a. influenza neuraminidase bears an epitope against which protective antibodies are made b. antigenic drift is due to recombination between human influenza virus and an avian influenza virus c. worldwide pandemics are caused by influenza virus that have undergone antigenic shift d. epidemics are due to antigenic drift e. influenza hemagglutinin bears an epitope against which protective antibodies are made

b. antigenic drift is due to recombination between human influenza virus and an avian influenza virus

Hashimoto's and Graves disease both affect the thyroid. Select the statement that is TRUE a. in Hashimoto's there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones b. in Grave's there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones c. in Grave's there is a suppression of thyroid hormones d. in both Graves and Hashimoto's there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones e. in both Graves and Hashimoto's disease there in an underproduction of thyroid hormones

b. in Grave's there is an overproduction of thyroid hormones

Lymphocyte homing to secondary lymphoid tissue DO NOT include

beta-2 microglobulin

Superantigens ______

bind MHC Class II on APCs and TCR on T cells causing T cell activation

Signals necessary for activation of B cells to differentiate into a plasma cell include.

binding of antigen by the B cell receptor and ligation of the co-receptor (CR2, CD19, CD81)

The immunosuppressive drug, anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody is used to _________

block signal 1

Lymphocyte recirculation involves cells moving from the ___ to the ____ and then back to the _____

blood, secondary lymphoid tissues, blood and tissue

Which of the following statements about cytotoxic T cells is TRUE? a. CTLs are not antigen-specific b. after killing one target cell, the CTL undergo apoptosis c. CTLs have directed release of lytic granules d. the cytotoxin FAS ligand is released with the lytic granules e. CTLs sense altered cells with activating and inhibiting receptors

c. CTLs have directed release of lytic granules

Which of the following describes an activated dendritic cell UPON ARRIVING in a lymph node? a. Located in both the follicles and medulla of the lymph node b. Functions mainly to take up antigen c. Expresses high levels of MHC molecules and co-stimulatory molecules d. Expresses low levels of MHC class II molecules e. Induces apoptosis of all lymphocytes

c. Expresses high levels of MHC molecules and co-stimulatory molecules

A T-independent (TI) antigen stimulates antibody production. Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. the antibody produced is predominantly IgM b. memory B cells will not be induced c. IL-4 and IL-5 are required for the production of antibody during the response d. the polymeric nature of the antigen crosslinks B-cell surface receptors e. the responding B cell is likely a B-2 cell

c. IL-4 and IL-5 are required for the production of antibody during the response

Pathogens use a number of mechanisms to evade and subvert the immune system. Select the INCORRECT statement about the pathogen and mechanism used a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae uses variant pilin protein b. Herpes simplex virus induces latency in neurons c. Mycobacterium alters its locations in macrophages d. Salmonella typhimurium alternates expression of two forms of flagellin e. Varicella-zoster induces latency in ganglia

c. Mycobacterium alters its locations in macrophages

Which of the following is NOT true of IgG? a. function in neutalization b. some isotypes are able to cross the placenta c. sensitizes mast cells by binding by its Fc d. can act as an opsonin e. can bind by its Fc region to NK cells

c. sensitizes mast cells by binding by its Fc

Which type of AUTOIMMUNE mediator is correctly matched with its cause? a. type I: IgE-mediated b. type II: effector T cells c. type III: immune complex deposition in tissues d. type IV: extracellular matrix-associated autoantigens e. type V: cell-surface components

c. type III: immune complex deposition in tissues

Which type of autoimmune disease is correctly matched with its cause? a. type I: IgE-mediated b. type II: effector T cells c. type III: immune complex deposition in tissues d. type IV: extracellular matrix-associated autoantigens e. type V: cell-surface components

c. type III: immune complex deposition in tissues

Severe combined immunodeficiency _____

can lead to either no T and/or no B cells depending on the mutation

HLA-DQ2 and/or HLA-DQ8 are susceptibility alleles for ______

celiac disease

The membrane attack complex is produced by which complement pathway?

