Intro to Politics ~ Quiz Two and Test One

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1a) Define federalism.

Federalism is a form of government where the national government shares its powers with state and local governments.

What was the order of the eras of federalism from earliest to most recent?

Dual, Cooperative, New

Elastic Clause (also called Necessary and Proper Clause)

The Congress shall have Power... To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.

In the 1960s, state gov'ts began to lose power relative to the federal govt. What was the primary cause of this change?

The federal gov't did not trust states to implement new federal policies in areas such as civil rights and the War on Poverty.

What a sub committee in Congress does?

considers specified matters and reports back to the full committee

Senate Filibuster

using the Senate rule of unlimited debate to prevent a bill from passing.

How does the Constitution promote the idea that the states are part of a larger nation and not independent entities?

1) States need congressional approval to enter into agreements with one another. 2) The Constitution prohibits states from passing laws that favor their citizens over citizens of other states. 3) The Constitution requires states to honor acts and judicial proceedings of each other.

How did the Great Depression influence the power of the federal gov't?

1) Federal grants-in-aid became a powerful tool to redirect state gov't's policies. 2) The federal gov't took a more active role than before in providing economic security for Americans.

What Supreme Court cases granted power to the federal gov't? to the States?

1) McCulloch v. Maryland & Gibbons v. Ogden 2) United States v. Lopez & Printz v. United States

A strong federal gov't, and its influence over policy, offers some benefits that devolution to the states might not. What are potential benefits of federal control?

1) The national interest sometimes overrides the local needs of the states. 2) Competition between different state and local gov'ts to attract business to their communities can undermine other policy goals.

In the early 1800s, during the era of dual federalism, what accurately describes the relationship between the powers of federal and state gov'ts?

1) Very little overlap existed between the powers of federal and state gov'ts. 2)State and local gov'ts made most of the laws that impacted daily life.

What are examples of the full faith and credit clause or the privilege and immunities clause?

1) You can drive from one side of the country to the other without having to stop and get a new driver's license in each state. 2) A mariale license granted in one state must be recognized in all the others.