classical, alternative, and lectin pathways

Effector functions of IgM include

complement activation

The mechanism(s) of tissue injury of Type II hypersensitivity reactions is

complement and ADCC

Examples of Type IV hypersensitivity is

contact dermatitis

In secondary lymphoid tissues, dendritic cells are located in _____, whereas B cells are present in _____.

cortical T-cell areas; lymphoid follicles

A patient receiving an HLA-identical bone marrow transplant

could manifest graft versus host disease due to non-HLA differences

A_______ epitope is typically not accessible to the immune system but is revealed under inflammatory or infectious states

cryptic

A(n) _____ is an epitope that is typically not accessible to the immune system but is revealed under inflammatory or infectious states

cryptic epitope

Major protective mechanisms against intracellular pathogens include

cytotoxic T lymphocytes and NK cells

Select which statement is TRUE. a. The principal costimulatory molecules on professional antigen-presenting cells are CD28, which bind B7 proteins on the T cell surface b. The only antigen presenting cell present in the lymph node is a B cell c. The immune response to intravesicular bacteria is coordinated by activated Th2 cells d. Binding of peptide:MHC by a TCR is necessary, but not sufficient to activate a T cell. e. CD28 is found only the surface of antigen presenting cells

d. Binding of peptide:MHC by a TCR is necessary, but not sufficient to activate a T cell.

Which FcR does NOT bind IgG1 a. CD16 b. CD32 c. CD64 d. CD89 e. All of the above bind IgG1

d. CD89

B cell immunodeficiencies do NOT include _____ a. X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia c. common variable immunodeficiency d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome e. Burton's Tyrosine Kinase defect

d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Which characteristic is NOT CORRECT for B cells a. are professional antigen presenting cells b. use their BCR to internalize antigen c. present antigen to T cells d. activate NK cells by cell-cell contact and cytokine secretion e. induce the expression of CD40L on T cells

d. activate NK cells by cell-cell contact and cytokine secretion

Select the INCORRECT characteristic for Integrins and ICAMs a. are found on both T cells and Ag presenting cells b. provide strong interactions surrounding the TCR-Ag:MHC binding c. are used during activation of T cells d. are the pore-forming and killing enzymes of CTLs e. are called adhesion molecules

d. are the pore-forming and killing enzymes of CTLs

Commensal microorganisms in the gastrointestinal tract facilitate all of the following except _____ a. compete with pathogenic variants for nutrients and space b. convert toxic substances to benign derivatives c. degrade plant fibers to make their nutrients available d. induce a continual state of inflammation e. synthesize essential metabolites

d. induce a continual state of inflammation

Which of the following effector functions is mediated by dimeric IgA? a. complement activation and mast cell sensitization b. neutralization in blood, basophil sensitization c. protection of the newborn through secretion into milk, inhibition of B cell activation d. protection of mucosal surfaces, protection of the newborn through secretion into milk e. protection of mucosal surfaces, NK ADCC

d. protection of mucosal surfaces, protection of the newborn through secretion into milk

Immunodeficiency is NOT due

defect in viral replication

Type IV hypersensitivity is called _______

delayed type hypersensitivity

Acute rejection of a kidney graft involves the activation of recipient T cells by _____ of _____ origin

dendritic cells; donor

The effector molecule of the humoral immune system which is transported across epithelia and into secretory products such as saliva is

dimeric IgA

The mechanism(s) of tissue injury of Type IV hypersensitivity reactions is

direct target cell lysis and cytokine-mediated inflammation

As time progresses following an organ transplant, the alloreactive T-cell response shifts from a(n) _____ pathway to a(n) _____ pathway of allorecognition.

direct; indirect

C1q is able to

directly bind to Fc regions of IgM and IgG

The outcome of a an allogeneic bone marrow transplant between a recipient and donor who do NOT share HLA allotypes is

donor-derived thymocytes are positively selected on recipient HLA allotypes, but T cells can not be activated by donor antigen presenting cells in the periphery