1. Every United States president takes an oath to "preserve, protect, and defend" the ______. A) United States B) Congress C) Constitution D) White House E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 2. ______ is the belief in limiting governmental power by a written charter. A) Federalism B) Constitutionalism C) Democracy D) Autocracy E) Writ of mandamus Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 3. Which of the following is a constitutional function? A) Outlining the organization of government B) Granting power C) Providing a mainstay of rights D) Serving as a symbol of the nation E) All of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): E Correct 4. The phrase "we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" comes from which of the following documents? A) Constitution B) Articles of Confederation C) Declaration of Independence D) Glorious Revolution E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 5. The first plan of a national government for the thirteen American states, later replaced by the Constitution, was the ______. A) Magna Carta B) Virginia Plan C) New Jersey Plan D) Articles of Confederation E) Declaration of Independence Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Incorrect 6. Which of the following is a system of government in which ultimate political authority lies in the central government? A) Federal system B) Confederate system C) Unitary system D) Democratic system E) None of the above. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 7. The number of Electoral College delegates allocated to each of the states is measured by the size of each state's _______. A) Gross Domestic Product B) net Worth C) population D) number of voters E) number of immigrants Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 8. The total number of Electoral College delegates is equal to the number of total _______. A) U.S. senators B) U.S. House of Representatives C) U.S. senators plus representatives D) U.S. citizens of voting age E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 9. Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) New Federalism and the Republican administrations of Presidents Nixon B) New Federalism and the Republican administration of President Reagan C) A reduction in national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Franklin Roosevelt in the New Deal D) An explosion of national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Lyndon Johnson in the Great Society E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 10. President George W. Bush's administration was a strong advocate of state self-reliance during crisis as well as the scaling back of federal environmental regulations. This is an example of what kind of policy? A) New Federalism B) Dual Federalism C) Marble Cake Federalism D) Home Rule E) Electoral College Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 11. The first time the elastic clause was specifically interpreted was in _______. A) The Constitution B) McCulloch v. Maryland C) Marbury v. Madision D) The Articles of Confederation Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 12. The reserve powers ratified in a 1791 amendment to the U.S. Constitution refer to which of the following? A) Powers not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution B) Powers not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution C) Rights not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution D) Rights not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution E) The Bill of Rights Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 13. The reserve powers of the states come from the _______. A) president B) Tenth Amendment C) Eighteenth Amendment D) elastic clause Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 14. Originally, the Bill of Rights restrained which of the following? A) Only the powers of the courts B) Only state and local governments C) All governments in the United States D) Only the national government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 15. What was the Fourteenth Amendment used to do? A) Promote defense policy primarily B) Apply Article I, Section 1 to local governments C) Apply the Bill of Rights to the states D) Overturn the Eleventh Amendment Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 16. According to the text, __________ "spells out what is valued and what is not, what must be maintained and what must be changed." A) the capitalist system B) the president C) the Constitution D) an ideology Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 17. The theory that states "gain their legitimacy from the consent of the governed and are formed primarily to protect the rights of individuals to life, liberty, and property" is called A) contact theory B) contract theory C) conflict theory D) condition theory E) constitution theory Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 18. The ideologies of ______ and _________ are considered radical, because they challenge much of the existing social and political order. A) democratic socialism, libertarianism B) conservatism, liberalism C) conservatism, progressivism D) neoconservatism, liberalism E) populism, liberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 19. Classical liberalism believed which of the following? A) The government that governed least governed best. B) The government that governed most governed best. C) Absolute government control was necessary. D) Socialism was the ideal form of government. E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 20. Like Thomas Jefferson, Andrew Jackson believed that liberty was the absence of government interference with the rights of all citizens to enjoy the fruits of their labor and prosperity. This is an example of which of the following? A) Democratic socialism B) Classical liberalism C) Conservatism D) Neoconservatism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 21. All EXCEPT which of the following are considered milestones in American Conservatism? A) Warren Harding was elected president, marking the beginning of a new era of conservative dominance lasting until 1932. B) The National Review was founded, marking the beginning of the intellectual revitalization of post-World War II conservatism. C) President Lyndon Johnson successfully pushed his Great Society programs through Congress. D) President Ronald Reagan began his program of tax reductions, domestic spending cuts, and defense buildup E) George W. Bush and Dick Cheney won the electoral vote and embarked on an agenda of tax cuts, defense spending, and environmental deregulation. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 22. Liberals champion a humanistic and nonmilitary approach to _______. A) the war on drugs B) foreign policy C) defense policy D) docial policy E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 23. Frank is an avid supporter of government programs that ease the problems of industrialization such as worker's compensation. Frank's political ideology is most in line with _______. A) Progressivism B) Conservatism C) Libertarianism D) Democratic Socialism E) Social Darwinism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 24. Reflections on the Revolution in France (1790) by Edmund Burke is considered the first major statement of _______. A) Conservatism B) Liberalism C) The New Right D) Neoliberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 25. Laissez-faire economics is a view that government should do which of the following? A) Not interfere in the workings of the economy B) Interfere in the workings of the economy C) Strictly regulate business D) Promote social welfare Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 26. _______ is a combination of the views, attitudes, and ideas held by individuals in a community. A) Majority viewpoint B) Public opinion C) Majority stability D) Underlying values Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 27. Public opinion that fluctuates in response to social, political, and economic events is _______. A) intense B) constant C) casual preference D) dynamic Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 28. The majority of Americans are which of the following? A) Not very proud of their country B) Not very attached to national symbols C) Either very or extremely proud of their country D) Less proud of their country than people in other nations are of theirs Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 29. Which of the following is NOT a basic value of democracy? A) Equality B) Christianity C) Freedom D) Consent of the governed Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 30. According to the text, perhaps the most important matter on which Americans differ is ______. A) industrialization B) urbanization C) political ideology D) regionalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 31. The role of groups is emphasized in the concept of America as what type of democracy? A) Group intensive democracy B) Elitist democracy C) Pluralist democracy D) Liberal democracy Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 32. The size of an interest group is the most important factor in determining what? A) Ideology B) Effectiveness C) Support of candidates for public office D) Closeness to the mainstream of American politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 33. Many interest groups try to create public support or sympathy for their political goals. What is the major channel for this support? A) Word-of-mouth B) Political action committees C) The mass media D) High-tech lobbying of Congress Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 34. How has direct mail been used in recent years by interest groups? A) To discredit the government B) To elect opinion leaders C) To solicit financial contributions D) To form political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 35. The Federal Election Act of 1974 caused political action committees to do what? A) Proliferate B) Become less prominent C) Decrease greatly in number D) Become less involved in politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 36. Political parties and interest groups are alike in that their members do which of the following? A) Select candidates to run for public office B) Share common political views or objectives C) Seek to gain control of the government D) Focus on a wide range of issues Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 37. A caucus is which of the following? A) A meeting of members of a political party or the members of a party in a legislature B) A process of selecting delegates to the national conventions, which nominate presidential candidates C) The seventh party system D) Both A and B E) Both A and C Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 38. Political machines are political organizations that do which of the following? A) Recruit and control their membership through the use of governmental authority to bestow benefits on supporters and withhold them from opponents B) Run the voting machines citizens use to vote on election day C) Run the voting machines that tally the votes on election day D) Guide political party organizations on an ongoing basis E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 39. Political candidates and parties often conjure up broad statements of their philosophies and programs under which they will run for election. These are called a party or candidate ______. A) transform B) chloroform C) platform D) platitude E) latitude Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 40. What is the quadrennial meeting of an American political party that focused on the upcoming presidential election called? A) National meeting B) National convention C) American convention D) Conventional politics E) Party election Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 41. Many observers see party resurgence in which context? A) Only in the formal party organization B) Only in the party in the electorate C) Only in the party in government D) In the party organization, the party in the electorate, and, to some extent, the party in government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 42. Personal campaign organizations, single-issue interest groups, and the rise of the public welfare system are some of the reasons for which of the following? A) Party balance B) Party organizations C) Party decline D) The party in government component of political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 43. Ultimate authority within party organizations in the United States is vested in _______. A) the national level B) the state level C) both the national and state levels D) the Constitution Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 44. A_______ election is when the victor must receive more than half of all the votes? A) proportional B) plurality C) majority D) deviating Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 45. Plurality or majority elections, rather than proportional representation, help explain why the United States has a _______. A) multiparty system B) two-party system C) unitary party system D) proportional representation system Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 46. All except which of the following are reform proposals for electoral mechanics? A) A one-day national primary B) A series of regional primaries C) Removing the legal obligation that now requires electors to be faithful D) A direct popular election of presidents Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 47. Which of the following is true of presidential popularity? A) It did not affect congressional elections when Reagan ran in 1980, but it did when George Bush ran in 1988. B) It typically means little or nothing in midterm congressional elections. C) It was first referred to as "coattails" by then Congressman Abraham Lincoln. D) It had sagged so far that Bush lost a lot of Republican congressional support in the midterm elections of 1990. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 48. The polls of voters taken as they leave polling places, usually conducted by the media to get an advance indication of voting trends and facilitate analysis of the reasons behind the outcome of the election, are called _______. A) retreat polls B) exit polls C) entrance polls D) general polls E) primary polls Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Incorrect 49. The ________ elections purpose is to choose the candidates who will hold public office and ___________ the primary election. A) primary; precedes B) primary; follows C) general; precedes D) general; follows E) special; follows Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 50. What are the two social characteristics with the strongest relation to voting? A) Age and income B) Age and education C) Income and education D) Gender and income E) Race and income Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B

1. Every United States president takes an oath to "preserve, protect, and defend" the ______. A) United States B) Congress C) Constitution D) White House E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 2. ______ is the belief in limiting governmental power by a written charter. A) Federalism B) Constitutionalism C) Democracy D) Autocracy E) Writ of mandamus Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 3. Which of the following is a constitutional function? A) Outlining the organization of government B) Granting power C) Providing a mainstay of rights D) Serving as a symbol of the nation E) All of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): E Correct 4. The phrase "we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" comes from which of the following documents? A) Constitution B) Articles of Confederation C) Declaration of Independence D) Glorious Revolution E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 5. The first plan of a national government for the thirteen American states, later replaced by the Constitution, was the ______. A) Magna Carta B) Virginia Plan C) New Jersey Plan D) Articles of Confederation E) Declaration of Independence Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Incorrect 6. Which of the following is a system of government in which ultimate political authority lies in the central government? A) Federal system B) Confederate system C) Unitary system D) Democratic system E) None of the above. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 7. The number of Electoral College delegates allocated to each of the states is measured by the size of each state's _______. A) Gross Domestic Product B) net Worth C) population D) number of voters E) number of immigrants Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 8. The total number of Electoral College delegates is equal to the number of total _______. A) U.S. senators B) U.S. House of Representatives C) U.S. senators plus representatives D) U.S. citizens of voting age E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 9. Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) New Federalism and the Republican administrations of Presidents Nixon B) New Federalism and the Republican administration of President Reagan C) A reduction in national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Franklin Roosevelt in the New Deal D) An explosion of national policy initiatives in the Democratic administration of Lyndon Johnson in the Great Society E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 10. President George W. Bush's administration was a strong advocate of state self-reliance during crisis as well as the scaling back of federal environmental regulations. This is an example of what kind of policy? A) New Federalism B) Dual Federalism C) Marble Cake Federalism D) Home Rule E) Electoral College Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 11. The first time the elastic clause was specifically interpreted was in _______. A) The Constitution B) McCulloch v. Maryland C) Marbury v. Madision D) The Articles of Confederation Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 12. The reserve powers ratified in a 1791 amendment to the U.S. Constitution refer to which of the following? A) Powers not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution B) Powers not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution C) Rights not specifically permitted to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution D) Rights not specifically prohibited to the states and not delegated to the national government by the constitution E) The Bill of Rights Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 13. The reserve powers of the states come from the _______. A) president B) Tenth Amendment C) Eighteenth Amendment D) elastic clause Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 14. Originally, the Bill of Rights restrained which of the following? A) Only the powers of the courts B) Only state and local governments C) All governments in the United States D) Only the national government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 15. What was the Fourteenth Amendment used to do? A) Promote defense policy primarily B) Apply Article I, Section 1 to local governments C) Apply the Bill of Rights to the states D) Overturn the Eleventh Amendment Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 16. According to the text, __________ "spells out what is valued and what is not, what must be maintained and what must be changed." A) the capitalist system B) the president C) the Constitution D) an ideology Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 17. The theory that states "gain their legitimacy from the consent of the governed and are formed primarily to protect the rights of individuals to life, liberty, and property" is called A) contact theory B) contract theory C) conflict theory D) condition theory E) constitution theory Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 18. The ideologies of ______ and _________ are considered radical, because they challenge much of the existing social and political order. A) democratic socialism, libertarianism B) conservatism, liberalism C) conservatism, progressivism D) neoconservatism, liberalism E) populism, liberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 19. Classical liberalism believed which of the following? A) The government that governed least governed best. B) The government that governed most governed best. C) Absolute government control was necessary. D) Socialism was the ideal form of government. E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 20. Like Thomas Jefferson, Andrew Jackson believed that liberty was the absence of government interference with the rights of all citizens to enjoy the fruits of their labor and prosperity. This is an example of which of the following? A) Democratic socialism B) Classical liberalism C) Conservatism D) Neoconservatism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 21. All EXCEPT which of the following are considered milestones in American Conservatism? A) Warren Harding was elected president, marking the beginning of a new era of conservative dominance lasting until 1932. B) The National Review was founded, marking the beginning of the intellectual revitalization of post-World War II conservatism. C) President Lyndon Johnson successfully pushed his Great Society programs through Congress. D) President Ronald Reagan began his program of tax reductions, domestic spending cuts, and defense buildup E) George W. Bush and Dick Cheney won the electoral vote and embarked on an agenda of tax cuts, defense spending, and environmental deregulation. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 22. Liberals champion a humanistic and nonmilitary approach to _______. A) the war on drugs B) foreign policy C) defense policy D) docial policy E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 23. Frank is an avid supporter of government programs that ease the problems of industrialization such as worker's compensation. Frank's political ideology is most in line with _______. A) Progressivism B) Conservatism C) Libertarianism D) Democratic Socialism E) Social Darwinism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 24. Reflections on the Revolution in France (1790) by Edmund Burke is considered the first major statement of _______. A) Conservatism B) Liberalism C) The New Right D) Neoliberalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 25. Laissez-faire economics is a view that government should do which of the following? A) Not interfere in the workings of the economy B) Interfere in the workings of the economy C) Strictly regulate business D) Promote social welfare Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 26. _______ is a combination of the views, attitudes, and ideas held by individuals in a community. A) Majority viewpoint B) Public opinion C) Majority stability D) Underlying values Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 27. Public opinion that fluctuates in response to social, political, and economic events is _______. A) intense B) constant C) casual preference D) dynamic Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 28. The majority of Americans are which of the following? A) Not very proud of their country B) Not very attached to national symbols C) Either very or extremely proud of their country D) Less proud of their country than people in other nations are of theirs Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 29. Which of the following is NOT a basic value of democracy? A) Equality B) Christianity C) Freedom D) Consent of the governed Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 30. According to the text, perhaps the most important matter on which Americans differ is ______. A) industrialization B) urbanization C) political ideology D) regionalism Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 31. The role of groups is emphasized in the concept of America as what type of democracy? A) Group intensive democracy B) Elitist democracy C) Pluralist democracy D) Liberal democracy Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 32. The size of an interest group is the most important factor in determining what? A) Ideology B) Effectiveness C) Support of candidates for public office D) Closeness to the mainstream of American politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 33. Many interest groups try to create public support or sympathy for their political goals. What is the major channel for this support? A) Word-of-mouth B) Political action committees C) The mass media D) High-tech lobbying of Congress Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 34. How has direct mail been used in recent years by interest groups? A) To discredit the government B) To elect opinion leaders C) To solicit financial contributions D) To form political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 35. The Federal Election Act of 1974 caused political action committees to do what? A) Proliferate B) Become less prominent C) Decrease greatly in number D) Become less involved in politics Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 36. Political parties and interest groups are alike in that their members do which of the following? A) Select candidates to run for public office B) Share common political views or objectives C) Seek to gain control of the government D) Focus on a wide range of issues Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 37. A caucus is which of the following? A) A meeting of members of a political party or the members of a party in a legislature B) A process of selecting delegates to the national conventions, which nominate presidential candidates C) The seventh party system D) Both A and B E) Both A and C Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 38. Political machines are political organizations that do which of the following? A) Recruit and control their membership through the use of governmental authority to bestow benefits on supporters and withhold them from opponents B) Run the voting machines citizens use to vote on election day C) Run the voting machines that tally the votes on election day D) Guide political party organizations on an ongoing basis E) None of the above Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 39. Political candidates and parties often conjure up broad statements of their philosophies and programs under which they will run for election. These are called a party or candidate ______. A) transform B) chloroform C) platform D) platitude E) latitude Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 40. What is the quadrennial meeting of an American political party that focused on the upcoming presidential election called? A) National meeting B) National convention C) American convention D) Conventional politics E) Party election Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 41. Many observers see party resurgence in which context? A) Only in the formal party organization B) Only in the party in the electorate C) Only in the party in government D) In the party organization, the party in the electorate, and, to some extent, the party in government Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 42. Personal campaign organizations, single-issue interest groups, and the rise of the public welfare system are some of the reasons for which of the following? A) Party balance B) Party organizations C) Party decline D) The party in government component of political parties Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 43. Ultimate authority within party organizations in the United States is vested in _______. A) the national level B) the state level C) both the national and state levels D) the Constitution Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): A Correct 44. A_______ election is when the victor must receive more than half of all the votes? A) proportional B) plurality C) majority D) deviating Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 45. Plurality or majority elections, rather than proportional representation, help explain why the United States has a _______. A) multiparty system B) two-party system C) unitary party system D) proportional representation system Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Correct 46. All except which of the following are reform proposals for electoral mechanics? A) A one-day national primary B) A series of regional primaries C) Removing the legal obligation that now requires electors to be faithful D) A direct popular election of presidents Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Incorrect 47. Which of the following is true of presidential popularity? A) It did not affect congressional elections when Reagan ran in 1980, but it did when George Bush ran in 1988. B) It typically means little or nothing in midterm congressional elections. C) It was first referred to as "coattails" by then Congressman Abraham Lincoln. D) It had sagged so far that Bush lost a lot of Republican congressional support in the midterm elections of 1990. Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): C Correct 48. The polls of voters taken as they leave polling places, usually conducted by the media to get an advance indication of voting trends and facilitate analysis of the reasons behind the outcome of the election, are called _______. A) retreat polls B) exit polls C) entrance polls D) general polls E) primary polls Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B Incorrect 49. The ________ elections purpose is to choose the candidates who will hold public office and ___________ the primary election. A) primary; precedes B) primary; follows C) general; precedes D) general; follows E) special; follows Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 0.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): D Correct 50. What are the two social characteristics with the strongest relation to voting? A) Age and income B) Age and education C) Income and education D) Gender and income E) Race and income Table for Individual Question Feedback Points Earned: 2.0/2.0 Correct Answer(s): B