CTLA4

downregulates T cell activation and limits cell proliferation

Select which statement is INCORRECT a. IgG and C3b are important opsonins for macrophages b. Cross-linking of antigen receptors is the first step in B cell activation c. Signals from the B cell receptor/Ig alpha/Ig beta and co-receptor synergize in B cell activation d. CR2, CD19 and CD81 are part of the B cell co-receptor e. CR1, CD40, CD81 are part of the B cell co-receptor

e. CR1, CD40, CD81 are part of the B cell co-receptor

Interaction between Th cells and B cells is NOT dependent on which of the following interactions? a. binding of TCR to MHC/Ag b. binding of CD4 to MHC Class II molecules c. CD40-CD40L d. Th cytokines e. FAS-FASL

e. FAS-FASL

Select the CORRECT statement about the pathogen and the mechanism used to evade or subvert the immune system a. Listeria monocytogenes escapes from the proteasome to replicate in the cytoplasm b. Toxoplasma gondii recombines its RNA genome with avain strains c. Salmonella coats its surface with human proteins d. Listeria monocytogenes escapes from the sensory neurons e. Treponema pallidum coats its surface with human proteins

e. Treponema pallidum coats its surface with human proteins

HIV can evade the immune system by all except _______ a. depleting CD4 T cells b. functionally inhibiting CD4 T cells c. having an extremely high mutation rate d. down-regulating MHC Class I expression e. depleting CD8 T cells

e. depleting CD8 T cells

Mechanisms of killing infected cells by CD8 cytolytic T cells involves all BUT a. antigen recognition and conjugate formation with the target cell b. CTL activation c. CTL granule exocytosis d. apoptosis of target cell e. formation of the complement membrane-attack complex

e. formation of the complement membrane-attack complex

Which statement is INCORRECT about T cells a. naïve T cells are activated to develop effector function in secondary lymphoid tissue b. cytotoxic CD8 T cells and CD4 Th1 cells enter the blood and travel to sites of infection c. effector CD4 Tfh cells remain in the secondary lymphoid tissue, where they activate naïve B cells d. CD8 and CD4 Th1 cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity e. naive T cells are activated to become memory cells at the site of infection

e. naive T cells are activated to become memory cells at the site of infection

Which of the following is FALSE regarding naive T cells? a. the frequency of antigen-specific naïve T cells is very low b. naïve T cells have no effector functions c. naïve T cells express high levels of peripheral lymph node homing receptor (L- selectin) d. naïve T cells have high activation requirements e. naive T cells secrete high levels of cytokine that activate other cells to have effector function

e. naive T cells secrete high levels of cytokine that activate other cells to have effector function

Which is NOT a characteristic of X-linked agammaglobulinemia a. no antibody is made b. it is a primary immunodeficiency c. it is caused by a defect in tyrosine kinase Btk d. no mature B cells develop e. no mature NK cells are made

e. no mature NK cells are made

Select which is NOT a way in which viruses inhibit anti-viral humoral immunity a. using virally encoded Fc receptors that block effector functions of antibodies b. using virally encoded complement receptors that block complement-mediated effector pathways c. using virally encoded complement regulatory proteins that inhibit complement activation of infected cells d. use virally encoded proteins that inhibit TAP ATPase activity e. using virally encoded proteins that inhibit TLR4 recognition of the virus

e. using virally encoded proteins that inhibit TLR4 recognition of the virus

Which statement is FALSE about the effector functions of T cells

effector CD8 T cells recognize missing MHC molecules on target cells

T cells failing to encounter specific antigen leave lymph nodes via the

efferent lymphatics

Allergens are

environmental antigens

Mast cells

express Fc receptors for IgE

Effector T cells

express few adhesion molecules

DiGeorge's syndrome results from

failure of thymus to form

A patient is diagnosed with AIDS when CD4 T-cell counts

fall below 200 cells/μl

A granuloma is NOT

found only in secondary lymphoid tissue

Individuals with Celiac disease cannot tolerate ______ and have an autoimmune disease that _________.

gluten; damages the small intestines

Hypersensitivity is due to over-reaction of the immune system to

harmless environmental antigens

Intramolecular epitope spreading is when

harmless immune response made against epitopes in one part of an antigenic molecule progress to other epitopes that generate harmful immune response

Plasma cells

have a high rate of Ig secretion

ABO mismatches typically lead to

hyperacute rejection

Graves' disease causes _____, whereas Hashimoto's disease causes _____

hyperthyroidism; hypothyroidism

The pathogenic immune mechanisms of Type III hypersensitivity are

immune complexes of circulating IgG or IgM antibodies deposited in vascular basement membranes

The lesions of immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity (Type III) contain

immune complexes, complement, neutrophils

B cell take up antigen via

immunoglobulin

Rheumatoid factor is

immunoglobulin reactive against Fc fragment of human IgG

The area of contact between membranes of a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell where a clustering of protein-protein interactions occur is called a(n)

immunological synapse

Thymus-dependent antigens

induce the generation of antibodies by B cell when T cell help is available and leads to memory and affinity maturation

The clinical course of HIV is

infection with HIV, acute phase with wide dissemination of virus, seroconversion, chronic (asymptomatic) phase ending with increase in viral load and drop in CD4 T cell numbers, AIDS, death

Pernicious Anemia

involves auto-antibody to parietal cell and/or intrinsic factor

The four types of hypersensitive responses are grouped by effector molecules. Type III hypersensitivity

involves immune complexes deposited in vascular basement membranes

An _______ is a graft from one individual to another indvidual who is genetically identical.

isograft

A feature of NK cells, which DISTINGUISHES them from CTLs, is the NK cells' ability to

kill cells which lack surface MHC

Characteristics of X-linked hyper-IgM are

large amounts of IgM are produced and antibodies made are typically against T- independent antigens

Centroblasts are

large dividing B cells in germinal center

During the ________ , mast cells produce leukotrienes, chemokines, and cytokines.

late-phase reaction

Waldeyer's ring includes _________

lingual tonsils, adenoids, palatine tonsils

An epidemic affects _____, whereas a pandemic affects _____.

local populations; global populations

Infection with HIV predominantly results in

loss of CD4 T cells

The hallmarks of Type IV hypersensitivity reactions include ______ at the site of inflammation

macrophages

Mucosae of a healthy intestinal tract is/does NOT _____

maintain a constant state of inflammation

______ secreted by activated eosinophils triggers histamine release from mast cells

major basic protein

The mechanism(s) of tissue injury of Type I hypersensitivity reactions is

mast cell-derived mediators and cytokine-mediated inflammation

Graft versus host disease is caused by

mature donor T cells that respond to the recipient's tissue HLA antigens

A Primary focus is located in the

medullary cords

_____ is the term used to describe how pathogen antigens resemble host antigens

molecular mimicry

_____ is the term used to describe how pathogen antigens resemble host antigens and can sometimes trigger autoimmune disease

molecular mimicry

Individuals with SCID are unable to

mount adaptive immune responses

During a secondary immune response, high-affinity IgG antibodies are produced. Which of the following best explains why low-affinity IgM antibodies are not made?

naive pathogen-specific B cells are suppressed by negative signaling through FcgammaRIIB1

CXCL8 (IL-8) causes

neutrophil chemotaxis

The process by which complement enhances phagocytosis of bacteria is called.

opsonization

Immunodeficiency is

part or parts of the immune system are absesnt or defective

Secretory IgA and _____ can bind to the poly-Ig receptor and be transported into the lumen of the gut or across other mucosal surfaces.

pentameric IgM

In a CD8 T cell-mediated immune response to a virus

peptides derived from the antigen bind to Class I MHC proteins

Following mast cell degranulation, ______ are synthesized and released

platelet-activating factor and leukotrienes

Hyperacute rejection in solid organ transplants

preformed anti-donor antibodies and complement

Hyperacute rejection in solid organ transplants is caused by

preformed anti-donor antibodies and complement

In response to signal 1 and 2, the next thing a naive CD4 T cell would do is

produce and secrete IL-2, and produce the high affinity receptor for IL-2

In a solid organ transplant, the indirect pathway of allorecognition involves

recipient CD4 T cells with specificity for a peptide from the donor HLA allotype bound to the recipient's HLA Class II