The steps taken in Congress for a bill to become a law.

1. Have an Idea. 2. Write a Bill. 3. Debate in Committee 4. Debate on the Senate Floor 5. Work with House Colleagues 6. Negotiate Compromises in Conference 7. Send it to the President for a signature 8. Reauthorization

Congressional Budget Office

Advises Congress on the probable consequences of its decisions, forecasts revenues, and is a counterweight to the president's Office of Management and Budget.

How the Founders dealt with the slavery issue, especially in regards to the representation of slaves in the House?

Although many of the Founding Fathers acknowledged that slavery violated the core American Revolutionary ideal of liberty, their simultaneous commitment to private property rights, principles of limited government, and intersectional harmony prevented them from making a bold move against slavery

Office of Management and Budget

An office that prepares the president's budget and also advises presidents on proposals from departments and agencies and helps review their proposed regulations.

Contrast the difference between block grants and categorical grants.

Categorical Grants - federal funds to states for a specific purpose - offer more power to federal gov't Block Grants - offer more flexibility - offer more power to states - federal funds to states for a general policy purpose

Why does the federal gov't impose regulations on money given to state gov'ts?

Federal regulations ensure that states use their money in a responsible manner.

3a)Compare the positions of Federalists and Anti-Federalists regarding the power of the national government.

Federalists believe that the national government should be large with a lot of power, whereas the Anti-federalists believe that the national government should be small, with more power given to the states.

Chief Executive

The role of head of the executive branch of the government. -constitutionally bound to enforce the acts of Congress, the judgements of federal courts, and treaties signed by the United States -Appointment Power: president can appoint a government office or position in the executive branch, the federal judiciary, the armed forces, and members of the independent regulatory commissions. -Article II, Section 2: President has the power to grant reprieves and pardons (postponements or releases) for offences against the United States except in cases of impeachment.

What can the House do that the Senate cant?

Start a revenue bill

What is the interstate commerce clause and why is it important?

States that the federal government regulates international, interstate, and tribal relations.

Commander in Chief

The role as supreme commander of the military forces of the United States and of the state National Guard units when they are called into Federal Service. *War Powers Resolution: A law passed in 1873 spelling out the conditions under which the president can commit troops without congressional approval. -once sent, president must report to Congress within 48 hours

What are the 13th, 14th, 15th, 16th, 17th and 19th amendments.

Thirteenth: Outlawed slavery Fourteenth: Defines a naturalised citizen Fifteenth: Men of all races can vote Sixteenth: Income tax Seventeenth: The Senate has two members from each state Nineteenth: Women can vote

The aims and concerns of the Founders in writing the Constitution (best explained in the Darris article).

To gain more federal rights

T/F: According to Article VI of the Constitution, when state laws and federal laws are in conflict, the federal law will likely be favored over the state law.

True

T/F: In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court ruled in favor of expanded powers for the federal gov't.

True

T/F: Welfare is an example of a redistributive policy.

True

Filibuster (Senate)

can be stopped by a Senate closure rule

What type of grant from the federal gov't to states and localities comes with a condition that the expenditure be limited to a specific problem?

categorical

How the president is elected

electoral college

Foreign policy, such as issues of declaring war, is primarily conducted at ______ level. The only level of gov't not mentioned in the Constitution is the _____ level.

federal; local

Pokemon

gotta catch'm all

Terms of office for members of the House and Senate

members of the House are elected every two years, whereas senators are elected for six-year terms

In a unitary system, all laws and decisions are made by the _____ gov't. In a federal system, such as the one we have in the United States, powers are divided between the _____ and national gov'ts.

national; state

In cases such as McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden, the early Supreme Court tended to favor the _______ gov't(s). This changed in the mid-1800s, and from then until the 1930s the Supreme Court tended to favor the _____ gov't(s).

national; state

Supremacy Article

part of the Constitution declaring federal laws to have authority over state laws in the event there is a conflict between laws established by two governing bodies.

What is the source of local gov't's authority?

State gov't give local gov'ts authority.

When can the Vice President vote in the Senate?

When there is a tie

What is the elastic clause and why is it important?

"to make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this constitution in the government of the United States or in any Department or Officer thereof."

What powers does the Constitution grant the federal gov't?

1) Can coin money 2) The federal gov't can create any law it needs to carry out its expressed powers. 3) Can regulate interstate commerce.

What steps has the gov't taken to reduce the burden of unfunded mandates?

1) Congress is required to find funding for unfunded mandates that exceed the maximum amount set by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act. 2) The Congressional Budget Office must assess the cost of any particularly expensive unfunded mandates.

What is true about the balance between state and federal power today?

1) Conservatives are willing to increase federal power just as liberals are willing to expand state autonomy. 2) The Supreme Court often must intervene to resolve balance-of-power issues between the states and federal gov't.

Categorical grant, block grant, revenue sharing?

3 types of federal aid

What is the Bill of Rights?

First 10 amendments to the Constitution

What is the OMB?

Office of Management and Budget

The three things are the sole powers of the Senate and the two sole powers of the House.

1. senate must approve all treaties and presidential appointment 2. the Senate conducts the impeachment trial- commonly referred to as impeachment and removal. The Senate has the power to determine if the person is guilty 3. if there is no winner in the electoral college, the Senate picks the vice president. 1. The ability to impeach 2. To create revenue bills

The three things that are sole powers of the Senate and the two sole powers of the House

1. senate must approve all treaties and presidential appointment 2. the Senate conducts the impeachment trial- commonly referred to as impeachment and removal. The Senate has the power to determine if the person is guilty 3. if there is no winner in the electoral college, the Senate picks the vice president. 1. The ability to impeach 2. To create revenue bills

Which amendment to the Constitution is most frequently cited to bolster arguments in favor of states' rights?

10th

When did the US have a system of dual federalism?

1789-1937

What is the process to amend the Constitution?

2/3 of Congress must vote to propose an amendment. Then 3/4 of the states must ratify (approve) the amendment.

What and who do a House member and a Senator represent?

A House member represents a portion of a state, whereas a Senator represents the state as a whole.

2a) Define direct democracy.

A direct democracy is the "rule by the many", where everyone directly votes.

2b)Define republican form of government.

A republican form of government is where leaders are elected by the people, and are given the authority to represent their people in a vote.

T/F: States prefer regulated federalism to block grants.

False

the main constitutional role assigned to Congress.

Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution grants the U.S. Congress 17 specifically "enumerated" powers, along with unspecified "implied" powers considered "necessary and proper" to carry out the enumerated powers. Congress also assumes additional lawmaking powers through the "Commerce Clause" of Article I, Section 8, which grants Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce—business activities "among the states." Under the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution, all powers not granted to Congress are reserved for the states or the people.

T/F: Police powers rest with the federal gov't.

False; State maintains police powers.

T/F: States prefer categorial grants to block grants.

False; States prefer block grants.

4c) Explain how each of the following has played a role in the devolution of power from the national government to the states. Block grants Supreme Court decisions

Block grants have played a role in the devolution of power from national to state government by giving the states more freedom with what they use grants for. A block grant is a combination of several categorical grants with less restrictions from the federal government. Due to this lack of restrictions, states can use these grants for a broader amount of projects, with less "strings attached", or conditions of aid from the federal government. This allows states to use the money from grants for something that they want, without having to meet many conditions of aid. Supreme Court decisions have also played a role in the devolution of power from national to state governments by ruling in favor of states rights. One example of a court case that gave power back to a state was US v. Lopez. In this case, the Supreme Court decided that Lopez's possession of a gun on school property had nothing to do with interstate commerce, and therefore did not fall under the commerce clause. Because of this, the Gun-Free School Zones act was unconstitutional because the federal government did not have the right to regulate where people had guns in their possession.

1b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. • Categorical grants • Federal mandates • Selective incorporation

Categorical grants and federal mandates have increased the power of the federal government relative to the states by allowing the federal government to make states do what they want them to. Categorical grants are given to states for a certain purpose, but they have strings attached to them. If a state does not want to meet the requirements for the grant, they will not receive the money from the federal government. This gives the states an incentive to do what the federal government wants them to do. Federal mandates are terms that are set by the government that states must meet, whether or not there is funding provided to states to help them meet these terms. These mandates also allow the federal government to have states do what they want. An example of an unfunded federal mandate is the Americans with Disabilities Act, which required all buildings to be handicap accessible.

What is the main constitutional role assigned to Congress?

Congress's main job is to write legislation that will govern the United States.

Interstate Commerce clause

Constitutional clause that gives Congress the right to regulate interstate commerce. This clause has been broadly interpreted to give Congress a number of implied powers.

What is an example of general revenue sharing?

Every year the federal gov't provides $200 million in funding to a city, which no strings attached.

Although recognition of same-sex marriages was slowly spreading throughout the country, several states refused to recognize same-sex marriages granted in other states. This potentially violated which clause of the Constitution?

Full Faith and Credit

Which part of the Constitution ensures that an adoption that occurs in Florida is still valid in Tennessee?

Full Faith and Credit Clause

Part of the New York state constitution specifies that the state legislature cannot pass laws that affect New York City without first getting the city's approval. What concept is this an example of?

Home Rule

Unitary, confederation, and federal systems of government.

In a unitary country, all power and sovereignty belong to the national government, which might, however, delegate some powers to the geographical units (but has the authority to take this power back at any time) In a federal country (federation), the power and sovereignty are constitutionally divided between the national (federal) government and geographical units. In a confederal country (confederation or confederacy), the power and sovereignty belong mostly to the geographical units, which, however, delegated some limited powers to the national (confederal) government.

5b) Explain how ONE of the following court rulings changed the balance of power between the national government and state governments. • United States v. Lopez • Obergefell v. Hodges

Obergefell v. Hodges gave power to the national government. In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that not recognizing same-sex marriage was unconstitutional, as it went against the fourteenth amendment. Rather than allowing states to choose whether or not they would recognize same-sex marriage, the federal government now made it a law to recognize it nationally. This gave power to the federal government, and took away power from state governments as the states now had no choice but to recognize this law.