In chronic rejection, effector T cells respond to _____ complexes on _____-derived dendritic cells.

recipient MHC class II:donor MHC peptide; recipient

Hyperacute rejection of a kidney is likely due to the presence of

recipient having antibody against alloantigen on the kidney graft endothelium

Regulatory T cells DO NOT

regulate positive and negative selection in the thymus

Another name for anti-immunoglobulin autoantibodies is _____

rheumatoid factor

Autoantibody to the Fc part of immunoglobulin is _____

rheumatoid factor

TH2 subset of effector cells

secrete cytokines that help eosinophils respond to parasites

The Th2 subset of lymphocytes

secretes cytokines that promote B cell differentiation

Lymphocyte homing to secondary lymphoid tissue involves

selectins, integrins, and chemokine receptors

Autoimmunity is due to over-reaction of the immune system to

self antigens

The immunosuppressive drug, anti-IL-2R blocks ______ between the ______ and APC

signal 3; T cell

Antigen receptors of T lymphocytes contain only a single

site for antigen binding

Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease of the ______ that involves auto-antibody directed against ______.

skin; desmosomes

SELECTIN binding to addressins is important for

slowing down lymphocyte movement and identifying secondary lymphoid tissue

Rheumatic fever is a transient autoimmune disease that involves antibodies against _____ that cross- react with antigens on ____

streptococcal cell-wall antigens; heart tissue

Select which statement is TRUE about superantigens a. superantigens assist in activating antigen-specific immune responses b. superantigens are derived from host cell antigens c. superantigens activate CD4 T cells by crosslinking the TCR on the T cell with MHC class I on the antigen presenting cell d. superantigens activate CD4 T cells by crosslinking the TCR on the T cell with MHC class II on the antigen presenting cell e. superantigens activate NK cells by binding to KIRs

superantigens activate CD4 T cells by crosslinking the TCR on the T cell with MHC class II on the antigen presenting cell

The function of follicular dendritic cells is to

supply a source of intact antigen to B cells in germinal centers

Trypanosomes escape from adaptive immunity by altering the type of _____ expressed on the parasite surface.

surface glycoprotein

During an IgE-mediated response, the second reaction is mediated by _________

synthesis and secretion of leukotrienes, cytokines and chemokines

Autoimmune disease caused by immune complexes include ___________

systemic lupus erythematosus

_____ is an autoimmune disease that typically includes antibodies against DNA, histones, ribosomes, snRNP, and scRNP

systemic lupus erythematosus

An autoimmune disease that typically includes antibodies against DNA, histones, ribosomes, snRNP, and scRNP is

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Acute rejection in solid organ transplants _____

takes days to weeks

Listeria monocytogenes replicates in _____ of macrophages after _____.

the cytosol; escaping from the phagosome

In a solid organ transplant, the direct pathway of allorecognition occurs when

the recipient's T cells are simulated by the direct interaction of their TCR with HLA molecules expressed on the donor dendritic cells

Vaccination is required each year for influenza because

the virus undergoes antigenic shift and the virus undergoes antigenic drift

Germinal centers do NOT contain

tissue dendritic cells

Signal transducers and activators of transcription (STATs) are _____ that are phosphorylated by JAKs.

transcription factors

Antigen binding to the B cell receptor

transduces a signal through the Ig alpha and Ig beta molecules

Examples of Type II hypersensitivity is

transfusion reactions

When an individual receives a kidney transplant, the main concern will be to control the development of _____.

transplant rejection

Microfold (M) cells function to

transport antigen from the lumina to underlying Peyer's patches

The Brambell receptor (FcRB)

transports IgG from the bloodstream into the extracellular spaces

The four types of hypersensitive responses are grouped by effector molecules. Type II hypersensitivity

uses IgG antibodies against cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens

Latency is

when Herpes Simplex Virus enters sensory neurons to hide