5c) Describe TWO advantages of federalism for the creation of public policy in the United States.

One advantage of federalism for the creation of public policy in the United States is that the federal and state governments share power. Because of this shared power, the federal government is able to focus on national issues that affect everyone. The state governments can focus on local issues. This allows both forms of government to represent their people and focus on the issues that matter most to them. Another advantage of federalism is that it allows different states to make different laws that suit them best. Rather than having the federal government pass a law that is the same for all states, state governments are able to tweak the laws so they better fit their needs.

2c)Describe one reason the framers of the United States Constitution chose a republican form of government over a direct democracy.

One reason the framers of the US Constitution chose a republican form of government over a direct democracy is because the average American is uneducated about a vote, and is also easily manipulated. The average US citizen has little incentive to be informed about legal issues, whereas a politician has a great incentive to be informed and make good choices, as they are competing with others for a popular vote. For this reason, having a representative government is a smarter choice. Also, due to their lack of education about the government, the average American could potentially be easily manipulated by a demagogue.

How is power distributed in the US federal system?

Powers are divided between the national and state gov'ts.

If a state gave its residents preference in obtaining work at the state's utility provider, this would likely violate which of the following Constitutional clauses?

Privileges and Immunities

What and who a House member and a Senator represent?

Representatives: Must be at least 25 years old. Must be citizens for at least seven years. Are elected to a two-year term. Must be residents of the states they represent. Senate: 6 years. Here there is a continuous body idea. Only 1/3 of the senate seats are elected every two years. So only 34 or 33 senators are up for election at one time.

What political party most favors devolution?

Republican

Process to amend the Constitution

Require 2/3rd vote in both houses of congress and ratification from 3/4th of the states

Senate Majority Leader, Speaker of the House

Richard "Dick" Cheney and Nancy Pelosi

3d) Explain how one of the following clauses of the Fourteenth Amendment has altered the balance of power between the state and national governments. Due process clause Equal protection clause

The Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment has altered the balance of power between state and national governments by requiring states to follow and enforce this clause, and giving the federal government the authority to enforce the law within a state. The Equal Protection Clause stops discrimination against people. After the ruling to end segregation in schools in Brown v. Board of Education, President Eisenhower sent troops into Little Rock, Arkansas to enforce this law. This showed that the Federal Government was willing to enforce equality. Also, this showed that segregation and discrimination were no longer an option for states to choose, and the Federal Government had more power.

3c) Explain how each of the following additions to the Constitution addressed Anti-Federalist concerns. First Amendment Tenth Amendment

The First Amendment addressed Anti-Federalist concerns by protecting the liberties of individuals. This amendment protects people's freedoms of speech, religion, press, and assembly. The First Amendment addresses Anti-Federalists concerns of the federal government being able to create any law they want because of the necessary and proper clause, as expressed in Brutus 1. The Tenth Amendment addressed Anti-Federalist concerns because it gives rights that are not given to the federal government in the constitution to the states. This addressed another statement that was made in Brutus 1, concerned with the federal government becoming all powerful because of the supremacy clause.

Major presidential powers

The Power To Make Laws The Power To Create Executive Orders The Power To Grant Pardons The Power of Commander in Chief The Power To Conduct Foreign Affairs The Power To Nominate Leading Officials The Power as a Party Leader The President of the United States Does Not Have Absolute Power

What is veto power?

The President can veto legislation that has passed through all other levels of Congress. However, the veto can be overridden by Congress.

What can the Senate do that the House can't?

The Senate confirms appointees

Which office leads the House? Who, if anyone, is the Senate leader?

The Speaker of the House and the Senate Majority Leader

5a) Describe EACH of the following constitutional provisions. • Supremacy clause • Tenth Amendment

The Supremacy Clause states that the laws and treaties made by the federal government government under the constitution are the supreme laws of the land that must be upheld by the states. The Tenth Amendment gives rights that are not given to the federal government in the Constitution to the states.

In 1937, the Supreme Court made a series of significant decisions addressing federalism. How did these decisions influence the course of federalism in the United States?

The Supreme Court upheld acts of Congress that increased the power of the federal gov't.

1(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government. • Welfare Reform Act of 1996 • Block grants • Tenth Amendment

The Welfare Reform Act of 1996 and the Tenth Amendment have been used to increase the power of states by giving states more freedom and authority. The Welfare Reform Act of 1996 allowed state governments to have more freedom with their welfare programs, and to create welfare programs that fit the needs of people in their state. This created Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), which caused the states to pay more, and also gave them more freedom with their welfare systems. The Tenth Amendment says that any rights not given to the Federal Government in the Constitution are reserved to the states. This amendment has been used in court cases, such as Printz v. US to give power back to state governments. In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that the federal government does not have the power to have state CLEOs fulfill federal duties. This ruling upheld that state governments are not subject to federal direction.

Which parts of the Constitution led the Supreme Court to support the expansion of national powers after 1937?

The commerce clause & the necessary and proper clause

4b) Explain how each of the following has been used to expand the power of the federal government over the states. • Commerce clause • Mandates

The commerce clause has been used to expand the federal government's through numerous supreme court rulings. In supreme court cases, many times the federal government uses the commerce clause to explain why they should have jurisdiction over a matter concerning a state. An example of the commerce clause being used in favor of the courts is the Heart of Atlanta Motel v. US. In this case, the court ruled that the hotel could not discriminate against guests because it affected interstate commerce, which the federal government has power over. Because of this, the federal government had the right to tell the state of Georgia that they were not allowed to discriminate against people. Mandates have been used to expand the power of the federal government because they require state governments to do what the federal government wants. Mandates are terms that are set by the federal government that states must meet, whether or not the federal government provides funding. This allows the federal government to impose some costs on states, to keep their spending somewhat lower. So, the federal government is able to get what they want done with less spending on their part.

What is an example of preemption?

The federal gov't raises accessibility standards for the disabled. Any state with less stringent standards than the federal minimum must raise them.

Head of State

The role as ceremonial head of the government

6) Develop an argument that explains which of the three models of representative democracy—participatory, pluralist, or elite—best achieves the founders' intent for American democracy in terms of ensuring a stable government run by the people.

The model of representative democracy that best achieves the founder' intent for American democracy is the pluralist view because it allows for many interest groups to be represented, and it allows for the consent of the people to be used to give the government power.In Federalist No. 10, the argument is made that a large republic with many differing views is better because majority factions and demagogues can be avoided. In a Pluralist Government, different interest groups are able to be represented, which will avoid factions. In the US Constitution, it is stated that any rights not given to the federal government in the Constitution are given to the states. A pluralist form of government allows political resources to be shared and one single form of government cannot become dominate. Because of this, power must be shared between the federal and state governments like the founders' hoped. In Federalist 51 it is argued that the government receives its power from the consent of the governed, as well as from itself. A pluralist form of government would support this argument as the most important issues are represented by government officials. Also, since different forms of government have to share political resources, the different forms have to get power from each other.

Specific constitutional powers of the President

The power to call state units of the National Guard into service (in times of emergency, he/she may be given the power by Congress to manage national security or the economy.) The power to make treaties with Senate approval. He or she can also receive ambassadors and work with leaders of other nations. The power to nominate the heads of governmental departments, judges to federal courts and justices to the United States Supreme Court. The Senate must then approve all nominations. The power to issue pardons for federal offences. The power to convene Congress for special sessions. The power to veto legislation approved by Congress. However, the veto is limited. It is not a line-item veto, meaning that he or she cannot veto only specific parts of legislation, and a two-thirds vote can override it by Congress

Chief Legislator

The role of the president in influencing the making of laws -creates congressional agenda (through annual State of Union message, which proposes a legislative program) -persuasive tactics to pass legislation (writes to, telephones, and meets with various congressional leaders; makes public announcements to influence public opinion) *Bully Pulpit: A way for the president to influence the public opinion without being noticed as doing so. -vetoing bills (can be overturned by Congress by 2/3rds roll-call vote from members present in both chambers)

Chief Diplomat

The role of the president in recognizing foreign governments, making treaties (with advice and consent from Senate. 2/3rds vote for ratification), and effecting executive agreements. -the president dominates American foreign policy -nominates ambassadors -diplomatic recognition: power to recognize a foreign government as legitimate -engage in executive agreements between the president and other heads of state

What is an example of states properly exercising their reserved powers?

The state of California requires lawyers to obtain particular credentials before they can practice law.

3b)Describe two features of the original Constitution that have led to a growth in the power of the national government.

Two features of the original Constitution that have led to a growth in the power of the national government are the elastic clause and the commerce clause. The elastic/ necessary and proper clause has been used many times to give power to the federal government. One example of the elastic clause being used is in McCulloch v. Maryland. In this case, it became apparent that the federal government could stretch Article 1, Section 8 to get a court ruling in their favor. The commerce clause has also been used many times in favor of the federal government in Supreme Court Cases, giving the federal government more power in interstate commerce. An example of a case where the commerce clause was used in favor of the federal government was in Wickard v. Filburn. The court ruled that the federal government can use the power given to it by the commerce clause to regulate activities that have an effect on the economy.

4a) Compare state sovereignty under the Articles of Confederation and under the Constitution.

Under the Articles of Confederation, the states had sovereignty, whereas under the Constitution, the states and federal government shared sovereignty.

The central gov't in France has considerable control over what the regional gov'ts can and cannot do.The regional gov'ts have little independent authority. France is a much more centralized system than is found in the United States. France is an example of what kind of division of power between central and regional gov'ts?

Unitary

The President's term of office

Up to two four year terms

The President's term of office

Up to two terms of four years

When can the Vice President vote in Congress?

When there is a tie

in general on what does the first three articles of the Constitution deal.

article 1 establishes the first of the three branches of the government, the Legislature. Section1 establishes the name of the Legislature to be The Congress, a bicameral, or two-part, body. Article 2 establishes the second of the three branches of government, the Executive. Section1 establishes the office of the President and the Vice-President, and sets their terms to be four years. Article 3 establishes the last of the three branches of government, the Judiciary. Section 1 establishes the Supreme Court, the highest court in the United States. It also sets the terms of judges, of both the Supreme Court and lower courts: that they serve as long as they are on "good behaviour," which usually means for life (no Justice and only a few judges have ever been impeached). It also requires that judges shall be paid.


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